1.

Which of the following factors will determine the number of drugreceptor complexes
formed?
(A) Efficacy of the drug
(B) Receptor affinity for the drug
(C) Therapeutic index of the drug
(D) Half-life of the drug
(E) Rate of renal secretion
2. A 45-year-old woman with a long history of alcohol abuse is being treated for cirrhosisassociated ascites. Her internist decided to give her amiloride, a diuretic helpful in edema
caused by cirrhosis. What common side effect should be monitored in this patient?
(A) Hypernatremia
(B) Hypocalcemia
(C) Hyperphosphatemia
(D) Hypermagnesemia
(E) Hyperkalemia
3. A woman who is undergoing a endocrine work-up to diagnose the cause of a large multinodular goiter develops atrial fibrillation. Which of the following would be best to treat this
arrhythmia?
(A) Verapamil
(B) Propranolol
(C) Digitalis
(D) Bretylium
(E) Tocain
4. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of motion sickness?
A. Scopolamine
B. Ipratropium
C. Tropicamide
D. Neostigmine

5. A 47-year-old man with peptic ulcer disease has been on drug therapy for 3 months.
While on this regimen, he noticed changes in his bowel habits, increasing headaches,
dizziness, skin rashes, loss of libido, and gynecomastia. The drug most likely responsible for
these effects is
A. cimetidine
B. famotidine
C. metronidazole
D. omeprazole
E. sucralfate

6. A 68-year-old Diabetic man presents with Signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure.
Which of the following drugs would likely serve to delay the progression of this man's
disorder?
A. Digoxin
B. ACE-Is
C. Loop diuretics
D. Thiazide diuretics
E. Ca Channel blockers
7. Reserpine acts
A. At the post synaptic membrane
B. By inhibiting the release of granules at the nerve terminal
C. By inhibiting the transport system in formation of vesicles
D. At the nerve terminal causing hyperpolarization
8. a patient with end stage kidney disease scheduled for surgery should receive this
muscle relaxant:
a. Vecuronium
b. Pancuronium
c. Cis-atracurium
d. Tubocurarine
e. Mivacurium
9. The most specific agent for treatment of petit mal epilepsy is:
A. Carbamazepine
B. Phenytoin
C. Gabapentin
D. Ethosuximide
E. Primidone
10. Which of the following NM blocker induces histamine release?
A. Atracurium
B. Tubocurarine
C. Pancuronium
D. Succinylcholine

11. A pharmacologist is examining a new drug with potential antipsychotic properties. He

begins by analyzing the pharmacokinetic properties of the drug. Studies of the drug's rate of
elimination reveal the data below. Which of the following drugs has similar kinetics to the
drug being studied?
A. Amitriptyline
D. Fluoxetine
B. Cimetidine
E. Phenobarbital
C. Phenytoinl

.
12. Most common therapeutic use of epinephrine:
A. Topical hemostasis
B. Management of hypersensitivity reactions
C. Rapid relief of respiratory distress due to bronchospasm
D. Managing arrhythmias
13. All of the following are inhibitors of Cytochrome p-450 except
A. Quinidine
B. Erythromycin
C. Sulfonamides
D. Rifampin
14. Drug of choice in the treatment of Clonorchiasis
A. Albendazole
B. Praziquantel
C. Niclosamide
D. Mebendazole
15. A patient is brought into the emergency room with a suspected benzodiazepine overdose
(empty bottle of diazepam found at bedside). Which of the following drugs might the ER
physician use to treat this patient?
A. Flurazepam
B. Triazolam
C. Flumazenil
D. Phenobarbital
E. Lorazepam
16. Which receptor subtype mediates the action of histamine on gastric acid production?
A. H1
B. H2
C. Both A& B
D. All of the above
17. A common adverse effect of lithium is...
A. excessive thirst and urination
B. hypotension
C. mania
D. tardive dyskinesia
E. acidosis

