ENDODONTICS Student Share

ENDODONTICS
1. In the absence of “Hanks balanced salt solution”, what is the most appropriate media to
transport an avulsed tooth?
A. Saliva.
B. Milk.
C. Saline.
D. Tap water.
2. Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root canals?
A. Streptococcus viridans.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Lactobacilli.
D. Enterococci.
E. Staphylococcus albus.
3. Roots of the permanent maxillary central incisors are completed by what age?
A. 8 years.
B. 10 years.
C. 12 years.
D. Later than 12 years.
4. Which of the following improves the prognosis of pulp vitality after indirect pulp capping? –
revisit
A. Use of calcium hydroxide.
B. Having a well-sealed restoration.
C. Reducing other traumas to the pulp.
D. Removing all demineralized dentin.
5. An 8-year-old patient has a permanent central incisor with a necrotic pulp and a wide-open
apex. The most appropriate management is to perform a/an
A. pulpotomy.
B. apexification.
C. regenerative endodontics.
D. root canal therapy.
6. The smear layer created by root canal instrumentation can be removed by

A. hydrogen peroxide and ethyl chloride.
B. sodium hypochlorite and EDTA.
C. chlorhexidine and chloroform.
D. calcium hydroxide and phenol.
7. The smear layer present on the root canal wall after cleaning and shaping is best removed
by using
A. EDTA.
B. hydrogen peroxide.
C. chlorhexidine.
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D. isopropyl alcohol.
8. The most appropriate material of choice obturating the root canal system of a primary tooth
is
A. MTA.
B. gutta percha.
C. zinc-oxide eugenol.
D. formocresol.
9. Many months after trauma to a primary incisor, the development of a greyish discolouration
in the crown usually indicates
A. pulp necrosis.
B. pulp canal calcification.
C. external root resorption.
D. internal root resorption.
10. During endodontic treatment a file separates. The fragment is 3mm long and is lodged tightly
in the apical third of the canal. No radiographic changes at the apex are evident. In addition
to informing the patient, the most appropriate management is to
A. extract the tooth.
B. perform an apicoectomy and place a retrograde filling.
C. resect the apical section of the root containing the separated instrument.
D. complete the root canal filling and monitor at recall examination.
11. Which of the following results from a necrotic pulp?

A. Dentigerous cyst.
B. Lateral periodontal cyst.
C. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
D. Pulp polyp.
12. The mechanical objectives when preparing the root canal system for obturation with gutta-
percha should include
A. development of a continuously tapering cone in the root canal.
B. removal of irregularities.
C. maintenance of an intact foramen.
D. all of the above.
13. After a tooth has had nonsurgical endodontic treatment, which of the following is NOT an
indication for additional endodontic intervention?
A. Presence of clinical signs and symptoms.
B. Presence of a periradicular radiolucency.
C. Enlargement of the original periradicular radiolucency.
D. Development of a periradicular radiolucency.
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14. After partial pulpotomy of a permanent central incisor in an 8 year old child, the most
important clinical criterion of success is
A. completion of root formation.
B. retained natural colour of the tooth.
C. pulp regeneration.
D. formation of pulp stones
15. A 10-year-old patient complains of discomfort in a maxillary primary second molar when
eating. The tooth is mobile with a large mesio- occlusal amalgam restoration. The most likely
diagnosis is
A. an exfoliating tooth.
B. a hyperemic pulp.
C. a hyperplastic pulp.
D. an acute pulpitis.
E. traumatic occlusion.
16. An 8 year old patient present 4 hours post trauma with an oblique crown fracture of 2.1
exposing 2mm of vital pulp. The most appropriate pulpal treatment is
A. apexogenesis.
B. apexification.
C. extraction.
D. root canal treatment.
17. The canal of a maxillary canine has been instrumented to within 1mm of the apex and is
ready to be obturated. A radiograph indicates that the master cone is 2.5mm short of the
apex. The most appropriate management is to
A. proceed with the filling as the cone is within acceptable limits.

B. fit a larger cone within 2mm of the apex.
C. cut the cone 1mm and insert.
D. discard the cone and fit a smaller one.
18. In teeth with pulp necrosis, the periapical area is involved if there is pain
A. to thermal stimuli.
B.on percussion.
C.to electric pulp testing.
D. when the patient is lying down.
19. Accessory canals in permanent teeth are most commonly found in the
A. cervical third of the root.
B. middle third of the root.
C. apical third of the root.
D. bifurcation area.
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E. trifurcation area.
20. The most common risk associated with vital bleaching using 10% carbamide peroxide in a
custom tray is
A. superficial enamel demineralization.
B. soft tissue reaction.
C. tooth sensitivity.
D. cytotoxicity.
21. The placement of a post in an endodontically treated tooth with minimal coronal tooth
structure provides
A. retention for the core.
B. a ferrule effect.
C. reinforcement of the remaining root structure.
D. resistance to root fracture.
22. When performing endodontic treatment on a vital tooth, the most appropriate termination
point of apical root canal preparation is
A. 0.5 to 1mm short of the radiographic apex.
B. 3mm short of the radiographic apex.
C. slightly through the apical foramen.
D. to the point where the patient feels sensation.
23. In primary molars, radiographic bony changes from an infection are initially seen
A. at the apices.
B. in the furcation area.
C. at the alveolar crest.
D. at the base of the developing tooth
24. When compared to permanent teeth, primary teeth have

A. a greater thickness of enamel.
B. a greater thickness of dentin.
C. more prominent cervical constriction.
D. pulps which are smaller in relation to crown size.
25. In primary teeth, a pulpotomy using calcium hydroxide

A. will cause an acute inflammatory reaction.
B. is successful treatment in 90 percent of cases.
C. will cause internal resorption.
D. is the treatment of choice for small mechanical exposures.
E. will stimulate apical closure.
26. A post is used in an endodontically treated tooth to

A. obturate the canal.
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A. strengthen the root.

B. reinforce the remaining crown.
C. retain the restoration.
27. A 7-year-old patient presents with a crown fracture of a permanent maxillary central incisor
that occurred 3 days ago. The incisal half of the crown is missing, resulting in a 2mm
exposure of vital pulp. What is the most appropriate initial management for this tooth?
A. Apexification.
B. Pulpotomy.
C. Pulp capping.
D. Pulpectomy.
28. Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta-percha points?

A. Autoclave.
B. Chemical solutions.
C. Flame sterilization.
D. Dry heat sterilization.
29. Following a pulpotomy in a second primary molar with extensive occlusal caries, what is the
most appropriate restoration?
A. Resin-modified glass ionomer.
B. Bonded amalgam.
C. Composite resin.
D. Stainless steel crown.
30. The most appropriate method to prevent root canal obstruction during the instrumentation
phase of endodontic treatment is to
A. obtain adequate access.
B. use a chelating agent.
C. irrigate copiously.
D. use reamers instead of files.
31. Pulp polyp is

A. an acute pathological lesion.
B. a proliferative reaction of the pulp.
C. frequently found in elderly patients.
D. accompanied by severe pain.
32. Which of the following is the most probable postoperative complication of intracoronal
bleaching for a tooth that has an inadequate internal seal?
A. Fracture.
B. Discolouration.
C. Internal resorption.
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D. External root resorption.
33. Following trauma, bluish-grey discolouration of the crown of an anterior tooth is due to
A. external resorption.
B. pulpal hemorrhage.
C. discoloured composite restoration.
D. chromogenic bacteria.
34. Erratic and inconsistent electric pulp test results can be explained by all of the following
EXCEPT
A. the presence of multiple canals in various stages of pulp pathosis.
B. failure to isolate and dry the tooth.
C. tooth mobility.
D. poor contact between the electrode and the tooth.
35. Accessory canals in permanent teeth are most commonly found in the
A. cervical third of the root.
B. middle third of the root.
C. apical third of the root.
36. Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of pulpal necrosis?

A. Poorly localized spontaneous pain.
B. Positive response to thermal tests.
C. Negative response to electric pulp test.
D. Extreme pain elicited by palpation and percussion tests.
37. In primary molars, the cusp with the largest pulp horn is the
A. distolingual.
B. distobuccal.
C. mesiolingual.
D. mesiobuccal.
38. Which of the following is most often associated with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis
39. A radiograph reveals a radiolucency associated with the apex of tooth 1.5. There is a large
restoration, but the tooth is asymptomatic, and the associated soft tissues appear normal.
What is the most likely periapical diagnosis?
A. Symptomatic apical periodontitis (acute periradicular periodontitis).
B. Asymptomatic apical periodontitis (chronic periradicular periodontitis).
C. Acute apical abscess (acute periradicular abscess).
D. Chronic apical abscess (chronic periradicular abscess).
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40. A post is used in an endodontically treated tooth to

A. obturate the canal.
B. reinforce the root.
C. reinforce the remaining coronal tooth structure.
D. retain the core build up.
41. Aging pulps show a relative increase in

A. sensitivity.
B. cell numbers.
C. calcification.
D. vascularity.
42. Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of reversible pulpitis?

