Engg Services Civil Engineering Objective Paper 2 2009

.""'1nIf{., il., .. ~ , !J. .. f. ....
-
BOIJnecrln2 So".rvice EXAmination -
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
T.B.C. : o-FTF-J-DFB
Serial No.
16357
Time Allowed : Two Hours
TEST BOOKLET
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Paper-II
INSTRUCTIONS
Test Booklet Serles
A
Maximum Mara 200
1. IMMEDIATELY AFfER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE
IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test .. 1--------------,
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions) . Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet.
In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the responses to various items in the
Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions
sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
S. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTNE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, onethlrd (033) of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong annrer even
if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be
no penalty for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
1. Free
G, H,
B
F ------------ D
E
Consider the above figUre relating .
to buoyancy in water. What will be
the downward force upon the top of
the body ABCDEF?
(a) The weight of the liquid column
ABCHG
(b) The weight of the liquid column
DEFGH
(c) The weight of the liquid
column ABCHG - the weight of
the liquid column DEFGH
(d) The weight of the liquid
column ABCHG + the weight of
the liquid column DEFGH
2. Consider the following statements
in respect of two-dimensional
incompressible flow with velocity
components u and u in x and y
directions respectively :
1. The continuity equation is
au au
-=-
ax ay
2. The acceleration in x-direction
. au au au
IS ax =-+u-+u-
at ax CJy
3 . The condition 'of irrotationaiitY
. au au
IS -=-
ay ax
4. The equation of a streamline is
udy= -udx
O-FTF-J-DFB/10A 2
Which of the above statement s are
correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) I, 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
3. Consider the following :
1. Force on pipe bends and
transitions
2. Jet propulsion
3. Flow velocities in open channel
4. ' Vortex flow
Which of the above admit
employing the moment of momen-
tum equation?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) I , 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2,3 and 4
1. Shear ' stress is maximum at
the centre line.
2. Maximum velocity is 3/2 times
the average velocity.
3. Discharge varies inversely with
the coefficient of viscosity.
4. Slope of hydraulic gradient line
increases linearly with the
velocity of flow.
Which of the above statements are
correct in connection with a steady
laminar flow through a circular
pipe?
(a) I, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4 only
(e) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4
5. Consider the following statements :
Cavitation generally results from a
combination of several influences
I. by reduction of pressure
intensity below a limiting value
2. by increase in either elevation
or the velocity of flow
3. by reduction of pressure load
in the system
4. by decrease in the velocity
of flow
Which of the above statements
are correct?
(a) I, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
6. Consider the following factors
1. The change in the shape and
size of the channel cross-
section
2. The change in the slope of the
channel
3. The presence of obstruction
4 . The change in the frictional
forces at the boundaries
Which of the above factors would
cause a gradually varied flow?
(a) I, 2, 3 and 4
(b) I, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and .4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
O-FfF-J-DFB/IOA
3
7. The power transmitted through a
pipeline is maximum when the
head lost due to friction in the pipe
is equal to
(a) the total supply head
(b) half of the total supply head
(e) one-third of the total supply
head
(d) one-fourth of the total supply
head
8. Consider the following with respect
to the application of the Navier-
Stokes equations :
1. Laminar flow in circular pipes
2 . Laminar flow between con-
centric rotating cylinders
3. Laminar
between
plates
unidirectional flow
stationary parallel
4 . Laminar unidirectional flow
between parallel plates having
relative motion
Which of the above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) I, 2, 3 and 4
[P.T. O.
9. In a siphon system employed for
carrying water from a reservoir A
at a higher elevation to another
reservoir B at lower elevation, both
being separated by a higher hill,
what will be the pressure at the
'Summit' (S)?
fa) Equal to the pressure at the
water surface of reservoir A
(b) Higher than the pressure at
the water surface of reservoir A
(c) Equal to the pressure at the
water surface of reservoir B
(d) Less than the pressure at both
A and B above
10. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer using the code
given below the Lists :
List-I
A. Rehbock
formula
B. Francis
formula
C. A special
trapezoidal
weir
O. Linear propor-
tional weir
Code:
(a) A
1
(b) A
2
(c) A
1
(d) A
2
B
3
B
4
B
4
B
3
O-FTF-J-OFB/10A
List-II
1. Su tro weir
2. Rectangular
suppressed
weir
3. Rectangular
side-contracted
weir
4. Cippolletti weir
C
4
C
3
o
2
o
1
co
3
C
4
2
o
1
4
11. While selecting a centrifugal pump
for your requirement of head and
discharge on the basis of its
performance characteristics, which
one of the following criteria is to be
adopted?
