Physics 430: Lecture 6

Center of Mass, Angular

Momentum
Dale E. Gary
NJIT Physics Department
 3.3 Center of Mass
 We are now going to discuss the notion of center of mass, with
which you are certainly already familiar. Think of a system of N
particles  = 1, …, N, with masses m and positions r. The center of
mass (or CM) is defined1toN be the position
m r    mN rN
R   m r  1 1
M  1 M
 Like any vector equation, this represents separate equations for
each of the components (X, Y, Z):
1 N 1 N 1 N
X   m x , Y   m y , Z   m z .
M  1 M  1 M  1
 You can think of the center of mass as a weighted average of the
positions of each mass element, i.e. weighted by the mass of that
element, or equivalently it is the vector sum of the r, each
multiplied by the fraction of mass at that location.
 To get a feeling for CM, let’s look at the center of mass for a two
particle system, which might, for example, represent the Sun and
Earth, or two stars in orbit around each other.
September 17, 2008
 Center of Mass and Equation of
1
Motion
mr mN
r
 In this case,R 
M
, which can be seen in the figure.
m r  1 1
m1  m2
2 2

1 m1 CM
 It is easy to show that the distance of the CM from
m1 and m2 is in the ratio m2/m1. The figure shows the r1 R m2
case where m1  4m2. In particular, if m1 >> m2, then r2
the CM will be very close to m1.
O
 Note that the time derivative of the center of mass for N particles is just
the CM velocity 1 N 1 N
 
R  m r   p
M 1 M 1
so the momentum of an N-particle system is related to its CM by  .
P MR
 Differentiating this expression, we get the very useful relation for the
equation of motion: 
Fext MR
 This says that the CM of a collection of particles moves as if the external
forces on all of the individual particles were concentrated at the CM. This
is why we can treat extended objects (e.g. a baseball) as a point mass.

September 17, 2008

 Calculating the Center of

Mass
Although we developed the foregoing for a set of point particles,
the result obviously applies to extended objects by replacing the
summation with an integral, and treating infinitesimal parts of the
object as having mass dm. The CM 1 expression then becomes
R  r dm
M
where the integral extends over the object.
 If you have a uniform extended object of total mass M, you may
be given the size or volume, from which you can determine the
density, or alternatively you may be given the density, from which
you determine the volume. In either case, the integral over the
mass is replaced by an integral1over the volume
R   r dV
M

 Let’s do an example, the CM of a solid cone. You will have a

chance to practice this with a solid hemisphere, for homework.

September 17, 2008

 Example 3.2: The CM of a Solid

Cone
Statement of the problem: z
 Find the CM position for the uniform solid cone shown in the figure.
 Solution: R
 You should be able to see immediately from the
symmetry of the problem that the CM lies on the z axis.
This greatly simplifies the problem, since we can now r=Rz/h
concentrate only on the z component. To find the h
height Z of the CM,
1 1
Z
M  z dV 
V z dx dy dz
y
where the density M/V can be brought outside the
integral because the cone is uniform, and we have
replaced dV with the cartesian element of volume dx dy x
dz. Note that we have to do an integration over x, y and
z, despite the fact that this is only the z component.
 If there is any trick to this, it is that we can do the x, y integrals in our head—the area at a given height z
is a circle of radius r = Rz/h, of area r2 = R2z2/h2. The integral then becomes
where
R 2
R h 2
3 4
R h
2

z dz 
3
Z 2
 h
2
V
Vh Vh 4 4 3
September 17, 2008
 Example 3.2: Cylindrical Coords
 Solution:
 Although the text solves the problem as just shown, from the symmetry
of the problem it is a more natural choice to use cylindrical coordinates.
The cylindrical element of volume is dV = r dr d dz. (Convince yourself
this is right.) The 1
Z integral
z rdr dis then
V
 dz
1
 zdz  rdr   d  
2

V   0  
1  Rz / h
 1  R2 z2 
 zdz  rdr 2   zdz   2 
V  0  V  h 
which then leads to the previous result.
 If you do not know the volume of a cone, the way to calculate it
parallels the above, but without the z:
V dV rdr d dz

dz  rdr   d  
2

  0  
 Rz / h
 h  R 2 z 2  R 2 h
dz  rdr 2   dz   2  
 0  0  h  3

September 17, 2008

 3.4 Angular Momentum for a

Single Particle
As you know, in addition to the law of conservation of momentum, there
is an independent but obviously related law of conservation of angular
momentum.
 
