Solution Chapter 6
Solution Chapter 6
Solution Chapter 6
C.T. Sun
6.1
Solution:
The stress-strain relation can be expressed as
0 = K 0
(6.1.1)
1
where 0 = ( xx + yy + zz ) is the average stress, 0 = xx + yy + zz is the
3
E
is the bulk modulus.
3(1 2 )
and 0 = xx + yy + zz = (1 )( xx + yy )
The strain energy density associated with the volume dilatation is given by,
1
1
1
Wv = 0 0 =
02 =
( xx + yy ) 2
2
2K
18 K
(6.1.2)
1
( xx xx + yy yy + xy xy )
2
(6.1.3)
1
1
2
2
=
xy 2
( xx + yy 2 xx yy ) +
2E
2G
where xx =
1
1
1
( xx yy ) , yy = ( xx + yy ) , and xy = xy
E
E
G
E
we have
2(1 + )
1
1
1
2
2
( xx + yy 2 xx yy ) +
xy 2
( xx + yy ) 2
2G
18 K
2E
1
1 + 2 1 2
2
2
2
2
( xx + yy 2 xx yy ) +
xy
( xx + yy + 2 xx yy )
2E
6E
E
6.1.1
1
1+ 2
2
2
2
2
xy
[3 xx + 3 yy 6 xx yy (1 2 )( xx + yy + 2 xx yy )] +
E
6E
1
1+ 2
2
2
xy
[( 2 + 2 ) xx + (2 + 2 ) yy (2 + 2 ) xx yy ] +
E
6E
1+
2
2
2
[ xx + yy xx yy + 3 xy ]
3E
1
2
2
2
[( xx yy ) 2 + xx + yy + 6 xy ]
12G
1
J2
2G
1
2
2
2
where J 2 = [( xx yy ) 2 + xx + yy + 6 xy ]
6
6.1.2
6.2
Solution:
The stresses caused by the internal pressure p 0 is
xx = yy
1
p 0 ( D 2 )
p D
2 p0
4
=
= 0 =
= 100 p 0 , xy = 0 , zz = 0
(D)t
4t
4(0.005)
where x and y are orthogonal axes in the directions tangential to the surface at the
point of interest, and z is perpendicular to the surface at the same point. There are
only normal stresses presnt. Thus,
1 = xx = 100 p 0 , 2 = yy = 100 p 0 , 3 = 0
(1) Tresca yield criterion
Yielding occurs when
1 2 Y
(6.2.1a)
2 3 Y
(6.2.1b)
3 1 Y
(6.2.1c)
After substituting the stress values, all three inequalities become one:
100 p0 Y = 250 MPa . Thus, the maximum internal pressure p 0 that does not
cause yielding is p 0 = 2.5MPa
--- ANS
(2) von Mises yield criterion
von Mises yiled criterion is
1
1
[( 1 2 )2 + ( 2 3 )2 + ( 3 1 )2 ] = Y 2
6
3
or in plane stress form ( 3 = 0 )
J2 =
J2 =
1
1
1
[( 1 2 )2 + 12 + 2 2 ] = ( 12 1 2 + 2 2 ) = Y 2
6
3
3
6.2.1
(6.2.2)
(6.2.2a)
so the maximum internal pressure p 0 that does not cause yielding is p 0 = 2.5MPa
--- ANS
Both criteria give the same maximum pressure of p 0 = 2.5MPa .
6.2.2
6.3
Consider the problem of Example 6.2. Find the maximum p 0 without causing
yielding if N = 5 10 6 N (compression).
Solution:
From example 6.2, we have yield stress Y = 280 MPa , the radius of the thin-walled
hollow cylinder is a = 1m , and its thickness is t = 5 10 3 m .
N
5
Axial stress: xx =
=
= 159.16 MPa
(2a )t ( 2 )(1)(5 10 3 )
Shear stress: xy = 0
p 0 ( 2a ) L p 0 a
p0
=
=
= 200 p0
2tL
t
0.005
By von Mises yielded criterion for plane stress,
Hoop stress: yy =
1
1 2
2
2
2
J 2 = [( xx yy ) 2 + xx + yy + 6 xy ] = y
6
3
(6.3.1)
=> p 0 = 0.82Mpa ,
p 0 = 1.62 Mpa
Since inner pressure p 0 should be positive, the negative solution is neglected.
