Lab Values
Lab Values
Lab Values
Which part of the Nursing Process: Assessment; Analysis; Planning; Implementation or Evaluation?
Next, Decide the Order of Priority
INITIAL or FIRST - NURSING PROCESS – assessment? Priority ABC if answers are not Nursing
process
BEST- DISCRIMINATE out of few correct answers
MOST IMPORTANT ABC’s - MASLOW’S hierarchy of needs or REAL problem vs potential prob
MOST CONCERNED – there is a complication
ANALYSIS--is the process of identifying potential and actual health problems. Most identify pertinent
assessment information and assimilate it into the nursing diagnosis. Prioritize the needs that have been
identified during analysis.
ASSESSMENT--consists of a collection of data. Baseline information for pre and post procedures is
included. Also included the recognition of pertinent signs and symptoms of health problems both
present and potential. Verification of data and confirmation of findings are also included. Assess a
situation before doing an intervention.
Some common words that are associated with ASSESSMENT questions:
observe; gather; collect; differentiate; assess; recognize; detect; distinguish; identify; display; indicate;
describe;
PLANNING--Involves formulating goals and outcomes. It also involves various members of the health
care team and the patient's family. All outcome criteria must be able to be evaluated with a specific
time frame. Be sure to establish priorities and modify according to question.
Some common words that are associated with PLANNING questions:
rearrange; reconstruct; determine; outcomes; formulate; include; expected; designate; plan; generate;
short/long term goal; develop;
IMPLEMENTATION--Addresses the actual/direct care of a patient. Direct care entails pre, intra and
postoperative management, preforming procedures, treatments, activities of daily living. Also includes
the coordination of care and referral on discharge. It involves documentation and therapeutic response
to intervention and patient teaching for health promotion and helping the patient maintain proper
health.
Some common words that are associated with IMPLEMENTATION questions:
document; explain; give; inform; administer; implement; encourage; advise; provide; perform;
EVALUATION--Determines if the interventions were effective. Were goals met? Was the care
delivered properly? Are modification plans needed. Addresses the effectiveness of patient teaching and
understands and determines in proper care was offered. Evaluation can involve documentation,
reporting issues, evaluates care given and determine the appropriateness of delegating to others. Most
significantly, it finds out the response of the patient to care and the extent to which the goals we met.
Some common words that are associated with EVALUATION questions:
monitor; expand; evaluate; synthesize; determine; consider; question; repeat; outcomes; demonstrate;
reestablish;
After determining what part of the nursing process the question is concerned with, next focus your
attention on determining the category of priority:
Safe and effective care environment is always first. Patient safety is related to the proper preparation
and delivery of nursing techniques and procedures as part of the nursing practice. It relates to every
aspect of the delivery of care.
Physiologic integrity is the ability to provide competent care Information that may be described as
traditionally medical- surgical and pediatric nursing falls into this category. Specific questions in this
area can be related to many direct-care aspects of nursing practice. The importance of this area is
highlighted because it is one in which planning, implementation and evaluation of care needs can
easily be identified and tested. Physiologic integrity is always a slight lower priority than safety unless
it involves airway, breathing and circulation. "ABC's" always comes first!
Psychosocial integrity tests the knowledge about a patients response to a disease or disorder. An
understanding of stress, anxiety and ways to cope are essential. This is a lower priority the
physiological integrity.
Health maintenance deals with health promotion, health teaching, disease prevention and assessment of
risk factors for health problems. Normal growth and development is a major theme in this category.
This however, is a low priority.
In Summary, when choosing the right answer for you NCLEX exam question
1) ask yourself, "what part of the nursing process is this question dealing with: analysis, assessment,
planning, implantation or evaluation? and
2) Remember to prioritize your choices: safety always being first, 2)physiological integrity unless there
is ABC
3) psychosocial integrity and health maintenance always has the lowest priority when choosing an
answer.
Other tidbits:
Avoid choices with the answers "all" "always" "never" or "none". Nothing is ever a definite in Science.
Look for answers that are different. If three answers say the same thing but in different words, choose
the answer that is different.
When given choices that are pharmacologically based or non pharmacologically based, choose the non
pharmacological intervention. It is more often then not, the correct answer.
4 impl. answers one says wash hands its prob right.
