8th Grade Science Eog Packet
8th Grade Science Eog Packet
5.
6.
7.
8.
b. Compound
c. Mixture
9.
10. Made of 2 or more elements.
11. When trail mix is combined, the raisins, peanuts, chocolate, almonds,
and pretzels keep their individual properties.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
Carbon is number six on the periodic table.
19. Granite is a heterogeneous substance made of quartz, feldspar, and
mica.
20. A sample was placed on a hot plate. All of the liquid evaporated from
the sample and only a colorless powder remained.
Tossed salad
Sausage and mushroom pizza
Air
Mouthwash
Granite rock
Chex mix
Steel
Lucky Charms cereal
Salt
Salt water
Density:
31. Which of the following elements will have the highest density?
a. Iron (Fe)
b. Calcium (Ca)
32. Which of the elements listed below have a greater density?
a. Magnesium (Mg)
b. Calcium (Ca)
b. Potassium (K)
Solid
- Atoms & molecules are closely locked in place
- Form a pattern (reduces energy)
- Vibrate only
Liquid
- A & M can collide & move past each other
Gas
- A & M move independently
- Collide frequently & randomly
- With each other & objects
- Distance between A & M is greater
Melting Point
- Temperature solid becomes liquid
- Heat absorbed
- A & M gain enough energy
- Start sliding past each other (flow)
Melting Point of water is 0C.
Boiling Point
- Temp liquid becomes gas
- Heat absorbed
- A & M gain enough energy
- Escape as a gas
Boiling Point of water is 100C.
Freezing Point
- Temp liquid becomes solid
- Heat released
- A & M loose energy
occurred?
Exo = Exit
2. Chemical
reaction/change where
energy (heat, light) is
released
3. Ex: burning, freezing
ice cubes, glow sticks,
CaCl + water, cellular respiration (Glucose + O2 = Energy + CO2)
4. 6CO + 6H O + HEAT C H O + 6O
4) NOT: Pond water warming
3. Precipitate
1) Two liquids combined & a Solid forms
4. Gas Forms
1) Substances combine & gas bubbles form
2) NOT: water boiling
5. Other Examples:
1) Digestion
2) Respiration
3) Photosynthesis
4) Decomposition
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
a. Speeds up reaction
a. Endothermic
b. Exothermic
9. Glow sticks
10. Photosynthesis
11. Cooking
12. Freezing ice cubes
13. Adding CaCl + water
14. Baking a cake
15. Cellular respiration
16. Melting ice cubes
17. Sam finds a block made from an unknown element. Which is the best way to determine
which element was used to create the block?
c. Chemical composition
20. A student made a chart that included physical changes and chemical changes. Which
change should be categorized as a chemical change?
a. Iron becomes rust.
b. A gold bar is melted.
c. Lake water evaporates.
21. Which action results in a chemical change?
a. Apples being cut into slices.
b. Wood burning in a fireplace.
c. Wet clothes drying on a clothesline.
22. A student mixed some yellow sulfur powder with some iron filings. She was able to take
the iron out of the sulfur by using a magnet. She then remixed the iron and sulfur in a
test tube and heated it. After it cooled, she removed the substance from the test tube
but could not separate the iron from the sulfur using the magnet. Which type of change
occurred in the material when it was heated?
a. A chemical change because a magnet had been used.
b. A chemical change because a new substance was formed.
c. A physical change because the iron reacted with the sulfur.
23. What observation would be made if a precipitate reaction will have occurred?
a. Bubbles
b. Cloudy solution
c. Change in color
Experimental Procedure
1. Grind salt into a powder.
2. Heat a small beaker of water.
3. Completely dissolve the salt in the water while stirring.
4. Add silver nitrate solution to form a white solid.
During which step of this procedure does a chemical change occur?
a. Step 2
b. Step 3
c. Step 4
37. Magnesium strips are long, thin strips that are gray and shiny. Which action will lead to
a chemical change of magnesium strips?
a. Burning them with a candle.
b. Cutting them into small pieces.
c. Mixing them with pieces of copper.
38. Which can only result from a chemical reaction?
a. The fizzing of a soft drink.
b. The heat from a light bulb.
c. The light produced by magnesium when burned.
39. The illustration shows a number of changes
occurring.
Which is a chemical change?
a. The melting of the wax.
b. The steam coming from the tea.
c. The burning wick of the candle.
direction of reaction
product
CO2
c. Mass is conserved.
4. When 5 grams of silver nitrate are added to a 50 gram solution of potassium chloride, 2 grams of
silver chloride form in the solution as a precipitate. After the reaction, the total weight of the
solution is 55 grams. Which evidence from the experiment supports the law of conservation of
mass?
a. The weight of the precipitate is less than the amount of silver nitrate.
b. The weight of the precipitate is greater than the amount of the silver nitrate.
c. The final weight of the product plus the precipitate equals the weight of the reactants.
5. If a chemical reaction starts with 10 times the amount of oxygen and hydrogen atoms shown, which
best describes the amount of product? 2H2 + O2 2H2O
a. There would be 10 times more water molecules produced.
b. There would be 20 times more water molecules produced.
c. There would be the same amount of water molecules produced.
6. Which of the following is a correctly written chemical equation that demonstrates the conservation
of mass?
a. KClO3 KCl + O2
b. H2O + CO2 H2CO3
c. Mg + HCl H2 + MgCl2
7. Which are conserved during a chemical reaction?
a. Mass and atoms
b. Atoms and molecules
Which statement most accurately describes the mass of the reactants compared to the mass of the
products?
a. The mass of the reactants is the same as the mass of the products.
b. The products have a greater mass because matter was created during the reaction.
c. The reactants have a greater mass because some of the mass was converted to heat.
21. A experiment was conducted to test the law of conservation of mass. At the end of the experiment,
only 82% of the mass of the initial reactants was present. The experiment was repeated three times
with similar results. Which best explains why some of the mass was lost?
a. The mass escaped as a gas.
b. The mass remained part of the reactant.
c. The mass turned into a heavier precipitate.
22. A piece of paper has a mass of 17 grams. When the paper is burned, a chemical change occurs,
and both smoke and ashes are produced. Based on the law of conservation of mass, which statement
is true?
a. The smoke has a mass of 17 grams.
b. The smoke and ashes have a combined mass of 17 grams.
c. The smoke and the ashes have a combined mass greater than 17 grams.
3P + 5O2 P4O10
24. 4HgO 4Hg + 2O2
25. 3C3H8 + O2 2CO2 + 2H2O
23.
a. Balanced Equation
b. Unbalanced Equation
a. Balanced Equations
b. Unbalanced Equation
a. Balanced Equations
b. Unbalanced Equation
Mold Fossils - Sediments bury an organism & turn to rock. Organism decays leaving a
cavity shaped like it.
Cast Fossils - 1. Mold is filled with sand/mud. 2. Hardens in shape of organism.
Petrified/Permineralization - - Minerals soak into buried remains, Replacing remains, Changing
into rock.
Preserved Fossil - - Parts/entire organisms prevented from decaying by being trapped in rock,
ice, tar, or amber
Trace Fossils Mud or sand hardens to stone where footprint, tracks, or burrows were left
behind. A footprint provide clues about the size and behavior, the speed, how many legs it
walked on, lived alone or with others. A trail or burrow can give clues about the size and
shape of the organism, where it lived, and how it obtained food.
Fossils tell us
- What organisms occupied the area, organism species identification, and about the diet &
ecosystem.
Ice Cores Tube ice samples that contain environment evidence accumulated over thousands
of years.
Tell us
- Timeline of earths past
- Atmospheric changes through trapped air
- Gases, bacteria, dust, pollen, ash
- Temperature changes
- Volcanic activity
Sedimentary Rock
1. 75% of Earths surface that forms when sand, mud, or sediment collect.
2. Different layers of sedimentary rock = gain understanding of Earths history
1. Climate with levels of gases & chemical composition of rocks.
2.
A fault is found that cuts through lower rock layers but not those above it. What can most likely be concluded?
A. The fault is the same age as the layers it cuts through, and the same age as the layers above
it.
B. The fault is younger than the layers it cuts through, and younger than the layers above it.
C. The fault is younger than the layers it cuts through, but older than the layers above it.
D. The fault is older than the layers it cuts through, but younger than the layers above it.
3.
Why are index fossils good clues for identifying when rocks were formed?
