Vea Endo Perio
Vea Endo Perio
Vea Endo Perio
ENDO-PERIO
The exposed pulp is still vital. What is the treatment of choice for this
tooth?
a) pulp cab
b) pulpotomy
c) pulpectomy
d) extraction
ANSWER: B) Pulpotomy ( Because the tooth would probably
have an immature root canal with a blunderbuss apex
6. A bacterial metabolite that causes lysis of fibrin clots:
a) streptokinase
b) hyaluronidase
c) coagulase
d) deoxyribonuclease
ANSWER: A) streptokinase
7. In infected root canals the two most commonly found organisms are:
a) staphylococcus and lactobacillus
b) staphylococcus and spirochetes
c) lactobacillus and cornebacterium
d) staphylococcus and streptococcus
ANSWER: D) staphylococcus and streptococcus
8. If corticosteroids are used as a component of root canal medicaments:
a) microorganisms are destroyed
b) leukocytic infiltration results
c) antibacterial action is enhanced
d) exacerbation of infection may occur
ANSWER: D) exacerbation of infection may occur
9. The most desirable form of tissue response at the apical foramen
following root canal therapy is by:
a) cementum deposition into the apical foramen
b) formation of a connective tissue capsule over the foramen
c) proliferation of epithelium from the apical periodontal ligament
d) proliferation of the periodontal connective tissue into the apical
foramen
ANSWER: A) cementum deposition into the apical foramen
10.
A culture must be taken before irrigation:
a) since the flora of the canal will be materially reduced
b) because the flora of the canal will be increased
c) since the bacteria spread through the canal
d) because all microorganisms are destroyed
21.
A root canal is ready for filling when:
a) The patient is asymptomatic
b) The canal has been accurately measured, cleansed, and shaped
c) The canal is dry
d) The culture is negative
e) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: E) All of the above are correct
22.
Endodontic cement
a) Is referred to as sealer
b) Is essentially zinc oxide eugenol
c) Fills variations not filled by gutta-percha
d) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) All of the above are correct
23.
Canals are not prepared to a certain size to be filled with
a given material. The size to which canals are prepared is determined
by:
a) Original size of canal
b) Curvature of the canal
c) Shape of the canal
d) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) All of the above are correct
24.
Instrumentation well short of the apical foramen can
result in:
a) Forcing necrotic material into the periapical region
b) Shelfing or ledging the canal
c) Traumatizing the periapical tissue
d) Grossly enlarging the apical foramen
ANSWER: B) Shelfing or ledging the canal
25.
All pulpless teeth with periapical lesions should be
treated by which of the following:
a) A rubber dam which should be inserted
b) The tooth should be left open for drainage
c) An immediate sterilization and root resection should be done
d) The case should be managed the same as in one without a
periapical lesion (nonvital)
ANSWER: D) The case should be managed the same as in one
without a periapical lesion (nonvital)
26.
When directing the xray beam from the mesial to
separate the buccal and lingual roots of an upper premolar, the buccal
root will be projected to the:
a) Buccal
b) Lingual
c) Distal
d) Mesial
e) Coronal
ANSWER: C) Distal
27.
The final access cavity form is determined by:
a) The size and shape of the pulp chamber
b) Curvature of the tooth roots
c) The location of canal orifices
d) The relationship of the length of tooth file to the cavity walls
e) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: E) All of the above are correct
28.
The most frequent cause of pulpal inflammation results
from:
a) Bacteria
b) Trauma
c) Iatrogenic Problems
d) Chemicals
e) Idiopathic disturbances
ANSWER: A) Coronal caries is the most common means of
ingress to the dental pulp for infecting bacteria and their
toxins.
29.
The greatest root canal diameter in the canine teeth
a)Mesiodistal
b) Labiolingual
c) Cervicoproximal
d) Gingivoincisal
ANSWER: B) Labiolingual
30.
Lateral Canals in anterior teeth are most commonly
found in the:
a) Apical third of the root
b) Middle third of the root
c) Cervical line
d) Cervical third of the root
ANSWER: A) Apical third of the root
31.
The anatomical form of the roots of teeth is determined
by
a) Dental lamina
b) Periodontal ligament
c) Epithelial attachment
d) Hertwigs epithelial sheath
ANSWER: D) Hertwigs epithelial sheath
32.
The location of the narrowest constriction of the
normal pulp canal is located at the:
a) Radiographic apex
b) Cementoenamel junction
c) Cementodentinal junction
d) Dentinoenamel junction
ANSWER: C) Cementodentinal junction
33.
Histologically, the dental pulp most closely resembles
what type tissue?
a) Nerve tissue
b) Vascular tissue
c) Granulation tissue
d) Loose connective tissue
ANSWER: D) Loose connective tissue
34.
Accessory canals result from:
a) Defects in cementogenesis
b) Dividing epithelial bridges
c) Breaks in Hertwigs root sheath
d) Adherent epithelial rests
ANSWER: C) Breaks in Hertwigs root sheath
35.
The presence of pulp stones on an xray inidicates the
presence of:
a) Acute pulpitis
b) Acute pulpalgia
c) Chronic periodontitis
d) None of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) None of the above are correct
36.
Pulp capping in a mature tooth may be followed by:
a) Pulpalgia
b) Internal resorption
c) Hypercalcification within the root canals
d) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) All of the above are correct
37.
Which structure is not found in a living pulp?
a) Collagen fibers
b) Haversian canals
c) Nonmedullated nerves
d) Reticulum
ANSWER: B) Haversian canals
38.