A. Lingering pain to cold.
B. Pain on percussion.
C. Lingering pain to heat.
D. No spontaneous pain
43. Following root canal therapy, the most desirable form of tissue response at the apical
foramen is
A. cementum deposition.
B. connective tissue capsule formation.
C. epithelium proliferation from the periodontal ligament.
D. dentin deposition.
44. Radiographic examination reveals early evidence of internal resorption. The most appropriate
management is
A. apical surgical intervention.
B. immediate pulp extirpation.
C. immediate pulpotomy.
D. observation and re-evaluation in 3-6 months.
E. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy.
45. The initial appearance of a successful apicoectomy would show on a radiograph as

A. a radiolucent area.
B. woven bone.
C. cortical bone around surgical site.
D. sclerotic dentin.
46. The success of replantation of an avulsed tooth is dependent upon

A. length of time between avulsion and replantation.
B. completion of endodontic therapy before replantation.
C. immersing the tooth in fluoride solution before replantation.
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D. using calcium hydroxide as a treatment root canal filling.
47. Which of the following would differentiate clinically between an acute apical abscess (acute
periradicular abscess) and an acute periodontal abscess on a single rooted tooth?
A. Pain upon palpation.
B. Tooth mobility.
C. Pain upon percussion.
D. Pulp vitality testing
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
49. Following the removal of a vital pulp, the root canal is medicated and sealed. The patient
returns with apical periodontitis. The most common cause is
A. over-instrumentation.
B. lateral perforation.
C. pulp tissue left in the root canal.
D. infection
50. The most common clinical finding in the diagnosis of an acute apical abscess is
A. mobility of the tooth.
B. pain on percussion.
C. discoloration of the crown.
D. presence of a cellulitis.
E. lymph node enlargement.
51. A subluxated tooth will have

A. mobility and displacement.
B. no mobility and no displacement.
C. mobility and no displacement.
52. The prognosis for a replanted developed permanent tooth is most influenced by the
A. length of time the tooth has been out of the mouth.
B. use of an antibiotic.
C. effectiveness of the irrigation of the socket.
D. rigidness of the splint applied.
E. thoroughness of the curettage of the root surface.
53. A 5-year-old has an enamel fracture of tooth 6.1. What is the most appropriate immediate
management?
A. Pulpotomy.
B. Smooth sharp edges.
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C. Pulpectomy.
D. Extraction.
54. A patient's 4 mandibular incisors were traumatized 3 years ago in an accident. Radiographs
now show apical radiolucencies associated with all 4 teeth. The most appropriate
management is to
A. test the pulp vitality and perform root canal therapy on teeth with no response.
B. perform root canal therapy on all 4 teeth and curette the periapical area.
C. extract the teeth and place a bonded bridge.
D. postpone treatment and recheck status periodically.
55. Tooth 4.5 was treated endodontically 2 years ago and is now sensitive to percussion. There is
an isolated, narrow 8mm periodontal pocket on the buccal surface of the tooth. Radiographic
findings are within normal limits. The most likely diagnosis is a/an
A. endodontic lesion.
B. vertical root fracture.
C. chronic periodontal lesion.
56. The electric pulp tester is the most suitable test in cases of teeth with
A. open apices.
B. obliterated canals.
C. full cuspal coverage.
D. concussion injury.
57. Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause pain?

B. Chronic apical abscess (chronic periradicular abscess).
C. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
D. Reversible pulpitis.
58. The maxillary central incisors of a 2-year-old child have been traumatically intruded
4mm.The most appropriate immediate management is
A. carefully remove both incisors.
B. Reposition the intruded teeth.
C. make the patient comfortable without disturbing the teeth.
D. reposition and splint the intruded teeth.
E. order an occlusal radiograph.
59. A positive and prolonged reaction to a heat stimulus indicates that the pulp is
A. normal.
B. reversibly inflamed.
C. irreversibly inflamed.
D. necrotic.
60. A 4-year-old has a primary central incisor that is yellow but asymptomatic. The most
probable diagnosis is
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A. pulpal necrosis.
B. pulpal calcification.
C. internal resorption.
D. external resorption.
61. A 1.5mm diameter carious pulp exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7-year-old
child. The tooth is vital and has no periapical involvement. The most appropriate initial
treatment is to perform a/an
A. pulp capping.
B. partial pulpotomy
C. pulpotomy.
D. pulpectomy.
E. extraction.
62. A healthy 38-year-old has a well-defined radiolucency 2mm in diameter at the apex of tooth
4.1. The tooth responds within normal limits to all tests performed. What is the most
appropriate management?
A. Extraction.
B. Apicoectomy.
C. Incision and drainage.
D. Follow-up in 6 months.
E. Open the tooth for drainage.
63. A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a hypersensitive response if the tooth
A. is nonvital.
B. has a periodontal pocket.
C. has a hyperemic pulp.
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis
64. A 6-year-old patient has an intrusive injury to tooth 5.2. All of the following are possible
sequelae to the permanent successor EXCEPT
A. enamel hypoplasia.
B. root dilaceration.
C. delayed eruption.
D. ectopic eruption.
65. Pulpotomy is the treatment of choice in carious pulp exposures of

A. asymptomatic vital teeth with completely formed apices.
B. asymptomatic vital teeth with incompletely formed apices.
C. asymptomatic necrotic teeth with completely formed apices.
D. asymptomatic necrotic teeth with incompletely formed apices.
66. The primary function of root canal sealer is to

A. prevent discolouration of the tooth.
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B. stimulate healing in the apical region.

C. medicate the canal to eliminate remaining bacteria.
D. fill space between gutta-percha and pulp canal wall.
67. Severe throbbing tooth pain which increases when the patient lies down is a symptom of
A. a pulp polyp (chronic hyperplastic pulpitis).
B. late stage of acute pulpitis (acute suppurative pulpitis).
C. chronic pulpitis (chronic ulcerative pulpitis).
D. chronic apical abscess.
E. pulp hyperemia.
68. When compared to permanent molars, primary molars have

A. longer roots.
B. proportionally narrower occlusal tables buccolingually.
C. thicker enamel.
D. smaller pulp chambers relative to the crown.
69. During an endodontic access preparation on tooth 3.6, a small perforation was produced in
the furcation area. What is the most appropriate management?
A. Immediate seal of the perforation.
B. Delayed seal of the perforation.
C. Immediate surgical repair.
D. Extraction.
70. A tooth with a nonvital pulp may occasionally present radiographically with shortening or
blunting of the apical tip of a root. The loss of apical cementum and dentin would be
classified as what type of resorption?
A. Surface.
B. Inflammatory.
C. Replacement.
D. Ankylosis.
71. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for internal resorption?
A. Pulpectomy.
B. Pulpotomy.
C. Pulp capping.
D. Apicoectomy.
72. In a tooth with pulpal necrosis, the periradicular region is affected if

A. there is pain to thermal stimuli.
B. the tooth throbs when the patient is lying down.
C. there is pain on percussion.
D. there is no response to an electric pulp test.
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73. Which of the following signs or symptoms is characteristic of a symptomatic irreversible

pulpitis?
A. Spontaneous pain.
B. Tenderness to pressure.
C. Palpation sensitivity.
D. Non-lingering thermal pain.
74. The most appropriate way to disinfect gutta- percha cones prior to obturation is to
A. immerse in a 5.25% sodium hypochlorite solution.
B. immerse in ethyl alcohol.
C. autoclave for a full cycle.
D. wipe with an alcohol-soaked gauze.
75. An amalgam coronal-radicular core build-up for endodontically treated molar teeth requires
A. an adequate pulp chamber and ferrule.
B. a pulp chamber, ferrule and amalgam bonding.
C. the presence of a post.
D. the use of retentive threaded pins.
76. After performing an apicoectomy, which of the following should be placed in the bony defect
prior to suturing the flap? - 63
A. Corticosteroids.
B. Antibiotic powder.
C. Oxidized cellulose.
D. Bone wax.
E. Nothing.
77. Assuming there is adequate tooth structure remaining, composite resins can be used as a core
material for endodontically treated teeth to be crowned provided
A. The resin has a high contrast colour with tooth structure.
B. There is an adequate ferrule.
C. The resin is autopolymerizing.
D. Subsequent crown margins are not located on cementum.
78. In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess
by
A. Pain.
B. Type of exudate.
C. Tenderness to percussion.
D. Response of pulp to electrical stimulation.
E. Radiographic examination.
79. The most significant factor contributing to the long-term success of the restoration of an
endodontically treated tooth is the
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A. Type of post utilized.

B. Remaining coronal tooth structure.
C. Presence of extracoronal coverage.
D. Type of core material used.
80. Which one of the following statements is true as defined in endodontics?

A. Overfilling refers to the incomplete filling of the canal system with a surplus of material
extruding beyond the apical foramen.
B. Underfilling refers to the complete filling of the canal space, but leaving voids in the pulp
chamber for possible recontamination or infection.
C. Overextension refers to the extrusion of filling material through an accessory canal.
D. Underextension refers to the vertical extent of the filling material regardless of its
completeness of obturation.
E. All of the above.
81. Elective endodontic treatment may be safely and successfully undertaken for all of the
following EXCEPT
A. hemophiliacs.
B. patients with a history of rheumatic fever.
C. pregnant patients during first trimester.
D. pregnant patients during second trimester.
82. Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause swelling of the gingiva adjacent to an
endodontically treated tooth?
A. Internal root resorption.
B. Vertical root fracture.
C. Periradicular abscess.
D. Periodontal abscess.
83. A carious lesion on tooth 1.6 appears close to the pulp on the bitewing radiograph. A
diagnosis of irreversible pulpitis can be made based on
A. proximity of the radiolucency to the pulp.
B. a lower electric pulp test reading compared to the control.
C. the symptoms reported by the patient.
84. Which of the following is true about incision and drainage of an acute apical abscess (acute
periradicular abscess)?
A. A rubber dam drain is always placed and sutured to assist drainage.
B. The procedure is only indicated with a localized, fluctuant swelling.
C. Profound anesthesia of the surgical site is always possible.
D. Immediate cessation of pressure and pain.
85. What is the most appropriate endodontic management for a 9-year-old patient for tooth 1.1,
with an open apex and a necrotic pulp?
A. Pulpotomy.
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B. Apexification.
C. Pulpectomy.
D. Revascularization.
E. Apical surgery.
86. The prognosis for an avulsed tooth is mainly affected by