Thus, the maximum p 0 without causing yielding is p 0 = 0.82Mpa .
--- ANS
6.3.1
6.4
2
Figure 6.24
Solution:
From Table 6.1, we have the yield stress Y = 415MPa for aluminum 2024-T651.
By von Mises yield criterion for plane stress,
1
1
( 1 2 1 2 + 2 2 ) = Y 2
3
3
Substituting 1 = 300MPa and Y = 415MPa , we have
(6.4.1)
6.5
Find the total strain energy release rate for the split beam loaded as shown in
Figs. 6.25 and 6.26.
Figure 6.25
Figure 6.26
Solution:
(1) Figure 6.25
The strain energy stored in the beam due to a bending moment M is
M2
dx
0 2 EI
For segment 1, the strain energy is
U =
U1 =
( Px) 2
P 2a3 2P 2a3
=
,
dx =
2 EI1
6 EI1
Eth 3
(6.5.1)
where I 1 =
th 3
12
For segment 2,
U2 = 0
For segment 3,
U3 =
( Px) 2
P 2 ( L3 a 3 ) P 2 ( L3 a 3 )
t (2h) 3 2th 3
dx =
=
,
where
I
=
=
3
12
3
2 EI 3
6 EI 3
4 Eth 3
G=
1 dU 1 6 P 2 a 2 3P 2 a 2
21 P 2 a 2
= (
)
=
t da t Eth 3
4 Et 2 h 3
4 Eth 3
--- ANS
h
from the
2
center of the entire split beam. The strain energy stored in the beam due to an axial
force P is
P2L
2 EA
For segment 1, the strain energy is
U=
P2a
P2a
=
,
2 EA1 2 Eth
U1 =
(6.5.2)
where A1 = th
For segment 2,
U2 =
(M 0 ) 2
M a 6M 0 a
th 3
,
where
I
=
dx = 0 =
2
12
2 EI 2
2 EI 2
Eth 3
For segment 3, the load consists of an axial force of P and bending moment of
M0 + P
h
. Strain energy stored in segment 3 is
2
U3 =
P ( L a)
+
a
2 EA3
2
h
(M 0 + P ) 2
2 dx
2 EI 3
P 2 ( L a ) 3M 0 ( L a ) 3M 0 Ph( L a ) 3P 2 h 2 ( L a )
+
+
+
4 Eth
4 Eth 3
4 Eth 3
16 Eth 3
2
t (2h) 3 2th 3
=
where A3 = 2th , and I 3 =
12
3
The total strain energy stored in the entire split beam is
U = U1 + U 2 + U 3
P 2 a 6 M 0 a P ( L a ) 3M 0 ( L a ) 3M 0 Ph( L a ) 3P 2 h 2 ( L a )
=
+
+
+
+
+
2 Eth
4 Eth
Eth 3
4 Eth 3
4 Eth 3
16 Eth 3
The strain energy release rate is
2
6M 0
3M 0
3M 0 Ph 3P 2
1 dU 1 P 2
P2
)
= (
+
2 3
2
16 Et h 4 Et h
4 Et 2 h 2
G=
--- ANS
6.5.2
6.6
Consider the split beam with loading shown in Fig. 6.27. Loadings in both
Fig.6.11 and 6.27 are antisymmetric, and both are mode II fracture problems.
For the same value of P, which loading is more efficient in cracking the beam?
Assume that the beam dimensions and the elastic properties are
E = 70GPa ,
= 0.3
a = 10 10 2 m ,
t = 2 10 2 m
L = 15 10 2 m ,
h = 1 10 2 m
Figure 6.27
Figure 6.11
Solution:
(1) Figure 6.11
The strain energy stored in the beam due to an axial load P is
P2L
2 EA
The strain energy stored in the beam due to a bending moment M is
U=
M2
U =
dx
0 2 EI
For segments 1 and 2, the strain energy is
L
U1 = U 2 =
P2a
P2a
=
,
2 EA1 2 Eth
where A1 = th
6.6.1
(6.6.1)
(6.6.2)
For segment 3, the two axial forces are assumed to be completely cancelled out by
themselves and only the unbalanced couple Ph is taken up by this segment of beam.
