[ } ] Listening Comprehension

This section tests your ability to comprehend spoken English. I t is divided into three parts,
each with its own directions. You are not permitted to tum the page during the reading of the
directions or to take notes at any time.

Part A

lllb Directions: Each item in this part consists of a brief conversation involving two speakers.
Following each conversation, a third voice will ask a question. You will hear the conversations and
) questions only once, and they will not be written out.
When you have heard each conversation and question, read the four answer choices and select
the o n e - ( A ) , (B ), (C), or ( D ) - t h a t best answers the question based on what is directly stated or
on what can be inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the
answer that you have selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:

Sample Answer

You will read: (A) Open the window.

(B) Move the chair.
(C) Leave the room.
(D) Take a seat.

From the conversation you find out that the woman thinks the man should put the chair over by
the window. The best answer to the question, "What does the woman think the man should do?"
is (B), "Move the chair." You should fill in (B ) on your answer sheet.
 [I][I][I][I][I][I][I][I][I]
[I][I][I]
1. (A) She doesn't have an appointment. 8. (A) He was too busy to take it.
(B) Her problem is complicated. (B) He did well on it.
(C) She must live somewhere else. (C) He left some questions unanswered
( D ) Her apartment isn't far away. on it.
(D) He took it two times.
2. (A) She can use his phone i f she wants.
(B ) There's no charge for phone calls. 9. (A) Breaking the glass.
(C) His phone is out of order too. (B ) Warming the lid.
(D) She can call him later i f she likes. (C) Hitting the lid.
(D) Filling the jar.
3. (A) He couldn't find it.
(B) I t was too hard to solve. 10. (A) I t was too expensive.
(C) I t was simpler than he'd thought. (B) She bought it at the shop next
(D) He solved it even though it was door.
hard. (C) I t was given to her as a gift.
(D) She paid very little for it.
4. (A) He cleaned up after cooking.
(B) He forgot to put the pots and pans 11. (A) She doesn't want to discuss the
away. traffic.
(C) He was out in a terrible storm. (B) She didn't have to go downtown
(D) He put some plants in the kitchen. today.
(C) She was in the traffic herself.
5. (A) He studied forestry in school.
(D) She thinks the traffic was better
(B ) He worked in a forest.
today.
(E) He read a lot of books about trees.
(F) His father taught him. 12. (A) The classes aren't interesting.
(B) Classes have been canceled.
6. (A) How many pages he must
(C) The weather is pleasant.
write.
(D) I t isn't very sunny today.
(B) What Professor Barclay discussed.
(C) How long the class lasted. 13. (A) Gary doesn't need a a udi o player.
(D) When the paper is due. (B) She wants her audio player back.
(C) She's glad Gary is finally here.
7. (A) She doesn't like any music
(D) Gary can keep her au di o player.
except classical.
(B) There is some classical music she 14. (A) Stay inside and read it.
doesn't like. (B) Look in it for advertisements for
(C) She likes classical music, but she can't umbrellas.
play it. (C) Cover her head with it.
(D) Classical music doesn't interest her at (D) Throw it away.
all.
15. (A) She originally supported
Margaret.
(B) She can no longer support Ed.
(C) Ed has dropped out of the race.
(D) She's not interested in the
election.