18. A cardiovascular pharmacologist is researching the effects of new compounds on

arteriolar resistance. Drug X maximally increases vascular resistance by 50% at a dose of 20
mg/mL. Drug Y maximally increases vascular resistance by 75% at a dose of 40 mg/mL.
Which of the following conclusions can the researcher draw from this experiment?
A. Drug X has a smaller volume of distribution than Drug Y
B. Drug X has a shorter half-life than Drug Y
C. Drug X is less efficacious than Drug Y
D. Drug X is less potent than Drug Y
E. Drug X has a lower LD50 than Drug Y
19. Centrally-acting antihypertensive drug
A. Nitroprusside sodium
B. Clonidine
C. Methoxamine
D. Captopril
20. The halogenated anesthetic which is preferred in patients with ischemic heart disease
A. Enflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Sevoflurane
21. Which of the following is used for emergency treatment of opioid poisoning
A. Naloxone
B. Naltrexone
C. Both a & b
D. None
22. A 47-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for evaluation after attempting to
commit suicide. The following abnormal laboratory values are noted: a serum sodium of 124
mEq/L, serum osmolality of 268 mOsmol/kg, and urine sodium of 22 mEq/L. Which of the
following medications is the most likely cause of these abnormalities?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Atenolol
C. Conjugated estrogens
D. Diazepam
E. Hydrocodone

A.
B.
C.
D.

23. After a single dose of a drug which has a half-life of 12 hours, what percentage of the
dose is still in the body after 1 day?
87.5%
75%
50%
25%

24. Which of the following drug is mainly used in Attention Deficit Syndrome and
Narcolepsy?
A Amphetamine
B Clonidine

C Ephedrine
D Oxymetazoline
25. Typical antipsychotic drugs produce Extra Pyramidal Symptoms by blocking dopamine
receptors in basal ganglia which include irreversible, severely disabling disorder symptoms
involve involuntary and hyperkinetic movements of the Trunk, Tongue: twisting, darting or
pushing, Face Sucking and smacking of lips which is called
A. Dystonias
B. Parkinsons disease
C. Akathesias
D. Tardive Dyskinesia
26. Which of the following drug is called as Neuroleptic anesthesia?
A. Droperidol + Fentanyl
B. Droperidol + Fentanyl + 65% nitrous oxide
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above
27. Vasodilator used to manage hypertensive emergencies:
A. Captopril
B. Nitroprusside sodium
C. Phentolamine
D. Esmolol
28. Drugs activating this receptor are used in treating asthma:
A. Beta l adrenergic
B. Muscarinic cholinergic
C. Beta 2 adrenergic
D. Nicotinic cholinergic
29. Calcium channel blocker used for hypertension which has little if any effects on cardiac
rhythm or conductivity
A. Verapamil

C. Both

B. Nifedipine

D. Neither

30. A 64-year-old man with Parkinson disease is diagnosed with clinical depression. In
addition to treating his clinical depression, which of the following agents would be most
effective in helping to alleviate the signs and symptoms associated with Parkinson disease?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Citalopram
C. Nefazodone
D. Sertraline
E. Venlafaxine
31. A patient comes to the office complaining of sore, enlarged gums. She is
currently taking medication for hypertension and Phenobarbital and phenytoin
for seizures. The fibrous hyperplasia is most probably due to:

A. Phenytoin
B. Excessive brushing of teeth
C. Propranolol
D. Staphylococci infection of gums
E. Phenobarbital
32. a patient scheduled to undergo an emergency surgical procedure requires rapid
endotracheal intubation for the induction of anesthesia. Which of the following drugs
would used?
a. Atracurium
b. Cis-atracurium
c. Succinylcholine
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
33. A drug causes toxicity due to its slow accumulation in the inner ear and the kidneys.
This drug is:
A. Digoxin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Gentamicin
D. Lithium
E. Phenobarbitone
34. Pressor effects of epinephrine are blocked by this drug (epinephrine reversal)
A. Propranolol
B. Phentolamine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Metoprolol
35. A 68-year-old man with renal insufficiency and hypertension is prescribed enalapril.
This agent is most likely to cause which of the following electrolyte disturbances?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hyperphosphatemia
D. Hypokalemia
E. Hypophosphatemia
36. Acetaminophen has been used as a safe and effective analgesic/ antipyretic
agent for over 80 years. Since it may be purchase without a prescription, it
is readily available and as such the recommended dose may be exceeded. The
primary toxicity leading to death from an acetaminophen overdose is:
A. Papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis
B. Pancytopenia
C. Hepatocellular necrosis
D. Myocarditis
E. Hemolytic anemia
37. The pharmacologic action of monoamine oxidase inhibitors is:
A. Block the reuptake of monoamine neurotransmitter into the presynaptic cleft
B. Blocks the metabolism of monoamine neurotransmitters
C. Decreases 5HT and NE monoamines