A. Storage solution.
B. Length of extraoral time.
C. Necrotic cementum removal.
D. Pulp extirpation.
87. The most important principle dictating location and size of access to the root canal system is
A. preservation of tooth structure.
B. removal of all caries.
C. straight line access to the canal.
D. removal of all pulp horns.
88. A patient complains of intermittent spontaneous pain in a tooth that was previously treated
with a direct pulp cap. The tooth is not sensitive to percussion. Both hot and cold produce
severe pain. The most likely diagnosis is
A. reversible pulpitis.
B. symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
C. cracked tooth syndrome.
D. symptomatic apical periodontitis (acute periradicular periodontitis).
89. Which of the following clinical signs/symptoms is characteristic of symptomatic irreversible

pulpitis?
A. Swelling.
B. Lingering thermal pain.
C. Pus formation.
D. Presence of a sinus tract.
90. An infected pulp may cause a/an

A. Keratocystic odontogenic tumour (odontogenic keratocyst).
B. Dentigerous cyst.
C. Periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia).
D. Simple bone cyst/traumatic bone cyst.
E. Periradicular cyst.
91. The most appropriate management for a 4-year-old patient with a primary molar that caused
a severe, throbbing toothache the previous night is to
A. prescribe an analgesic.
B. prescribe an antibiotic.
C. remove caries and place a temporary restoration.
D. perform a pulpotomy.
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E. perform a pulpectomy.
92. Which of the following is consistent with reversible pulpitis?

A. Discontinuous lamina dura and a periapical radiolucency.
B. Draining sinus tract that traces to the apex of the tooth.
C. Pain to cold that ceases after removal of the stimulus.
D. Painful response to percussion and palpation.
93. Which of the following can be characterized by a narrowing of pulp chambers and root
canals?
A. Aging.
B. Acute trauma.
C. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
D. Taurodontism.
94. A patient complains of tooth pain which is sharp and stabbing when chewing sweet or cold
foods. Pain is relieved by warmth and direct pressure. The most likely diagnosis is
A. A carious lesion with pulpal inflammation.
B. A carious lesion with pulp degeneration.
C. Traumatic occlusion.
D. A cracked tooth.
95. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a sinus tract?
A. Acute apical abscess (acute periradicular abscess).
C. Hypercementosis.
D. Simple bone cyst/traumatic bone cyst.
96. For which of the following pathological conditions would a lower central incisor tooth be
expected to respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess.
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.
97. Preoperative endodontic radiographs will show the

A. presence of a pulp exposure.
B. exact location of the apical foramen.
C. presence of active infection.
D. vitality of the pulp.
E. size of the pulp chamber and root canal(s).
98. Which of the following may affect the results of electric pulp testing?
A. Emotional factors.
B. Pain threshold.
C. Analgesics.
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D. Recent trauma.
E. All of the above.
99. A 4-year-old child presents with a history of trauma and an asymptomatic discoloured
primary maxillary left incisor. A periapical radiograph reveals no abnormalities. The most
appropriate management is a/an
A. regular recall for observation.
B. pulpotomy.
C. pulpectomy.
D. extraction.
100. The purpose of a post and core restoration is to

A. seal the root canal treatment.
B. reinforce the remaining tooth structure.
C. retain the crown.
D. prevent root discolouration.
101. A CONTRAINDICATION for a pulpectomy on a primary molar is

A. pulpal hyperemia.
B. spontaneous nocturnal pain.
C. pulp tissue necrosis.
D. less than 1/3 of the root structure remaining.
102. The pain associated with pulpitis often disappears when a patient visits a dental office.
This occurs due to which of the following events?
A. Stress-induced sympathetic activity inhibits pulpal sensory fibres that cause pain.
B. Stress-induced sympathetic activity causes vasodilatation of pulpal blood vessels.
C. Local mediators of pulpal pain are not released when a stress-induced rise in blood pressure
occurs.
D. Pulpal pain receptors undergo fatigue.
103. During initial endodontic preparation of the apical portion of the canal
A. Integrity of the apical one third should be maintained.
B. Sodium hypochlorite should be used sparingly.
C. Use the next larger file as soon as a tight fit of the preceding file is achieved.
D. If there is a canal restriction, enlarge with a wider file.
E. Use gates-glidden drills as end-cutting instruments to open the coronal portion of canal.
104. A periradicular granuloma can be differentiated from a periradicular cyst by the

A. radiographic appearance.
B. patient’s symptoms.
C. response to percussion testing.
D. results of the biopsy.
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105. Pain upon vertical percussion on the incisal edge of an anterior tooth may indicate the
possible presence of
A. pulp polyp.
B. reversible pulpitis.
C. asymptomatic apical periodontitis (chronic periradicular periodontitis).
D. symptomatic apical periodontitis (acute periradicular periodontitis).
106. Which of the following is NOT a sign of pulpal necrosis in immature teeth?
A. Loss of thermal sensitivity.
B. Coronal discolouration.
C. Periradicular radiolucency.
D. Abnormal mobility.
107. All afferent impulses from the pulp result in the sensation of
A. Heat.
B. Pain.
C. Proprioception.
D. Cold.
108. Endodontic therapy is CONTRAINDICATED in teeth with

A. Inadequate periodontal support.
B. Pulp stones.
C. Constricted root canals.
D. Accessory canals.
E. Curved roots.
109. Which of the following features would be most indicative of a cracked tooth?
A. Periapical radiolucency.
B. Hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli.
C. Pain upon biting pressure.
D. Absent vitalometric response.
110. Under normal conditions, the most definitive test to confirm the loss of pulp vitality is
A. Applying warm gutta percha to the crown.
B. Cutting into the dentin without anesthetic.
C. Applying ethyl chloride to the crown.
D. Performing a radiographic examination of the tooth.
E. Performing an electric pulp test.
111. Which of the following applies to gutta-percha?

A. It can be softened by heat.
B. It is a good thermal conductor.
C. It can be inserted easily into fine canals.
D. It is resorbable.
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112. A patient presents with a 3-week history of prolonged tooth pain to hot and cold. Three
days ago, the symptoms changed to moderate pain on biting combined with a dull,
spontaneous ache relieved by cold. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Chronic apical abscess.
B. A cracked tooth.
C. Pulpal necrosis.
E. A vertical root fracture
113. A 9-year-old presents for treatment immediately following a facial injury resulting in a
fracture of a maxillary central incisor that involves the enamel only. The tooth tests negative
to an electric pulp tester. This finding indicates that the tooth
A. Is nonvital and should be extracted.
B. Is nonvital and endodontic therapy is indicated.
C. Has a root fracture and should be extracted.
D. Should be observed and tested again at a later date.
114. Dentist supervised at-home bleaching technique is NOT indicated for a patient who
A. Is unhappy with the natural colour of their teeth.
B. Has existing all-ceramic crowns that are lighter than the natural teeth.
C. Has a single dark coloured tooth.
D. Has teeth discoloured by tetracycline.
E. Has extrinsic stains.
115. In children, the most common cause of a fistula is a/an

A. Acute periradicular abscess.
B. Suppurative periradicular periodontitis.
C. Acute periodontal abscess.
D. Dentigerous cyst.
116. Treatment options for an immature tooth with a necrotic pulp include
A. Apexogenesis and revascularization.
B. Apexogenesis and conventional nonsurgical root canal treatment.
C. Apexification and conventional nonsurgical root canal treatment.
D. Apexification and revascularization.
117. A 7-year-old patient presents 4 hours post- trauma with an oblique crown fracture of
tooth 2.1 exposing 2mm of vital pulp. The most appropriate treatment is
A. vital pulpotomy and placement of calcium hydroxide.
B. pulpectomy and obturation with calcium hydroxide.
C. extraction and prosthesis.
D. pulpectomy and obturation with gutta- percha.
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118. Which of the following is most likely associated with a periradicular granuloma?
A. Erodes rapidly through bone.
B. Asymptomatic.
C. Young adults.
D. Occurs at the apex of a vital tooth.
119. In the restoration of an endodontically treated tooth, increasing the post preparation
diameter will most likely increase
A. post stability.
B. cervical resistance.
C. stress to the root.
D. crown retention.
120. The most appropriate management of an intruded 5.1 with the apex displaced toward the
labial bone plate is to
A. extract.
B. leave in place and perform a pulpectomy.
C. reposition and perform a pulpectomy.
D. allow spontaneous repositioning.
121. An anterior endodontically treated tooth has been restored with a carbon fibre, a direct
restorative core and a porcelain fused to metal crown. What is the most important factor
influencing the prognosis of this tooth?
A. Type of core material.
B. Type of luting cement.
C. Amount of remaining coronal tooth structure.
D. Alloy composition of the post.
122. What is the most likely diagnosis of a tooth presenting spontaneous pain of rapid onset
and swelling of associated soft tissues?
C. Vertical root fracture.
D. Internal root resorption.
123. Root resorption of primary teeth can be accelerated by

A. the absence of a permanent replacement.
B. the premature loss of the adjacent primary teeth.
C. the presence of premature occlusal contact.
D. inflammation of the pulp.
124. Which of the following is NOT a clinical predictor of successful vital pulp therapy?
A. Preoperative health of the pulp.
B. Elimination of the source of inflammation.
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C. Exclusion of future microbial microleakage.