The angular momentum of a single particle is defined as the vector

 r p
where I am forced to use the over-arrow because I cannot make the 

script bold. Here r × p is the vector product of the particle’s position
vector r, relative to the chosen origin O, and its momentum p, as shown
in the figure.
 It is important to understand the implications of the
statement that the angular momentum is about the
p=mv
 origin O. In the figure at left, we can make the
r   r p 0 angular momentum of the particle disappear by
 r p simply shifting our origin. How can we define away a
r into page conserved quantity like this?
 Just consider that angular momentum has little

O meaning for a single particle, but when a second

body is included, shifting the origin affects that one,
too.
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 Angular Momentum and Torque
 The time derivative of angular momentum is
 d
  r p r p  r p
dt
but becausep mr , the first term is identically zero (the vector
product of a vector with itself is zero). In addition, wep can replace
the in the second term with the net force F, and we then recognize

the torque.  r F 

The text using the greek capital gamma for torque, and I will, too.
Other popular symbols are  and N.
 In many two-body problems one should choose the origin O so that
the net torque is zero. For example, a planet orbiting the Sun feels a
gravitational force F = GmM/r2 from the Sun. A hallmark of such
motion is that the force is central, i.e. is directed along the line
between the two centers. Choosing the origin at the Sun greatly
simplifies the problem because this ensures that there is no torque (r
× F = 0), so the angular momentum r × p is constant, from which we
can immediately deduce that r and p must remain in a fixed plane
through the Sun. Let’s take a closer look at that problem.
September 17, 2008
 Kepler’s Second Law
 Kepler’s second law states that

As each planet moves around the Sun, a line drawn from the

planet to the Sun sweeps out equal areas in equal times.
The situation is shown in the figure below, where we show two segments of the
orbit that I will approximate as triangles (the approximation becomes exact in the
limit as the width of the triangles goes to zero). Kepler’s 2nd law is equivalent to
saying that so long as the elapsed time dt for the planet to go from P to Q is the
same as for it to go from P’ to Q’, then the areas of these two triangles must be
equal. Equivalently, dA/dt = constant.

Q  A well-known property of the vector product is that two

P
sides of a triangle are given by vectors a and b, then
dA
the area is A  12(see
a bproblem 3.24—this is related
to area = ½ base × height). Thus, the area of triangle OPQ
is .

dA  12 r vdt
This can be rearranged to get: dA 1 
r dA  r p 
Q which, since the angular dt 2m 2m
P momentum implies that Kepler’s law holds.
dr = vdt
 constant
September 17, 2008
 3.5 Angular Momentum for N
Particles
 We can extend these ideas to N particles,  = 1, 2, …, N, following
very much the same procedure as we did for momentum in lecture
1. Each particle has angular momentum
 r p (with all r
measured from the same origin O), so the total angular momentum
is L  r p


 L 
The time derivative of the total r F momentum is
angular


F 
where, exactly as before, the  Fforce
net
ext
  Fon particle  is
 

consisting of the inter-particle forces F, andextthe external force

   r F   r F
Fext. Substituting into Lthe L-dot equation,
  


 we have

 As before, we use the fact that F = F to replace the sum over
L   r  r F   r F ext
 with one over  containing
  
  matching


 pairs,
 to get

September 17, 2008

 Conservation of Angular

Momentum
In lecture 1, the paired terms canceled directly. This time, the first
sum is again zero, but for a different reason. Clearly r – r  0, but
rather, we assume that the inter-particle forces are central forces,
so that the vector r – r is aligned with the force F, so the cross-
product is zero. So finally we are left with the time derivative of
total angular moment equal to the externally applied torque
L  r F ext ext
 

 In particular, if there are no applied torques, then L = constant, which
leads to
Principle of Conservation of Angular Momentum
If the net external torque ext on an N-particle system is zero,
the system’s total angular momentum L = r× p is constant.

 The validity depends on two assumptions: the inter-particle forces

are central, and that they obey Newton’s third law. You can
imagine a system where the first of these is not true, but for nearly
all cases the law holds.
September 17, 2008
 Moment of Inertia
 We will deal with (and extend) the idea of moment of inertia in
Chapter 10. However, you should be familiar with the basics from
your Introductory Physics course. In particular, you should recall
that the angular momentum about an axis of rotation (say the z
axis) is Lz I

where I is the moment of inertia about the axis of rotation, and  is

the angular velocity.
 In your earlier course, you learned that the moment of inertia is
known for a few standard bodies (i.e. for a uniform sphere of mass
M, radius R, the moment of inertia through the center is I = 2/5 MR2).
 In general, for any multiparticle system, I = mr2, where r is the
distance of mass m from the axis of rotation. The moment of
inertia for an extended object, can be calculated by replacing the
sum with an integral.

