CAMPUS PLACEMENT COMMITTEE

DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING

DIAGNOSTIC TECHNICAL - WRITTEN ROUND
NAME DURATION 60 MIN
ROLL NO TOTAL MARKS

Each question carries two marks. One mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. No marks will be deducted for unattempted
questions. Mark your answers in the question paper only. Rough work should be done in the additional sheets.

1. Which of the following statement is NOT true in the context of capillary pressure in soils?
a. Water is under tension in capillary zone
b. Pore water pressure is negative in capillary zone
c. Effective stress increases due to capillary zone
d. Capillary pressure is more in coarse grained soils
2. The range of void ratio between which quick sand condition occurs in cohesionless granular soil deposits is
a. 0.4 0.5 b. 0.6 0.7 c. 0.8 0.9 d. 1.0 1.1
3. Group symbols assigned to silty sand and clayey sand are respectively
a. SS, CS b. SM, CS c. SM, SC d. MS, CS
4. A clay soil sample is tested in a triaxial apparatus in CD conditions at a cell pressure of 100 kN/m2. What will be the pore
pressure at a deviator stress of 40 kN/m2?
a. 0 N/m
2
b. 20 N/m
2
c. 40 N/m
2
d. 60 N/m
2

5. Which of the following is correct?(v
d
: Discharge Velocity, v
s
: Seepage Velocity)
a. v
d
>v
s
b. v
d
<v
s
c. v
d
=v
s
d. Insufficient data
6. The saturation water content of a soil sample of specific gravity 2.65 and void ratio 0.8 is
a. 20 % b. 25 % c. 30 % d. 35 %
7. Compaction by vibratory roller is the best method of compaction in case of
a. Moist silty sand
b. Well graded dry sand
c. Clay of medium compressibility
d. Silt of high compressibility
8. When a retaining wall moves away from the backfill, the pressure exerted on the wall is called
a. Passive earth pressure
b. Swelling pressure
c. Pore pressure
d. Active earth pressure
9. Negative skin friction in a soil is considered when the pile is constructed through a
a. Fill Material
b. Dense coarse sand
c. Over consolidated stiff clay
d. Dense fine sand
10. The no of blows in SPT for different depths are given as follows:
Penetration of Sampler No of blows
0 150 mm 6
150 300 mm 8
300 450 mm 10
The observed N value is
a. 8 b. 14 c. 18 d. 24
11. Under-reamed piles are, generally used in
a. Well-graded gravel
b. Poorly graded sand
c. Silt of medium compressibility
d. Soft clay
12. Squeezing out of pore water from a loaded saturated soil causing a time dependent decrease in volume is known as
a. Compaction b. Consolidation c. Seepage d. Soil Piping
13. In plate load test of clayey soils, when size of plate is less than that of the foundation, the foundation settles
a. More than plate
b. Less than plate
c. Equal to plate
d. Insufficient data
14. When the width to depth ratio is 0.5, the foundation is said to be
a. Shallow b. Medium c. Semi-deep d. Deep

C
15. The maximum allowable eccentricity of loading on a footing depends upon
a. Width of footing
b. Depth of footing
c. Both a and b
d. Thickness of footing
16. When do you say a given concrete section to be under-reinforced?
a. Depth of actual neutral axis>Critical neutral axis depth
b. Design moment<Moment of resistance of the section
c. Both of these
d. None of these
17. Why is the factor of safety in steel constructions less than that of RCC constructions?
a. Steel capable of bearing more stress per unit length
b. Increased quality control in manufacture of steel
c. Use of a combination of two materials in RCC
d. None of these
18. Consider the statements
I. Expansion joints are the extension from the building to facilitate vertical expansion of the building
II. Construction joints are provided to facilitate monolithic action of a building
a. I is true, II is false
b. II is true, I is false
c. I and II are true
d. Both are false
19. In case of built-up columns,
a. I
zz
>I
yy
b. I
zz
<I
yy
c. I
zz
=I
yy
d. None of these
20. What is a plastic hinge?


21. What is the percentage of total axial force is used in the design of lacings in case of a steel section under compression?
a. 1.5 b. 2.5 c. 3.5 d. 4.5
22. Define characteristic strength of concrete.