D. Presence of calcifications within the root canal.
125. In which of the following pathological conditions would a lower central incisor tooth be
expected to respond to heat, cold and an electric pulp test?
A. Chronic apical abscess (chronic periradicular abscess).
B. Acute apical abscess (acute periradicular abscess).
D. Asymptomatic apical periodontitis (chronic periradicular periodontitis)
126. A patient presents complaining of spontaneous pain from a tooth. Pain persists following
thermal testing by cold. What is the most likely pulpal diagnosis?
A. Reversible pulpitis.
B. Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
D. Pulp necrosis.
127. Typically, vital pulps of elderly patients

A. show a decrease in the number of collagenous fibres.
B. have decreased reparative capacity compared to younger adults.
C. form dentinal bridges after appropriate pulp capping procedures.
D. show an increase in myelinated nerves when compared to pulps of younger adults
128. Which of the following traumatic injuries does NOT require immediate management?
A. Avulsion.
B. Alveolar fracture.
C. Uncomplicated crown-root fracture.
D. Extrusion.
129. In permanent teeth, two pulp canals are most commonly found in the
A. Distobuccal root of maxillary molars.
B. Distal root of mandibular first molars.
C. Palatal root of maxillary first premolars.
D. Mesial root of mandibular first molars.
130. Generalized malaise and elevated body temperature may be associated with
A. asymptomatic apical periodontitis.
B. acute apical abscess.
C. symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
D. asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
131. The most appropriate management for the replantation of an avulsed permanent tooth is
A. upon arrival at a dental clinic, within 60 minutes of avulsion.
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B. upon arrival at a dental clinic, after soaking it in saline for 5 minutes.

C. on the site where avulsion happened, immediately after avulsion.
D. on the site where avulsion happened, after soaking it in milk for 5 minutes.
132. Pulpectomy is the most appropriate treatment in a primary tooth with

A. reversible pulpitis.
B. advanced internal root resorption.
C. advanced external root resorption.
D. radicular pulp necrosis
133. A child has a carious exposure of the pulp in the first primary molar. The cavity is filled
with pink tissue which bleeds when punctured by the explorer. What is the pulpal diagnosis?
A. Normal pulp.
B. Reversible pulpitis.
D. Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
134. The most appropriate management of a 4mm diameter carious exposure on a vital
permanent first molar in a 7-year-old is
A. direct pulp capping.
B. partial pulpotomy.
C. pulpectomy.
D. extraction.
135. What is the most appropriate initial management of a tooth which is sensitive to
percussion but responds normally to electric pulp testing?
A. Pulpectomy.
B. Occlusal assessment.
C. Pulpotomy.
D. Restoration replacement.
136. A patient complains of pain in a mandibular molar when chewing hard foods and
drinking cold liquids. Electric pulp tests and radiographic appearance are normal. The pain is
most likely caused by
A. symptomatic apical periodontitis (acute periradicular periodontitis).
B. asymptomatic apical periodontitis (chronic periradicular periodontitis).
C. a cracked tooth.
D. internal resorption.
137. A nonsurgical endodontic treatment was completed on tooth 1.6 six months ago. The
temporary restoration was lost two months ago. The tooth has no caries or fractures. All
cusps are present but are weak and unsupported. What is the most appropriate management
prior to placing a full gold crown?
A. Placing a bonded composite resin restoration to seal the access.
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B. Post placement in the palatal canal followed by a core build-up.

C. Removal of 4-5mm of coronal gutta- percha from all canals followed by a core build-up.
D. Endodontic retreatment followed by a core build-up.
138. The most appropriate treatment for an 11-year-old who has intermittent swelling and pain
associated with a central incisor which was traumatized 6 months ago is
A. Pulpotomy.
B. Pulpectomy.
C. Apexification
D. Extraction.
E. Observation.
139. A positive pulp response to the application of cold indicates

A. Pulp necrosis.
B. An acute apical abscess (acute periradicular abscess).
C. A chronic apical abscess (chronic periradicular abscess).
D. A vital tooth.
140. A patient telephones and tells you he has just knocked out his front tooth but that it is still
intact. Your instructions should be to
A. Put the tooth in water and come to your office at the end of the day.
B. Wrap the tooth in tissue and come to your office in a week's time.
C. Put the tooth in alcohol and come to your office immediately.
D. Place tooth under the tongue and come to your office immediately.
E. Place the tooth in milk and come to your office immediately.
141. When evaluating an individual primary tooth for the suitability of a pulpectomy
procedure, the amount of root resorption on a radiograph should be less than
A. 1mm.
B. 2mm.
C. 3mm.
D. 4mm.
142. The most important principle dictating location and size of access to the root canal
system is
A. preservation of tooth structure.
B. removal of all caries.
C. straight line access to the canal.
D. removal of all pulp horns
143. If there is persistent pain after a thermal stimulus has been removed from a tooth, the
most likely diagnosis is
A. pulp necrosis.
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C. irreversible pulpitis
144. Radiographic examination of a healthy 38-year-old patient shows a 4mm diameter, well-
defined radiolucency at the apex of tooth 4.1. The tooth has a normal response to vitality
tests. The most appropriate management is
A. incision and drainage.
B. endodontic treatment.
C. observation.
D. apicoectomy.
E. to open the tooth for drainage.
145. During apical surgical, an apicoectomy of approximately 3mm is recommended because

A. most accessory and lateral canals will be eliminated.
B. it will minimally affect the crown to root ratio.
C. a greater resection may expose a post in the canal.
D. it will allow better access for retrofill placement.
146. A patient has suffered a blow four hour previously resulting in the loosening of three
maxillary incisors. There is no response to vitality testing. The most appropriate initial
management would be to
A. perform pulpectomies on the teeth.
B. remove the teeth, fill the root canals and reimplant.
C. splint the teeth, check vitality in one month.
D. splint the teeth and treat endodontically immediately.
147. Which of the following clinical protocols is the most appropriate next step in the
management of an avulsed permanent tooth, which has just been replanted?
A. Splinting with composite resin only.
B. Splinting with flexible wire.
C. Splinting with rigid wire.
D. Pulpectomy.
148. The most appropriate treatment of a true combined endodontic-periodontal lesion is

A. periodontal surgical therapy only.
B. nonsurgical root canal therapy only.
C. periodontal surgical therapy before non-surgical endodontic treatment.
D. nonsurgical root canal therapy before periodontal therapy.
149. Which statement is true regarding electric pulp testing?

A. It does not confirm health of the pulp.
B. Vascularity can be determined.
C. True vitality can be determined.
D. Thicker enamel will lead to a quicker response.
150. When used as a direct pulp capping material, which of the following produces the best
pulp healing?
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A. Zinc-oxide eugenol.
B. Glass-ionomer.
C. Calcium hydroxide.
D. Resin-modified glass ionomer.
E. Adhesive resin.
151. The most appropriate management for a concussed tooth is

A. observation.
B. pulpotomy.
C. pulpectomy.
D. splinting.
152. When resecting the apical aspect of a tooth during endodontic apical surgery, it is
appropriate to
A. perform a 90-degree bevel.
B. remove as little of the root as possible.
C. avoid curettage of the periradicular lesion.
D. place an amalgam retrofill
153. A 9-year-old boy sustains a fracture of the crown of his central incisor with minimal pulp
exposure. He is brought to your office within one hour of the injury. A periapical
radiograph reveals that the apex is incompletely formed. The most appropriate management
is
A. pulp cap and restore.
B. pulpotomy and seal temporarily.
C. pulpectomy and seal temporarily.
D. endodontic treatment.
154. Sodium hypochlorite in endodontic therapy dissolves

A. only organic matter.
B. only inorganic matter.
C. both organic and inorganic matter
155. In a restoration following endodontic therapy, the primary function of the post is to
improve
A. distribution of forces along the long axis.
B. resistance of the tooth to fracture.
C. sealing of the root canal.
D. retention of the definitive restoration.
156. Splinting of a permanent maxillary incisor following trauma is required in the

management of a
A. concussion injury.
B. luxation injury.
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C. Class II fracture.
D. Class IV fracture.
157. In endodontic therapy, the most effective irrigating solution for dissolving organic debris
is
A. ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA).
B. sodium hypochlorite.
C. chlorhexidine.
D. hydrogen peroxide.
158. A 7-year-old has just lost a permanent maxillary central incisor due to trauma. The tooth
cannot be found. The most appropriate immediate management is to
A. take radiographs.
B. test adjacent teeth for vitality.
C. maintain space with a removable appliance.
D. prescribe an antibiotic.
159. Which of the following agents is most effective in cold testing?

A. Ice water.
B. Air jet.
C. Ice stick.
D. Ethyl chloride.
160. A 21⁄2-year-old child has intruded maxillary central incisors which are not in proximity
to the permanent successors. What is the most appropriate management?
A. Reposition the teeth and splint.
B. Reposition the teeth and do not splint.
C. Monitor the teeth for re-eruption.
D. Extract the teeth.
161. In a 17-year-old, which traumatic dental injury is most likely to result in pulp necrosis on
tooth 1.1?
A. Extrusion.
B. Intrusion.
C. Luxation.
D. Subluxation.
162. Which of the following is the most appropriate solution for controlling pulpal bleeding
after a pulp exposure prior to pulp capping?
A. Saline.
B. Chlorhexidine.
C. Sodium hypochlorite.
D. Ferric sulfate.
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163. One week after an amalgam restoration is placed in the mandibular first premolar, the
patient returns complaining of a sharp pain of short duration when eating or drinking
something cold. Teeth respond normally to electric pulp testing and heat and the radiographs
are normal. The most likely diagnosis is
A. hypercementosis.
C. pulpal microabscess.
D. acute periradicular periodontitis.
164. A patient is in intense pain with a left hemifacial swelling, which is beginning to affect
the eye. Examination reveals a fluctuant swelling over tooth 2.2, which has deep caries, and
is tender to palpation and percussion. The most likely periapical diagnosis is
B. asymptomatic apical periodontitis (chronic periradicular periodontitis).
C. acute apical abscess (acute periradicular abscess).
D. chronic apical abscess (chronic periradicular abscess).
165. The orifice to the fourth canal in a permanent maxillary first molar is most often found
A. under the distobuccal cusp.
B. lingual to the orifice of the mesiobuccal canal.
C. between the distobuccal and the mesiobuccal orifices.
D. between the palatal and the distobuccal orifices.
A. Periapical cyst.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
167. Which one of the following is the initial treatment for internal resorption?
A. Pulpectomy.
B. Pulpotomy.
C. Pulp capping.
D. Apicoectomy.
168. Granulation tissue is composed of

A. plasma cells and giant cells.
B. fibroblasts, capillaries and chronic inflammatory cells.
C. fibroblasts and eosinophils.
D. epithelial cells and tissue phagocytes
169. Which of the following is characteristic of a periapical granuloma?