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[I] [I][I][I][I][I][I] [I] [I][I]
[I][I]
16. (A) She and her brother painted 24. (A) To improve his game quickly.
the apartment. (B) To take more lessons.
(B) Her brother owes her some (C) To train with a professional.
money. (D) To teach people to play
(C) Her brother painted the apartment tennis.
by himself.
25. (A) Wrap the present.
(D) She painted her brother's apartment.
(B) Play a game.
17. (A) Give him a map. (C) Point out a problem.
(B) Cut his hair for him. (D) End the discussion.
(C) Drive him to the lake.
26. (A) He wants to buy some books.
(D) Show him another route.
(B) Two of the books are the
18. (A) Hanging it. same.
(B) Buying it. (C) He needs some matches.
(C) Painting it. (D) The couple is a good match.
(D) Framing it.
27. (A) Neither street goes downtown.
19. (A) Borrow Stephanie's computer. (B) California Street is better than Oak
(B) Buy her own computer. Street.
(C) Save some money. (C) There's not enough time to go
(D) Stay home and complete her downtown.
assignment. (D) He can take either
street.
20. (A) He doesn't need to practice
anymore. 28. (A) I t was hard to hear.
(B) His team has won a lot of (B ) I t wasn't true.
games. (E) I t was surprising.
(C) He doesn't want to play (F) I t wasn't very
volleyball. interesting.
(D) His.team needs to improve.
29. (A) The handle on the
21. (A) She seems to be feeling suitcase is broken.
better. (B) His hands are
(B) She has quite an already full.
imagination. (C) The luggage is too
(C) She takes beautiful pictures. heavy for him.
(D) She's too sick to go out. (D) He'll be happy to
help.
22. (A) Lou has been here once
before. 30. (A) She had to prepare
(B) They'll start when Lou for an exam.
arrives. (B) She'd passed the
(C) Lou has already started. physics test.
(D) Everyone is getting hungry. (C) She was going
camping.
23. (A) She thinks they're
(D) She'd dropped the
reasonably priced.
physics class.
(B) She doesn't like them at all.
(C) She'd buy them if she had enough
money.
(D) She doesn't need them, but she still
m.1.1;1t.11n:anw•twt-·
likes them.
 ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ
ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ
Part B
Directions: This part of the test consists of extended conversations between two speakers. After
each of these conversations, there are a number of questions. You will hear each conversation and
question only once, and the questions are not written out.
When you have heard the questions, read the four answer choices and select the o n e - ( A ) ,
(B), (C ), or ( D ) - t h a t best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what can
be inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that
you have selected.
Don't forget: During actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not permitted.
ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ
ITJ ITJ
31. (A) They are both studying 35. (A) At a university.
social anthropology. (B) At a television station.
(B ) Both of them are going to the museum (C) At a newspaper office.
on Saturday. (D) At a hospital.
(C) They both have the same teacher.
36. (A) He needs a well-paying position.
(D) Both of them have studied
(B) He was told to by a professor.
anthropology before.
(C) He wants the experience.
32. (A) In the morning. ( D ) He recently lost another job.
(B) In the afternoon.
37. (A) Drama.
(C) In the evening.
(B) Journalism.
( D ) Only on Saturdays.
(E) Telecommunications.
33. (A) Relationships between parents (F) History.
and children.
38. (A) Talk to Ms. Wagner.
(B) The tools used by ancient people.
(B) Drop a class.
(C) Leadership in contemporary
(G) Change his major.
society.
(H) Complete a form.
(D) Marriage customs.
34. (A) He found it uninteresting.
(B) He found it useful.
(C) He found it fascinating.
(D) He found it difficult.

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 Section 1 • Listening Comprehension 419

ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ

ITJ ITJ ITJ ITJ
Part C

Directions: This part of the test consists of several talks, each given by a single speaker. After
each of these talks, there are a number of questions. You will hear each talk and question only
once, and the questions are n o t written out.
When you have heard each question, read the four answer choices and select the o n e -
( A ),
(B), (C), or ( D ) - t h a t best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what can be
inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you
have selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:

Now here is a sample question.

You will hear:
S
a
m
p
l
e

A
n
s
w
e
r

You will read: (A) Philosophy.

(B) Meteorology.
(C) Astronomy.
(D) Photography
You will read: (A) The
. Earth's shadow moves across the Moon
(B) Clouds block the view of the Moon.
The lecture concerns a(C) Theeclipse,
lunar Moon moves
a topicbetween thetypically
that would Earth andbethe Sun. in an astronomy
discussed
(D) The Sun can be observed without special equipment.
class. The choice that best answers the question, "In what course is this lecture probably being
given?" is (C), "Astronomy." You should fill in (C) on your answer sheet.
Here is an example.
You will hear:

S
a
m
p
l
e

A
[I] [I] [I] [}] [}] [}] [}] [}] [}] [}] [}] [}]
From the lecture you learn that a lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth moves between the Sun and
the Moon and the shadow of the Earth passes across the Moon. The choice that best answers the
question, "According to the speaker, which of the following occurs during a lunar eclipse?" is (A),
"The Earth's shadow moves across the Moon."
Don't forget: During actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not permitted.
 [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I] [I]

39. (A) A football game. 45. (A) As confusing.