fa) Head, discharge and efficiency
(b) Head and discharge only
(c) Discharge only
(d) Head only
The function of the impeller in a
centrifugal pump is to
1. convert the pressure energy
into hydraulic energy
2. convert the hydraulic energy
into mechanical energy
3. convert the mechanical energy
into hydraulic energy
4. transform most of the kinetic
energies to pressure energy
is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(e) I, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
13. A centrifugal pump gives maximum
efficiency when its impeller blades
are
(a) bent forward
(b) bent backward
(c) straight
(d) wave-shaped
14. Match List-l with List-II and select
given below the Lists :
List-I
(Component)
List-II
(Function)
A. Spirai casing 1. To allow flow of
water through it to
produce a torque
for the rotation of
the runner
B. Stay ring
c. Guide vane
D. Runner
Code :
(a) A B
3 2
(b) A B
1 2
(e) A B
3 4
(d) A B
1 4
O-FTF-J-DFB/10A
2. To direct the water
on the runner at
an appropriate
angle
3. To distribute the
flow over the
periphery of the
runner
4. To act as column
helping to support
the electrical
generator above
the turbine
C D
4 1
C D
4 3
C D
2 1
C D
2 3
5
15. By which one of the following, a
small quantity of water may be
lifted to a great height?
16.
17.
(a) Hydraulic ram
(b) Hydraulic crane
(e) Hydraulic lift
(d) Hydraulic coupling
What is 'Hydrological Cycle'?
(a) Processes involved in the
transfer of moisture from sea
to land
(b) Processes involved in the
back to sea again
(c) Processes involved in the
transfer of water from
snowmelt in mountains to sea
(d) Processes involved in the
to land and back to sea again
Consider the following with respect
to a 'double-mass curve' :
1. Plot of accumulated rainfall
with respect to two chrono-
logical orders
2. Plot for estimating multiple
missing rainfall data
3 . Plot for checking the consis-
tency of the rainfall data
4. Plot of accumulated annual
rainfall of a station vs.
accumulated rainfall of a group
of stations
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(e) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
[P. T.O.
18. Generally to estimate PMP.
Pm = 42. 16Do.
475
is used (Pm is
maximum depth of precipitation.
D = duration). What are the units of
Pm and D in the equation?
(a) mm, sec
(b) em, sec
(e) mm, hr
(d) em, hr
19. A triangular direct runoff hydrograph
due to a storm has a time base of
60 hr and a peak flow of 30 m
3
/s
occurring at 20 hr from the start.
If the catchment area is 300 km
2

what is the rainfall excess in the
storm?
(a) 50 mm
{b} 20 mm
(e) 108 mm
(d) 8 ' 3 mm
20. A 3 hr unit hydro graph U
1
of a
catchment of area 235 km 2 is in
the form of a triangle with peak
discharge 30 m 3 / s. Another 3 hr
unit hydrograph U 2 is also triangular
in shape and has the same base
width as U
1
but has a peak flow of
90 m 3 / s. What is the catchment
area of U
2
?
(a) 117'5km
2
(b) 235 km
2
(e) 470 kro
2
(d) 705 km
2
O-FTF-J-DFB/10A 6
21. Consider the following chemical
emulsions:
l. Methyl alcohol
2. Cetyl alcohol
3. Stearyl alcohol
4. Kerosene
Which of the above chemical
emulsions is / are used to minimize
the loss of water through the
process of evaporation?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4
(e) 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
22. A catchment area of 60 ha has a
runoff coefficient of 0'40. If a storm
of intensity 3 cm/h and duration
longer than the time of concen-
tration occurs in the catchment.
then what is the peak discharge?
(aJ 2'Om
3
/s
(b) 35 m
3
/s
(e) 45 m
3
/s
(d) 2'5m
3
/s
23. The land use of an area and the
corresponding nmoff coefficients
are as follows :
S1. Land use Area Runoff
No. (ha) coefficient
1. Roads 10 0-70
2_
Lawn
20 0-10
3_
Residential area
50 0-30
4_
Industrial area
20 O-SO
What is the equivalent runoff
coefficient?