A. Radiopaque.
B. Rapid growth.
C. Inflammatory origin.
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D. Multilocular.
170. A 7-year-old child presents with a 3mm coronal fracture with pulp exposure of tooth 2.1
following a trauma 24 hours ago. The tooth is sensitive to hot and cold fluids. The most
appropriate management is a
A. MTA direct pulp capping.
B. MTA pulpotomy.
C. Gutta-percha pulpectomy.
D. Gutta-percha pulpectomy followed by an apical surgery.
E. MTA apexification
171. Which of the following tests can be used to determine the pulp status of a tooth with an
all- ceramic crown?
A. Cold test with ethyl chloride spray.
B. Electric pulp test.
C. Cold test with ice stick.
D. Heat test.
172. Which of the following teeth is most likely to have two roots and two canals?
A. Maxillary second premolar.
B. Mandibular second premolar.
C. Maxillary first premolar.
D. Mandibular first premolar.
173. The primary function of a post used in an endodontically treated tooth is to

A. Strengthen the root.
B. Maximize esthetics.
C. Avoid leakage into the root canal.
D. Retain the core.
174. Gutta-percha may be softened or dissolved within the root canal by using
A. Alcohol.
B. Ethyl chloride.
C. Eugenol.
D. Xylene (xylol®).
175. The most appropriate management for a tooth with a history of previous trauma and
internal resorption is
A. Observation over 6 months for further resorption.
B. Nonsurgical endodontic therapy.
C. Nonsurgical endodontic therapy followed by apical curettage.
D. Extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis.
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176. A 9-year-old presents immediately after the avulsion of a permanent maxillary central
incisor. Which of the following is the most appropriate management prior to re-
implantation?
A. Rinse the tooth with saline.
B. Curette the root surface.
C. Amputate the apex.
D. Extirpate the pulp.
177. To achieve adequate retention when placing a post in a molar tooth with a normal canal
configuration, the post requires a
A. Length of 7 to 8mm.
B. Length equal to the restored crown height.
C. Parallel sided design.
D. Resin luting cement.
178. Apical surgery is CONTRAINDICATED when

A. Periodontal disease causes inadequate bony support.
B. There is a granuloma at the apex of the tooth.
C. The cortical plate is more than 4mm thick.
D. The patient is diabetic.
179. Pulp vitality tests are used to differentiate between

A. periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia) and a periapical
granuloma.
B. periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia) and an incisive canal
cyst.
C. periapical granuloma and a periapical cyst.
D. periapical granuloma and a chronic apical abscess (chronic periradicular abscess).
180. Which of the following substances causes inflammation and pain when released by pulpal
fibres?
A. Prostaglandin E2.
B. Calcitonin gene related peptide.
C. Neuraminase.
D. Acetylcholine.
181. Condensing osteitis in the periapical region is indicative of a/an

A. acute inflammation of the pulp.
B. pulpal abscess.
C. chronic inflammation of the pulp.
D. early apical abscess formation.
182. A patient experiences pain and some gingival swelling in the anterior segment of the
mandible. The mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow restoration, is tender to percussion
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and gives a positive response to an electric pulp test. There is some mobility. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
B. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
C. Periodontal abscess.
183. Which clinical sign might be associated with an acute apical abscess (acute periradicular
abscess)?
A. A positive reaction to the electric pulp tester.
B. A positive reaction to percussion.
C. A positive reaction of short duration to cold.
D. Presence of a sinus tract.
184. A draining fistula of short duration related to a tooth undergoing endodontic therapy
requires
A. irrigation of canals.
B. antibiotics.
C. surgical excision.
D. no special treatment.
185. A 3-year-old presents with subluxated maxillary central incisors. The occlusion is
normal. What is the most appropriate management?
A. Reposition the teeth and place the child on a soft diet.
B. Reposition the teeth and splint for 7 to 10 days.
C. Place the child on a soft diet and monitor the teeth.
D. Extract the traumatized teeth.
186. In a 4-year-old child, the primary central incisor has discoloured following a traumatic
injury. The treatment of choice is
A. pulpotomy.
B. pulpectomy.
C. observation.
D. Extraction.
187. In an 8-year-old patient the most appropriate treatment of a vital first permanent molar
with closed apices and a large carious exposure is
A. pulpotomy with MTA.
B. pulpectomy.
C. direct pulp capping with calcium hydroxide.
D. indirect pulp capping.
188. Tooth 2.5 had nonsurgical root canal treatment performed 10 years ago. The tooth
became sensitive to percussion in the last 6 months and the radiograph shows apical
rarefaction. What is the most appropriate management?
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A. Prescribe an antibiotic.
B. Prescribe an analgesic.
C. Follow-up in 6 months.
D. Endodontic retreatment.
189. Which of the following statements is true regarding endodontically treated teeth?
A. These teeth are more brittle than teeth with vital pulps due to desiccation.
B. Fracture of these teeth are usually due to loss of coronal tooth structure.
C. These teeth require full coverage to prevent fracture.
D. A post provides strength for these teeth.
190. Which permanent maxillary molar root has a higher incidence of two canals?
A. Distobuccal root of the first molar.
B. Distobuccal root of the second molar.
C. Mesiobuccal root of the first molar.
D. Mesiobuccal root of the second molar.
191. Tooth 3.6 had endodontic treatment completed 10 years ago. It is asymptomatic, but a
periapical radiograph reveals a 5mm radiolucency associated with the distal root apex. The
surrounding soft tissues are within normal limits. The most likely diagnosis for tooth 3.6 is
a/an
C. Asymptomatic apical periodontitis (chronic periradicular periodontitis).
192. After a thermal stimulus has been removed from a tooth persistent pain suggests
A. A normal pulp.
B. Pulp necrosis.
C. Reversible pulpitis.
D. Irreversible pulpitis.
E. Exposed cervical dentin
193. When compared to parallel-sided posts, tapered posts

A. Require less dentin removal.
B. Exert a wedge effect on the remaining dentin.
C. Are less consistent with root anatomy.
D. Provide better retention.
194. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an acute apical abscess (acute
periradicular abscess)?
A. Pain on percussion.
B. Tooth feels elongated.
C. Pain to a cold stimulus.
D. Pain on palpation.
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195. A 3-year-old presents 30 minutes after facial trauma. Tooth 5.1 is avulsed. The father has
recovered the tooth and has kept it in a wet napkin. Which of the following is the most
appropriate management?
A. Replant the tooth followed by endodontic treatments in 2 weeks.
B. Perform a pulpectomy, then replant the tooth.
C. Replant the tooth and monitor for possible endodontic treatment.
D. Do not replant the tooth.
196. A 22-year-old presents with a fracture of the incisal third of tooth 2.1 exposing a small
amount of dentin. The fracture occurred one hour previously. There is no mobility of the
tooth, but the patient complains that it is rough and sensitive to cold. The most appropriate
emergency treatment is to
A. Open the pulp chamber, clean the canal and temporarily close with zinc oxide and eugenol.
B. Smooth the surrounding enamel and apply glass ionomer cement.
C. Smooth the surrounding enamel and apply a calcium hydroxide cement.
D. Place a provisional (temporary) crown
197. The most appropriate emergency management of a mature permanent tooth with
symptomatic irreversible pulpitis is
A. Pulpectomy.
B. Incision and drainage.
C. Trephination.
D. Apical surgery.
198. Which of the following types of permanent teeth is more likely to present with a C-shape
canal anatomy?
A. Mandibular first premolars.
B. Maxillary first premolars.
C. Mandibular second molars.
D. Maxillary second molars.
199. Which of the following is an indication for a pulpotomy on a primary tooth?

A. Radiographic evidence of internal root resorption.
B. Involvement of interradicular bone with no fistula.
C. Involvement of interradicular bone with a fistula.
D. Signs and symptoms of reversible pulpitis
200. Which of the following clinical conditions is the most serious?