(B ) Jet transportation. (B) As innovative.
(C) The H i n d e n b u r g disaster. (C) As amusing.
(D) Lighter-than-air craft. (D) As wasteful.
40. (A) Early twentieth century airships. 46. (A) To standardize daylight saving time.
(B) Blimps. (B) To establish year-round daylight saving
(E) Jet aircraft. time.
(F) Modern airships. (E) To abolish daylight saving time.
(F) To shorten daylight saving time.
41. (A) The age of zeppelins ended in disaster
there. 47. (A) A program the city is starting.
(B) I t was there that the first blimp was (B) The uses of recycled materials.
designed. (C) A proposed schedule.
(C) Helium was first substituted for ( D ) A recent newspaper article.
hydrogen there.
48. (A) Newspapers.
( D ) I t was there that the last zeppelin was
(B) Aluminum cans.
built.
(C) Plastic bottles.
42. (A) They would be safer. ( D ) Glass containers.
(B) They would use less fuel.
49. (A) The north.
(G) They would be faster.
(B) The east.
(H) They could fly higher.
(G) The south.
43. (A) The Uniform Time Act. (H) The central.
(B) The role of daylight saving time in
50. (A) Look in the local newspaper.
wartime.
(B) Keep listening to radio.
(I) Ways to save energy.
(I) Stop by the recycling center.
(J) The history of daylight saving
(J) Call the radio station.
time.
44. (A) In the spring.
(B) In the summer.
(C) In the fall.
( D ) In the winter.

nns IS THE END OF SECTION 1, LISTENING COMPREHENSION.

STOP WORK ON SECTION 1.

8 8 8 8 8 8
[filStructure and Written Expression
Time: 25 m i n u t e s
This section tests your ability to recognize grammar and usage suitable for standard written
English. This section is divided into two parts, each with its own directions.

Structure

Directions: Items in this part are incomplete sentences. Following each of these sentences, there
are four words or phrases. You should select the one word or phrase-(A), (B), (C ), or ( D ) - tha t
best completes the sentence. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of
the answer that you have selected.
Example/ Sample Answer

Pepsin an enzyme used

in digestion.
(A) that
(B) is
(C) of
(D) being
This sentence should properly read
"Pepsin is an enzyme used in digestion."
You should fill in (B )
E x a mp l e / / Sample Answer
on your answer sheet.
CD CD C D
large natural lakes are found
in the state of South Carolina.
(A) There are no
(B) Not the
(C) It is not
( D ) No

This sentence should properly read "No large natural lakes are found in the state of South
Carolina." You should fill in (D) on your answer sheet.
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this part.

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 eeeeeeeeeeee
1. team sports require cooperation. 7. A person of age may suffer
(A) Of all from defects of vision.
(B) They are all (A) every
(C) All (B) some
(D) Why are all (C) certain
(D) any
2. Anyone who has ever pulled weeds from a
garden roots firmly anchor 8. have settled, one of their first
plants to the soil. concerns has been to locate an adequate
(A) is well aware of water supply.
(B) is well aware that (E) Wherever people
(C) well aware (F) There are people who
(D) well aware that (C) Whether people
(D) People
3. Centuries of erosion have exposed
rock surfaces in the Painted 9. I f a bar magnet , the two
Desert of northern Arizona. is pieces form two complete magnets, each
(A) in colors of the rainbow with a north and south pole.
(B) colored like a rainbow (A) broken
(C) rainbow-colored (B) broke
(D) a rainbow's coloring (C) breaking
(D) break
4. The higher the temperature of a molecule,
10. The type of plant and animal life living in
(A) the more energy it has and around a pond depends on the soil of
(B) than it has more energy the pond, , and the pond's
(C) more energy has it location.
(D) it has more energy (A) what the quality of the water is
(B) how is the water quality
5. Frontier surgeon Ephraim MacDonald had to
(C) the quality of the water
perform operations anesthesia.
(D) what is the water quality
(A) no
(B) not having 11. Clifford Holland, civil
(C) without engineer, was in charge of the
(D) there wasn't construction of the first tunnel under the
Hudson River.
6. young, chimpanzees are easily
(A) he was a
trained.
(B ) a
(A) When are
(C) being a
(B ) When
(D) who, as a
(C) They are
(D) When they

