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CET308 Jan 2024 Scheme

This document is a draft scheme for the B.Tech Degree S6 Examination in Civil Engineering at APJ Abdul Kalam Technological University, scheduled for January 2024. It includes 50 multiple-choice questions covering various topics in civil engineering, with each question carrying one mark and no negative marking for incorrect answers. The document outlines the examination instructions, question format, and provides specific questions along with their correct answers.

Uploaded by

sufiyan
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
2 views

CET308 Jan 2024 Scheme

This document is a draft scheme for the B.Tech Degree S6 Examination in Civil Engineering at APJ Abdul Kalam Technological University, scheduled for January 2024. It includes 50 multiple-choice questions covering various topics in civil engineering, with each question carrying one mark and no negative marking for incorrect answers. The document outlines the examination instructions, question format, and provides specific questions along with their correct answers.

Uploaded by

sufiyan
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 5

0600CET308052201

DRAFT SCHEME
SET 1 Total Pages: 5
Reg No.: _______________ Name: _____________________________________
APJ ABDUL KALAM TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
B.Tech Degree S6 (S, FE) Examination January 2024 (2019 Scheme)
Course Code: CET308
Course name: COMPREHENSIVE EXAM (CIVIL ENGINEERING)
Max. Marks: 50 Duration: 1Hour

Instructions: (1) Each question carries one mark. No negative marks for wrong answers
(2) Total number of questions: 50
(3) All questions are to be answered. Each question will be followed by 4 possible answers of
which only ONE is correct.
(4) If more than one option is chosen, it will not be considered for valuation.
(5) Calculators are not permitted

1. Hooke’s law holds good up to -------


c)Limit of proportionality
2. Relationship connecting Young’s modulus (E) and Bulk modulus (K) is -------
a) E = 3K(1-2µ)
3. When a copper wire of length 2 m and diameter 40 mm is subjected to an axial pull of 80 kN, its
diameter reduces by 0.00775 mm and length increased by 1.2 mm. Calculate the Poisson’s ratio
of the wire.
c)0.32
4. What will be the value of Young’s modulus, if a material has Poisson’s ratio 0.25 and Shear
modulus 100 MPa?
a) 250 MPa
5. The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of ‘w’
N/m consists of
c) Two right angled triangles
6. Point of contraflexure is the point
b) at which bending moment diagram changes its sign
7. The maximum value of bending moment for a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ m carrying uniformly
distributed load of intensity ‘w’ N/m throughout the span is -------
a)
w𝑙
2
8. The section modulus for a triangle section of width ‘b’ and height ‘h’ will be -------
d)

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𝑏ℎ
24
9. The maximum shear stress in a rectangular cross section is ------- average shear stress
c) 1.5 times
10. The value for shear stress in principle plane is -------
c) Zero
11. Bernoulli’s equation is applicable for
c) Inviscid and incompressible fluid flow
12. In a two-dimensional steady flow filed, in a certain region of the x-y plane, the velocity component
in the x-direction is given by vx = x2 and the density varies as ρ = 1/x. Which of the following is
a valid expression for the velocity component in the y-direction, v y?
c) vy = - xy
13. The continuity equation is based on the principle of
a) Conservation of mass
14. Darcy- Weisbach equation gives relation between -------
c) Head loss and pressure loss
15. Which property of the fluid accounts for the major losses in pipes?
d) Viscosity
16. For a channel to be economic which of the following parameters should be minimum.
a) Wetted perimeter
17. Find the hydraulic depth for a most economical circular channel section in case of maximum
velocity.
b) 0.3D
18. Hydraulic jump is observed in ---------
b) Open channel flow
19. During a subcritical flow, what is the value of Froude’s number?
c) Less than one
20. The base width of a rectangular channel is 4 m and the maximum discharge through the channel
is 10 m3/s, calculate the specific energy.
c) 1.3m
21. A well-conditioned triangle has angles not less than ------ and more than ------- respectively
c)90° and 120°
22. If magnetic bearing of sun at noon at a place in southern hemisphere is 150°, then magnetic
declination at that place is
a)30° E
23. A 10 cm theodolite means that

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c) Diameter of the graduated circle of its lower plate is 10 cm
24. Any arbitrarily assumed level line from which vertical distances are measured is called
c) Horizontal line
25. Error due to eccentricity of inner and outer axis can be eliminated by
b) Reading both verniers and taking the mean of the two observations
26. If L is latitude and D is departure, then closing error is given by

a) ∑L + ∑D

27. If ∆ is angle of deflection of a simple curve of radius R, then length of its long chord is

b) 2𝑅 sin
28. An observer standing on the deck of ship just sees the top of a lighthouse which is 30 m above the
sea level. If the height of the observer’s eye is 10 m above the sea level, then the distance of the
observer from the lighthouse will be nearly
c) 33.3 km
29. Two points A and B are 1530 m apart across a river. The reciprocal levels measured are:

Level at Readings on (m)


A A B
2.165 3.810
B 0.910 2.355
What is the true difference in level between A and B?
c) 1.545 m
30. The limits of water level in a river represents a
b) Horizontal surface
31. The void ratio and specific gravity of a soil sample are 0.65 and 2.72 respectively. The degree of
saturation corresponding to a water content of 20 % is
c) 83.7
32. Which of the following method is more suitable for the determination of permeability of a coarse-
grained soil
a) Constant head method
33. A coarse-grained soil has a void ratio 0.75, and specific gravity as 2.75. The critical gradient at
which quick sand condition occurs is
d)1.00
34. The total and effective stresses at a depth of 5 m below the top level of water in a swimming pool
are ---------- and ---------respectively.
a) 0.5 kg/cm2 and zero
35. The ratio of unconfined compressive strength of an undisturbed soil sample to that of a remoulded
sample at the same water content, is ------
d) Sensitivity

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36. Toughness index is defined as the ratio of

a) Plasticity index to flow index


37. Porosity and void ratio are related by:

a) e =
38. For a fully saturated soil sample, the degree of saturation is ------

d) 1
39. The law which governs the permeability of a soil is

a) Darcy’s law
40. Most accurate method for the determination of water content of soil is

d) Oven drying method


41. The component in cement which is responsible for the early age strength of concrete is -------
c) C3S
42. The strength of concrete below which not more than 5 % of the test results ae expected to fall is
-------
b) Characteristic compressive strength

43. The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends to rise to the surface while
placing and compaction is called -------
a) Bleeding
44. For protecting the metal surfaces against rusting, the most suitable type paint is ------
d) Aluminium paint
45. Which of the following concept is not suitable for cavity wall construction?
d) High self – weight
46. Which among the following is the benefits of prefabricated construction?
b) Time savings
47. Of the following which among is the causes of failure of RCC Structures?
d) All the above
48. For ------- contract the contractor need to quote rates for each item based on bill of quantities.
b) Item rate contract

49. For a particular type of work only one contractor has qualified in the prequalification process.
What type of tender shall be submitted for the work by such a contractor?
c) Single tender
50. For an activity in the critical path the total float shall be the value -------

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a) LFT – EFT

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