(a) 0-15
(b) 036
(c) OAO
(d) 0-51
24. The head on a sharp-crested
rectangular weir of height 1-6 m
and crest length 1-2 m was
incorrectly observed to be 0-13 m
when it was actually 0-15 m _ What
was the percentage error in the
computed value of flow rate?
(a) 0-5%
(b) 1' 0%
(c) 20%
(d) 1'5%
O-FTF-J-DFB/IOA 7
25. Consider the following with respect
to measurement of stream flow
during flood :
1. Timing of the travel of floats
released in the stream
2. Use of weir formula for
spillways provided' on a dam
3, Calculation of flow through a
contracted opening at a bridge
4. Using a current meter
Which of the above is/are reliable
and accurate?
(a) 1
(b) 4 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
26. Under which one of the following
categories is the river Ganga
classified in the reach through UP
and Bihar?
(a) Straight river
(b) Meandering river
(c) Braided river
(d) Deltaic river
{ P. T_O_
27. Which of the following categories
best describes the Hirakud reservoir?
(a) Resetvoir for irrigation and
power
(b) Resetvoir for flood control,
power and irrigation
(c) Resetvoir for irrigation and
water supply
(d) Reservoir for recreation and
fishery
28. During a particular stage of the
growth of a crop, consumptive use
of water is 28 mm/day. If the
amount of water available in the
soil is 25% of 80 mm depth of
water, what is the frequency of
irrigation?
(a) 9 days
(b) 13 days
(e) 21 days
(d) 25 days
8
Irrigation water has to be supplied
to the crops when the moisture
level falls
1. below field capacity
2. to wilting point
3 . below wilting point
is / are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
30. A groundwater basin consists of
10 \an 2 area of plains. The
maximum groundwater table
fluctuation has been obsetved to be .
1' 5 m. Consider specific yield of the
basin as 10%. What is the available
groundwater storage in million
cubic metres?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 2'5
(d) 20
J
31. In a canal irrigation project , 76% of
the culturable command area (CCA)
remained without water during
Kharif season; and 58% of CCA
remained without water during
Rabi season in a particular year.
Rest of the areas got irrigated in
each crop respectively. What is the
intensity of irrigation for the project
in that year?
(a) 134%
(b) 76%
(e) 66%
(d) 58%
32. What is the critical combination of
vertical and horizontal earthquake
accelerations to be considered for
checking the stability of a gravity
dam in reservoir full condition?
(a) Vertically upward and
horizontally downstream
(b) Vertically upward and
horizontally upstream
(e) Vertically downward and
horizontally upstream
(d) Vertically downward and
horizontally downstream
O-FTF-J-OFB/IOA 9
33. What is the height of wave which is
likely to be generated by a wind of
80 km/hr in a reservoir having a
fetch of 50 !un?
(a) 0'5 m
(b) 10 m
(e) 20 m
(d) 30 m
1. Giving equal weightages to
horizontal and vertical creeps
for design of weir foundations
is one of the drawbacks of
Kennedy's theory.
2. Khosla's theory of design of
foundations for weirs is based
on potential theory.
3. Piping problem can be reduced
by increasing the length of floor.
4. In Lane's weighted creep
theory, horizontal creep is
given less weightage compared
to vertical creep.
is / are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(e) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
(P. T. O.
.related to undersluices provided
in diversion , weirs on permeable
foundations :
1. They are fully gate-controlled
and have crest at the same
level as the weir crest when no
silt excluders are provided.
2. They scour the silt deposited
on the river bed in the pockets
upstream of the canal head
regulator.
3 . It is not necessary to provide
end pile line on the downstream
end of the undersluice floor.
4. The discharge capacity of the
undersluice is 10-15% of the
maximum flood or two times
the maximum discharge of the
ofItaking canal or maximum
winter discharge, whichever is
the highest.
is / are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
36. What is the most important design
parameter used in designing a
continuous flow rectangular
sedimentation tank for removal of
discrete particles?
(a) Length of the tank
(b) Surface overflow rate
(c) Depth of the tank
(d) Temperature of the water to be
treated
O-FTF--l-DFB/10A 10
37. Effiuent from a wastewater treatment
plant (flow rate = 8640 m 3 / d,
temperature = 25 DC) is discharged
to a surface stream (flow rate =
12 m
3
/s, temperature = 15 DC).
What is the temperature of the
stream after mixing?