w.1.1;1c.11;tj;t§3M@t-·
eeeeeeeeeeee
12. parrots are native to tropical 14. In 1775 Daniel Boone opened
regions is untrue. the Wilderness Trail and made the
(A) That all first settlements in Kentucky.
(B) All (A) possibly it was
(C) Why all (B ) as possible
(D) Since all (C) possible
(D) it possible
13. A major concern among archaeologists
today is the preservation of archaeological 15. Rarely seen far from
sites, are threatened by water.
development. (A) spotted turtles
(A) of which many (B ) spotted turtles are
(B ) many of them (C) have spotted turtles
(C) which many (D) are spotted turtles
(D) many of which

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 eeeeeeeeeeee
Written Expression

Directions: The items in this part have four underlined words or phrases, (A), (B), (C), and (D).
You must identify the one underlined expression that must be changed for the sentence to he
correct. Then find the number of the question on your answer sheet and fill in the space
corresponding to the letter.
Example I Sample Answer

Lenses may to have either concave or convex shapes.

A B C D

This sentence should read "Lenses may have either concave or convex shapes." You should
therefore select answer (A).

Example II Sample Answer

When painting a fresco, an artist is applied paint directly to the damp plaster of a
wall.
A B C D

This sentence should read "When painting a fresco, an artist applies paint directly to the damp
plaster of a wall." You should therefore select answer (B).
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this section.
16. Ceramics can be harder, light, and more resistant to heat than metals.
A B
C
D

17. Not everyone realizes that the most largest organ of the human body is the skin.
A B C D

18. Mold is extremely destruction to books in a library.

A B C D

A I l C D
19. Sidney Lanier achieved fame both as a poet or as a symphony
musician.
20. The horses used play polo are not of any special breed or of any definite size.
A B C
D

21. A tapestry consists of a foundation weave, called the warp, which across are passed different
A B
colored threads, called the weft, forming decorative patterns.
C D

22. The works of early American woodcarvers had many artistic

qualities, but these craftsmen
- - A - - B -

probably did not think of them as artists.

C - D -

23. Perhaps mankind's first important musical influence were the

songs of birds.
----;:-- B
-
C - A B - D - C

and control n a t u r e - t h e y are very

similar.
24. The techniques of science and magic are quite different, but
D
their basic a i m s - t o understand
25. I t was in a cave near Magdalena, New Mexico, when the oldest known ears of cultivated corn
A B c
were discovered.
[)

26. The fossil remains of much extinct mammals have been found in the tar pits at Rancho La Brea
A B C
in Los Angeles.
D

27. Sharks can detect minute electrical discharges coming from its prey.
A B c D

m.1.,;1t.11;u1n=t11pt-·
 f.) f.) f.) f.) f.) f.) f.) f.)
f.) f.) f.) f.)
28. A dark nebula consists of a cloud of interstellar dust enough dense to obscure the stars
A

C
beyond it.
D

30. Commercially
29. The various parts of the
honey body require
is heated so different
and filtered in order surgical skills
to stabilize that
and many ·surgical
cl arify
specialties AA BB c C - D - D

have developed.

31. One reason birds have been so successful is because of their able to escape from danger
A B C

quickly.
D

32. The wood of the rosewood tree is used to do fine musical

- - B - C
instruments.
A [)

33. Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics.
A B
c
D

34. Ballet performers must be believable actors and actresses as well as experts dancers.
A B C
D

35. Venus, the second planet from the Sun, is exactly almost the same size as the Earth.
A - B - C D

36. PT. Barnum opened his own circus in 1871 and become the most famous showman
of his
A B C

time.
[)

37. The way

a child
plays
with
other
children
reveals a
lots
about
the
@.1.1;1t.JjUjU§31!$t··
child's
emotion
al
A

-
B
-

C
f.) f.) f.) f.) f.) f.) f.) f.)
f.) f.) f.) f.)
39. Chemical compounds with barium, cobalt, and strontium are responsible to many of the vivid
- A - B c
colors in fireworks.
- D -

40. Duke University in North Carolina has an outstanding collecting of documents concerning
B

C
Southern history.
D

THIS IS THE END O F SECTION 2.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON SECTION 2 ONLY.

DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.