U3 =
( Ph) 2
P 2 h 2 ( L a ) 3P 2 ( L a )
dx =
=
,
2 EI 3
2 EI 3
4 Eth
where I 3 =
t (2h) 3 2th 3
=
12
3
)=
t da t Eth 4 Eth
4 Et 2 h
(2) Figure 6.27
For segment 1 and 2, the strain energy is
G6.11 =
U1 = U 2 =
( Px) 2
P 2 a 3 2P 2 a 3
dx =
=
,
2 EI 1
6 EI 1
Eth 3
where I 1 =
th 3
= I2
12
For segment 3,
U3 =
2 2
L 2P x
(2 Px) 2
P2
dx =
dx =
( L3 a 3 ) ,
3
3
a
2 EI 3
Eth
2th
E(
)
3
t (2h) 3 2th 3
=
12
3
The total strain energy stored in the entire split beam is
where I 3 =
2P 2 a 3
P2
U = U 1 + U 2 + U 3 = 2(
)+
( L3 a 3 )
3
3
Eth
Eth
The strain energy release rate is
1 dU 1 12 P 2 a 2
P2
9P 2 a 2
2
= [
+
(
3
a
)]
=
t da t Eth 3
Eth 3
Et 2 h 3
(3) Comparison
G6.27 =
G6.27
G6.11
9P 2 a 2
2 3
a2
10
= Et 2h = 36 2 = 36( ) 2 = 3600
1
h
P
2
4 Et h
It is obvious to see that the loading in Fig. 6.27 produces more energy release and is
much more efficient in cracking the beam.
--- ANS
6.6.2
6.7
To further split the beam of Fig. 6.27, a rigid pin of diameter d = 0.5cm is
inserted as shown in Fig. 6.28. How far does one have to drive the cylinder in
order to split the beam? Assume a plane strain fracture condition with
K Ic = 50MPa m .
Figure 6.28
Solution:
Use the beam dimensions and the material properties in Problem 6.6.
E = 70GPa ,
L = 15 10 2 m ,
= 0.3
a = 10 10 2 m ,
t = 2 10 2 m
h = 1 10 2 m
The vertical displacement of each split beam at the position of the cylinder is
d
= 0.25cm . This is an approximate value because the exact contact points may
2
not be diametric.
Consider the upper leg as a cantilever beam subjected to a vertical load P at a distance
a - c from the crack tip. The load-deflection relation can be found in any mechanics of
solid book:
3EI 1
3(70 10 9 )(1.6667 10 9 )
0.875
(6.7.1)
P=
=
0.0025 =
3
3
(a c)
(0.1 c)
(0.1 c) 3
th 3 (2 10 2 )(1 10 2 ) 3
=
= 1.6667 10 9 m 4
12
12
Let x measures the distance from the load to a location to the right. The total strain
energy stored in the upper and lower beams due to a bending is
where I =
U = 2
a c
( Px) 2
P 2 (a c) 3
dx =
2 EI 1
3EI 1
1 dU P 2 (a c) 2
=
t da
tEI 1
6.7.1
=(
0.875 2
( 0.1 c )2
0.3281
)
=
3
9
9
( 0.1 c )
( 0.02 )( 70 10 )( 1.6667 10 ) ( 0.1 c )4
6.7.2
6.8
Solution:
(1) Under the internal pressure p 0 .
The only nonvanishing stress is the hoop stress which is given by
p 0 ( 2r ) L p 0 r
p0
=
=
= 200 p 0
2tL
t
0.005
For a large cylinder with a small crack that is perpendicular to the uniform hoop stress
it can be approximated as a flat plate subjected to a remotely applied uniform tension
as shown in the figure below. Then the stress intensity factor can be approximately
taken as
yy =
K I = yy a = 200 p0
0.05
(
) = 56.05 p0
2
yy
yy
The mode I fracture toughness of the material is K Ic = 5 MPa m .
Therefore, the maximum internal pressure that the cracked cylinder can withstand is
estimated as
K I = K Ic => 56.05 p0 = 5
Thus, p0 = 0.0892 MPa = 89.2 KPa
--- ANS
(2) Under a torque T (without internal pressure p 0 )
6.8.1
xx = yy = 0 ,
q
T
T
=
=
= 31.83 T
2
t 2 At 2 ( 1 ) ( 0.005 )
N / m2
where is the shesr stress associated with the shear flow q along the wall
produced by the torque T. If there is a small longitudinal crack on the cylinder of a
larger diameter, then in region of the crack may be approximated by a flat plat
subjected to antisymmetric shear loading as shown in the figure below.