(a) 10 DC
(b) 1577 DC
(e) 20 DC
(d) 2499 DC
given below the Lists
List-I
(Type of impurity)
A. Excess of
nitrates
B. Excess of
fluorides
List-II
(Harm caused)
: 1. Brackish water
2. Goiter
C. Lack of iodides 3. Fragile bones
D. Excess of 4. Blue babies
chlorides
Code:
(a) A
4
; (b) A
1
(e) A
4
(d) A
1
B
2
B
2
B
3
B
3
C
3
C
3
C
2
C
2
D
1
D
4
D
1
D
4
l
39. The concentration of OH- ion in a
water saIIlple is measured as
17 mg/L at 25 ' C. What is the pH of
the water sample?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(e) 12
(d) 13
40. Which combination of surface water
quality parameters will indicate
sweep coagulation as the preferred
mechanism of coagulation?
(a) High turbidity-low alkalinity
(b) High turbidity-high alkalinity
(e) Low turbidity-high alkalinity
(d) Low turbidity-low alkalinity
41. Which one of the following processes
of water softening requires
recarbonation?
(a) Lime-soda ash process
(b) Hydrogen-cation
process
(e) Sodium-cation
process
(d) Demineralization
O-FTF-J-DFB/I0A
exchanger
exchanger
given below the Lists
List-I List-II
(Water/Wastewater (Operating problem)
treatment)
A. Trickling filter 1. Negative head
B. Activated 2. Fly-breeding
sludge process
C. Rapid gravity 3 . Sludge bulking
filter
D. Anaerobic
sludge digester
4. pH reduction
Code:
(a) A
4
(b) A
2
(e) A
4
(d) A
2
B
3
B
3
B
1
B
1
C
1
C
1
C
3
C
3
D
2
D
4
D
2
D
4
43. Consider the following treatment
process units in a water treatment
plant:
1. Coagulation
2. Disinfection
3. Sedimentation
4. Filtration
Which is the correct sequence of
the process units in the water
treatment plant?
(a) 2-4-3-1
(b) 1-4-3-2
(e) 2-3-4-1
(d) 1-3-4-2
11 [P. T. O.
44. Which one of the following tests
of water/wastewater employs
Erichrome Black T a s an indicator?
fa) Hardness
(b) COD
fe) Residual chlorine
(d) DO
45. Which of the following pollutants
are generally not removed in a
s ewage treatment plant?
la) Inorganic suspended solids
(b) Dissolved organic solids
Ie) Oil and grease
(d) Dissolved inorganic solids
46. What is the
demand of
s olution?
(a) 300 mg/L
(b) 320 mg/L
(e) 350 mg/L
(d) 400 mg/L
0-FTF-J-DFB/I0A
theoretical
300 mg/L
oxygen
glucose
12
47. Which one of the following types of
samples is relevantly employed for
the design of wastewater treatment
plant?
fa) Grab sample
(b) Composite sample
(e) Integrated sample
(d) Any sample
48. A drain carrying sewage of
BOD = 200 mg/L and flow rate of
50 m
3
/s joins a river whose
upstream BOD is 8 mg/ L and flow
rate is 500 m 3/ s. Assume imme-
diate and complete mixing of drain
with the river. What is the
estimated downstream BOD of the
river flow?
,(a) 204 mg/L
! (b) 25'4 mg/L
(e) 104-4 mg/L
(d) 70'4 mg/L
49. A 125 mL sample of treated waste-
; water requires 1875 mL of odor-free
distilled water to reduce the odor to
a level that is just perceptible. What
' is the threshold odor number (TON)
' for the wastewater sample?
.fa) 007
'(b) 1'07
(e) 15
(d) 16
50. Which one of the following
parameters is not included in the
routine characterization of solid
waste for its physical composition?
(a) Moisture content
(b) Density
(e) Particle size analysis
(d) Energy value
5l. Which one of the following toxic
gases has physiological action as
asphyxiant?
(d) CO
52. Assuming annual travel for each
vehicle to be 20000 km, what is the
quantity of NO
x
produced from
50000 vehicles with emission rate
of 20 g/km/vehicle?
(a) 1800 tonnes
(b) 1900 tonnes
(e) 2000 tonnes
(d) 2100 tonnes
O-FTF-J-DFB/10A
53. What are the air pollutants
responsible for acid rain within and
downwind areas of major industrial
emissions?