A. Acute apical abscess of a mandibular central incisor.
B. Mid facial cellulitis.
C. Chronic apical abscess of a mandibular third molar.
D. Infected dentigerous cyst.
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201. When restoring an endodontically treated tooth, the post

A. Reinforces the root.
B. Needs to end within 1mm of the apex.
C. Retains the core.
202. When removal of carious dentin results in an exposure of nonvital pulp, the most
appropriate management is to
A. Cap the exposed pulp horn with calcium hydroxide.
B. Occlude the cavity with a light packing of cotton moistened with eugenol.
C. Place a temporary restoration and observe.
D. Perform endodontic treatment
203. Histological sections of a lesion removed from the apex of a carious tooth show fibrous
tissue and chronic inflammatory cells. The most likely diagnosis is a/an
A. Odontogenic fibroma.
B. Periradicular cyst.
C. Periradicular granuloma.
D. Central ossifying fibroma.
204. A 6-year-old child has a non-vital primary mandibular second molar which has a draining
sinus tract from the bifurcation area. The most appropriate management is
A. Extraction.
B. Observation.
C. Pulpotomy.
D. Direct pulp capping
205. A large carious exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7-year-old. There is no
periapical involvement and the tooth is vital. The treatment should be to
A. Cap the exposure with calcium hydroxide and place zinc-oxide and eugenol.
B. Perform a pulpotomy and place calcium hydroxide.
C. Perform a pulpectomy.
D. Extract the tooth and place a space maintainer.
206. Which of the following is the most important determinant for the maximum length of a
post in an endodontically treated tooth?
A. Distance between the crestal bone and root apex.
B. Crown/root ratio.
C. Maintenance of an apical gutta-percha seal.
207. The most appropriate management for a permanent central incisor with a necrotic pulp
and a wide-open apex is
A. Pulpotomy.
B. Pulpectomy.
C. Regenerative endodontics.
D. Root canal therapy using gutta-percha.
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E. root canal therapy followed by a retrograde filling.
208. During endodontic treatment, which of the following microorganisms is most likely to
cause endocarditis in a patient with valvular heart disease?
A. Streptococci species.
B. Staphylococcus species.
C. Candida albicans.
D. Prevotella species
209. The diagnosis for a patient having a sinus tract associated with a nonvital pulp who
presents with no symptoms is
B. Asymptomatic apical periodontitis (chronic periradicular periodontitis).
C. Periodontal abscess.
D. Chronic apical abcess (chronic periradicular abscess).
210. What is the name of the process by which carbamide peroxide bleaches the teeth?
A. Oxidation.
B. Addition.
C. Subtraction.
D. Hydrogenation.
211. Which of the following is characteristic of irreversible pulpitis?

A. Coronal discolouration.
B. Canal calcifications.
C. Transient response to cold.
D. Lingering response to heat.
212. A dentoalveolar abscess most frequently originates from

A. a post-extraction infection.
B. trauma.
C. periodontal inflammation.
D. pulpal necrosis.
213. Radiographic examination reveals early evidence of internal resorption. Which is the
most appropriate initial management?
A. Perform an apicoectomy.
B. Perform a pulp extirpation.
C. Perform a pulpotomy.
D. Observe and re-evaluate in 3-6 months.
214. The most efficient cutting instrument used during endodontic procedures is a
A. Barbed broach.
B. Reamer.
C. K-type file.
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D. Hedstrom file.
215. A rotary endodontic file separates in the canal. The most appropriate management is to
A. Inform the patient of the separated file at the time of the incident.
B. Inform the patient of the separated file if the tooth becomes symptomatic.
C. Make a notation in the patient’s chart without informing the patient.
D. Recommend an apicoectomy
216. When a second canal is located in mandibular incisors, it is most frequently found
A. Labial to the main canal.
B. Lingual to the main canal.
C. Mesial to the main canal.
D. Distal to the main canal
217. Which of the following agents is most effective in cold testing?

A. Ice water.
B. Air jet.
C. CO2 (dry ice).
D. Ethyl chloride.
218. Severe throbbing tooth pain which increases when the patient lies down is a symptom of
219. The epithelium covering the lesions of hyperplastic pulps is believed to be derived from
the
A. Reduced enamel epithelium.
B. Epithelium of the gingiva.
C. Odontoblastic layer.
D. Epithelial rests of malassez.
E. Remnants of the dental lamina.
220. An acute lateral periodontal abscess associated with a lateral periodontal cyst can be
differentiated from an acute abscess of pulpal origin by the
A. Type of exudate.
B. Intensity of pain.
C. Nature of swelling.
D. Degree of tooth mobility.
E. Response to a vitality test.
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221. Which of the following statements concerning root canals and their foramina is NOT
true?
A. Root canals bifurcate and have dual foramina.
B. The major foramen is precisely at the apex of the tooth.
C. The root canals may join and have a single foramen.
D. The dentino-cemental junction is precisely at the apex of the tooth.
E. A cross section of the canal in the apical region is relatively round.
222. When preparing a cavity in a primary molar, there is a small mechanical exposure of one
of the pulp horns. There is a slight hemorrhage and the dentin surrounding the exposure is
sound. The most appropriate treatment is
A. Extraction and space maintenance.
B. Pulp capping, a base and restoration.
C. Pulpectomy and restoration.
D. Base and restoration.
223. A 39-year-old patient has lingering pain to heat in the area of tooth 3.6 and has referred
pain to the left ear. There is a large MOD amalgam on tooth 3.6. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Normal pulp.
C. Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
D. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
E. Pulpal necrosis.
224. Chelating agents are useful to treat a tooth with a/an

A. Curved canal.
B. Sclerotic canal.
C. Apical abscess (periradicular).
D. Root perforation.
225. The characteristic colour seen in the crowns of teeth with internal resorption is due to
A. Deposition of pigment in the cells of the odontoblast layer.
B. The presence of hyperplastic vascular pulp tissue.
C. A change in the consistency of the dentin.
D. The difference in the refractive indices of the normal and affected areas.
E. The degeneration and necrosis of the pulp tissue.
226. Hyperemia of the pulp is

A. An acute inflammation with intermittent paroxysms of pain which may become continuous.
B. An increased volume of blood within dilated vessels and increased blood flow.
C. A chronic situation whereby minute arterioles of pulpal tissue are engorged for long periods
creating temporary episodes of pain.
D. A transient invasion of bacterial elements into the outer lying stroma of the pulpal tissue.
227. Which of the following is NOT typically associated with failed endodontic treatment?
35
ENDODONTICS
A. Enterococcus faecalis.
B. Actinomyces israelii.
C. Streptococcus mutans.
D. Candida albicans.
E. Prevotella intermedia.
228. Which of the following, if left untreated, is most likely to result in a periapical lesion?
A. Internal resorption.
C. Acute suppurative pulpitis.
D. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis.
E. Diffuse calcification of the pulp.
229. The incidence of a second mesiobuccal canal in the maxillary first molar is
A. 40%
B. 60%.
C. 80%.
D. 100%.
230. Radiographic examination of an intruded primary maxillary central incisor reveals no

root fracture and no displacement in the permanent tooth germ. The most appropriate
management would be to
A. Extract the tooth.
B. Bring the tooth into position and ligate it.
C. Observe periodically.
D. Remove the tooth and replant it in a more favorable position
231. During cavity preparation with a rubber dam, a small mechanical pulp exposure occurs.
The most appropriate management is to
A. Swab the exposure with chlorhexidine.
B. Place a pulp capping material.
C. Perform a pulpotomy.
D. Perform a pulpectomy.
232. A 12-year-old child presents at your office having sustained a traumatic injury to his
maxillary central incisor. Clinically, the tooth is slightly mobile but has no coronal fracture.
Radiographically there is a visible fracture of the root horizontally about 3 to 4 mm from
the tip. Electric pulp tests are inconclusive. The treatment of choice is to
A. Do a vital pulpectomy and seal with gutta percha.
B. Do a vital pulpectomy and seal with gutta percha and do an apical resection.
C. Do a vital pulpectomy and seal with silver point to act as a splint.
D. Surgically remove the apical fracture only.
E. Do nothing but keep the tooth under observation radiographically.
233. A carious maxillary central incisor with acute suppurative pulpitis requires
36
ENDODONTICS
A. Immediate endodontics and apicectomy.

B. Incision and drainage.
C. Opening of the canal and drainage for one week.
D. Pulpotomy.
234. A direct or indirect pulp cap has the greatest chance of clinical success when there is a
A. History of spontaneous pain
B. Prolonged response to cold stimulus
C. Apical lesion
D. Vital pulp
235. A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours after the insertion of a restoration in a tooth
with no pre-existing periapical pathology. The tooth is vital and tender to percussion. The
radiograph will show
A. An apical radiolucency
B. Osteosclerosis
C. Condensing osteitis
D. A normal apex
236. A patient has a draining sinus tract 6mm apical to the free gingival margin of a maxillary
lateral incisor. You would
A. Enucleate the sinus tract
B. Test the tooth for percussion sensitivity
C. Perform pulp vitality tests.
D. Open the tooth without anesthesia.
E. Open into the pulp chamber and establish the correct root length.
237. A patient complains of the discolouration of an upper central incisor. Radiographically,

the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated, and the periodontal ligament
space appears normal. The most appropriate management would be to
A. Perform endodontic treatment and nonvital bleaching.
B. Perform endodontic treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer.
C. Fabricate a metal-ceramic crown.
D. Fabricate a porcelain veneer.
238. A patient has spontaneous pain and intense sensitivity to cold with lingering pain. The
most likely diagnosis is
A. Acute irreversible pulpitis.
B. Chronic irreversible pulpitis.
C. Acute periradicular periodontitis.
D. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
239. A patient presents with a 3-week history of prolonged tooth pain to hot and cold. Three
days ago, the symptoms changed to moderate pain on biting combined with a dull,
spontaneous ache relieved by cold. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Chronic periradicular abscess
37
ENDODONTICS
B. A cracked tooth
C. Acute pulpitis with periradicular periodontitis
D. Reversible pulpitis
E. A vertical root fracture
240. A patient presents with constant excruciating pain from a tooth that feels ‘long’ and is
sensitive to pressure. The most likely diagnosis would be a/an
A. Acute pulpitis
B. Chronic abscess
C. Acute apical periodontitis
D. Granuloma
241. A periapical granuloma