So this is a mode II fracture problem and the large plate solution for stress intensity
factor may be used. We have
K II = 0 a = 31.83T (
0.05
) = 8.92T
2
MN m = 560
KN m
--- ANS
6.8.2
6.9
Consider the thin-walled box beam in Fig. 6.17. The top wall contains a crack
parallel to the x-axis. The crack length is 0.02 m (i.e., a = 0.01m ). Assume that
the material is brittle and that modes I and II have the same toughness value of
5MPa m . If the box beam has already been subjected to a torque
T = 100kN m , estimate the maximum additional axial force N by using the
mixed mode fracture criterion.
Figure 6.17
Solution:
(1) Under the torque T
Without the crack, a constant shear flow in the thin wall is produced by the torque and
in the top panel the state of uniform stress would be
T
100
xx = zz = 0 , xz =
=
= 20000kPa = 20 MPa ,
2 At 2(0.5)(0.005)
Since the crack is small as compared with the panel, the top panel with the crack can
be approximated as a large panel subjected to a remote shear stress condition as
depicted in the figure below.
6.9.1
This is a mode II fracture problem and the stress intensity factor can be approximated
by the expression for a crack in an infinite plate:
zz =
N
N
=
= 66.67 N
A 2(1 + 0.5)(0.005)
Pa
This is a mode I fracture problem. Again, using the large panel (relative to the crack
size) argument, we approximate the mode I stress intensity factor as
K Ic
K II
+
K IIc
= 1
6
11.82 N max 3.545 10
= 1
=>
+
6
6
5 10 5 10
2
6.9.2
6.10
Derive the strain energy (bending and shear together) per unit length of a
Timoshenko beam with a solid rectangular cross-section. The counterpart of
the simple beam theory is given by (6.26). Use this expression to derive the
mode I strain energy release rate for the split beam of Fig. 6.10. Compare the
Timoshenko beam solution with the simple beam solution. How long (in terms
of a / h ) does the crack length have to be for the simple beam solution to be
within 5 percent of the Timoshenko beam solution.
Figure 6.10
Solution:
The strain energy in a Timoshenko beam consists of two parts; one part is associated
with bending deformation and the other part is transverse shear deformation.
(1) Strain energy associated with bending deformation
M2
UM =
dx
(6.10.1)
0 2 EI
For this particular problem, M = Px in beams 1 and 2, and M = 0 in beam 3, and
L
I1 = I 2 =
th 3
12
U M1 = U M 2 =
( Px) 2
2P 2 a 3
dx
=
, UM3 = 0
th 3
Eth 3
2E( )
12
Thus, U M = U Mi =
i
4P 2 a 3
Eth 3
6.10.1
Timoshenko beam theory, the transverse shear strain produced by the shear force V is
dw0
V
+ y =
dx
kGA
where k =
5
for the rectangular solid cross-section.
6
Then the total stain energy associated with the transverse shear deformation in a
Timoshenko beam is
U V = WdV =
L
G V 2
V2
dA
dx
=
(
)
A 2 kGA
0 2k 2 GA dx
(6.10.2)
( P) 2
18 P 2 a
dx
=
, UV 3 = 0
25Gth
2k 2 G (th)
Thus the total strain energy associated with the transverse shear deformation is
36 P 2 a
UV = UV 1 + UV 2 =
25Gth
(3) Total strain energy
Assume Poissons ratio = 0.3 , G =
E
= 0.385 E
2(1 + )
U Tim =
(6.10.3)
a
P2 a
P2 a
4P2 a 3
36 P 2
( ) +
( ) = 4 ( )3 + 3.74 ( )
Et h
Et h
Et h
25(0.385E )t h
(6.10.4)
--- ANS
a
within 5% error
h
a
= q , from (6.10.3) and (6.10.4), we have
h
Err =
U Tim U Sim
0.05 ,
U Tim
=>
3.744q
0.05
4q + 3.744q
3
6.10.2
a
a
= q is positive, we have
= q 4.22
h
h
--- ANS
6.10.3
6.11
Compare the plastic zone sizes for plane strain mode I fracture at failure in Al
2024-T651 and Al 7075-T651.
Solution:
The plastic zone size under plane strain is
rp = (1 2 )
KI
2 Y
(6.11.1)
K Ic
(24) 2
2
=
(
1
0
.