(a) Hydrogen sulfide and oxides of
nitrogen
(b) Sulfur dioxide and oxides of
nitrogen
(e) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
sulfide
(d) Methane and hydrogen sulfide
54. Consider the following air pollutants :
1. NO
x
2. PAN
3. CO
2
4. CO
Which of the above air pollutants
is/are present in an auto exhaust
gas?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(e) 2 and 3
(d) I, 3 and 4
13 (P. T. 0.
55. Consider the following properties for
clays X and Y :
SI.
No.
L
2.
3.
Properties Clay X Clay Y
(%) (%)
Liquid limit 42 56
Plastic limit
20 34
Natural water
content
30 50
Which of the clays, X or Y,
experiences' larger settlement under
identical loads; is more plastic; and
is softer in consistency?
(a) X, Yand X
(b) Y, X and X
(e) Y, X and Y
(d) X, X and Y
56. A clay sample, originally 26 mm
thick at a void ratio of 1'22, was
subjected to a compressive load.
After the clay sample was completely
consolidated, its thickness was
measured to be 24 mm. What is the
final void ratio?
(a) 1322
(b) 1'421
(e) 1311
(d) 1050
57. For a sandy soil with soil grains
spherical in shape and uniform in
size, what is the theoretical void
ratio?
(a) 061
(b) 071
(c) 091
(d) 081
O-FTF-J-DFB/10A 14
58. A soil has liquid limit = 35, plastic
limit = 20, shrinkage limit = 10 and
natural moisture content = 25%.
What will be its liquidity index,
plasticity index and shrinkage index?
(a) 0'67, 15 and 25
(b) 0' 33, 15 and 10
(c) 0' 67, 25 and 15
(d) 0'33, 20 and 15
A cohesive soil yields a maximum
dry density of 16 kN/m
3
during a
standard Proctor Compaction test.
If the specific gravity is 2' 65, what
would be its void ratio?
(a) 0'552
(b) 0'624
(e) 0 ' 712
(d) 0583
60. Consider the following :
1. Increase in shear strength and
bearing capacity
2. Increase in slope stability
3. Decrease in settlement of soil
4. Decrease in permeability
Which of the above with respect to
compaction of soil is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(e) 2 and 3 only
(d) I, 2, 3 and 4
61. For a sheet pile wall constructed
in 3: soil having effective grain
size = o r mm, . the difference of the
upstream and downstream water
levels is 3 m. If the flow net drawn
for the problem yields 2 as the ratio
of number of head drops to number
of flow channels, then what is
the discharge in unit of m 3 I slm
length of sheet pile wall?
(a) 30 x 10-4
(b) 30 x 10-
2
(c) 15 x 10-
4
(d) 15 x 10-
2
63.
1. Quicksand is a special variety
of sand.
2. Quicksand is not a material
but a hydraulic condition.
3. In nature, quicksand condition
is observed usually in coarse
silt or fine sand.
Which of the above statements are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(e) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
In a 6 m thick stratum of fine sand
having submerged density of
11 kN 1m 3, quicksand condition
occurred at a depth of 42 m of
excavation. What is the depth
of lowering of groundwater table
required for making an excavation
5 m deep? Take density of water
as 10 kN/m
3
.
(a) 385 m
(c) 11 m
(b) 168 m
(d) 0897 m
O-FTF-J-DFB/I0A 15
1. Permeability of a soil decreases
as the effective stress acting on
the soil increases.
2. The presence of organic matter
in the soil increases its
permeability .
3. Entrapped air decreases the
permeability of a soil.
is I are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(e) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
65. Aim thick layer of saturated clay,
drained at both faces, settles by
10 cm in one year. If a thin layer of
pervious soil is introduced in the
middle of this layer, then what will
be the period during which the
settlement of 10 cm will be
completed?
(a) 4 years
(b) 05 year
(e) 025 year
(d) 2 years
66. Which one of the following conditions
is valid in case of unconfined
compression test in comparison to
triaxial test?
fa) Minor principal stress = 0
(b) Minor principal stress = 05 x
major principal stress
(e) Minor principal stress = major
principal stress
(d) Major principal stress = 3 x
minor principal stress
(P. T. o.
- - - - - - ~ - - -- -
/.
67. In an unconfined compression test
on stiff clay, if the failure plane
made an angle of 52 to the
horizontal, what would be the angle
of shearing resistance?
la) 16 (b) 14
Ic) 12 Id) 13
68. On which of the following soils is the
standard penetration test useful?