A. They are easy to form in rock.
B. They are difficult to form in rock.
C. They only existed during specific periods of time.
4.
Four sedimentary rock layers are cut by an igneous rock intrusion as shown below.
Which best describes the relative age of the igneous rock intrusion in comparison
to the ages of the four sedimentary rock layers?
A. The igneous rock intrusion is older than sedimentary rock layers W, X, Y, and Z.
B. The igneous rock intrusion is younger than sedimentary rock layers W, X, Y, and Z.
C. The igneous rock intrusion is older than sedimentary rock layer W and younger than
sedimentary rock layers X, Y, and Z.
D. The igneous rock intrusion is younger than sedimentary rock layer W and older than
sedimentary rock layers X, Y, and Z.
5.
Scientists theorize that the ancient animal on the left is related to the modern
animal on the right and has gone through many changes over time.
How did the scientists conclude that the animal changed over time?
A. by examining fossil records
B. by learning about natural selection
C. by studying deposition of sediments
D. by observing different types of rock formations
If a fault cuts through multiple layers of rock, which is most likely true?
A. An earthquake happened after the layers formed.
B. An earthquake happened before the layers formed.
C. An earthquake happened at the same time the layers formed.
D. The timing of an earthquake is unrelated to when the layers formed.
7.
8.
Which can scientists infer when they find marine fossils on top of mountains?
A. The mountains were created by erosion.
B. The mountains were created through a catastrophic event.
C. The mountains were created by an uplifting of tectonic plates.
D. The mountains were created through chemical changes in the atmosphere.
9.
Fossils of the fern Glossopteris have been found in the continents of South America,
Africa, Asia, and Antarctica. The seeds of this fern were too small to be dispersed by wind.
Which is best indicated by the presence of Glossopteris fossils on these continents?
A. Glossopteris was versatile enough to adapt to all climates.
B. The landmasses were joined together in pre-historic times.
C. Fossils were much better preserved in the southern continents.
D. The northern climate regions were not suitable for plant growth.
10. The KT boundary is the geologic stratum that separates the Cretaceous period,
A. by supporting the hypothesis that an asteroid impact would change Earths climate
B. by providing evidence that the iridium was toxic to the species on Earth at that time
C. by providing evidence that the iridium came from a source outside the Earth system
D. by supporting the hypothesis that an asteroid impact would alter Earths landmass
12. An irregularly shaped rock formation is found within a group of parallel rock layers.
What most likely created this formation?
A. thrust fault
B. lava intrusion
C. metamorphic rock
D. sediment deposition
13. Which environmental condition most likely existed at the time a fossil formed?
A. Organism remains were deposited in an area of open space.
B. Organism remains were covered by lava flow.
14. Which best describes how ice cores can provide scientists with evidence for
climate change over a period of time?
A. Ice cores form only during ice ages.
B. Dark rings in the ice core indicate climate change.
C. The temperature of the ice core is lower in layers formed when temperature is colder.
D. The concentration of gases in the ice core indicate colder or warmer temperatures.
15. Which is the best evidence that Earth went through an Ice Age?
A. Sea levels were lower in the past than they are now.
B. Rocks were deposited by glaciers in now-temperate areas.
C. River meanders were created by melted water from glaciers.
16. Rich beds of marine fossils have been found in Florida. By dating these fossils,
scientists can best determine
A. when Florida collided with the North American continent.
B. the date when organisms moved onto dry land.
C. the period during which Florida was covered in water.
D. when the atmosphere of Earth was more humid than it is today.
A. S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z
B. S, T, V, W, X, Y, Z, U
C. Z, Y, S, T, V, W, X, U
D. U, Z, Y, X, W, V, T, S
18. Scientists found a fossil of an elephant in the African savannah.
It has much longer tusks and is much larger than elephant species
presently inhabiting the area. This elephant fossil most likely reveals
A. the diet of early elephants.
B. that elephants travel in herds.
C. the function of the trunk of the elephant.
D. that physical changes occurred in elephants over time.
19. The discovery of the theory of continental drift led to the subsequent discovery of which theory?
A. theory of relativity
B. theory of superposition
C. theory of plate tectonics
21. Why are fossils most likely found in sedimentary rock samples?
A. More plants and animal species grow on sedimentary rocks.
B. Sedimentary rocks preserve fossils with intense heat and pressure.
C. Sedimentary rocks are formed in layers that trap the material for fossilization.
D. Sedimentary rocks are much stronger than igneous or metamorphic rocks and protect the
samples.
A scientist finds Trophite fossils. According to the chart above, in what era and
period was this rock layer deposited?
A. Cenozoic Era; Tertiary Period
B. Mesozoic Era; Triassic Period
C. Paleozoic Era; Permian Period
D. Paleozoic Era; Mississippian Period
24. Which of these provides the best evidence that an environmental change has occurred?
A. a freshwater lake in the mountains
B. marine fossils in a freshwater lake
C. saltwater clams in the ocean
D. a sandy beach next to the ocean
25. Which country would be most likely to provide ice cores that could be used to provide
evidence for climate change?
A. Greenland
B. Italy
C. Peru
2. Which best describes a fossil that helps determine the relative age of a rock layer?
A. trace fossil
B. index fossil
C. radioactive fossil
D. unconformity fossil
3. The geologic map below shows several rock formations exposed when a road is cut
through a hillside.
6. Through relative dating, a geologist finds a fossil that is approximately 10,000 years old. Which
radioactive element would the geologist most likely use to accurately calculate the fossils age?
A. gallium-67 with a half-life of 78 hours
B. carbon-14 with a half-life of 5,700 years
C. plutonium-238 with a half-life of 88 years
D. iodine-129 with a half-life of 16 million years
7. Which would least likely be an earth process that has influenced the formation of rock layers
and fossil formation?
A. high levels of soil erosion
B. air masses forming storms
C. movement of crustal plates
8. In what type of rock would a geologist most likely find evidence of ancient life?
A. sedimentary
B. foliated
C. metamorphic
D. volcanic
9. The diagram below shows two sections of rock layers found several miles apart.
Based upon the information in the diagram, which conclusion can best be made?
A. The rock layers contained fossils identical to each other.
B. Rock layers are laid down from the youngest to the oldest.
C. Rock layers containing similar fossils were formed at the same time.
10. Which method provides the most accurate age of a rock sample?
A. superposition
B. relative dating
C. radioactive dating
D. index fossil identification
11. Which is the most accurate method used in determining the age of a fossil?
A. relative dating
B. geologic column
C. radioactive dating
D. law of superposition
12. Which conclusion can be made when observing multiple undisturbed layers of rock?
A. The shallow layers are older than the deeper layers.
B. The deeper layers are older than the shallow layers.
C. The deeper layers are younger than the shallow layers.
D. The shallow layers are the same age as the deeper layers.
13. Uranium is a naturally occurring radioactive element contained in some rocks. Over time, the
uranium radioactively decays to the element lead. The ratio of grams of uranium to grams of
lead for four rock samples is shown below.
Assuming no lead was originally present in any of the rock samples, which rock sample is most
likely the oldest?
A. 1
15. What can be used to find the exact age of a rock specimen?
A. ice cores
B. index fossils
C. radioactive dating
16. By which method have scientists determined that the Earth is about 4.5 billion years old?
A. plate tectonics
B. relative dating
C. radioactive dating
D. law of superposition
17. The index fossil of a type of trilobite is discovered in layer A of a set of rock layers found at
three different sites of a field investigation. Which conclusion can be made about the rocks in
layer A at all three sites?
A. The rocks are all different ages.
B. The rocks are all about the same age.
C. The rocks were formed by melting magma.
D. The rocks were formed during a catastrophic event.
18. Fossilized dinosaur eggs have been found in the third of five rock layers during a fossil dig.
Based on the law of superposition, which best represents the age of the eggs?
A. The eggs are older than all of the rock layers.
B. The eggs are younger than all of the rock layers.
C. The eggs are about the same age as the third rock layer.
D. The eggs are about the same age as the fifth rock layer.
21. Through relative dating, the age of a rock was determined to be between 15,000 and 25,000
years old. How long should the half life be of the radioactive element used to date the rock
layer?
A. Five thousand years
22. Which process would be most effective in determining the age of fossils embedded in rock?
A. relative dating
B. absolute dating
C. use of index fossils
D. use of core sampling
23. Which method of radioactive dating would be most useful in determining the age of a human
fossil?