D. Enhances REM sleep

E. Selective MAO-B inhibitors may be useful in psychosis
38. Anti-estrogens are useful in the treatment of hormonally responsive breast
Cancer. Agents which have anti-estrogenic activity at the estrogen receptor
include:
A. Tamoxifen
B. Norethynodrel
C. Goserelin
D. ketoconazole
E. Aminoglutethimide
39. Statements which explain the mechanism of action of oral sulfonylurea agents include all
of the following EXCEPT:
A. Stimulation of insulin release
B. Reduction of serum glucagons levels
C. Increased insulin binding to the insulin receptor
D. Correction of post-receptor defects which contribute to insulin
40. Associated with gray baby syndrome which is characterized by pallor, cyanosis, and
even death?
A. Tetracyclines
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Third-generation cephalosporins
D. None of the above
41. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity associated with this antibiotic:
A. Cefotaxime
B. Amikacin
C. Aztreonam
D. Ceftriaxone

42. The use of which of the following NSAID in a child with a fever is not indicated due to
the risk of Reye syndrome.
A. Acetaminophen
B. Aspirin
C. Indomethacin
D. Ibuprofen
43. Regarding its actions, Cromolyn is best described as:
A. Bronchodilator
B. Anticholinergic
C. Beta agonist
D. Inhibitor of mast cell degranulation
E. Glucocorticoid
44. All of the following are Histamine-2 receptor antagonists except:
A. Ranitidine

B. Nizatidine
C. Famotidine
D. Terfenadine
E. Cimetidine
45. Agents primarily used to treat hypercholesterolemia which work by inhibiting
the HMG-CoA reductase enzyme include:
A. Lovastatin
B. Gemfibrozil
C. Niacin
D. Clofibrate
E. Colestipol
46. Effective against the meningoencephalitic stage of trypanosomiasis
a. metarsoprol
b. pentamidine
c. suramin
d. sodium stibogluconate
e. mefloquine
47. Most serious adverse effect associated with pencillins:
A. Renal failure
B. Cardiotoxicity
C. Hypersensitivity reactions
D. Hepatic failure
E. Neutropenia
48. Mechanism of action: Isoniazid (INH)
A. Competitive inhibitor with PABA
B. Mycolic acid synthesis inhibitor
C. Inhibits RNA polymerase, binds to the polymerase.
D. Blocks protein synthesis like Chloramphenicol

49. An azole most commonly used for topical treatment of candidiasis:

A. Amphotericin
B. Clotrimazole
C. Griseofulvin
D. Flucytosine
E. None of the above
50. A 50 year old patient is diagnosed with ovarian cancer .She is started on cisplatin but
suffers from severe vomiting. she is prescribed ondasetron. What is the mechanism of this
anti emetic drug?
A. 5 HT 3 agonist
B. 5 - HT3 antagonist
C. 5 HT1 agonist
D. 5 - HT 1 antagonist

A.
B.
C.
D.

51. Can be used as a potential contraceptive. Causes gynecologic malignancies in female

children exposed in utero.
Danazol
Finasteride
Flutamide
Diethylstilbestrol
52. Which of the following drugs is classified as a selective alpha-1 antagonist?
A. Prazosin
B. Norepinephrine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Phenoxybenzamine
53. This compound is a competitive inhibitor of androgens, which is used in prostatic
carcinoma.
A. Danazol
B. Finasteride
C. Flutamide
D. Clomiphene
E. Nandrolone
54. Can be used to terminate pregnancy.
A. Medroxyprogesterone
B. Mifepristone
C. Ketoconazole
D. Hydrocortisone
E. Spironolactone
55. Given by I.V. administration, the drug of choice for nearly all life-threatening mycotic
infectionsusually used as the initial induction regimen
A. Ketoconazole
B. Itraconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin B
E. Nystatin
56. Major toxicity of alkylating drugs:
A. Alopecia
B. Myelosuppression
C. Renal damage
D. Hepatic failure
57. Anticancer drug that is also used to treat psoriasis and rheumatoid arthritis:
A. Mercaptomurine (6-MP)
B. Methotrexate
C. Procarbazine
D. Allopurinol
58. Anticancer agent that works by depolymerization of microtubules:
A. Azatadine