1. Cohesionless soils
2. Medium clays
3. Gravelly soils
4. Very stiff clays
Select the correct answer using the
code given below :
Code :
la) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
Ic) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4
1. Standard penetration test (SPT)
is conducted by pushing a
cone into soil at the rate of
2 cm/s.
2. Standard penetration test
results are unreliable in
deposits containing large
number of boulders.
3. Dutch cone is a static
penetrometer.
is / are correct?
la) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
Ie) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
O-FfF.,J-DFB/ lOA 16
70. What is the intensity of active earth
pressure at a depth of 100 m in dry
sand with an angle of shearing
resistance of 30 and unit weight of
18 kN/m
3
?
fa) 50kN/m
3
(b) 60 kN/m
3
Ie) 70 kN/m
3
Id) 80 kN/m
3
71. When a verti cal face excavation was
made in a clayey silt, having density
of 20 kN/m
3
, it failed at a depth
of excavation of 4 m. What is the
cohesive strength (in kN / m 2) of the
soil, if its angle of internal friction
.was 30 ?
la) 23' 1
(c) 11'6
Ib) 200
Id) 102
72. If an SPT test gave the average blow
count of 32 in fine sand below water
. table, then what is the corrected
value of blow count?
la) 22 1
' Ie) 242
Ib) 235
Id) 248
1. The soil obtained from wash
boring, is a representative
sample.
2. Recovery ratio will be high
during drilling in sound rock.
3. Hollow stem augers are
sometimes used to drill holes
in silty sand.
is/ are correct?
la) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
Ie) 2 and 3
Id) 3 only
74. The standard penetration resistance
value obtained in a deep deposit of
sand at a depth of 60 m was 28.
The unit weight of sand is
180 kN/m
3
. What is the corrected
value of number of blows for
overburden pressure?
75.
la) 60
Ie) 59
(b) 57
Id) 55
The net ultimate bearing capacity of
a purely cohesive soil
la) depends on the width of the
footing and is independent of
the depth of the footing
(b) depends on the width as well
as the depth of the footing
Ie) depends on the depth, but is
independent of the width, of
the footing
Id) is independent of both the
width and the depth of the
footing
76. A soil has a low allowable bearing
capacity. The soil deposit contains
compressible loess. A foundation is
to be provided for a structure
carrying a heavy load. Which one of
the following foundation types is to
be adopted?
la) Strap footing
(b) Continuous footing
Ie) Raft foundation
Id) Combined spread foundation
77. Consider the follOwing statements :
Increasing width of footing results
in
1. increase in settlement of a
consolidating clay layer
2. increase in be.iring capacity of
sandy soils
3. decrease in bearing capacity of
clays
O-FTF-,J-DFB/10A 17
78.
is / are correct?
la) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
Ic) 2 and 3 only
Id) I , 2 and 3
Consider the following statements
with respect to an anchored sheet
pile wall :
1. Failure occurs due to bulging.
2. Failure occurs due to rotation.
3. Large yield is observed above
the anchor rod.
4. Large yield is observed below
the anchor rod and above the
dredge line.
is / are correct?
la) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
Ie) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
1. Underreamed piles are precast
piles with one or more
underreams in each pile.
2 . The ratio of pile shaft size to
bulb size in an underreamed
pile may be 033 to 050.
3. In a multibulb underreamed
pile, the load-carrying capacity
is a function of the area of
cross-section of the lowest bulb.
is / are correct?
la) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
Ic) 2 and 3 only
Id) I, 2 and 3
[P. T. O.
1. Underreamed piles are
designed as bearing piles.
2 . In multiple-bulb underreamed
piles, the bulbs are spaced at
1' 5 to 20 times the diameter of
the underream, the centre of
the fIrst underream being at a
minimum depth of 175 m.
3. The length of traditional
underreamed pile ranges from
3 m to 4 m.
is / are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
81. Consider the following clay minerals :
1. Kaolinite
2. Montmorillonite
3. Illite
What is the correct sequence in an
increasing order of their plasticity
index?
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 3-2-1
(c) 1-3-2
(d) 3-1-2
82. Which one of the following conditions
requires geodetic surveying?
(a) Horizontal curve ranging
(b) Vertical curve ranging
(c) Survey of a country
(d) Reconnaissance survey
D--FTF-J-DFB/IOA
18
83. Which of the following coordinate
systems is the most convenient way
to specify the position of the star on
celestial sphere?