8 8 8 8 8 8
 R e a d i n g Comprehension
Time: 55 minutes
This section of the test measures your ability to comprehend written materials.
Directions: This section contains several passages, each followed by a number of questions. Read
the passages and, for each question, choose the one best answer- (A), (B), (C), or ( D ) -ba sed on
what is stated in the passage or on what can be inferred from the passage. Then fill in the space on
your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.

Read the following passage:

Like mammals, birds claim their own territories. A
bird's territory may be small or large. Some birds
claim only their nest and the area right around it,
(line) while others claim far larger territories that include
(5) their feeding areas. Gulls, penguins, and other waterfowl
nest in huge colonies, but even in the biggest colonies,
each male and his mate have small territories of their
own immediately around their nests.
Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other
(10) males of the same species. In some cases, a warning call
or threatening pose may be all the defense needed, but in
other cases, intruders may refuse to leave peacefully.
Example/ Sample Answer

What is the main topic of this passage?

(A) Birds that live in colonies
(B) Birds' mating habits
(C) The behavior of birds
(D) Territoriality in birds
The passage mainly concerns the territories of birds. You should fill in (D) on your answer sheet.
Example/I Sample Answer

According to the passage, male birds defend their

territory primarily against
(A) female birds
(B ) birds of other species
(C) males of their own species
(D) mammals
The passage states that "Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other males of the same
species." You should fill in (C) on your answer sheet.
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this section.
Questions 1 - 11

The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star. I t is fueled by

thermonuclear reactions near its center that convert hydrogen
to helium. The Sun has existed in its present state for about 4
(line) billion, 600 million years and is thousands of times larger than
(5) the Earth.
By studying other stars, astronomers can predict what
the rest
of the Sun's life will be like. About 5 billion years from now,
the core of the Sun will shrink and become hotter. The surface
(10) temperature will fall. The higher temperature of the center will
increase the rate of thermonuclear reactions. The outer regions of
the Sun will expand approximately 35 million miles, about the
distance to Mercury, which is the closest planet to the Sun. The
Sun will then be a red giant star. Temperatures on the Earth will
( 15) become too hot for life to exist.
Once the Sun has used up its thermonuclear energy as a red giant,
it will begin to shrink. After it shrinks to the size of the Earth,
it will become a white dwarf star. The Sun may throw off
huge amounts of gases in violent eruptions called nova
(20) explosions as it changes from a red giant to a white dwarf.
After billions of years as a white dwarf, the Sun will have used
up all its fuel and will have lost its heat. Such a star is called
a black dwarf. After the Sun has become a black dwarf, the Earth
will be dark and cold. I f any atmosphere remains there, it will
have frozen onto the Earth's surface.
1. What is the primary purpose of this passage?
(A) To alert people to the dangers posed by the Sun
(B) To discuss conditions on Earth in the far future
(C) To present a theory about red giant stars
(D) To describe changes that the Sun will go through
2. The word "fueled" in line 1 is closest in meaning to
(A) powered
(B) bombarded
(C) created
(D) propelled
3. The word "state" in line 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) shape
(B) condition
(C) location
(D) size

1§.i.]iit.ijiUIU@IU@t-·
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun
(A) is approximately halfway through its life as a yellow dwarf
(B) has been in existence for 10 billion years
(C) is rapidly changing in size and brightness
(D) will continue as a yellow dwarf for another 10 billion years
5. What will probably be the first stage of change as the Sun becomes a red giant?
(A) Its core will cool off and use less fuel.
(B) Its surface will become hotter and shrink.
(C) It will throw off huge amounts of gases.
(D) Its center will grow smaller and hotter.
6. W hen the Sun becomes a red giant, what will conditions be like on Earth?
(A) Its atmosphere will freeze and become solid.
(B) It will be enveloped in the expanding surface of the Sun.
(C) It will become too hot for life to exist.
(D) It will be nearly destroyed by nova explosions.
7. As a white dwarf, the Sun will be
(A) the same size as the planet Mercury
(B) thousands of times smaller than it is today
(C) around 35 million miles in diameter
(D) cold and dark
8. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the sequence of stages that
the Sun will probably pass through?
(A) Yellow dwarf, white dwarf, red giant, black giant
(B ) Red giant, white dwarf, red dwarf, nova explosion
(C) Yellow dwarf, red giant, white dwarf, black dwarf
(D) White dwarf, red giant, black dwarf, yellow dwarf
9. The phrase "throw off" in line 17 is closest in meaning to
(A) eject
(B ) burn u p
(C) convert
(D) let in
10. The word "there" in line 23 refers to
(A) our o w n planet
(B) the outer surface of the Sun
(C) the core of a black dwarf
(D) the planet Mercury
11. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
(A) Alarmed
(B) Pessimistic
(C) Comic
(D) Objective