A. Erodes rapidly through bone
B. Is symptomatic
C. Is intensly painful
D. Occurs only in young patients
E. Occurs at the apex of a vital tooth.
242. A patient’s four mandibular incisors were traumatized three years ago in an accident.
Radiographs now show apical radiolucencies associated with all four teeth. The
recommended treatment is to
A. Test the pulp vitality and perform root canal therapy on teeth with no response.
B. Perform root canal therapy and curette the area.
C. Extract and place a bonded bridge.
D. Postpone treatment and recheck status periodically.
243. A protective mechanism of the dental pulp to external irritation or caries is the formation
of
A. pulp stones.
B. tertiary dentin.
C. secondary cementum.
D. primary dentin.
244. A retrograde filling is indicated

A. When the apical foramen cannot be sealed by conventional endodontics
B. When a root perforation needs to be sealed
C. When conventional endodontics is impractical
D. All of the above
245. A small, well-circumscribed, periapical radiolucency on a mandibular incisor which is

clinically asymptomatic and responds normally to vitality tests is most likely
A. A periapical granuloma
B. Sclerosing osteitis
C. A radicular cyst
38
ENDODONTICS
D. Periapical cemental dysplasia
246. A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent lesion is present in the apical region of the
mandibular second premolar. The tooth responds normally to vitality tests. The
radiolucency is most likely
A. a periradicular periodontitis.
B. a dentigerous cyst.
C. a rarefying osteitis.
D. the mental foramen
247. After preparing an endodontically treated maxillary anterior tooth to receive a

prefabricated post and core followed by a crown, the amount of remaining coronal tooth
structure primarily influences the
A. retention of the crown
B. retention of the core
C. fracture resistance of the tooth
D. fracture resistance of the core
248. After application of heat, pain in a tooth lasts for approximately 10 minutes. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute periradicular abscess
B. Acute irreversible pulpitis
C. Total pulpal necrosis
D. Early periradicular periodontitis
249. After the avulsion of a permanent maxillary central incisor, for the periodontal ligament
to recover, the tooth must be replanted within
A. 60 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 15 minutes
E. 5 minutes
250. An 8-year-old child has a fracture of the permanent maxillary central incisor with enamel,
dentin and pulpal involvement. Radiographs show the root apex is wide open. The most
appropriate initial management is to
A. Stabilize the tooth by splinting to the adjacent teeth.
B. Perform a direct pulp cap and place composite resin
C. Initiate an apexogenesis treatment
D. Restore the fracture with composite resin
251. An 8-year-old patient has a coronal fracture, involving enamel and dentin of the
permanent central incisor. When the acid etch technique is applied
A. A retentive pin is essential
B. The dentin should be protected with zinc oxide and eugenol
C. The dentin should be protected with calcium hydroxide
39
ENDODONTICS
D. The dentin does not need any covering
252. Apicoectomy is CONTRAINDICATED when

A. Periodontal disease causes inadequate bony support
B. There is a granuloma at the apex of the tooth
C. More than one tooth is involved
D. The cortical plate is more than 4mm thick
E. The patient is diabetic
253. Calcium hydroxide materials are indicated for indirect pulp capping because the
A. Calcium ions are absorbed into the decalcified dentin
B. Acidity of the active caries process is neutralized by the calcium hydroxide ions.
C. Calcium hydroxide forms an impermeable barrier to the active caries process and allows
the pulp to heal.
D. Alkalinity of calcium hydroxide stimulates the reparative process within the vital pulp
tissue.
254. Composite resin is a satisfactory core material for endodontically treated teeth provided
A. The resin has a high contrast colour with tooth structure
B. There is an adequate ferrule.
C. The resin is auto polymerizing
255. Complete calcification of the pulp with obliteration of the pulp chamber may be a result
of
A. A deep carious lesion
B. A deep composite restoration
C. Traumatic injury
D. Chronic thermal irritation
256. Diagnosis of periapical periodontitis

A. Requires presence of a periapical radiolucency
B. Is dependent on clinical signs and/or symptoms
C. Can be made from panoramic images.
D. Can be made from bitewing images.
257. Direct pulp capping of permanent teeth in children under the age of 12 years is mostly
likely to be successful for
A. Teeth that are asymptomatic
B. Necrotic pulps
C. Teeth with open apices
D. Pulp exposures 3-5mm in size
258. For the bleaching of a discoloured and devitalized tooth the most effective agent is
A. Sodium hypochlorite 5%
B. Parachlorophenol
C. Sodium bicarbonate
40
ENDODONTICS
D. Sodium hypochlorite 30%
259. For which of the following conditions would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to
respond to heat, cold and electric pulp tests?
A. Apical cyst
B. Acute apical abscess
C. Chronic apical periodontitis
D. Periapical osteofibrosis
260. Granulation tissue which extends coronally from the pulp of a carious tooth is known as
A. A pyogenic granuloma
B. A pulp polyp
C. Epulis granulomatosum
D. A fibroma
261. Gutta percha in contact with periapical tissues

A. Is relatively inert
B. Causes an immunologenic reaction
C. Is slowly soluble
D. Is carcinogenic
262. Having just completed endodontic treatment on a maxillary central incisor, you are
preparing the canal for a post when you inadevertently perforate the labial surface of the
root. You would
A. Extract the tooth
B. Cement the post using zinc-phosphate cement.
C. Cement the post, then raise a flap and seal the defect surgically with amalgam.
D. Re-prepare the canal so the post is now totally within the canal and cement the post.
263. In a 5-year-old, a small mechanical exposure in a vital primary molar would be treated by
A. Extraction of the tooth
B. A pulp capping with calcium hydroxide
C. A routine amalgam restoration without any specific treatment for the exposed pulp
D. The use of a cavity liner
264. In a young patient, replantation is the treatment of choice in an accidentally avulsed

permanent tooth. Ankylosis is seldom a complication following replantation
A. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
B. The second statement is true, the first statement is false
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false
265. In endodontics, which of the following is true regarding the crown-down technique?
A. Facilitates access to the apical third
B. Cannot be done with manual instruments.
41
ENDODONTICS
C. Smaller to larger instruments are used.

D. Results in a canal with increasing taper in the apical third.
266. In endodontics, which of the following perforations has the worst prognosis?
A. Furcation area of a molar
B. Apical to the epithelial attachment.
C. Coronal to the epithelial attachment
D. Near the apex.
267. In root resection (apicoectomy) it is considered good technique to

A. Remove as little of the root as possible
B. Curette the soft tissue lesion in its entirety
C. Be certain the apex is sealed
D. All of the above.
268. Incomplete tooth fracture

A. Can be readily diagnosed using transillumination.
B. Most commonly involves the supporting cusps.
C. Is associated with medium to large sized restoration
D. Elicits dull, prolonged pain on chewing
269. Management of patient with an acute periapical abscess should not include
A. Elimination of the cause
B. Drainage
C. Supportive therapy
D. External hot compress.
270. Metallic salts are included in root canal sealers to make the sealers
A. Set more firmly
B. Be radiopaque
C. Set more rapidly
D. Be tolerated by periapical tissues
271. Periapical surgery is contraindicated for a tooth that has a

A. Large periapical rarefaction
B. Fistula related to a periapical lesion
C. Vertical root fracture
D. Fracture of the root apex and a necrotic pulp.
272. Periapical odontogenic cysts are associated with

A. Impacted wisdom teeth
B. Congenitally missing teeth
C. Non-vital teeth
D. A history of traumatic injury.
273. Root canal filling pastes containing paraformaldehyde
42
ENDODONTICS
A. Can be used routinely because of their antibacterial action

B. Reduce the incidence of post-operative pain
C. Are considered to be below the standard of care in Canada
D. Do not cause systemic toxicity
E. Are well tolerated by periradicular tissues.
274. Sensory fibres of the pulp

A. Can selectively differentiate thermal stimuli
B. Have special neuronal endings that are specific for proprioception
C. respond to all stimuli as pain
D. react only to fluid movement within dentinal tubules
275. Pulpotomy is the treatment of choice in pulp exposures of asymptomatic vital teeth
incompletely formed apices. Pulp capping is the recommended procedure for carious
exposures on primary teeth.
A. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
B. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false
276. To maintain pulp health and vitality, the preferred treatment for asymptomatic teeth with
very deep dentinal caries is
A. Direct pulp capping using a dentin bonding agent
B. To avoid pulp exposure and use indirect pulp capping
C. Direct pulp capping using calcium hydroxide
D. To remove all affected dentin
277. The application of cold to a tooth will temporarily relieve pain in

A. Acute suppurative pulpitis
B. Chronic pulpitis
C. Acute apical abscess
D. Pulpal necrosis
278. The causative organism in most acute alveolar infections is

A. Staphylococcus
B. Lactobacillus
C. Streptococcus
D. Candida albicans
E. Actinomyces
279. The instrument most easily broken in the root canal is

A. Barbed broach
B. Reamer
C. File
D. Rat tail file
E. Headstom
43
ENDODONTICS
280. The microorganism responsible for the formation of a dental or periapical granuloma are
found mainly in the
A. Granuloma
B. Root canal
C. Periapical periodontal ligament
D. Periapical alveolar bone and bone marrow
E. Periapical cementum
281. The radicular or root end cyst occurs as a result of

A. Trauma
B. Pulpal necrosis
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Poorly calcified bone
282. Traumatically intruded deciduous teeth should be

A. Extracted
B. Immediately treated endodontically
C. Surgically repositioned
D. Permitted to erupt
283. When percussion on the occlusal surface of a tooth results in a positive response, the
most likely etiology of inflammation is
A. Pulpal
B. Periodontal
C. Periapical
284. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a draining fistula?
A. Chronic periapical periodontitis
B. Reversible pulpitis
C. Hypercementosis
D. Traumatic bone cyst
285. Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of complete pulpal necrosis?
A. Poorly localized spontaneous pain
B. Positive response to hot and cold tests.
C. No response to electric pulp testing
D. Extreme pain elicited by palpation and percussion tests.
286. Which of the following results from a necrotic pulp?