A. carbon-14 method
B. uranium-lead method
C. potassium-argon method
D. rubidium-strontium method
24. The radioactive isotope content of a rock can be used to identify which property of the
rock?
A. the total mass of the rock
B. the rate at which the rock formed
C. the types of fossils that the rock contains
D. the amount of time passed since the rock formed
25. Which technique best helps scientists determine the age of our solar system?
A. using relative dating techniques on layers of Earth rocks
B. comparing the fossils found in the oldest Earth rocks
4. Two organisms have homologous structures. Which can most likely be concluded about the two organisms?
A. They are unrelated.
B. They are the same organism.
C. They share a common ancestor.
D. They evolved in a similar environment.
5. James is examining two different fossil specimens. The fossils of both organisms
show wings with similar bone structure. Which conclusion can James most likely make?
A. The organisms are of different species.
B. The organisms are of the same species.
C. The wings allowed the organisms to fly long distances.
D. The wings served the same function in both organisms.
6. Throughout fossil records, many species appearing in lower layers of rock disappear in higher layers of rock.
Which best explains their disappearance?
14. Which term refers to the classification of organisms in an ordered system that indicates natural relationships?
A. taxonomy
B. tectonics
C. geology
16. Fossils of land-dwelling mammals found in both Australia and southern Asia were discovered to have body
structures believed to have evolved from a common ancestor. What does this evidence most likely suggest?
A. These organisms were capable of swimming from one continent to the other.
B. Australia and Asia were once part of a larger continent.
C. These organisms developed during the same time period.
17. Which best helps scientists explore the relationship between modern organisms and ancestral species to create a
system of biological classification?
A. fossils
B. volcanic ash
C. DNA evidence
D. igneous rock layers
The human arm contains the radius and ulna bones. Whales, bats, and dogs also have these bones.
18. Which statement best explains this relationship between the organisms?
A. The eggs are older than all of the rock layers.
B. The eggs are younger than all of the rock layers.
C. The eggs are about the same age as the third rock layer.
D. The eggs are about the same age as the fifth rock layer.
20. How are fossils compared to one another for biological classification?
A. by their size
B. by their estimated life spans
C. by the geographic locations where they are found
D. by similarities and differences in their body structures
21. Which best explains why Australia has life forms that do not exist anywhere else on Earth?
A. Australia was separated from the other landmasses by geological forces.
B. Australias climate is very different from those of other continents in the world.
C. Chemicals in Australian soil caused genetic changes in the DNA of the plants and animals.
D. Australia was hit in ancient times by a meteorite, which influenced the evolution of
species.
22. Many plants and animals native to Australia are found nowhere else on Earth. Which best explains this?
A. The soil of Australia has a high mineral content with plenty of moisture.
B. Geologic evolution occurred, separating Australia from other land masses.
C. The climate of Australia is very favorable to many plant and animal species.
D. Biological evolution failed to create changes in the plant and animal species of Australia.
24. What can be inferred from observed similarities in the forelimbs of humans, dogs and bats?
A. Bats evolved from humans.
B. Dogs evolved from humans.
C. These organisms share a common ancestor.
25. Organisms who are evolutionarily closer are most likely found at which taxonomic level?
A. order
B. family
C. kingdom
2.
3.
The prairie dog has many adaptions to its ecosystem. Which best explains
the genetic variation in the prairie dog that provided adaptation to its
ecosystem?
A.
B.
C.
What type of species has the best chance of surviving through significant
environmental change?
A.
genetically-diverse species
B.
genetically-homogenous species
C.
B.
C.
B.
C.
D.
5.
6.
7.
Which adaptation has occurred due to genetic variation allowing some species
to seem invisible to predators?
A.
B.
exceptional vision
C.
camouflage
mimicry
B.
parasitism
C.
protective covering
8.
9.
A.
increases it
B.
decreases it
C.
cryptic coloration
B.
genetic variation
C.
phenotypic characteristics
Some peacocks are born with a genetic variation that makes them completely
white. How does this affect the likelihood of their survival?
A.
B.
C.
10.
11.
12.
13.
Which will most likely occur when a birds beak size increases over time to
better crack open nuts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
B.
C.
D.
Which is the best hypothesis for the extinction of the dinosaurs at the end of
the Cretaceous period?
A.
B.
C.
14.
Why are fat layers and thick white fur advantageous for polar bears?
A.
B.
They help the bears get rid of excess body heat more easily.
C.
D.
15.
Which best explains how environment and genetic variation contribute to the
difference in a species physical appearance?
A.
B.
C.
16.
17.
thick fur
B.
long ears
C.
Over time, the length of giraffes necks changed slightly to allow them to
reach taller trees. How should this change be classified?
A.
mutation
B.
adaptation
C.
acquired trait
D.
genetic constant
19.
Which bird would be best adapted to eat the seeds from very hard shells?
A.
Geospiza magnirostris
B.
Geospiza fortis
C.
Geospiza parvula
D.
Certhidea olivacea
Bird A can blend in with its environment, fly far, and eat a variety of nuts and
seeds. Bird B is an unusually colored, weak flyer that eats only one type of
seed regularly. Which statement is most likely true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.
22.
23.
B.
C.
An arctic hare experiences a genetic variation that keeps its coat from
changing to white for the winter season. Which element in the environment
would pose the greatest threat because of this variation?
A.
prey
B.
predators
C.
pollution
genetic mutations
B.
common ancestors
C.
environmental conditions
B.
C.
D.
25.
Which best explains the relationship between evolution and natural selection?
A.
B.
C.
D.
B.
C.
D.
River Basins
River basin - Portion of land drained by a river and its tributaries. Separated by higher land.
Tributaries small stream flows into larger stream.
Contains:
- Entire land surface
- Streams & creeks that flow downhill into each other
- Flow into one river
- Final destination = estuary or ocean
Everyone lives in a river basin
- Live on land that drains into river, estuary, or lake
- Everyones action on land affect water quality & quantity far downstream
17 NC River basins
- Topography of each RB determines (topography = features of region)
1. Area it drains
2. Where it flows to
a. Creeks, rivers, springs, aquifers
b. Atlantic Ocean or Gulf of Mexico
Salt Water
1. Contains dissolved salts &
minerals.
2. Located mostly in oceans.
3. Salt Water is 97% of Earths
water.
= Not drinkable
Ocean Basics
Salt Water
1. Dissolved minerals from Earths crust & washed into sea
2. Volcano solid & gas ejections
3. Suspended particles
4. Dissolved materials from sediments
Salinity increases
1. Evaporation
2. Freezing of sea ice
Salinity decreases
1.
2.
3.
4.
Rainfall
Runoff
Ice melting
Closer to coastal waters, polar seas, & mouths of large rivers
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Pacific Ocean
Southern Oscillation
Band of warm ocean water temps
Off South American Coast
Cause climate changes
Photic Zone
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Ocean - Important source of food & minerals, human recreation & transportation
- Largest reservoir of
1. Water
2. Heat & energy
3. Resources
- Ocean heat drives
1. Weather & climate: Milder climate near coast
2. Cycles & circulation between atmosphere, lithosphere, & hydrosphere
Hydrothermal Vents crack in ocean floor that spews hot, mineral-rich ocean water heated by
volcanism under sea floor.
a. Hydro means water.
b. Thermal means having to do with heat.
- Located near ridges
- Affects ocean salinity
- Vents & ecosystems created/destroyed based on volcanic activity
Process
1. Cold ocean water seeps into cracks in ocean floor
Mary pours 1,000 mL of water into a beaker to represent all of the water on Earth. She then measures
out 800 mL and puts it into another beaker. Which portion of Earths water is most closely represented
by the 800 mL?
A. water in the ocean
B. water in the ground
C. water in lakes and rivers
D. water trapped in polar ice caps
5. Which would best demonstrate water movement within the water cycle?
A. lakes
B. streams
C. river basins
9. Which would be the best way for humans to conserve large amounts of water during a drought?
A. install high-flow toilets
B. bathe only once a week
C. limit drinking water in restaurants
D. limit use of outdoor sprinkler systems
11. Which best describes the process by which water from the ocean enters the atmosphere?
A. infiltration
B. precipitation
C. evaporation
D. condensation
12. According to scientists, only 1% of the water on Earth is available for human use. Where is this
15. Which process removes the most available water from the local water supply?
A. runoff
B. evaporation
C. condensation
atmosphere
17. Where would the safest and least polluted water most likely occur?
A. aquifer
B. large river
C. mountaintop snow
19. Which factor most affects how water drains into local watersheds?
A. evaporation
B. precipitation
C. differences in elevation
21. Why might countries bordering the Pacific ocean have problems getting enough water to meet the
25. Sea otters consume sea urchins, which in turn thrive in kelp forests off the coast of California.
These underwater forests depend on cold water. Which would yield the most stable ecosystem for
sea otters?
