Amrita: Amrita Entrance Examination - Engineering
Amrita: Amrita Entrance Examination - Engineering
Amrita: Amrita Entrance Examination - Engineering
Version Code
Number of pages
Number of questions
Time
100
: 2 1/2 hrs
Registration number
Name of the candidate
Signature of the candidate
6. Candidates are not permitted to leave the hall before the end of the examination.
7. Candidates are required to handover the ANSWER SHEET and the QUESTION
BOOKLET to the invigilator before leaving the hall.
8. After submitting the answer sheet, candidates shall affix their left thumb impression on
the attendance sheet.
QUESTION BOOKLET
9. DO NOT OPEN THE SEALED QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL THE INVIGILATOR
ANNOUNCES TO DO SO.
10. Before opening the Question Booklet, write the Registration Number, Name and Signature
using ball pen in the space provided at the top of this page.
11. Immediately after opening the booklet, the candidate should examine whether it contains
all the 100 questions in serial order and number of pages as mentioned at the top of this page. In
case of unprinted, torn or missing pages in the booklet, the matter should be reported to the
invigilator immediately.
12. Rough work may be done on the space provided in this booklet.
(Continued on the last page of this question booklet)
Rough Work
MODEL QUESTIONS
PHYSICS (S.No.1 to 30) 30 Questions
Data:
Acceleration due to gravity = 10m/s2, Mass of electron = 9.1 x 10-31kg
Charge of electron = 1.6 x 10-19 C, Velocity of light, c = 3 x 108m/s
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
1. Which of the following has the dimensionality of farad?
a) A2s4kg-1m -2
b) A-2kg m2s3
c) kg m2 A-1s2
d) kg m3 A-2s2
2. Choose the correct combination of the planet and its average orbital speed(in km s -1 )
a) Earth (29.8); Saturn(9.65); Venus(35.0); Mars(24.2)
b) Earth (9.65); Saturn(29.8); Venus(35.0); Mars(24.2)
c) Earth (24.2); Saturn(9.65); Venus(35.0); Mars(29.8)
d) Earth (29.8); Saturn(9.65); Venus(24.2); Mars(35.0)
3. At a point 3200 km vertically above the surface of the earth, acceleration due to gravity
of earth in SI units is
a) 6.66
b) 3.33
c) 5.55
d) 4.44
4. Two laser beams one of wave length 640 nm and the other 400 nm have same unit flux of
photons. Their powers are in the ratio
a) 64:40
b) 1:1
c) 5:8
d) 25:64
5. The relation, Work Done = Change in internal energy holds for
a) isothermal process
b) adiabatic process
c) isobaric process
d) isochoric process
6. The rate of flow of volume of a fluid of viscosity along a horizontal pipe of radius r and
length L due to pressure difference P is (V/t). If a pipe of radius 2r and length 2L is
used and P is doubled the rate of flow will increase by a factor
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
7. If the charge Q in a capacitor is doubled, electric field energy stored inside
a) doubles
b) increases by factor 4
c) remains unchanged
d) increases by factor 8
8. A capacitor with C =0.144 F having charge Q is made to discharge through a resistance
of 1.0 . What is the time taken for the discharge of 50% of the initial charge?
b) 0.144 x10-6 s
c) 2.1 x 10-7s
d) 0.144 x 10-7 s
a) 10-7 s
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9. A slab having dielectric constant = 3 is placed in a region having constant electric field
E = 10 V m-1. The electric field inside the slab volume is
a) 1.1 V m-1
b) 30 V m-1
c) zero
d) 3.33V m-1
10. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery supplying constant voltage difference
such that it accumulates charge Q. While being connected, if the separation d between
the plates is increased
a) both electric field inside the capacitor and Q decrease
b) electric field inside the capacitor decreases and Q increases
c) electric field inside the capacitor increases and Q decreases
d) both electric field inside the capacitor and Q increase
11. The sides (in meters) of a box joining at origin are represented by vectors
a= 4i, b= 2i + 3j and c= i+k. The surface area of the box is
a) 20 m2
b) 26 m2
c) 36 m2
d) 40 m2
12. The slant side of a frictionless incline making an angle 60 with the vertical is 1 m.
Starting from rest the time taken by a mass to slide down the incline from top to the base
is
a) 0.63 s
b) 0.23 s
c) 0.2 s
d) 0.4 s
13. A mass of 0.01 kg is hung from a series combination of two ideal light springs having
spring constants k1= 10 Nm-1 and k2 =20 Nm-1. The net stretching of this spring-mass
system is
a) 3 cm
b) 1.5 cm
c) 6 cm
d) 2.5 cm
14. A mass m =1 kg located at point (3,4) in x-y plane at time t is subjected to a force of 2
flowing in the circuit is 0.3 A. The power supplied to the rest of the circuit other than
the internal resistance is
a) 1.8 W
b) 1.74 W
c) 1.42 W
d) 1.62 W
16. A small magnet of magnetic moment m is placed inside a hollow sphere of radius R; the
net magnetic flux emerging out of the sphere is
a) proportional to m
b) proportional to the product R2 and magnitude of m
c) zero
d) a function of location and orientation of the magnet
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17. What is the magnetic induction flux crossing unit area in xy plane if magnetic induction
vector is B = 2i + 4j + 6k ? All numbers are in SI units.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d)
18. The direction of a ray of light from a plane wave is along unit vector n = i + j. The
corresponding wave front is
a) parallel to z axis
b) parallel to n
c) perpendicular to z axis
d) parallel to y-z plane
19. Electric potential in a region is given by 4x2+3. All numbers are in SI units. The Electric
field magnitude at a point (-5,1,2) is
a) 40
b) 20
c) 80
d) 10
20. When a glass prism of refracting angle 60o is immersed in a liquid, its angle of minimum
deviation is 30o. The critical angle of glass with respect to the liquid medium is
a) 45o
b) 30o
c) 60o
d) 55o
21. Choose the group of incorrect statement formed from the following
(i) The ammeter used to measure current in a circuit is to be connected in series.