ltj.1.1;1t.llU§IU§!
ii@t-·
1

Questions 1 2 - 2 3

I t is said that George Washington was one of the first to realize

how important the building of canals would be to the nation's
development. In fact, before he became President, he headed the
(line) first company in the United States to build a canal which was to
(5) connect the Ohio and Potomac rivers. I t was never completed, but
it showed the nation the feasibility of canals. As the country
expanded westward, settlers in western New York, Pennsylvania,
and
Ohio needed a means to ship goods. Canals linking natural
(10) waterways seemed to offer an effective solution.
In 1791 engineers commissioned by the state of New York
investigated the possibility of a canal between Albany on the
Hudson
Lakes River
area withand
theBuffalo
Atlanticonseacoast.
Lake Erie, which avoid
I t would wouldthe
link the
Great
mountains that served as a barrier to canals from the
(15) Delaware and Potomac rivers.
The first attempt to dig the canal, to be called the Erie Canal,
was made by private companies, but only a comparatively small
portion was built before the project was halted for lack of funds.
The cost of the project was an estimated five million dollars, an
(20) enormous amount for those days. There was some on-again-off-again
Federal funding, but the War of 1812 put an end to this. In 1817
DeWitt Clinton was elected Governor of New York and persuaded
the state to finance and build the canal. It was completed in 1825,
costing two million dollars more than expected.
(25) The canal rapidly lived up to its sponsors' faith, quickly paying
for itself through tolls. I t was far more economical than any other
form of transportation at the time. It permitted trade between
the Great Lake region and East Coast, robbing the Mississippi
River of much of its traffic. It allowed New York to supplant
(30) Boston, Philadelphia, and other Eastern cities as the chief center of
both
domestic and foreign commerce. Cities sprang up along the
canal. I t also contributed in a number of ways to the North's
victory over the South in the Civil War.
(35) An expansion of the canal was planned in 1849. Increased
traffic would undoubtedly have warranted its construction had it not
been
12. Why does the author most likely mention George Washington in the first paragraph?
for the development of the railroads.
(A) He was President at the time the Erie Canal was built.
(B) He was involved in pioneering efforts to build canals.
(C) He successfully opened the first canal in the United States.
(D) He commissioned engineers to study the possibility of building the Erie Canal.

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13. The word "feasibility" in line 6 is closest in meaning to
(A) profitability
(B) difficulty
(C) possibility
(D) capability
14. According to the passage, the Erie Canal connected the
(A) Potomac and Ohio rivers
(B) Hudson River and Lake Erie
(C) Delaware and Potomac rivers
(D) Atlantic Ocean and the Hudson River

15. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "comparatively" in line 17?
(A) Relatively
(B) Contrarily
(C) Incredibly
(D) Considerably
16. The phrase "on-again-off-again" in line 20 could be replaced by which of the following with the
least change in meaning?
(A) Intermittent
(B) Unsolicited
(C ) Ineffectual
(D) Gradual
17. The completion of the Erie Canal was financed by
(A) the state of New York
(B) private companies
(C) the federal government
(D) DeWitt Clinton
18. The actual cost of building the Erie Canal was
(A) five million dollars
(B) less than had been estimated
(C) seven million dollars
(D) more than could be repaid
19. The word "tolls" in line 26 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Jobs
(B) Grants
(C) Links
(D) Fees

w.1.1;1t.11n:a;r:t11uwt-·
1

20. Which of the following is NOT given in the fourth paragraph as an effect of the building of the
Erie Canal?
(A) It allowed the East Coast to trade with the Great Lakes area.
(B) It took water traffic away from the Mississippi River.
(C) I t helped determine the outcome of the Civil War.
(D) I t established Boston and Philadelphia as the most important centers of trade.
21. What can be inferred about railroads in 1849 from the information in the last paragraph?
(A) They were being planned but had not yet been built.
(B) They were seriously underdeveloped.
(C) They had begun to compete with the Erie Canal for traffic.
(D) They were weakened by the expansion of the canal.
22. The word "warranted" in line 35 is closest in meaning to
(A) guaranteed
(B) justified
(C) hastened
(D) prevented
23. At what point in the passage does the author focus on the beginning of construction of
the Erie Canal?
(A) Lines 3-5
(B) Lines 1 0 - 1 3
(C) Lines 1 6 - 1 8
(D) Lines 25 -26