A. underwater volcanoes
B. hurricane activity
C. upwelling
1. Nitrogen
a. Needed to make amino acids, protein, & DNA
b. Used during photosynthesis
c. Fixed into a useable form by bacteria
2. Oxygen
a. Released from photosynthesis
b. Animals need for respiration
3. Carbon Dioxide
a. Aquatic plants need for photosynthesis
b. Released by animal respiration
Ocean Habitats
Estuaries
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Control erosion
Reduce flooding of mainland
Sand bars buffer impact of waves
Plants & shellfish beds keep tides from eroding shore
Swamps/marshes
a. Reduce winds
b. Soak up heavy rains
c. Soak up storm surges
d. Release water gradually into rivers & groundwater
Environmental Filters
Surface water blown toward shore causes warm surface water to sink, moving oxygen rich
water to ocean floor
Aphotic Zone
A means not
Deepest ocean zone with the coldest, highest pressure, and no sunlight.
Organisms must be consumers or rely on Marine Snow drifting down from Photic Zone
1. Photograph depths
2. Drop floats/drifters into currents
3. Collect samples of water, rocks, & marine life
Extremophiles
- Organisms that live in extreme conditions
- 1977, Alvin (submersible) off Galapagos Rift
- Live under extremely high pressure, cold, high heat, darkness, & toxic chemicals.
Chemotrophs - Bacteria use chemicals to make energy.
a. Use chemosynthesis to create food by using oxygen in seawater to oxidize hydrogen
sulfide, methane, and other chemicals.
b. No sunlight or photosynthesis
c. Clams, mussels, snails, & shrimp feed on bacteria, who are food for others
d. Food Web
i. Vents produce hydrogen sulfide (H2S).
ii. Bacteria absorb hydrogen sulfide to make energy.
iii. Organisms eat bacteria
Autotrophs organisms that use photosynthesis to make their own glucose. Ex: plants, algae
Cold Seeps
- Cold temperature fluids
- Natural gas & mixture of hydrocarbons
- Slower rate for longer periods of time
- Methane feeds microbes (basis for food chain)
Process
Bottom of ocean
No sunlight or photosynthesis
Place where chemical-rich water comes from seafloor, provides ecosystem with energy
Expands understanding of how life on earth began & evolved, & beyond solar system
3. Mineral Mining
- Beginning in 1950s
- Diamonds, gold, silver, metal ores, sand, & gravel
- Sand & gravels mined in US
- Used to protect beaches & prevent erosion
- Negative impact Dredging causes high turbidity & brings heavy metals into food chains
d) Environmental impacts
- Rigs impact living creatures
- Rig actions affect oceans & ocean life
- Oil spills are a threat
5. Shipping moving cargo with ships in between seaports
- Powered with steam turbine plants or diesel engines
- Include container ships, tankers, crude oil ships, chemical ships, bulk carriers, cable layers, general
cargo ships, ferries, gas and car carriers, tugboats, barges and dredgers.
6. Human Recreation
- Tourism provides 200 million + jobs worldwide
- Based on countrys natural resources
- Negative impacts
1. Coastal and ocean ecosystems
2. Over development of coastal habitats & ecosystems
3. Garbage & sewage can end up in ecosystems = eutrophication = disease epidemics
- Positive Impacts
- Promotes environmental conservation
2. Most of the oxygen in Earths atmosphere is produced in the top six inches of the oceans. Which
ocean.
3. Which technology has allowed scientists to accurately map the ocean floor?
A. sonar
B. scuba
C. satellites
D. submersibles
4. How did the invention of the Aqua Lung change scuba diving and marine exploration?
A. Divers could exceed the depth of most submersibles.
B. Divers could spend more continuous time underwater.
C. Divers could use the dissolved oxygen in the water to breathe.
5. Organisms that live in an intertidal zone must be able to tolerate which changes to survive?
A. changes in temperature but not salinity
8.
9.
Which is the best estimate of how much of Earths saltwater is contained in the given ecosystem?
A. Aquatic ecosystem, 25%
B. Swamp ecosystem, 50%
C. Marine ecosystem, 75%
11. Which best explains why the diversity and productivity of marine ecosystems is important to the
12. Bluefin tuna has become the most popular fish for sushi in Japan. Which is most likely the impact
14. Which best explains the effects of a hurricane on estuary circulation and salinity?
A. Salinity levels remain the same as before the hurricane.
B. Salinity concentrations stay stable for a week after a hurricane.
15. Which characteristic of an estuary makes it a good nursery area for marine organisms?
A. It is located at the mouth of a river.
B. It has a mix of salt and fresh water.
C. It has many areas to hide from predators.
D. It has the ability to absorb water and prevent flooding.
16. Coral animals survive best in warm water. Which material is most abundant in warm water?
A. carbon dioxide
B. oxygen
C. nitrogen
D. Coastal wetlands provide safe and ideal conditions to support animal habitats.
17.
18.Which dissolved gases are most needed by plants and animals living in the ocean?
A. nitrogen and oxygen
B. oxygen and carbon dioxide
20. Which best explains where the richest deposits of oil and natural gas can be located?
A. continental shelves
B. intertidal zone
C. deep zone
22. Which are the two main sources of the dissolved oxygen in the ocean?
A. surface air and ocean plants
B. warm water vents and Earths core
C. underwater volcanoes and earthquakes
24. Which best explains why inhabitants of an estuary must adapt to frequent environmental
changes?
A. Estuaries receive little sunlight.
B. The water temperature is constantly warm.
C. The salinity of the water is constantly changing.
D. Low levels of oxygen are absorbed by the water.
25. Why are estuaries often valued as the center of human coastal communities?
A. Estuaries create mild habitats for deep sea life.
B. Estuaries enhance marine biology resources for the future.
C. Estuaries are needed to filter pollution out of ocean water.
D. Estuaries provide a place for people to live, fish, and swim.
The more suspended solids (soil, dirt, sand) in water = less clear/transparent
Measures water quality
Secchi Disk black & white circular disk attached to a string or pole
used to measure turbidity.
Lowered into water until the disk is no longer visible. A centimeter
reading is taken.
Water Temperature
1. Measures the amount of oxygen in water available for chemical reactions & organism to use
a. DO in surface water is used by all organisms = measurement of water quality
2. Oxygen gets into water
a. Diffusion with the air
b. Aquatic plants photosynthesis
3. DO levels vary
a. During seasons
b. Over 24 hour cycles
4. When DO levels decrease
a. Sensitive organisms move away, weaken, or die
5. High DO levels make potable water taste better
Bioindicators living organisms (macroinvertebrates) whose presence, condition, and numbers tell the
health of water
- Fish, insects, algae, plants, etc
- Sensitive to pollution in water = good indicator if water is livable
- Good, healthy water = large variety of organisms
- Unhealthy water = low variety of organisms
water
up all
runoff
is
Tastes Bitter
Deep tissue burn
pH 7.1 14
Forms OH- (Hydroxide Ions)
Accepts H+ or protons
Feels slippery to the touch
Drain Cleaner
Tums Antacid
Baking Soda
Soap
2. Which human activity would have the greatest positive impact on the water quality of a stream?
A. releasing warm water into the stream
B. driving cars through the stream
C. reducing use of fertilizers near the stream
D. increasing use of chemicals near the stream
3. Which best describes the relationship between temperature and dissolved oxygen in a lake?
A. As temperature increases, dissolved oxygen increases.
B. As temperature increases, dissolved oxygen decreases.
C. As temperature decreases, dissolved oxygen decreases.
D. A change in temperature has no effect on dissolved oxygen.
4. Which best describes how frogs can be used to indicate the health of a water system?
A. Frogs will change color in a polluted environment.
5. Fish, flies, and algae are bio-indicators known to exist in a certain North Carolina river. Recently a
chemical company was built upstream. Which environmental factor is most likely measured by these
bio-indicators in this river?