23. According to IS 456:2000, what are the limit states to be considered in the design of concrete sections?


24. Which of the following sections are least preferred to carry an axial compressive load?
a. Plastic b. Semi-compact c. Compact d. Slender
25. Arrange the following columns with the given support conditions, in the increasing order of Eulers crippling load
a. Fixed-fixed b. Hinged-Hinged c. Fixed-Free d. Fixed-Hinged
26. Stagnation point is a point where
a. Velocity =0 b. Source is c. sink is d. =0
27. When hydrostatic forces act on a body then which of the following is correct
I. Velocity gradient=0
II. Force due to gravity is acting
III. Force acting is pressure of fluid
IV. Shear stress=0
a. I & IV b. II & III c. I,II & III d. all of these
28. For a partially filled pipe, Reynolds number is =1000 then the flow is
a. Laminar b. Transitional c. Turbulent d. cant say
29. Consider the velocity profile

,then the flow

a. has separated
b. on the verge of separation
c. will not separate
d. none of these
30. For a flow, critical depth is the depth at which
a. KE is min b. PE is min c. TE is min d. SE is min
31. When two pumps are attached in parallel then which of the following is constant
a. Head b. Discharge c. Both d. none
32. Consider the two cases (Ideal indicator diagram [I] and effect of acceleration [II]) of indicator diagram for a reciprocating
pump. Work done in
a. I > II b. II>I c. I=II d. none
33. The ideal depth for sedimentation tank is
a. 0 b. 3 c. 10 d. 4.5
34. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Activated sludge - improved action
b. Trickling filters - Attached growth system
c. Oxidation ditch - Algae
d. Channel grit chamber - proportional weir

35. Which of these is the break point of chlorination?

a. A b. B c. C d. D
36. Graphical representation of the maximum shear stress theory is
a. Rectangle b. Rhombus c. Ellipse d. Hexagon
37. Which of the following theories is used for the analysis of thick cylinders(ductile material)
a. Maximum shear stress theory
b. Maximum principle stress theory
c. Maximum strain energy theory
d. Maximum principle strain theory
38. The max shear stress in the combined effect of bending and torsion on a shaft is given by
a.

b.

c.

d.

39. Rate of loading is related to the deflection as
a.

b.

c.

d.

40. Relation between E,G and is
a. E= 3G(1-2) b. E= 2G(1+) c. E= 3G(1+) d. E= 2G(1-2)
41. The poissons ratio for rubber is
a. 0.25 b. 0.42 c. 0.5 d. 0.286
42. Dimension of flexural rigidity of a beam element in mass (M), length(L) and time(T) is
a.

b.

c.

d.

43. Maximum angle of the obliquity is 30,then plane of maximum obliquity is inclined to major principal plane at an angle of
a. 75 b. 105 c. 45 d. 60
44. Youngs modulus of elasticity for a perfectly elastic body is
a. Zero b. Unity c. Infinity d. None
45. The area under the stress strain curve represents the
a. Energy required to cause failure
b. Toughness of material
c. Hardness of material
d. Breaking strength of material
46. Effective length of the column fixed at one end and hinged at the other is given by
a. L b. 2L c. L/2 d. L/2
47. If the deflection of a simply supported beam cubic in nature, then shear force will be proportional to
a. Constant b. y c. y
3
d. y
2

48. Which of the following is a dynamic hardness test?
a. Rockwell b. Rebound c. Brinells d. Vickers
49. Boundary condition for a cantilever beam where x is from the fixed end
a. x=0, y=0 b. x=0, y=0 c. x=L, y=0 d. x=L, y=0
50. Deflection at the free end of a cantilever beam subjected to an udl of w N/m is
a. y=(wL
3
)/8EI b. y=(wL
3
)/6EI c. y=(wL
4
)/8EI d. y=(wL
4
)/6EI
51. In the composition of good brick, the total content of silt and clay, by weight, should not be less than
a. 20% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75%
52. The standard size of brick as per Indian standards is (in cm)
a. 20x10x10 b. 23x12x8 c. 19x9x9 d. 20x9x9
53. The moisture absorption of a good stone should be less than
a. 1 % b. 5 % c. 10 % d. 15 %
54. For normal consistency, the penetration in Vicat apparatus should be between
a. 20 to 30 mm b. 33 to 35 mm c. 35 to 38 mm d. >40 mm
55. Quick setting cement is used
a. for the construction under water
b. to obtain very light strength
c. where resistance to acidic water is required
d. none of the above
56. The volume of one bag of cement weighing 50 kg is
a. 0.05 m
3
b. 0.0345 m
3
c. 0.025 m
3
d. 0.04 m
3