A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Lateral periodontal cyst
C. Dental granuloma
D. Pulp polyp
E. Periapical osteofibrosis
44
ENDODONTICS
287. The most appropriate management for a tooth with a history of previous trauma that now
exhibits apical resorption is
A. Observation over 6 months to monitor the progression of resorption
B. Complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide
C. Immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage
D. Extraction, apical resection, retrofilling and replantation
E. Extraction and replacement with fixed or removable prosthesis.
288. The most appropriate treatment for a o.5cm periapical radiolucency due to a radicular
cyst in association with a non-vital incisor tooth is
A. Antibiotics
B. Extraction
C. Root canal therapy
D. Apiceotomy
E. Excisional biopsy
289. The most appropriate treatment for a child with a primary tooth that caused a severe,
throbbing toothache the previous night is
A. Analgesics
B. Antibiotic therapy
C. Removal of caries and placement of a sedative restoration
D. Pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide
E. Extraction of the tooth
290. The most appropriate treatment for a vital primary molar with carious pulp exposure and
cusp fracture is a/an
A. Calcium hydroxide pulp cap and amalgam restoration
B. Formocresol pulpotomy and stainless-steel crown
C. Calcium hydroxide pulp cap and composite resin restoration
D. Extraction and placement of a space maintainer
291. The most likely cause of a cavernous sinus thrombosis is a periradicular abscess of a
maxillary
A. First molar
B. Central incisor
C. Second premolar
D. Third molar
292. The primary role of calcium hydroxide in indirect pulp cap procedure is to
A. Reduce bacterial load
B. Occlude the dentinal tubules
C. Build up the internal form of the cavity preparation
D. Provide a hermetic seal
293. The proposed mechanism by which a calcium hydroxide preparation initiates secondary
dentin formation in direct pulp capping is by
45
ENDODONTICS
A. Releasing calcium ions

B. Stimulating differentiated ameloblasts to lay down dentin
C. Stimulating fibroblasts to elaborate nuclei of the first order
D. Stimulating the undifferentiated cells of the tissue to differentiate into odontoblasts
294. Traumatically intruded deciduous teeth should be

A. Extracted
B. Left in place and endodontically treated
C. Surgically repositioned and endodontically treated
D. Left in place and monitored.
295. Treatment for a traumatized tooth displaying crazing of the enamel is

A. Pulpotomy
B. Pulpectomy
C. Stainless steel crown cemented with calcium hydroxide
D. Endodontic treatment and stabilization of tooth with a rigid type split
E. Periodic observation
296. Two separate root canals are least likely to be found in

A. Mandibular central incisor
B. Maxillary first premolar
C. Mesiobuccal root of the maxillary first molar
D. Palatal root of the maxillary first molar
297. What is the most important factor to consider when deciding whether or not to use pulp
protection?
A. Depth of the pulpal floor
B. Thickness of the remaining dentin
C. Amount of carious material removed
D. Location of the carious lesion
298. When a patient experiences continuous pain in the maxillary premolar and molar areas
and there is no evidence of dental infection, the most likely diagnosis
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Acute maxillary sinusitis
C. Impacted maxillary canine
D. Impacted maxillary third molar
299. When a acute periapical abscess is present, accompanied by pain and a fluctuant
swelling, the most important emergency procedure is to
A. Prescribe appropriate antibiotics
B. Establish drainage
C. Perform immediate pulpectomy and apical curettage
D. Thoroughly ream the root canal
46
ENDODONTICS
300. When establishing the radiographic working length for a maxillary first premolar, the
files within the canals should
A. Bind 2mm short of the estimated working length
B. Reach passively to 2mm short of the estimated working length
C. Bind at the estimated working length
D. Reach passively to the estimated working length
301. When removal of carious dentin results in an exposure of non-vital pulp, the treatment of
choice is to
A. Institute endodontic treatment
B. Cap the exposed pulp horn with calcium hydroxide
C. Occlude the cavity with a light packing of cotton moistened with eugenol
D. Place a temporary restoration and observe
302. Which medication is used to control pulpal hemorrhage when performing an emergency
pulpotomy?
A. Iodoform
B. Ferric sulfate (15%)
C. C.M.C.P
D. Cresatin
E. Epinephrine (1:1000)
F. Formocresol
303. Which of the following applies to gutta-percha?

A. It can be thermoplasticized.
B. It is a good thermal conductor.
C. It can be inserted easily into fine canals
D. It is soluble in periapical exudate.
304. Which of the following factors improves the prognosis for a successful direct pulp cap on
a secondary tooth?
A. Lack of hemorrhage at the exposure site
B. The more fibrotic the pulp, the better the prognosis
C. The exposure is uncontaminated
D. The decreased blood supply in an older patient
305. Which of the following can be mistaken on a radiograph for a chronic alveolar abscess?
A. Mental foramen
B. Cementoma in its early stages
C. Posterior palatine foramen.
D. All of the above.
306. Which of the following has the POOREST prognosis?

A. Horizontal fracture in the apical one-third of the root
B. Horizontal fracture in the mid-root
C. Horizontal fracture 1-2mm subgingivally
47
ENDODONTICS
D. Vertical root fracture
307. Which of the following is least likely to cause pain?

A. Carious pulp exposure
B. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis
C. Acute pulpitis
D. Apical periodontitis
308. Which of the following is least reliable for the diagnosis of pulp necrosis in a traumatized
tooth?
A. Assessment of the colour of the tooth
B. Thermal test
C. Vertical percussion test
D. Electric pulp test
309. Which of the following is the most common cause of fracture of nickel titanium rotary
endodontic instruments?
A. Torsional stresses that are too high
B. NiTi files that are too small in diameter
C. Rotational speed that is too slow
D. NiTi files that have too little taper
310. Which of the following is the most effective method for cleaning endodontic instruments
prior to sterilization?
A. Manual brushing
B. High pressure water jet
C. Washing with antimicrobial soap.
D. Washing in an ultrasonic bath for 5 minutes.
311. Which of the following most probable post-operative complication of bleaching a tooth
that has not been adequately obturated?
A. Fracture
B. Discolouration
C. Retrograde filling
D. Acute apical periodontitis
312. Which of the following is the most important determinant for the maximum length of a
post in an endodontically treated tooth
A. Distance between the crestal bone and root apex
B. Crown root ratio
C. Maintenance of the apical gutta percha seal
D. Thickness of the post
48

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ENDODONTICS

6. The smear layer created by root canal instrumentation can be removed by

11. Which of the following results from a necrotic pulp?

A. proceed with the filling as the cone is within acceptable limits.

24. When compared to permanent teeth, primary teeth have

25. In primary teeth, a pulpotomy using calcium hydroxide

26. A post is used in an endodontically treated tooth to

A. strengthen the root.

28. Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta-percha points?

31. Pulp polyp is

D. External root resorption.

36. Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of pulpal necrosis?

40. A post is used in an endodontically treated tooth to

41. Aging pulps show a relative increase in

42. Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of reversible pulpitis?

45. The initial appearance of a successful apicoectomy would show on a radiograph as

46. The success of replantation of an avulsed tooth is dependent upon

D. using calcium hydroxide as a treatment root canal filling.

51. A subluxated tooth will have

57. Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause pain?

65. Pulpotomy is the treatment of choice in carious pulp exposures of

66. The primary function of root canal sealer is to

B. stimulate healing in the apical region.

68. When compared to permanent molars, primary molars have

72. In a tooth with pulpal necrosis, the periradicular region is affected if

73. Which of the following signs or symptoms is characteristic of a symptomatic irreversible

A. Type of post utilized.

80. Which one of the following statements is true as defined in endodontics?

86. The prognosis for an avulsed tooth is mainly affected by

89. Which of the following clinical signs/symptoms is characteristic of symptomatic irreversible

90. An infected pulp may cause a/an

92. Which of the following is consistent with reversible pulpitis?

97. Preoperative endodontic radiographs will show the

100. The purpose of a post and core restoration is to

101. A CONTRAINDICATION for a pulpectomy on a primary molar is

104. A periradicular granuloma can be differentiated from a periradicular cyst by the

108. Endodontic therapy is CONTRAINDICATED in teeth with

111. Which of the following applies to gutta-percha?

115. In children, the most common cause of a fistula is a/an

123. Root resorption of primary teeth can be accelerated by

C. Exclusion of future microbial microleakage.

127. Typically, vital pulps of elderly patients

B. upon arrival at a dental clinic, after soaking it in saline for 5 minutes.

132. Pulpectomy is the most appropriate treatment in a primary tooth with

B. Post placement in the palatal canal followed by a core build-up.

139. A positive pulp response to the application of cold indicates

145. During apical surgical, an apicoectomy of approximately 3mm is recommended because

148. The most appropriate treatment of a true combined endodontic-periodontal lesion is

149. Which statement is true regarding electric pulp testing?

151. The most appropriate management for a concussed tooth is

154. Sodium hypochlorite in endodontic therapy dissolves

156. Splinting of a permanent maxillary incisor following trauma is required in the

159. Which of the following agents is most effective in cold testing?

168. Granulation tissue is composed of

169. Which of the following is characteristic of a periapical granuloma?

173. The primary function of a post used in an endodontically treated tooth is to

178. Apical surgery is CONTRAINDICATED when

179. Pulp vitality tests are used to differentiate between

181. Condensing osteitis in the periapical region is indicative of a/an

193. When compared to parallel-sided posts, tapered posts