A. light
B. temperature
C. dissolved oxygen
7. Which would a scientist expect to find in a lake that experienced a sudden increase in nitrate levels?
A. an increase in temperature
B. an increased number of fish
C. an increase in dissolved oxygen
D. an increased amount of algae and aquatic plants
8. A scientist collected water quality data in a protected estuary over time. The scientist measures a nitrate
level of 6 ppm, and a dissolved oxygen level of 2 mg/L. Which would the scientist most likely conclude
9. Which would most likely happen if too many nutrients entered an estuary?
A. Nutrients would be used up by the fish and plants, keeping the estuary in balance.
B. Algal blooms would lower dissolved oxygen levels, causing fish to suffocate.
C. Algal blooms would decrease, leaving few food resources for fish.
D. Nutrients would sink to the bottom, increasing soil deposition.
10. If a large amount of fertilizer enters a lake, which will most likely happen?
A. The fish population in the lake will increase.
B. The temperature of the lake water will increase.
The likely
number
fishhighest
dying number
in the lake
will increase. in the water?
C. most
hasofthe
of contaminants
11. Which
A. a water system with moderate turbidity
D. The available food supply for the fish in the lake will increase.
B. a water system with high turbidity
C. a water system with low turbidity
D. a water system with no turbidity
12. The word bioaccumulation is most often associated with which threat to water?
A. sediment
15. The change in seasonal temperature causes the supply of nutrients to move in a lake. Which best
16. Which would best indicate that water taken from a local waterway was unsafe for drinking?
A. cloudy water
B. warm temperature
C. dead fish in the water
17. If a pond is located in an area with significant amounts of air pollution, which health measure
19. If a pond is polluted by soap that has phosphate, this pollutant will cause the algae to
quickly reproduce. Which will most likely increase in the pond if this happens to the
algae?
A. sulfur
B. oxygen
C. nitrogen
D. carbon dioxide
20. Rainbow trout are found in mountain streams and are sensitive to changes in their habitat.
Which would be the best description for the use of rainbow trout in water quality testing?
A. biological indicator
B. invasive species
C. nitrates
21. Which environmental factors would most likely impact the quality of a freshwater system?
A. dissolved oxygen and pH
B. salinity and temperature
C. surface tension and aquatic organisms
23. Which best explains why a scientist would use nets to capture and count organisms in a river?
A. to measure pH
B. to measure turbidity
C. to measure biodiversity
24. Why does a cloudy river produce less plant life than a clear river?
A. A cloudy river flows freely, while a clear river does not.
B. A cloudy river has few dissolved nutrients, while a clear river has many.
C. A cloudy river absorbs little heat, while a clear river absorbs much heat.
D. A cloudy river blocks sunlight from reaching plants, while a clear river allows sunlight to
be absorbed by plants.
25. Which would most likely result in an unhealthy aquatic habitat?
A. a decrease in turbidity
B. a decrease in nitrates levels
C. an increase in water temperature
D. an increase in dissolved oxygen levels
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Water collection
Coagulation lime & alum added to cause clumping
Flocs larger clump form
Sedimentation clumps settle to bottom
Filtration solids, bacteria, algae, viruses, fungi, minerals, & chemical pollutants removed
Disinfected (w/chlorine)
Aerated run air through it
2.
3.
families
B.
a neighborhood
C.
D.
geologist
B.
hydrologist
C.
geoscientist
D.
meteorologist
4.
A.
B.
C.
D.
B.
C.
D.
5.
B.
C.
D.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Which disease that once caused many deaths has been limited due
to the implementation of water quality standards?
A.
smallpox
B.
influenza
C.
cholera
B.
C.
D.
B.
C.
C.
D.
10.
11.
B.
C.
D.
Based on the data, which best explains the quality of the drinking
water?
A.
B.
C.
The drinking water is safe because the first two samples are
below the recommended limit.
The drinking water is unsafe because the last two samples are
above the recommended limit.
The drinking water is unsafe because the last two samples are
below the recommended limit.
12.
13.
14.
rain gauge
B.
psychrometer
C.
radar imaging
B.
C.
flush only human waste and toilet paper down the toilet
D.
Which best explains why all communities do not use tertiary water
treatment, though this treatment removes almost 100% of waste
in the water?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.
16.
A.
B.
C.
D.
B.
C.
D.
17.
18.
19.
ammonia
B.
chlorine
C.
sand
D.
soap
Scientists notice that many fish are dying in a local lake. Which
onsite water quality data would they most likely gather to
determine the cause of the fish kill?
A.
B.
C.
D.
B.
C.
D.
20.
When the acid rain finds its way into the stream, the pH in the
stream can increase.
C.
21.
22.
23.
24.
When the acid rain finds its way into the stream, the pH in the
stream can decrease.
Pollution corresponds with decreased photosynthesis, which
may cause long-term stability in pH.
B.
C.
D.
B.
C.
D.
Which is one way people can help prevent the pollution of lakes
and rivers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which best explains why using ultraviolet (UV) light for disinfection
may be better than using chlorine?
A. Chlorine is difficult to purchase.
B.
C.
D.
2. How would a drought most likely affect the plants of a grassy plain?
A. There would be shorter plants.
B. They would have thicker stems.
C. There would be a greater variety.
D. They would have brighter flowers.
Some caterpillars need big wide leaves to wrap up in when undergoing metamorphosis. Which
3. is the limiting factor when there is a shortage of this kind of leaf?
A. food
B. shelter
C. space
D. water
4. Which is an abiotic factor that would affect the growth of a population within an ecosystem?
A. the availability of water
B. the availability of producers
C. the type of herbivores present
D. the number of carnivores present
After a volcanic eruption, it takes a long time for large ecosystems to fully recover. Which
7. statement best explains why the development takes so long?
A. Space is limited for growth.
B. The quality of light is low.
C. Soil must be created.
D. Minerals are destroyed.
8.
If acid rain causes a decrease in the number of mayfly nymphs, which population will
decrease the most in number?
A. trout
B. frogs
C. birds
D. snails
10.
11.
How will the owls most likely be affected by a sudden sharp increase in local populations of
rodents?
A. The owl population will either stabilize or increase.
B. The owl population will migrate to another area.
C. The owls will have to find another food source or risk starvation.
D. Owls will have to compete more with each other for available food.
14.
Which best describes the effect on another population in the food web below if nearly all
of the field mice are removed?
18.
If krill is a primary food source for a local population of whales, which will most likely happen
20. to the whales if the krill population suddenly doubles?
A. The whales will have to compete more with each other for available food.
B. The whales will have to find another food source or risk starvation.
C. The whales will migrate to another area.
D. The whales will increase in number.
Which of the following is an abiotic factor that can influence the quantity of fish a pond
can support?
A. availability of plants
B. concentration of bacteria
C. quality of water
D. number of consumers
22.
Which of these do scientists offer as the most recent explanation as to why many plants
and animals died out at the end of the Mesozoic era?
A. worldwide disease
B. global mountain building
C. rise of mammals that preyed upon plants and animals
D. impact of an asteroid created dust that blocked the sunlight
During the Siberian summer, reindeer graze on young roots, fungi, grass, and other vegetation.
In the cold winter months, they migrate south and rely on available, but less nutritious food,
23.
such as lichen. Increased snowfall during the entire winter in southern areas would result in
reindeer having to
A. return to their summer feeding area.
B. hibernate until the snows have stopped.
C. hunt for organisms such as small rodents.
D. move to other areas to compete for resources.
If the primary food source for the whale population in an area is depleted, which will most
24. likely happen?
A. The whale population will stabilize.
B. The whale population will increase.
C. Competition among the whales will increase.
D. Starvation will cause the whales to become extinct.
If a fox and an eagle eat some of the same organisms in an ecosystem, the relationship
between the fox and the eagle could be classified as
A. competition.
B. mutualism.
C. predation.
D. parasitism.
2.
A pride of lions stalks, tackles, and kills an antelope. Which is best being demonstrated?
A. predation
B. mutualism
C. cooperation
3.
5.
6.
Bees visit flowers for their nectar and in the process pick up pollen, allowing flowering plants to
cross-pollinate. Which term best describes the relationship between bees and flowers?
A. mutualism
B. parasitism
C. competition
7.