57. If b is the width of the wall, L is the effective span of the lintel, is the unit weight of masonry, H is the height of wall
above the lintel and if the length of wall on one side of the lintel is less than half the effective span the load on the lintel W
is given by
a. 0.433bL
2
b. bLH c. bL
2
d. None
58. Aggregate can be classified as fine aggregate and coarse aggregate if it is completely retained on
a. 0.3 mm and 0.15 mm sieve
b. 0.15 mm and 4.75 mm sieve
c. 4.75 mm and 0.15 mm sieve
d. none of the above
59. Rapid Hardening cement attains early strength due to
a. larger proportion of lime grounded finer
b. small proportion of lime grounded finer
c. presence of excess percentage of gypsum
d. none of the above
60. A badly mixed cement concrete may lead to
a. Cracks b. Bleeding c. Segregation d. Honeycombing
61. What is the degree of redundancy for the following structures (pin jointed) [fig 1]?
a. 1, 1 b. 2, 3 c. 0, 0 d. 0, 1
62. Find the fixed end moment at the point A [fig 2]
a. 167 kNm b. 55.55 kNm c. 111.1 kNm d. 200 kNm
63. What is the ratio of the relative stiffness of a joint with fixed-far fixed to fixed-far hinged configuration?
a. 3/4 b. 3 c. 4 d. 4/3
64. Which method is preferred for the analysis of structures in [fig 3]?
A. Compatibility Method B. Equilibrium Method
a. AAA b. BAB c. BAA d. ABA
65. Find the reaction at the prop of the cantilever in [fig 4]
a. W/2 b. 5W/8 c. 3W/8 d. None
66. Which of the structures in [fig 5] are expected to sway?
a. i, ii b. i, ii, iii c. i, iii, iv d. i, ii , iv
67. Determine the vertical deflection at point C in [fig 6]
a. (7WL
3
)/24EI b. (5WL
3
)/24EI c. (WL
3
)/4EI d. (WL
3
)/3EI
68. Find the degree of internal indeterminacy of the rigid jointed structures in [fig 7]
a. 3, 6 b. 6, 3 c. 6, 0 d. 0, 6
69. What effect is expected to take place in the situation in [fig 8] at 09:00 AM, 11:00 AM, 12:00 PM and 03:00 PM?
a. SSSS & TTTT b. NSNN & TTTT c. SSNS & TTNT d. SSNN & TTTT
70. Workability of concrete is measured using
a. Slump test
b. Vee-Bee consistometer test
c. Compacting factor test
d. All the above
71. Minimum distance between two expansion joints?
a. 20m b. 32m c. 45m d. 50m
72. The ratio of 7 days to 28 days cube strength is?
a. 0.5 b. 0.6 c. 4.5 d. 0.50
73. What is the minimum grade of concrete for water tanks?
a. M10 b. M15 c. M20 d. M25
74. The flexural strength of M30 concrete as per IS: 456-2000 (in MPa) is
a. 5.47 b. 3.83 c. 30 d. 2.74
75. The modulus of elasticity of M30 concrete as per IS: 456-2000(in MPa) is
a. 27386 b. 38312 c. 30004 d. 27412
76. IS code for mix design of Concrete is IS
a. 10262 b. 10626 c. 10268 d. 10286
77. Nominal maximum size of coarse aggregate for RCC is (in mm)
a. 40 b. 8 c. 30 d. 20
78. Workability of concrete is affected by (one/ more statements are correct)
a. Water cement ratio
b. Shape of aggregates
c. Amount of fines
d. Fineness of fine aggregate
79. Mix proportions for M15 is
a. 1:4:8 b. 1:3:6 c. 1:2:4 d. 1:1.5:3
80. 33 grade cement is used in the construction- what does 33 indicate?


81. Which of the following corrections are subtractive in nature when measurement is taken in cold climate using more pull?
I. Correction due to temperature.
II. Correction for pull.
III. Sag Correction .
IV. Correction due to slope.
V. Correction due to wrong alignment.
a. I and II b. I,II and IV c. I,III and IV d. III, IV and V

82. The longest chain line passing through the centre of area is called
a. Base line b. Tie line c. Check line d. all the above
83. If the magnetic declination is (-)600' and reduced bearing of a line is S 4000'E, then true bearing of the line is
a. S 134E b. S 146E c. S 46E d. S 34E
84. The following equipments can be used to lay out horizontal angles in field
I. Microptic theodolite
II. Chain and metallic tape
III. Vernier theodolite
IV. Prismatic compass
a. II,IV,III, b. II,III,IV,I c. I,IV,III,II d. I,III,IV,I
85. The ''back sight'' reading on a vertically held staff at a point A on the floor along the centre line of a railway tunnel is 3.465m
, and the "fore sight '' on the inverted staff held at the roof of the tunnel just vertically above A is 1.155m. The height of the
tunnel along the centre line at floor point A is
a. 2.310m b. 3.465m c. 4.620m d. 6.930m
86. A lighthouse is visible just above the hprizon at a certain station at the sea level. The distance between the station and the
lighthouse is 40km. The height of the lighthouse is approximately
a. 187m b. 137.7m c. 107.7m d. 87.3m
87. The ratio of tangent length to length of chord of a curve when the angle of deflection is 600 is
a. 1/3 b. 3 c. (3/2) d. 2
88. Parallax may be eliminated by
a. Focusing the eyepiece
b. Focusing the objective
c. both A and B
d. none of these
89. Curvature correction (Cc) and Refraction correction (Cr) are
a. d
2
/2R , -6d
2
/14R
b. -d
2
/2R, -6d
2
/14R
c. d
2
/2R, d
2
/14R
d. -d
2
/2R, d
2
/14R
90. If denotes declination, latitude of the place of observation and altitude of a star at the prime vertical then,
a. sin = sin cos
b. sin = sin cosec
c. cos = cos sin
d. sin =sin cos

All the best