(a) Latitude and longitude
(b) Altitude and azimuth
(c) Declination and right ascen-
sion
(d) Declination and hour angle
84. Consider the following equipments :
1. Tacheometer
2. Odometer
.. ~
3. Passometer
4. Perambulator
Which of the above equipments can
be employed for measurement of
horizontal distance?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(e) 2 and 3 only
(d) I, 2, 3 and 4
In surveying operations, the word
'rec,iprocal' can be associated with
1. ranging
2. levelling
3. contouring
is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) I, 2 and 3
86. Which of the following sights will be
applicable for a change point?
(a) Back sight
(b) Intennediate sight and fore
sight
(c) Fore sight
(d) Back sight and fore sight
87. The whole circle bearings of lines OP
and OQ are 1815' and 33545'
respectively. What is the value of
the included angle QOP?
(a) 30730'
(b) .4230'
(e) 35400'
(d) 17700'
88. Which one of the following linear
methods of setting out a circular
curve needs reference of the centre
of the curve?
(a) Offset from chord produced
(b) Radial offset
(e) Perpendicular offset
(d) Successive bisection of arcs
O-FTF--J-DFB/10A
Reciprocal levelling is a method of
levelling adopted when
1. the difference of levels between
two points at a considerable
distance apart is to be
detennined with great precision
2. it is not possible to set up the
level rrildway between two
points as in the case of a deep
valley or a river
3. error due to improper centering
of level is to be eliminated
is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(h) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Errors eliminated by taking both
face observations are those due to
1. horizontal axis not being
perpendicular to the vertical
axis
2.
3.
non-parallelism of the axis of
telescope level and line of
collimation
imperfect adjustment of
vertical circle vernier
are correct?
(a) I, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
19 I P. T. O.
91. If everyone of the three angles of a
triangle has a probable error of 1",
then what will be the probable error
in the sum of the so-measured
internal angles of the triangle?
(a) 1"
(b) 3"
(c) 9"
(d) ..{Y'
92. How many sidereal days are there in
a solar year?
(a) 3652840
(b) 366'2422
(c) 360' 2500
(d) 365'0000
A sidereal year can be defined as
the time interval
1. between two successive transits
of the sun through the
meridian of any of the fixed
stars
2. between two successive vernal
equinoxes
3. between two successive
passages of the sun through
perigee
is / are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 only
20
94. Which one of the following methods
of computing area assumes that the
short lengths of the boundary
between the ordinates are parabolic
arcs?
(a) Average ordinate rule
(b) Middle ordinate rule
(e) Simpson's rule
(d) Trapezoidal rule
95. Which one of the following errors
is more severe in plane-table
surveying?
(a) Defective sighting
(b) Defective orientation
(e) Movement of board between
sights
(d) Non-horizontaiity of board
when points sighted are at
large differences of their
elevation
96. Which one of the following tests is
performed in the laboratory to
determine the extent of weathering
of aggregates for roadworks?
(a) Soundness test
(b) Crushing test
(c) Impact test
(d) Abrasion test
97. Which one of the following geometric
features requires the magnitudes of
weaving angle and weaving distance
for its design?
(a) Rotary design
(b) Right-angle intersection
(e) Roundabout
(d) Grade-separated junction
98. Which one of the following methods
is used in the design of rigid
pavements?
(a) CBR method
(b) Group index method
(e) Westergaard's method
(d) McLeod's method
99. In which one of the following yards,
are reception, sorting and dispatch
of railway wagons done?
(a) Loco yard
(b) Marshalling yard
(e) Goods yard
(d) Passenger yard
100. Which one of the following is not a
desirable property of the su bgrade
soil as a highway material?
(a) Stability
(b) Ease of compaction
(e) Good drainage
(d) Bitumen adhesion
O-FTF--I-DFB/I0A 21
101. Hot bitumen is sprayed over freshly
constructed bituminous surface
followed by spreading of 63 mm
coarse aggregates and rolled. Which
one of the following is indicated by
this type of construction?
(a) Surface dressing
(b) Gravel-bitumen mix
(e) Liquid seal coat
(d) Seal coat
102. Radius of relative stiffness of cement
concrete pavement does not depend
upon which one of the following?
(a) Modulus of subgrade reaction
(b) Wheel load
(e) Modulus of elasticity of cement
concrete
(d) Poisson's ratio of concrete
103. For conditions obtaining in India, at
which location in a cement concrete
pavement will the combined stresses
due to traffic wheel load and
temperature have to be critically
checked during design?