(ii) An ammeter should have very low resistance.
(iii) An ammeter should have very high resistance.
(iv) Connecting ammeter in series will not lead to any change in the current present
before.
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (iii) and (iv)
d) (iv) and (i)
22. Let Ei, Ni,, Ii with i=1,2 denote respectively the emf, number of turns , and the current in
the primary and secondary coils of an ideal transformer. Then
a) E1/E2 = N1/N2 = I1/I2
b) E1/E2 = N2/N1 = I1/I2
d) E1/E2 = N1/N2 = I2/I1
c) E2/E1 = N1/N2 = I1/I2
23. Which of the following are unrelated?
a) Fermats principle and propagation of light
b) Huygens principle and speed of light
c) Law of gravitation and Keplers laws
d) Alpha decay and Coulomb force
24. A tiny electric dipole of dipole moment p k is placed at the origin. The electric fields at
two far away point (b,0,0) and (0,0,b) are
a)
equal in magnitude
b) equal
c) equal in direction only
d) unequal in magnitude and opposite in direction
Rough Work
25. A compound telescope have two lenses A and B. Lens A is closer to object than lens B.
Which statement is correct?
a) Both A and B form real images.
b) Both A and B form virtual images.
c) A forms real image and B forms virtual image.
d) A forms virtual image and B forms real image.
IN COMPLETE
Rough Work
39. What is the theoretical quantity of hydrogen required to generate 53.6Ah in a Proton
Exchange Membrane Fuel Cell?
a) 1.0 g
b) 1.0 kg
c) 2.0 g
d) 2.0 litre
40. For a reaction,
X + Y + Z Products
the concentration of X is doubled keeping that of Y and Z constant. The rate of the reaction
increases by four times. What is the order of the reaction?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 1
d) 0
41.Which one of the following exhibits Schottky defect?
a) nickel oxide
b) potassium bromide
c) ferrous sulphide
d) silver chloride
42.Which one of the following is anti ferromagnetic?
a) titanium dioxide
b) nickel
c) oxygen
d) ferrous oxide
43.The gas that is produced through catalytic reforming of sewage is
a) producer gas
b) syngas
c) natural gas
d) carbon monoxide
44.Which one of the following hydrides is non-stoichiometric?
a) ammonia
b) nickel hydride
c) sodium hydride
d) diborane
45.The order of energy released on combustion of the following fuels per litre is
a) LPG > octane > liquid hydrogen > gaseous hydrogen
b) liquid hydrogen > gaseous hydrogen > LPG > octane
c) octane > LPG > liquid hydrogen > gaseous hydrogen
d) gaseous hydrogen > liquid hydrogen > octane > LPG
46.Density of the following alkali metals is in the order of
a) lithium < sodium
< potassium < rubidium
b) rubidium < potassium < sodium
< lithium
c) sodium < potassium < lithium
< rubidium
d) lithium < potassium < sodium
< rubidium
47.The discontinuity in ionization enthalpy values of group 13 elements in the periodic table
is due to
a) irregular variation in ionic radii
b) irregular variation in electronegativity
c) poor shielding effect of p and d electrons
d) poor shielding effect of d and f electrons
Rough Work
IN COMPLETE
Rough Work
and
of
is
. If
, then
is equal to
and
64. If
and
, then,
has
may be
65. If
. If
is
is
66. Let
denote the number of triangles which can be formed by using the vertices of a
, then the value of is
regular polygon of sides. If
67.If
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is
is
70. If
values of
,
and
are given by
is
71. If
72. Let
, where
73. If
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is
is
takes
are given by
which satisfies
and
the relation
and
of a force
is
acting
79. An integer
to
is
80. Let
be a nonzero real number. A determinant is chosen from the set of all
determinants of order two with entries
and
only. The probability that the value of
the determinant is nonzero is
81. Two candidates A and B are seeking admission in AMRITA UNIVERSITY. The
probability that A is selected is
and the probability that both
and B are selected is
atmost
. Then the probability of B getting selected cannot exceed
Rough Work
, given
when
is equal to
84.
is equal to
of a triangle
is
and
88. If
89. If
and
and
by
of the triangle
is
, then
is
at
is
90. If
is a polynomial of degree three which attains its maximum value
and minimum value
at
, then the polynomial is
Rough Work
at
93. Let
is orthogonal, then
and
has
and
have a
is equal to
95. A helicopter is to fly directly from a helipad at the origin in the direction of the point
at a speed of
is
96. Let
Rough Work
is
is
100.
Given
and
that
is solvable for
and
, then
satisfy
at
the
equations
is
IN COMPLETE
Rough Work
14. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the OMR sheet.
15. Use HB Pencil or Black ball point pen for shading the bubbles and black ball pen for
writing.
18. For each question, four answers are suggested of which only one is correct / most
appropriate.
Mark the correct / most appropriate answer by darkening the corresponding bubble using HB
pencil or Black ball point pen.
19. In case the candidate wishes to change the choice already shaded using HB pencil, he/she may
erase the marking completely and thereafter shade the alternative bubble.
20. If more than one bubble is darkened against a question, it will be treated as an incorrect answer.
21. For each correct answer, three marks will be awarded.
22. For each incorrect answer, one mark will be deducted from the total score.
23. If any smudge is left on the OMR sheet, evaluation will become imperfect.