B. Vinblastine
C. Cladribine
D. Methotrexate
59. Primarily used to promote ovulation in patients wishing to become pregnant:
A. Danazol
B. Medroxyprogesterone acetate
C. Clomiphene
D. L-Norgestrel
60. Biguanide oral hypoglycemic drug:
A. Tolbutamide
B. Acarbose
C. Metformin
D. Troglitazone
61. A newer antifungal drug which acts by inhibiting the steroid synthesis is
A. Ketoconazole
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Spironolactone
D. Tamoxifen
E. Dexamethasone
62. Doxorubicin is associated with:
A. Cardiotoxicity
B. Myelosuppression
C. Gastrointestinal toxicity
D. All of the above

63. A 57-year-old man with stage II congestive heart failure reports to his physician for a
follow-up visit. On examination, the man has crackles at both lung bases, and mild pitting
edema affecting both legs. Laboratory results show a potassium level of 3.4 mEq/L. Which
of the following is the most appropriate diuretic to prescribe for this patient?
A. Bumetanide
B. Ethacrynic acid
C. Indapamide
D. Metolazone
E. Triamterene
64. A patient was administered trimethaphan during surgery. This drug will cause which of
the following responses?
A. Accommodation
B. Hypertension
C. Peristalsis
D. Pupillary constriction

E. Tachycardia
65. A 67 year old woman reports severe paroxysms of knife-like or electric shock like pain,
lasting for seconds in the lower part of the right side of her face. Which of the following
drugs can be used in this patient?
A. Phenytoin
B. Clonazepam
C. Carbamazepine
D. Valproic acid
E. Fluoxetine
66. A 35 year old uses beta 2 agonist and a low dose steroid but symptoms are still
uncontrolled, which of the following can be used now,
A. Salmeterol inhaler
B. Betamethasone inhaler
C. Epinephrine inhaler
D. Cromolyn inhaler
E. Theophylline
F. Ipratropium inhaler
67. Patient on treatment with hormonal replacement therapy, which of the following drugs
may be considered better?
A. Estrogen
B. Estrogen + Progesterone
C. Progesterone alone
D. Estrogen + Androgens
68. Schizophrenic patient under treatment presents with sore throat, decreased WBC,
Agranulocytosis. This could be due to
A. Clozapine side effects
B. Fluoxetine side effects
C. Phenobarbital side effects
D. Risperidone side effects
69. Primaquine may be given to treat an infection with
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Schistosoma hematobium
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
E. Toxoplasma gondii
70. Significant therapeutic use for dopamine:
A. Management of sleep cycles
B. Treatment of Raynauds phenomenon
C. Treatment of cardiogenic/hypovolemic shock
D. Management of tachyarrhythmias
71. Most likely to be prescribed first for management of Bulimia Nervosa:
A. Imipramine
B. Fluoxetine
C. Sertraline

D. Phenelzine
72. The drug commonly abused when present in cough medications is
A. Codeine
B. Pentazocine
C. Fentanyl
D. Methadone
73. Which of the following drug can be used in pheochromocytoma?
A. Phenoxybenzamine
B. Propranolol
C. Terazosin
D. Cocaine
74. Which inotropic drug used in congestive heart failure acts via inhibition of Na/K
ATPase?
A. Bretylium
B. Dopamine
C. Amrinone
D. Digitoxin
75. Which of the following agents blocks both K channels involved in cardiac repolarization
and beta receptors?
A. Quinidine
B. Propranolol
C. Sotalol
D. Metoprolol
76. Vitamin K will antagonize the actions of
A. Streptokinase
B. Tissue plasminogen activator
C. Warfarin
D. Heparin
77. A 38 year old man is newly diagnosed as Hyperlipidemic, in which every thing was
found normal except the serum cholesterol which is 232 mgs/dl (normal value upto 200
mg/dl), which of the following is the better way to manage this case,
A. Advice diet control and exercise
B. Niacin
C. Statins
D. Clofibrate
78. Which of the following drugs act by selective COX 2 inhibition?
A. Rofecoxib
B. Piroxicam
C. Aspirin
D. Ibuprofen
79. Which of the following is considered as 2nd generation antihistamine
A. Fexofenadine
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Dimenhydrinate