(a) Corner
(b) Corner and interior
(e) Corner and edge
(d) Corner, edge and interior
[P. T. O.
104. Which one of the following sets of
factors is related to design of
thickness rigid pavement by
Westergaard method?
(a) CBR value and stiffness index
of soil
(b) Deflection factor and traffic
index
(e) Swelling index and bulk
modulus
(d) Radius of relative stiffness and
modulus of sub grade reaction
105. Consider the following in r elation to
group index of soil
I. Liquid limit
2. Sandy loam
3. Plasticity index
4. Percent passing 75 microns
sieve
Which of the above is/are used
for estimating the group index?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(e) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
O-FTF---J-DFB/I0A 22
106. Which set of traffic studies is
needed for functional design as well
as for 'highway capacity' design?
(a) Origin and destination studies
(b) Parking and accident studies
(e) Speed and volume studies
(d) Axle load studies
107. Which one of the following traffic
survey schemes is most relevant
when deciding on locating major
'routes' in a city?
(a) Traffic volume survey
(b) Origin and destination survey
(e) Speed survey
(d) Traffic capacity survey
108. Which one of the following
equipments is useful in determining
. spot speed in traffic engineering?
(a) Endoscope
(b) Periscope
(e) Radar
(d) Tachometer
Directions :
Each of the following twelve (121 items
consists of two statements, one labelled as
'Assertion (A) ' and the other as 'Reason (R)'.
You are to examine these two statements
carefully and select the answers to these
items using the code given below :
Code :
la) Both A and R are individually
true and R is the correct
explanation of A
Ib) Both A and R are individually
true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
Ic) A is true but R is false
Id) A is false but R is true
109. Assertion (A) :
If a cylindrical body is placed in a
fluid stream and is rotated, then a
lift force is produced on the body.
Reason (R) :
Rotation of the cylinder disturbs
the symmetrical pattern which in
tum alters the pressure distri-
bution on the body.
The drag force on a sphere is more
in laminar flow than in turbulent
flow.
Reason (R)
CD of a sphere is more in laminar
flow than in turbulent flow.
O-FTF-J-DFB/I0A 23
Total energy of flow decreases in
the direction of flow.
Reason (R) :
The specific energy may decrease,
increase or remain constant.
For a hydraulically efficient
channel , the hydraulic radius is
equal to half the depth of flow.
Reason (R) :
A hydraulically efficient channel
has the minimum perimeter for a
given area of flow.
The rate of biomass production
will be always lower than the rate
of food utilization in a biological
system having a mixed culture of
microorganism.
Reason (R) :
Catabolism converts part of the
food into waste products.
The solution of a three-point
problem in plane-table surveying
is aided by Lehmann's rules.
Reason (R) :
The application of Lehmann's
rules reduces the triangle of error
and is a controlled trial-and-error
technique.
[P.T. O.
11 S. Assertion (A) :
Remote sensing is mostly quanti-
tative in nature.
Reason (R)
Remote sensing involves the
subjective interpretation of the
imagery.
In water-bound macadam
construction, grade I has better
load dispersion characteristics as
compared to grade '" aggregates.
Reason (R) :
The plasticity index of the binding
material should be less than 6%.
11 7. Assertion (A) :
Dowel bars are provided at
expansion joints and sometimes
also at contraction joints in cement
concrete slabs.
Reason (R) :
Longitudinal joints in cement
concrete pavements are construc-
ted with tie bars.
O-FTF-J-DFB/10A 24
When a turnout is taken off from a
curved track, it is called gauntlet
track.
Reason (R)
When a turnout from a curved
track turns away in the opposite
direction, the curves are said to be
of contrary flexure.
In case of airports, the innermost
portion of approach zone, where
any obstruction is to ,be critically
viewed, is known as the clear zone.
Reason (R) :
The area of airport, other than the
approach zone, whlch is used for
turning of aircrafts, is called the
turning zone.
Helipads are usually located in
close proximity to traffic-generating
areas.
Reason (R) :
A helicopter cannot ascend or
descend exactly vertically.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
O-FTF-J-DFB/IOA 2S [P. T. O.

26
-
***
27
J5-19*
I

Engg Services Civil Engineering Objective Paper 2 2009

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Engg Services Civil Engineering Objective Paper 2 2009

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Engg Services Civil Engineering Objective Paper 2 2009

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

.""'1nIf{., il., .. ~ , !J. .. f. ....

You might also like