PROTIME
(11.6-14.4
sec.)
(0.9-1.4
INR
)
CHEMISTRY
Basic & Comprehensive Metabolic Panels.
Name Normal Result
BUN (10.0-26.0 mg/dl)
CREATININE (0.6-1.4 mg/dl)
GLUCOSE (70.0-100.0 mg/dl)
CALCIUM (8.8-10.4 mg/dl)
SODIUM
(135.0-145.0 mg/dl
)
POTASSIUM (3.5-5.0 mg/dl)
CHLORIDE
(94.0-112.0 MEQ/
L)
CO2 (21.0-32.0 MEQ/L)
BUN/CREATININE (8.0-36.0 RATIO)
ANION GAP (4.0-34.0 RATIO)
ALBUMIN (3.5-5.0 G/DL)
TOTAL PROTEIN (6.3-8.1 G/DL)
DIRECT BILI (0.0-0.6 MG/DL)
TOTAL BILI (0.2-1.3 MG/DL)
ALKALINE PHOS (40.0-150.0 IU/L)
AST/SGOT (5.0-34.0 IU/L)
ALT/SGPT (0.0-55.0 IU/L)
Urine Studies
Lab: Urine Protein 24 hr (doesn't include
volume)
Name Expected results
T.URINE
PROTEIN (6.80-15.00 mg/dL)
This is an internal calculation from
tputest
our computer that is not relevant
24 HR. TP
(30.00-150.00 mg/24 hr)
URINE
UA Urinalysis dipstick
Name 10/25/2007
COLOR
YELLO
W)
CLARITY
(CLEA
R)
LEUKOCYTES
(NEGATI
VE )
NITRATE
(NEGATI
VE )
UROBILINOGEN
(NEGATI
VE )
PROTEIN
(NEGATI
VE )
pH
(5.0 -
8.5 )
BLOOD
(NEGATI
VE )
SPEC. GRAVITY
(1.000 -
1.030 )
KETONE
(NEGATI
VE )
BILIRUBIN
(NEGATI
VE )
GLUCOSE
(NEGATI
VE )
KAPLAN missed Q
- Take the cholestyramine (Questran) with meals- appropriate action; never take powder dry because it will cause
esophageal irritation Increase intake of whole grain cereals.- side effect is constipation; increase intake of fiber and
fluids Walk for 30 min, 3-4 times per week. - cholestyramine (Questran) is an antilipemic; regular exercise will
prevent atherosclerosis
- Hypokalemia
- A patient diagnosed with multiple sclerosis receiving prednisone 200 mg PO- corticosteroids cause hypokalemia
- A patient diagnosed with systemic scleroderma receiving total parenteral nutrition.-TPN causes hypokalemia
- A patient diagnosed with acute ulcerative colitis preparing for an ileostom -diarrhea causes hypokalemia
- Hypokalemia - Electrocardiographic changes include inverted T waves, ST segment depression, and prominent U
waves. Absent P waves are not a characteristic of hypokalemia
- Potassium chloride administered intravenously must always be diluted in IV fluid and infused via a pump or
controller. The usual concentration of IV potassium chloride is 20 to 40 mEq/L. Potassium chloride is never given by
bolus (IV push). Giving potassium chloride by IV push can result in cardiac arrest. Dilution in normal saline is
recommended, but dextrose solution is avoided because this type of solution increases intracellular potassium shifting.
The IV bag containing the potassium chloride is always gently agitated before hanging. The IV site is monitored
closely because potassium chloride is irritating to the veins and the risk of phlebitis exists. The nurse monitors urinary
output during administration and contacts the physician if the urinary output is less than 30 mL/hr.
- A serum potassium level higher than 5.1 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Clients who experience cellular shifting
of potassium in the early stages of massive cell destruction, such as with trauma, burns, sepsis, or metabolic or
respiratory acidosis, are at risk for hyperkalemia.
- A serum potassium level higher than 5.1 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Electrocardiographic changes include flat
P waves, prolonged PR intervals, widened QRS complexes, and tall peaked T waves.
- Signs of hypocalcemia include paresthesias followed by numbness, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, and a
positive Trousseau’s or Chvostek’s sign. Additional signs of hypocalcemia include increased neuromuscular
excitability, muscle cramps, twitching, tetany, seizures, irritability, and anxiety. Gastrointestinal symptoms include
increased gastric motility, hyperactive bowel sounds, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea.