September 17, 2008

 Example 3.3: Collision of a Lump
of Putty with a Turntable
 Statement of the problem:
 A uniform circular turntable (mass M, radius R, center O, moment of inertia
about O, ½ MR2) is at rest in the x, y plane and is mounted on a frictionless
axle, which lies along the vertical z axis. I throw a lump of putty (mass m)
with speed v toward the edge of the turntable so it approaches along a line
that passes within a distance b of O, as shown in the figure. When the
putty hits the turntable, it sticks to the edge and the two rotate together
with angular velocity . Find .
 Solution:
 We use conservation of angular momentum. Since the turntable is not
moving initially, the
L initial
r  angular
mv mvrmomentum
sin  mvbis that of the putty about O,
z ,ini

 After the putty sticks, the turntable starts to turn at some

unknown angularLvelocity,  
so that 1the angular2 momentum is
z , fin  I tbl  putty   2 MR  mR 
2
r  b
v
 m solving
Equating these two equations and vb for , we have
 2
Location of
mM /2 R stuck putty

September 17, 2008

 Special Case: Angular Momentum
About CM
 The foregoing derivationLofext was made under the (unstated)
assumption that Newton’s second law F = ma holds, but recall that this
L ext We can
is only valid in an inertial (non-accelerating) reference frame.
state that holds for any origin O only for inertial reference
frames.
 We will see in Chapter 10, but state it now without proof, that the law
holds even in accelerating (non-inertial) frames as long as the origin
is about the CM of thedsystem, even when the CM is undergoing
L(about CM) ext (about CM)
acceleration. dt

 Stated another way, if ext(about CM) = 0 then L(about CM) is conserved.

You can show this yourself with the guidance of Prob. 3.37 of the text,
if you are curious.
 This result shows the special nature of the CM.

September 17, 2008

 Example 3.4: A Sliding and
Spinning Barbell
 Statement of the problem:
 A barbell consisting of two equal masses m mounted on the ends of a rigid
massless rod of length 2b is at rest on a frictionless horizontal table, lying on
the x axis and centered on the origin, as shown in the figure. At time t = 0, the
left mass is given a sharp tap, in the shape of a horizontal force F in the y
direction, lasting for a short time t. Describe the subsequent motion.
 Solution:
 The type of force described is called an impulse. When dealing with such a
force, we want to focus on the change in momentum due to the force, rather
than the force
P itself.
F ext Since , the momentum after the force acts is
y
ext (this is actually the change in momentum, P, but
P F t
the momentum before the impulse is zero).
 It is important to recognize that this impulse does two things.
x
It provides momentum to the CM, but at the same time, since
it is off-center, it also provides a torque. We need to calculate 2b
F
both.
 The CM relation is easy: vCM = Fextt / 2m. Since Fext is in the +y direction, vCM is
too.
September 17, 2008
 Example 3.4, cont’d
 Solution, cont’d:
 The rotational motion due to the torque is found using the methods of the
chapter. The torque is going to cause a change in angular momentum,
L ext
with magnitude ext = Fb. Using the same approach as before to deal with the
fact that the force is an impulse, we find the angular momentum after the
impulse is
L Lz  t Fbt I
ext

 The moment of inertia of the dumbbell is easily calculated (since the rod is
massless) as I = 2mb2, since each mass can be considered a point mass, and
y
each contributes mb2 to the moment of inertia. Solving for the angular velocity:
Fbt Ft b
 2
 vcm
2mb 2mb
x
 Note that just after the impulse, the velocity of the left mass
is vleft = vcm + b = Ft/m, while the velocity of the right hand 2b
mass is vright = vcm – b = 0.
 The subsequent motion is straightforward. The CM moves straight up the y
axis while the barbell continues to rotate at angular velocity .
September 17, 2008
 Example 3.4, Further Remarks
 Remarks:
 It always bothered me that if the same impulsive force were applied on the bar
between the two masses, i.e. at the CM, the barbell would move at the SAME speed
we just calculated for the CM, but without rotation.
 From energy considerations, it seems that applying the same force in two locations
imparts DIFFERENT amounts of energy to the barbell. It always seemed to me that
the energy should be the same in the two situations, if the force is the same.
Hopefully this gives you the same sense of unease.
 After more thought, however, one can understand the difference. Recall that work
(energy) is force through a distance. We are given the force, but what about the
distance over which it acts? In the case of hitting the barbell at the CM, the force
acts for a time t on the barbell moving at speed vCM, so the distance is s = vCM t. In
the case of this problem, where we hit the left mass, at a location a distance b from
the CM, the left mass moves at speed 2vCM (check it), so the force acts through a
distance s = 2vCM t. It is this difference that accounts for the difference in energy.
 If you really want to be confused, however, think about the case where the impulse
force is due to a lump of putty that sticks to the barbell. The putty has the same
energy in both cases, but the putty plus barbell energy is different depending on
where the putty lands. What the… (There is an explanation—can you find it?)

September 17, 2008