A certain snake species in an ecosystem eats small rodents. If a bird species is introduced into
the ecosystem that also eats small rodents, which of these will most likely increase?
A. parasitism
B. migration
C. mutualism
D. competition
9.
Two different species of birds live in one particular spruce tree. Which would best allow the two
bird species to coexist in the same tree?
A. They are genetically unlike.
B. They are genetically similar.
C. They live in different parts of the tree.
10. Which pair of organisms would most likely demonstrate mutualism in an ecosystem?
A. tapeworm and dog
B. rabbit and grass
C. tick and human
D. bee and flower
12. Which will most likely occur if two species occupy the same niche in an ecosystem?
A. The two species will become friendly and share the niche.
B. The two species will support each other, and one species will overpopulate.
13.
Populations of wolves and rabbits in an ecosystem are represented by the graph below.
18.
Which best explains the relationship between wolves and rabbits in the ecosystem?
A. As the number of rabbits increases, the number of wolves increases.
19.
most
In a grassland ecosystem, organisms of the same species eat the same food. When there is a
20. lack of rain, which is most likely increased?
A. carrying capacity
B. population density
C. competition for space
D. competition for resources
In a marine ecosystem, sea anemones often attach themselves to the shells of hermit crabs,
21. demonstrating mutualism. The stinging tendrils of the sea anemone protect the hermit crab from
predators. Which is the most likely benefit to the anemone?
A. The anemone feeds directly on the crabs shell.
B. The crab protects the anemone from wave and current action.
C. The anemone travels with the crab and has access to more resources.
D. The crab provides the anemone with immunity to diseases and parasites.
Carbon Cycle
released by
1. Cellular Respiration
2. Decay break down
3. Volcanic activity
4. Weathering
5. Combustion burning
6. Degasification CO2 released from
water
- stored by
1. Photosynthesis
2. Organisms creating shells
3. Sedimentation soil settles & matter is
buried
4. Dissolution gas dissolves into water
Which best describes what happens when an owl attacks and kills a fish for food?
A. an interconnection between aquatic and terrestrial food webs.
B. an interconnection between terrestrial organisms and predators
C. an interconnection between aquatic food webs and decomposers
2. Which absorbs excess carbon dioxide in the atmosphere when transforming energy?
A. producers
B. decomposers
C. primary consumers
D. secondary consumers
Energy is transferred from organism to organism in a food web. Some organisms, such as the Southern
leopard frog, are secondary consumers. Other species, such as the mosquito, can be either a primary or a
secondary consumer depending on which organism they consume. Which of the following populations
provides the greatest amount of energy as a food source?
A. Raccoon
B. Grass Carp
C. Butterfly Orchid
D. American Alligator
4.
Carbon cycles through various reservoirs on Earth. The time it takes to form these reservoirs varies
greatly. Which process in the carbon cycle takes millions of years to form the indicated reservoir?
A. incorporation of carbon through digestion into animal tissues
B. release of carbon into the atmosphere while breathing
C. atmospheric carbon incorporated into sugars in plants
D. breakdown of carbon in plant tissues to form oil
Which trophic level would lose the most useful energy as heat when it feeds on another organism?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
6. Materials such as carbon and nitrogen go through cycles. The cycling of nitrogen waste materials is mostly
dependent upon the role of which factor?
A. atmosphere
B. bacteria
C. sunlight
D. trees
8. Meadows are grassland areas, usually low-lying with moist soil. Meadows support a rich variety of animal
life. A food web for a meadow is shown.
The removal of which populations of organisms would have the greatest impact on the food web?
9. Decomposers increase the fertility of the soil and prevent dead organisms from building up in the
environment. In which way do decomposers make the soil more fertile?
A. by adding carbon
B. by adding nitrogen
C. by removing excess water
D. by removing excess minerals
10. A bracket fungus grows on a dead tree and breaks it down into chemical nutrients. What term best
classifies the role of a bracket fungus in this ecosystem?
A. producer
B. consumer
C. parasite
D. decomposer
14. After nitrogen becomes part of the lithosphere, what is the next change that nitrogen will undergo?
A. used as a nutrient by plants
B. fixed by bacteria in the soil
C. converted into oxygen
D. absorbed into the atmosphere by lightning
Which best describes how oxygen and carbon dioxide are cycled in this aquatic ocean ecosystem?
A. Phytoplankton use carbon dioxide and produce oxygen during photosynthesis;
phytoplankton, fish, and seals use oxygen and produce carbon dioxide during respiration.
B. Phytoplankton use carbon dioxide and produce oxygen during respiration; phytoplankton,
fish, and seals use oxygen and produce carbon dioxide during photosynthesis.
C. Phytoplankton use oxygen and produce carbon dioxide during photosynthesis;
phytoplankton, fish, and seals use carbon dioxide and produce oxygen during respiration.
D. Phytoplankton use oxygen and produce carbon dioxide during respiration; phytoplankton,
fish, and seals use carbon dioxide and produce oxygen during photosynthesis.
16. In an energy pyramid, the total energy available for consumption from one trophic level to the next one
above it is
A. reduced.
B. conserved.
C. multiplied.
D. evenly distributed.
Which statement best explains what will happen to the wood as a result of the mushrooms being attached
to the tree stump?
A. The mushroom will decompose the wood.
B. B
B. The mushroom will grow without affecting the wood.
21. Within a cave environment, bat waste products, called guano, are decomposed by organisms such as fungi
and bacteria. These are then eaten by creatures such as flatworms. Larger animals like salamanders eat
flatworms. Which correctly represents the energy flow described?
A. Fungi Bacteria Salamanders Guano
B. Bats Guano Flatworms Salamanders
C. Salamanders Fungi Bacteria Flatworms
D. Guano Bacteria Flatworms Salamanders
24. Matter cycles between the environment and living organisms in a complex web of interactions.
Which organisms provide the important link in Box A from dead organic matter to matter from the
environment?
A. autotrophs
B. decomposers
C. parasites
D. photosynthesizers
25. Food webs are used to identify the feeding relationships between organisms.
Which statement can be logically concluded about the food web shown?
A. Organism 1 is most likely a type of bacteria.
B. Organism 2 is definitely an omnivore.
C. Organism 5 is most likely a plant eater.
D. Organism 8 is definitely a carnivore.
5. How do cells obtain the energy and materials necessary for the work they do?
8. Which best describes the nutrients that are sources of energy for the body?
A. fats and proteins
B. fats and carbohydrates
C. water and carbohydrates
9. Crystal is trying to increase the protein in her diet. Which foods will best satisfy this nutritional
need?
A. peas, fish, milk, and beans
B. apples, carrots, juice, and rice
C. kiwi, lettuce, tea, and strawberries
D. watermelon, spinach, coffee, and pasta
10. After a person eats, the food is converted into energy by
11. Which most accurately describes how plants and animals obtain the energy they need for
growth and survival?
A. Molecules are broken down during respiration to release stored energy.
B. Molecules are broken down during photosynthesis to release stored energy.
C. Animals produce energy through photosynthesis, while plants produce energy through
respiration.
D. Animals produce energy through respiration, while plants produce energy through
photosynthesis.
12. Which is needed for breaking down food molecules in cells after digestion has occurred?
A. carbon dioxide
B. nitrogen
C. oxygen
D. sodium
13. Which best describes the primary function of carbohydrates in an animal cell?
A. to provide cellular energy
B. to store cellular information
C. to store energy within the cell
D. to provide structure to the cell membrane
17. Which best describes how organisms process materials to gain energy for life processes?
A. Oxygen is broken down in a chemical reaction with sugars to release energy.
B. Sugars are broken down in a chemical reaction with oxygen to release energy.
C. Vitamins and minerals are used to build complex molecules that store energy.
D. Vitamins and minerals are used to break down complex molecules that store energy.
18. Which best explains why animals depend on the sun for energy?
20. Which best describes the process by which the energy from the sun is used to create glucose
molecules?
A. fermentation
B. photosynthesis
C. chemosynthesis
D. cellular respiration
21. In cellular respiration, approximately 38% of the energy contained in glucose is released for an
organism to use in carrying out life processes. Which best explains what happens to the
remaining 62% of the energy contained in glucose?
A. The energy is used to start the process of cellular respiration when more glucose is
consumed by the organism.
B. The energy is used to convert leftover glucose into protein to be stored by the cells of the
organism.