Questions 24-33

It's a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree

sending out a distress signal. But a group of scientists has heard
the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are
(line) drawn to them like vultures to a dying animal.
(5) Researchers with the U.S. Department of Agriculture's
Forest Service fastened sensors to the bark of parched trees and
clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the scientists,
most drought-stricken trees transmit their plight in the 50- to 500-
kilohertz range. (The unaided human ear can detect no more
(10) than 20 kilohertz.) Red oak, maple, white pine, and birch all
make
slightly different sounds in the form of vibrations at the surface
of the wood.
The scientists think that the vibrations are created when the
(15) water columns inside tubes that run the length of the tree break,
a result of too little water flowing through them. These
fractured
columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because
some

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•
 insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the
trees' vibrations and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are
now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived of
(20) water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. "Water­
stressed trees also smell differently from other trees, and they
experience thermal changes, so insects could be responding to
something other than sound," one scientist said.
24. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
(A) The vibrations produced by insects
(B) The mission of the U.S. Forest Service
(C) The effect of insects on trees
(D) The sounds made by distressed trees
25. The word "them" in line 4 refers to
(A) trees
(B) scientists
(C) insects
(D) cries
26. The word "parched" in line 6 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Burned
(B) Dehydrated
(C) Recovered
(D) Fallen
27. The word "plight" in line 8 is closest in meaning to
(A) signal
(B) condition
(C) need
(D) agony
28. It can be inferred from the passage that the sounds produced by the trees
(A) serve as a form of communication with other trees
(B) are the same no matter what type of tree produces them
(C) cannot be heard by the unaided human ear
(D) fall into the 1 - 2 0 kilohertz range
29. The word "fractured" in line 15 is closest in meaning to
(A) long
(B) blocked
(C ) hollow
(D) broken
30. Which of the following could be considered a cause of the trees' distress signals?
(A) Torn roots
(B) Attacks by insects
(C) Experiments by scientists
(D) Lack of water

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31. In line 17, the phrase "pick up" could best be replaced by which of the following?
(A) Perceive
(B ) Lift
(C) Transmit
(D) Attack
32. All of the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened trees
EXCEPT
(A) thermal changes
(B) smells
(C) sounds
(D) changes in color
33. I t can be inferred that, at the time the passage was written, research concerning the distress
signals of trees
(A) had been conducted many years earlier
(B) had been unproductive up to then
(C) was continuing
(D) was no longer sponsored by the government

Questions 34-41

The concepts of analogy and homology are probably easier to

exemplify than to define. When different species are structurally
compared, certain features can be described as either analogous or
(line) homologous. For example, flight requires certain rigid aeronautical
(5) principles of design, yet birds, bats, and insects have all
conquered the air. The wings of all three types of animals derive
from different embryological structures, but they perform the same
functions. In this case, the flight organs of these creatures can
be said to be analogous. In contrast, features that arise from the
(10) same structures in the embryo but are used in different functions
are said to be homologous. The pectoral fins of a fish, the wings
of a bird, and the forelimbs of a mammal are all homologous
structures. They are genetically related in the sense that both
the forelimb and the wing evolved from the fin.
34. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(A) A contrast is drawn between two concepts by means of examples.
(B) A general concept is introduced, examples are given, and a
conclusion is offered.
(C) Two definitions of the same concept are compared.
(D) Two proposals are suggested and support for both is offered.
35. According to the passage, the concepts of analogy and homology are
(A) difficult to understand
(B) easier to understand through examples than through definitions
(C) impossible to explain
(D) simple to define but hard to apply

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36. The word "rigid" in line 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) inflexible
(B ) ideal
(C) unnatural
( D ) steep