In pulps undergoing repair, odontoblasts may be derived
from:
a) Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
b) Histiocytes
c) Macrophages
d) Plasma Cells
e) None of these are correct
ANSWER: A)Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
39.
In the inflammatory process leukotaxine functions as:
a) An anti-inflammatory agent
b) A chemotactic agent
c) An inhibitor of capillary permeability
d) An inducer of fibroblastic proliferation
e) A stimulator of repair
ANSWER: B) A chemotactic agent
40.
An acute apical abscess usually is a result of:
a) A periodontal pocket
b) Occlusal interference
c) A necrotic pulp
d) An incipient acute pulpalgia
e) A moderate acute pulpalgia
ANSWER: C) A necrotic pulp
41.
When thermal stimuli are applied to teeth, which of the
following statements most accurately expresses the patient's reaction
when the threshold has been exceeded:
a) the patient can determine either stimulus accurately
b) the patient will be able to distinguish the cold but not the hot
stimulus
c) the patient will be able to distinguish the hot but not the cold
stimulus
d) patient's only reaction will be one of pain
e) none of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) the senstaion of pain is specific for the free nerve
endings and the fibers of the pulp
42.
The characteristics of pulpotomy include which of the
following?
a) degree of success is excellent
b) degree of success is good
79.
The usual reason for failures in maintaining adequate
plaque removal is inadequate patient:
a) Education
b) Skill and dexterity
c)Training
d) Recalls
e) Motivation
ANSWER: E) Motivation
80.
Which of the listed surgical procedures should be
performed first in sequencing treatment of periodontal disease?
a) Mucogingival surgery
b) Gingivoplasty
c) Infrabony pocket therapy
d) Apically repositioned flap
e) Gingivectomy
ANSWER: C) Infrabony pocket therapy
81.
Which of the following osseous procedure is least likely
to be successful in resolving a periodontally related osseous defect?
a) Osseous coagulum graft
b) Osseous resection
c) Bone swedging
d) Reattachment procedure
e) Iliac crest marrow graft
ANSWER: D) Reattachment procedure
82.
Indicate whether following statement are true or false.
Trauma from occlusion usually causes apical proliferation of the
epithelial
attachment. This is predisposing to bone loss of the
horizontal type.
ANSWER: BOTH STATEMENT ARE FALSE
83.
The significance of a restoration with an interproximal
overhang as an etiological agent in periodontal disease has to do
mainly with its role as a:
a) plaque retaining area
b) nondeflecting tooth surface
c) mechanical irregularity
d) tooth surface that is overcontoured
e) means of encroachment on the interproximal gingival fibers
ANSWER: A) plaque retaining area
84.
The primary objective of a free graft or pedicle graft
when recession has produced 5mm or more of exposed root on the
labial surface of a mandibular incisor is to:
a) improve esthetic by restoring the gingiva in the esxposed area
b) deepen the vestibule to enhance toothbrushing
c) create an adequate band of attached gingival
d) correct undesired frenum pull
e) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: C) create an adequate band of attached gingival
85.
Gingivectomy is usually the indicated procedure if
surgery is to be used to re-establish proper contours when which of the
following are present?
1.infrabony pockets
2.dilantin hyperplasia
3.clefts involving alveolar mucosa
4.pseudopocket
5.suprabony pocket
a) 2 and 5
b) 1,2,and 3
c) 3,4 and 5
d) 2,4,and 5
e) 2,3,and 4
ANSWER: D) 2,4, and 5
86.
Healing of periodontal lesions may be retarded by which
of the following?
a) protein deficiency
b) vitamin C deficieny
c) vitamin A deficiency
d) administration of steroids
e) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: E) all of the above are correct
87.
c) 3, 4, 5, 6
d) 1, 3, 5, 6
e) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: E) all of the above are correct
88.
Gutta-percha has an advantage over silver cones as a
filling, material in that it is more:
a) radiopaque
b) easily standardized in size
c) capable of filling narrow canals
d) plastic, and thus requires no cement
e) compatible with dowel post preparations
ANSWER: E) compatible with dowel post preparations
89.
90.
In order to achieve a proper root canal preparation, one
should:
a) maintain the natural apical constriction
b) flare the body of the canal to exceed the taper of the gutta-percha
cone
c) allow for adequate access and widening of the orifice to allow the
spreader to reach the apical third of the canal
d) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) all of the above are correct
91.
which one of the following is not a requirement of an
ideal root canal filing material:
a) It should be easily introduced into a root canal
b) it should seal the canal laterally as well as apically
c) it should be bacteriostatic
d) it should be inexpensive
e) it should be able to be removed easily
ANSWER: D) it should be inexpensive
92.
EDTA, which is the active ingredient in RC prep, has as
its principal action the:
a) decalcification of dentin
98.
Which of the following maybe considered pulpal irritants
when applied to freshly cut dentin?
a) alcohol
b) phenol
c) silver nitrate
d) drying cavity prep with air
e) all of the above are correct
ANSWER: E) all of the above are correct
99.
Endodontic cement
a) Is referred to as sealer
b) Is essentially zinc oxide eugenol
c) Fills variations not filled by gutta-percha
d) All of the above are correct
ANSWER: D) All of the above are correct
100. The characteristics of pulpotomy include which of the following?
a) degree of success is excellent
b) degree of success is good
c) degree of success is predictable
d) degree of success is very unpredictable
ANSWER: D) degree of success is very unpredictable