C. The energy is stored by the cells and released later when needed by the organism.
D. The energy is converted to thermal energy, which provides heat to the organism.
23. Which is necessary for a plant to convert the energy of the sun into energy it can use?
A. calcium chloride
B. chlorophyll
C. glucose
D. oxygen
24. How would the absence of sunlight affect a plants ability to grow?
A. The plant could not absorb nutrients from soil.
B. The plant could not absorb water from the soil.
C. The plant could not produce carbon dioxide and oxygen.
D. The plant could not produce food through photosynthesis.
Nutrition
1. Carbohydrates - Stored glucose for later as sugars, starches, and cellulose. Major energy source.
2. Simple vs. Complex Carbohydrates - Depends on chemical Structure & how quickly the sugar is
digested & absorbed
I.
Simple Carbs - Have 1 or 2 sugars. Ex: Fruits, vegetables, & dairy products
II.
Complex Carbs - Have 3 or more sugars. Ex: Starchy vegetables, beans, grains
3. Fiber Coarse, non-digestible plant matter
I. Soluble Fiber - Attracts water, slows digestion, is found in oats, nuts, seeds, beans, peas
II. Insoluble Fiber - Aids digestion and is found in wheat, vegetables, whole grains.
2. Protein - Composed of amino acids, needed for the growth & repair of tissue and is obtained from
meat, fish, eggs, milk & legumes (pea/bean family).
3. Gluten - Mixture of plant proteins found in corn & wheat that creates an edible glue. Used in soups,
salad dressings, processed foods, natural flavorings, medicine & vitamin fillers.
2.
3.
B.
C.
D.
fats
B.
nitrates
C.
proteins
D.
carbohydrates
B.
C.
D.
4.
5.
6.
Beans, nuts, and whole grains are good sources of protein that
are lower in fat than beef, chicken, and fish.
Beans, nuts, and whole grains provide higher amounts of
protein per serving than beef, chicken, and fish.
Beans, nuts, and whole grains provide protein that is stored
longer by the body than protein from beef, chicken, and fish.
Beans, nuts, and whole grains provide protein that is chemically
broken down more quickly by the body than protein from beef,
chicken, and fish.
B.
C.
D.
B.
C.
exercise
7.
8.
9.
B.
lifestyle
C.
nutrition
D.
respiration
B.
C.
D.
breads
B.
C.
D.
B.
C.
10.
eliminating waste
B.
11. Which combination of foods best provides a healthy and nutritious meal?
12.
13.
14.
A.
B.
C.
D.
macaroni and cheese, orange juice, ice cream, and pound cake
saturated fat
B.
unsaturated fat
C.
D.
digestion
B.
glycolysis
C.
respiration
D.
photosynthesis
B.
15.
16.
How does the intake of too many fats in the diet negatively affect
human health?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.
18.
A.
B.
C.
19.
20.
21.
22.
B.
C.
D.
B.
C.
23.
24.
25.
B.
C.
B.
C.
D.
asthma
B.
cancer
C.
diabetes
D.
heart disease
Virus
1) Viral Characteristics
1. Prokaryotic
2. Not living do not come from other cells
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
3. Why viruses are NOT considered living? Viruses do not come from existing cells; need a host to
reproduce = not living.
Viral Morphology
1. DNA/RNA in protein shell
2. Needs host to reproduce
3. Smallest microorganism
Viral Reproduction
1. Attached to living host cells
2. Injects viral DNA or RNA
3. Viruses reproduce inside of cell
4. Host cell explodes
5. New viruses are released into body
Viral Diseases
1. AIDS, Common Cold, Influenza (Flu), Polio, Smallpox,
2. Chickenpox airborne virus that creates a rash mostly affecting children. Remains dormant by
Immune System in nerve tissues and can appear as an adult as Shingles. Shingles create a rash
and night pain in the rash area. Prevented with vaccine; there is no treatment beyond lessoning
the symptoms.
3. Yellow Fever Transmitted through mosquitoes and primates. Infected have fever, chills,
anorexia, nausea, muscle pain, and headache. Liver damage often occurs (jaundice) =
yellowness and bleeding can occur. Vaccine exist and most cases occur in Africa & South
America.
4. Viral Meningitis Viral disease that infects the brain & spinal cord. It is spread through contact
with feces & not washing hands, and airborne. Can also be infected due to person having other
viral disease. Infected have fever, headache, & stiff neck. There is no vaccine or treatment. It
will clear up over time.
5. West Nile First reported in East Africa near Uganda in 1937. Spread by mosquitoes and
infected have fever, headache, fatigue, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting and rash. Can lead to
meningitis. No vaccine exists and treatment is mosquito control. Infected can be supported at
hospital with secondary treatments.
6. Ebola Found in Ebola River in Republic of the Congo. Infected have flu like symptoms, fever,
chills, & chest pain. Infected begin to hemorrhage internally. Disease occurs in poor, isolated
areas without modern medical opportunities. Prevention occurs with avoiding the direct contact
with blood or secretions of the infected. There is no vaccine or treatment beyond supportive
measures.
Viral Spread
1. Invade host cells
2. Many varieties = catch many times
3. Direct & Indirect Contact (airborne)
Viral Prevention
1. Vaccines - dead or weakened viruses injected into a
person that help Immune System fight off real disease.
Viral Treatment
1. Antiviral drug that is specific to the type of virus;
used to stop their development.
4)
5)
6)
7)
1. Asexually: Spores small, reproductive body that grows into a new organism.
2. Sexually: combining DNA
3. Some by budding a piece breaks off and forms new organism
Fungi Diseases - Fungus compete with body for nutrients.
1. Ringworm Not caused by a worm; contagious fungal infection. It is passed by contact with
infected skin area or sharing combs/brushes or clothing, contact with locker room or pool
surfaces. Causes scaly, crusted round rash that may itch. Can be treated by topical antifungal
medications or oral meds.
2. Athletes foot Affects the toes and soles of the feet. Very contagious and can be spread by
walking on contaminated objects and floors. Causes foot itching, burning, pain and scaling of
skin. Can be cured by antifungal creams.
3. Fungal allergies People can be allergic to mold, mildew. Affected get sneezing, runny/itchy
nose, itchy ears, congested sinuses, or dry/chapped skin. A skin allergy test is conducted to
determine which fungi allergic to. Antihistamines (stop itching) and decongestants (unclog
sinuses) can be taken to help, but there are no cures.
Spread
1. Spores
2. Parasites
3. Heat and moisture
4. Walking barefoot on contaminated areas
Prevention
1. Keeping dry feet
2. Cotton socks
3. Breathable shoes
4. Not walking on contaminated floors in bare feet
5. Stay away from mold & mildew
Treatment
1. Antifungal creams
2. Medication
3. Surgery
Parasites
1) Characteristics
1. Lives on or in another organism
2. Uses the host to gain nutrients
3. Usually sickens & weakens host
4. Resides in intestines, bloodstream, tissues.
2) Morphology
1. Amoebas
2. Tapeworm
3. Mosquitoes
4)
5)
6)
7)
4. Ticks
5. Rats
Reproduction
1. Release eggs into host eggs exit in feces
2. Use host cells
3. Binary Fission
Diseases
1. Malaria Mosquitoes
2. West Nile - Mosquitoes
3. Yellow Fever - Mosquitoes
4. Lyme Disease Ticks
5. Black Plague Rats
Spread
1. Through bites
2. Ingesting eggs
3. Through contact
Prevention
1. Mosquito repellant sprays & creams
2. Sleep under nets
3. Take medical drugs
4. Wear socks/pants when hiking
Treatment
1. Remove parasite
2. Treat host with medications
3. Antibiotics
2.
3.
Tooth decay is an infection that causes deterioration of the protective enamel on teeth, resulting
in damage. Tooth decay is most likely caused by
A. bacteria.
B. acidic food.
C. allergies.
D. genetic defects.
4.
What parasite is most often responsible for the spread of Lyme disease?
A. amoeba
B. crane fly
C. deer tick
D. mosquito
5.
Given favorable conditions, which disease-causing agent could quickly multiply into colonies
of billions of cells in the space of a drop of water?
A. bacteria
B. fungi
C. protists
D. viruses
6.
7.
Which best explains why more than 300 million people in Asia are infected with malaria each
year?
A. There is no way to protect people against the disease.
B. The parasites that cause malaria lack the ability to resist antibiotics.
C. The house fly contaminates food with infectious bacteria that cause malaria.
D. Mosquitoes are becoming resistant to insecticides and continue to carry the disease.
8.