37. According to the information provided in the passage, which of the following would most
probably be considered analogous?
(A) A shark's fin and a tiger's claws
(B ) A man's arms and a bird's wings
(C) A monkey's tail and an elephant's tail
(D) A spider's legs and a horse's legs
38. According to the passage, one way in which homologous organs differ from analogous organs
is that they
(A) are genetically related
(B ) are only found in highly developed animals
(C) perform the same general functions
(D) come from different embryological structures
39. As used throughout the passage, the term "structures" most nearly means
(A) buildings
(B ) features of an animal's anatomy
(C) organizational principles
(D) units of grammar
40. The word "sense" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) feeling
(B ) logic
(C) meaning
(D) perception
41. Where in the passage does the author first focus his discussion on the concept of homology?
(A) Lines 2-4
(B) Lines 6-8
(C) Lines 9 -11
(D) Lines 13-14

Questions 42-50

Probably the most famous film commenting on twentieth century

technology is Mo d e r n Times, made in 1936. Charlie Chaplin was
motivated to make the film by a reporter who, while interviewing
(line) him, happened to describe working conditions in industrial
(5 ) Detroit. Chaplin was told that healthy young farm boys were
lured

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 to the city to work on automotive assembly lines. Within four or
five years, these young men's health was destroyed by the stress of
work in the factories.
The film opens with a shot of a mass of sheep making their way
(10) down a crowded ramp. Abruptly the scene shifts to a scene of
factory workers jostling one another on their way to a factory.
However, the rather bitter note of criticism in the implied
comparison is not sustained. I t is replaced by a gentler note of
satire. Chaplin prefers to entertain rather than lecture.
(15) Scenes of factory interiors account for only about one-third of
the footage of Mo d e r n Times, but they contain some of the most
pointed social commentary as well as the most comic situations. No
one who has seen the film can ever forget Chaplin vainly trying to
keep pace with the fast-moving conveyor belt, almost losing his
(20) mind in the process. Another popular scene involves an automatic
feeding machine brought to the assembly line so that workers need
not interrupt their labor to eat. The feeding machine malfunctions,
hurling food at Chaplin, who is strapped into his position on the
assembly line and cannot escape. This serves to illustrate people's
(25) utter helplessness in the face of machines that are meant to serve
their basic needs.
Clearly, Mo d e r n Times has its faults, but it remains the best
film treating technology within a social context. It does not
offer a radical social message, but it does accurately reflect the
(30) sentiments of many who feel they are victims of an over-mechanized
world.
42. The author's main purpose in writing this passage is to
(A) criticize the factory system of the 1930's
(B) analyze an important film
(C) explain Chaplin's style of acting
(D) discuss how film reveals the benefits of technology
43. According to the passage, Chaplin got the idea for the film Mo d e rn Times from
(A) a newspaper article
(B) a scene in a movie
(C) a job he had once held
(D) a conversation with a reporter
44. The word "abruptly" in line 10 is closest in meaning to
(A) suddenly
(B ) mysteriously
(C) finally
(D) predictably

m.1.111<.11n41n431umt-·
45. It can be inferred from the passage that two-thirds of the film Mo d e r n Times
(A) is completely unforgettable
(B) takes place outside a factory
(C) is more critical than the other third
(D) entertains the audience more than the other third
46. Which of the following could best replace the phrase "losing his mind" in lines 19-20?
(A) Getting fired
(B) Doing his job
(C) Going insane
(D) Falling behind
47. The word "This" in line 24 refers to which of the following?
(A) The machine
(B) The food
(C) The assembly line
(D) The scene
48. According to the passage, the purpose of the scene involving the feeding machine is to show
people's
(A) ingenuity
(B) adaptability
(C) helplessness
(D) independence
49. The word "utter" in line 25 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Notable
(B) Complete
(C) Regrettable
(D) Necessary
50. The author would probably be LEAST likely to use which of the following words to describe
the film Mo d e rn Times?
(A) Revolutionary
(B) Entertaining
(C) Memorable
(D) Satirical

THIS IS THE END OF THE SAMPLE READING COMPREHENSION SECTION.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CAllED,

GO BACK AND CHECK YOUR WORK IN THIS SECTION ONLY.