33
)
= 6.153 10 5 m = 0.062 mm
2
2
2
(
415
)
2 Y
--- ANS
(2) For Al 7075-T651 ( = 0.33 )
The plane strain toughness is K Ic = 29MPa m ,
and the yield stress is Y = 505MPa .
The plastic zone is
2
K Ic
( 29) 2
2
rp = (1 2 )
= (1 2 0.33)
= 6.067 10 5 m = 0.061 mm
2
2
2 (505)
2 Y
2
--- ANS
The plastic zone sizes for plane strain mode I fracture at failure in Al 2024-T651 and
Al 7075-T651 are almost identical.
6.11.1
6.12
Solution:
By using Irwins plastic zone adjustment method, the fracture toughness can be
characterized by KI evaluated at a eff which is
aeff = a0 + rp
where a0 = 27.5 mm. Since rp depends on K I , which in turn depends on a eff , the
determination of a eff requires a few iterations. We start with
K I = 0 a 0 = 136 (0.0275) = 39.97 MPa m
The plastic zone under plane stress is
rp1 =
KI
2 Y
(136) 2 0.0275
= 1.477 10 3 m
2
2 (415)
Then we can compute the new stress intensity factor by using the new effective crack
length, that is
K I ( eff )1 = 0 a eff 1 = 136 (0.02898) = 41.04 MPa m
K I ( eff )1
2 y
(39.123866) 2
= 1.556 10 3 m
2 (415) 2
6.12.1
method.
r p = 0.001560466 m = 0.00156 m
Since
rp 0.00156
=
= 0.057 < 0.1 , this crack is valid for Irwins method.
a0
0.0275
--- ANS
6.12.2
6.13
The split beam of Fig. 6.10 is subjected to a pair of cyclic opening forces P
with
Pmin = 0
Pmax = 2000 N ,
The initial crack length a 0 is 40 mm. The material is 2024-T651 Al, and
t = 2 10 2 m , h = 1 10 2 m . The crack growth rate is given by
da
= 1.6 10 11 (K I ) 3.59 m / cycle
dN
Figure 6.10
Solution:
Assume a plane strain fracture condition so that
GI =
1 2
2
KI
E
(6.13.1)
Since the strain energy release rate for the split beam is
GI =
P2a2
tEI
(6.13.2)
P2a2
(1 2 )tI
(6.13.3)
6.13.1
th 3
= 1.6667 10 9 m 4
t = 2 10 m , h = 1 10 m => I =
12
2
When K I = K Ic = 24MPa m , the crack becomes unstable under the load Pmax .
Thus, using all the numerical values in (6.13.3) and setting K I = K Ic , we obtain the
crack length ac at which fracture occurs. We have
a c = (1 2 )tI
K Ic
24 10 6
= (1 0.33 2 )(0.02)(1.6667 10 9 )
Pmax
2000
= 0.0654m = 65.4mm
Pmax a
(1 )tI
2
2000 a
(1 0.33 )(0.02)(1.6667 10 9 )
2
= 366.964a MPa m
=>
da
= 0.0257702 dN
a 3.59
6.13.2
6.14
Tmin = 0
Tmax = 0.1 MN m ,
da
= 5 10 11 ( K I ) 3 m/cycle.
dN
Find the number of cycles for the crack of initial length a 0 = 0.01m to grow
to a length a = 0.02m .
Solution:
The maximum crack opening stress is 1(max) .
Tmax
0 .1
= 20 MPa
2 (0.5 1) 0.005
2 At
min = 0 MPa
Therefore, 1 = 20 0 = 20 MPa
da
= 5 10 11 (K I ) 3 m/cycle.
dN
=>
da
= 5 10 11 (K I ) 3 = 5 10 11 ( 1 a ) 3
dN
=>
da
= 5 10 11 ( 20 ) 3 dN
3/ 2
a
(6.14.1)
The number of cycles (N) required for a crack to grow from ao to a is then obtained
from integrating (6.14.1),
a
da
3
11
a a 3 / 2 = 0 5 10 (20 ) dN
0
=> N =
a 01 / 2 a 1 / 2
1
5 10 11 (20 ) 3
2
= 897936 (a01 / 2 a 1 / 2 )
For a crack grown from ao = 0.01m to a = 0.02m, the number of cycle required is
6.14.1
N = 897936 (a 01 / 2 a 1 / 2 ) = 2630000
= 2.63 10 6
cycles
--- ANS
6.14.2