9.
10. Which leads to the conclusion that strep throat is a bacterial infection?
A. Strep throat is treated with vaccines.
B. Strep throat is treated with antibiotics.
C. A strep infection will go away without being treated.
12. Which best describes the size of a virus compared to the size of bacteria?
A. Bacteria are small, while viruses are larger.
B. Bacteria are large, while viruses are larger.
C. Bacteria are small, while viruses are smaller.
13. Which disease is caused by a virus?
A. AIDS
B. rabies
C. small pox
14. Which characteristic makes it easy to spread, but difficult to treat and prevent certain fungal
infections?
A. Fungi are multicellular.
B. Fungi are heterotrophic.
C. Fungi reproduce by spores.
D. Fungi grow in dry environments.
15. In which organ system of the human body would a doctor most likely find a parasite?
A. skeletal system
B. digestive system
C. muscular system
16. Which disease can be treated by doses of medicine made from the fungus, Penicillum?
A. asthma
B. diabetes
C. chicken pox
D. strep throat
23. Alan noticed that his foot itched between his toes after coming home from the gym. He now
believes he may have contracted athletes foot. What type of pathogen most likely caused this
possible infection of his foot?
A. bacterium
B. fungus
C. virus
24. A tapeworm lives in the intestines of its host. Which example best describes the relationship
between the tapeworm and its host?
A. The tapeworm benefits from its host; however, the host is not affected.
B. The tapeworm does not benefit from its host, but the host does benefit.
Cell Theory
1) Pathogens - germs
2) Contagion Infects human body & interferes with normal body function.
3) Unicellular Organism - made of 1 cell
4) Prokaryote unicellular organism with NO nucleus or organelles. Pro before & Karyote
nucleus. Ex: virus, bacteria
5) Multicellular Organisms made of more than 1 cell
6) Eukaryote Multicellular organism whose cells contain a nucleus. Ex: humans, animals
7) Cell Theory
1. All living things are composed of cells.
2. Cell provide structure & carry on major life functions.
3. All cells come from existing cells
8) Carrier Organism that has a disease, is sick with it, and CAN spread it. Ex: Humansflu,
common cold.
9) Vector Organism that spreads disease w/o getting sick themselves. Ex: Rats, ticks, mosquitoes, &
soil. Also Humans British colonizers carried Small Pox with them to the Americas & Africa.
Result: American Indians & Africans did not have immunity to Small Pox and it killed thousands
who came in contact. Also physically scarred those who survived.
2. After World War I, an outbreak of the Spanish Flu killed 50 million to 100 million people
around the world. Which best describes this occurrence?
7. The Black Plague killed about 100 million people in the fourteenth century. The bacteria that
caused the plague was carried by fleas on rats and traveled great distances. Which would have
most directly limited the spread of the disease?
A. cleaner water sources
B. refrigeration of food and water
C. reduction in the rodent population
D. better medicines to treat infected individuals
8. Scientists are trying to prevent an epidemic of a highly contagious disease. What information
should the scientists study first?
A. how the disease reproduces
B. the treatment of the disease
C. the symptoms of the disease
D. how the disease is transmitted
9. Which term refers to the spread of disease across a large region or sometimes worldwide?
A. antibiotic
B. epidemic
C. pandemic
D. pathogenic
10. Which best compares an epidemic and a pandemic?
A. An epidemic is caused by bacteria, while a pandemic is caused by viruses.
11. Which has had the greatest impact on preventing epidemics in the twenty-first century?
A. immunizations
B. new medicines
C. good hygiene
12. Which best describes treatments for viral epidemics and viral pandemics?
A. Both are easily treated using a combination of vaccination and antibiotics.
B. Epidemics are treated with vaccinations, while pandemics are treated with antibiotics.
C. Epidemics are treated with antibiotics, while pandemics are treated with vaccinations.
D. Neither is easily treated because viral infections are easier to prevent than they are to treat.
13. Which situation would most favor the spread of infectious disease?
A. overcrowding
B. use of vaccines
C. small population
16. Which best explains why a contagious disease is likely to become an epidemic?
A. failure to follow safety rules when handling bacteria
B. lack of understanding as to how the disease is spread
C. creation of supergerms due to the overuse of antibiotics
17. Which would be the most beneficial method of preventing a malaria epidemic in Africa?
A. water treatment
B. improved hygiene
C. increased vaccinations
D. increased use of pesticides
18. A strain of influenza originates in Southeast Asia and spreads to countries including the United
States and Europe, infecting millions of individuals worldwide. Which best describes the spread
of this disease?
A. Epidemic, then a pandemic because it did not originate in the United States.
B. Pandemic, then an epidemic because it affected citizens of the United States.
C. Epidemic, then a pandemic because it originated in one geographic area before spreading
to others.
D. Pandemic, then an epidemic because it originated in one geographic area before spreading
to others.
19. Which has made the possibility of an epidemic becoming a pandemic much more likely in the
20th century?
20. In the mid-western United States, the occurrence of influenza was greater than expected. Which
best describes the influenza outbreak?
A. A pandemic, because influenza is an infectious disease.
B. An epidemic, because influenza is an infectious disease.
C. A pandemic, because it occurred in more than one state.
D. An epidemic, because it occurred in one region of the United States.
21. Why is the prevention of epidemics usually easier than the prevention of a pandemic?
A. The diseases in an epidemic are less severe than in a pandemic.
B. Diseases causing pandemics are more contagious than diseases in an epidemic.
C. Affected individuals in epidemics are usually more concentrated in one area than in
pandemics.
23. Which will most likely lead to a disease outbreak being classified as a pandemic?
A. A disease is contagious.
Advantages
Disadvantages/ Ethics
Careers
1. FDA (Federal
Drug
Administration)
2. Farmer
3. Horticulturist
4. Researcher
5. DNR
(Department
Natural
Resources)
6. EPA
(Environmental
Protection
Agency)
1. FDA (Federal
Drug
Administration)
2. Farmer
3. Researcher
4. Microbiologist
5. Biochemist
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Lab technician
Researcher
Doctor
Geneticist
Fertility Doctor
Clinical
Research
scientist
7. FDA
1. Eutrophication fertilizer
gets into water systems, uses
up oxygen, and kills fish.
2. Bioremediation
Conditions in soil and
water must be monitored
All contaminants may
not be decomposed
1. FDA (Federal
Drug
Administration)
2. Pharmacist
3. Researcher
4. Doctor
1. Treatment Plant
technician
2. DNR
(Department
Natural
Resources)
3. EPA
(Environmental
Protection
Agency)
4. Wildlife
biologist
2. Tomatoes are genetically modified to have a longer shelf life, slowing the ripening and
softening of the tomato. Which best describes a concern people have with eating geneticallymodified tomatoes?
A. Genetically-modified tomatoes do not taste as good as regular tomatoes.
B. Genetically-modified tomatoes are more expensive than regular tomatoes.
C. The DNA used to modify the tomatoes could change the DNA of the person eating the
tomato.
3. Which is an ethical issue surrounding the use of genetically modified foods?
A. cost of production
B. long-term health effects
C. ability to grow more nutritious foods
D. ability to produce a lot of food quickly
4. What is most likely the greatest economic benefit for North Carolina from biotechnology?
5. Which would most likely result in the largest economic benefit to North Carolina?
A. North Carolina partnering with farmers for use of agricultural biotechnology
B. North Carolina being a lead consumer state in pharmaceutical manufacturing
C. North Carolina making the worlds best-trained work force for biomanufacturing
D. North Carolina making a long-standing commitment to biotechnology development
6. Residents of North Carolina presently burn 5 billion gallons of imported petroleum-based liquid
fuel per year. How would the states economy be affected if North Carolina could produce
biofuels locally as a replacement?
A. Tax revenues would decrease.
B. Unemployment would increase.
C. The economy would decline due to exports.
D. The economy would improve with new jobs and tax revenue.
7. North Carolina has over 400 biotechnology companies. How would the economy most likely
change if that number were reduced by half?
A. The economy would decline because of job loss.
B. The economy would suffer as funding for research decreases.
C. The economy would increase due to an increase in production.
D. The economy would improve when the government offers assistance.
8. Biotechnology uses a procedure called genetic engineering. Which best describes genetic
engineering?