- Electrocardiographic changes that occur in a client with hypocalcemia include a prolonged ST or QT interval. A
shortened ST segment and a widened T wave occur with hypercalcemia. Prominent U waves occur with
hypokalemia.
- Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that inhibits calcium movement across cell membranes of cardiac and
smooth muscle. It dilates coronary arteries and peripheral arteries and arterioles. Diltiazem decreases the heart rate
and slows SA and AV conduction.
- The solution GoLYTELY is a bowel evacuant used to prepare a client for a colonoscopy by cleansing the bowel.
The solution is expected to cause a mild diarrhea and will clear the bowel in 4 to 5 hours
- Kawasaki disease - In the acute stage, the child has a fever, conjunctival hyperemia, red throat, swollen hands,
rash, and enlargement of the cervical lymph nodes. In the subacute stage, cracking lips and fissures, desquamation
of the skin on the tips of the fingers and toes, joint pain, cardiac manifestations, and thrombocytosis occur. In the
convalescent stage, the child appears normal, but signs of inflammation may be present.
- Cardiogenic shock occurs with severe damage (more than 40%) to the left ventricle. Classic signs include
hypotension, a rapid pulse that becomes weaker, decreased urine output, and cool, clammy skin. Respiratory rate
increases as the body develops metabolic acidosis from shock. Cardiac tamponade is accompanied by distant,
muffled heart sounds and prominent neck vessels. Pulmonary embolism presents suddenly with severe dyspnea
accompanying the chest pain. Dissecting aortic aneurysms usually are accompanied by back pain.
- Rifampin – TB - Soft contact lenses may be permanently damaged by the orange discoloration in body fluids
caused by rifampin. Any sign of possible jaundice (yellow-colored skin) should always be reported. If rifampin is
not tolerated on an empty stomach, it may be taken with food. The client may be on the medication for 12 months
even if cultures give negative results.
- Peyer patches are lymphoid nodules located in the small intestine where T cells congregate.
- The therapeutic phenytoin (Dilantin) level is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. At a level higher than 20 mcg/mL, involuntary
movements of the eyeballs (nystagmus) appears. At a level higher than 30 mcg/mL, ataxia and slurred speech
occur.
- If a client complains of chest pain, the initial assessment question would be to ask the client about the pain
intensity, location, duration, and quality. Although options 1, 3, and 4 all may be components of the assessment,
none of these questions would be the initial assessment question in this client.
- BuSpar should relieve rapid heartbeat, or anxiety. Buspirone (BuSpar) is not recommended for the treatment of
drug or alcohol withdrawal, thought disorders, or schizophrenia. Buspirone hydrochloride most often is indicated
for the treatment of anxiety.
- Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system (CNS) depressant and the client could experience adverse effects
that includes depressed respiratory rate (below 12 breaths/min), severe hypotension, and absent deep tendon
reflexes (DTRs).
- Risk factors for PUD include Helicobacter pylori infection, smoking (nicotine), chewing tobacco, corticosteroids,
aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), caffeine, alcohol, and stress. Ibuprofen is an NSAID, and
when taken as often as is typical for osteoarthritis, it will cause problems with the stomach. Certain medical
conditions such as Crohn’s disease, Zöllinger-Ellison syndrome, and hepatic and biliary disease also can increase
risk for PUD by changing the amount of gastric and biliary acids produced. Ulcer disease in a first-degree relative
also is associated with increased risk for an ulcer.
- Immediately after radical neck dissection, the client will have a wound drain in the neck attached to portable
suction, which drains serosanguineous fluid. In the first 24 hours after surgery, the drainage may total 80 to 120
- Asterixis is irregular flapping movements of the fingers and wrists when the hands and arms are outstretched, with
the palms down, wrists bent up, and fingers spread. Asterixis is the most common and reliable sign that hepatic
encephalopathy is developing.
- Systemic absorption of pilocarpine hydrochloride can produce toxicity and includes manifestations of vertigo,
bradycardia, tremors, hypotension, syncope, cardiac dysrhythmias, and seizures. Atropine sulfate must be
available in the event of systemic toxicity. Pindolol is a β blocker. Naloxone hydrochloride is an opioid antagonist
used to reverse narcotic-induced respiratory depression. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin.
- Decreased wheezing in a child with asthma may be interpreted incorrectly as a positive sign when it may actually
signal an inability to move air. A “silent chest” is an ominous sign during an asthma episode. With treatment,
increased wheezing actually may signal that the child’s condition is improving.
- Shunting occurs when a portion of the lung area has adequate capillary perfusion but is not being ventilated. As a
result, no gas exchange occurs. Anatomical dead space normally is present in the conducting airways, where
pulmonary capillaries are absent. Physiological dead space occurs with conditions such as emphysema and
pulmonary embolism. Ventilation-perfusion matching refers to a matching distribution of blood flow in the
pulmonary capillaries and air exchange in the alveolar units of the lungs.
- A prolapsed stoma is one in which the bowel protrudes, causing an elongated and swollen appearance to the
stoma. A retracted stoma is characterized by sinking of the stoma. Ischemia of the stoma would be associated with
a dusky or bluish color. A stoma with a narrow opening is described as being stenosed.
- Tamsulosin hydrochloride FLOMAX is used to relieve mild-to-moderate manifestations that occur in benign
prostatic hypertrophy. The medication also improves urinary flow rates.
- Somatotropin (Humatrope) should not be administered during or after epiphyseal closure. Efficacy of therapy
declines as the client grows older and is usually lost entirely by age 20 to 24 years.
- Warfarin sodium works in the liver and inhibits synthesis of four vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (X, IX, VII,
and II), but it takes 3 to 4 days before the therapeutic effect of warfarin is exhibited.
- Ergotamine CAFERGOT produces vasoconstriction by stimulating α-adrenergic receptors, which suppresses
vascular headaches when the medication is given in the therapeutic dose range. The nurse periodically assesses for
hypertension, cool, numb fingers and toes, muscle pain, and nausea and vomiting.
- Clinical manifestations of respiratory alkalosis include headache, tachypnea, paresthesias, tetany, vertigo,
convulsions, hypokalemia, and hypocalcemia
- Nesiritide NATRECOR is a recombinant version of human B-type natriuretic peptide, which vasodilates arteries
and veins. It is used for the treatment of decompensated heart failure, increases renal glomerular filtration, and
increases urine output.
- Salicylate compounds such as sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) act by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis and reducing
inflammation. The nurse teaches the client to take the medication with a full glass of water and to increase fluid
intake throughout the day. The medication needs to be taken after meals to reduce gastrointestinal irritation.
- A quad cane may be used by the client requiring greater support and stability than is provided by a straight leg
cane. The quad cane provides a four-point base of support and is indicated for use by clients with partial or
complete hemiplegia.
- The low-exhaled volume alarm will sound if the client does not receive the preset tidal volume. Possible causes of
inadequate tidal volume include disconnection of the ventilator tubing from the artificial airway, a leak in the
endotracheal or tracheostomy cuff, displacement of the endotracheal tube or tracheostomy tube, and disconnection
at any location of the ventilator parts.
- High-pressure alarm would sound if present of mucous plug, kinks in the ventilator tubing, excessive secretions
- Nursing care after bone biopsy includes monitoring the site for swelling, bleeding, and hematoma formation. The
biopsy site is elevated for 24 hours to reduce edema. The vital signs are monitored every 4 hours for 24 hours. The
client usually requires mild analgesics; more severe pain usually indicates that complications are arising.
PRECAUTIONS
The nurse observes that staff members enter patient rooms wearing a mask, gown, and gloves, and the doors to the
patient rooms remain open
A patient diagnosed with influenza.-staff member is following droplet precautions; acute viral respiratory infection that
is spread by droplets
- A patient with a draining abscess that is uncovered.
abscess with no dressing requires contact precautions
- A patient diagnosed with bronchitis-inflammation of large airway; standard precautions
- A patient diagnosed with Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome- cardiopulmonary illness caused by a virus transmitted by
direct or indirect contact with rodents; standard precautions
- A patient diagnosed with tonsillitis-inflammation of large airway; standard precautions
- A patient diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus-acute viral infection causing bronchiolitis; contact precautions
- A patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis- hereditary dysfunction of exocrine glands causing obstruction because of
flow of thick mucus; standard precautions.