D. Cyproheptadine
80. Which of the following drug used in the management of the migraine headaches acts as
serotonin agonist at 5 HT 1 d receptors?
A. Methysergide
B. Sumatriptan
C. Ergotamine
D. Aspirin
81. Which of the following is not safe to use in pregnant patient (Causes fetal hypotension,
renal failure, skull and renal malformations)?
A. Clonidine
B. Atenolol
C. Enalapril
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
82. Which of the following is a 3rd generation cephalosporin?
A. Cefoperazone
B. Cefazolin
C. Cefoxitin
D. Cephalexin
83. All of the following drugs can be used in the treatment of the Leprosy except:
A. Dapsone
B. Clofazimine
C. Rifampicin
D. Isoniazid
84. Which of the following barbiturates is considered as ultra short acting and mainly in
anesthesia?
A. Phenobarbital
B. Secobarbital
C. Thiopental
D. Pentobarbital
85. Leucovorin "rescue" concerned with
A. Colchicine
B. Mercaptopurine
C. Methotrexate
D. Daunorubicin
86. A 35-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure of 150/120 mm Hg on routine
physical examination. Ultrasound studies demonstrate massively enlarged kidneys with
many cysts of varying sizes. Which of the following drug classes would act by directly
interrupting the probable mechanism by which the hypertension was produced?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Centrally acting sympatholytics
D. Nitrates
E. Thiazide diuretics

87. Mexiletine (Mexitil) is an orally active congener of this drug.

A. Flecainide
B. Sotalol
C. Lidocaine
D. Verapamil
E. A & C
88. A 72-year-old man with prostate cancer is treated with leuprolide. What is the mechanism of
action of this drug?
A. It inhibits 5α-reductase
B. It is a competitive antagonist at androgen receptors
C. It is a competitive inhibitor of LH
D. It is a synthetic analog of GnRH
E. It is a testosterone agonist
89. Which of the following drugs is considered to be best in the management of NSAIDs
induced peptic ulcers?
A. Ranitidine
B. Lansoprazole
C. Misoprostol
D. Sucralfate
90. GI upset, tinnitus and Cinchonism are common side effects of:
A. Lidocaine
B. Digoxin
C. Propranolol
D. Quinidine
E. Amiodarone
91. A 28 year old man presents with symptoms of gonorrhea. Since this condition is
associated with Chlamydial infection, which drug would be best for this patient?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Nalidixic acid
C. Levofloxacin
D. Norfloxacin

often

92. A 50 year old man has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with high-calcium
renal stones. The most useful agent in the treatment of recurrent calcium stones is:
A. Mannitol
B. Furosimide
C. Spironolactone
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Acetazolamide
93. First available reverse transcriptase drug for treatment of HIV; a deoxythymidine
analogue
A. Foscarnet

B. Zidovudine
C. Amantidine
D. Cyclosporine
94. HIV protease inhibitor
A. Rimantidine
B. Ribavarin

C. Saquinavir
D. Stavudine

95. Antihistamine most likely to exhibit anticholinergic activity:

A. Astemizole
B. Fexofenadine (Allegra)
C. Terfenadine
D. Loratidine
E. Diphenhydramine
96. Primaquine may be given to treat an infection with
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Schistosoma hematobium
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
E. Toxoplasma gondii
97. A 72-year-old man presents with fatigue and exertional and nocturnal dyspnea. Physical
examination is remarkable for rales and a gallop rhythm. Chest x-ray films demonstrate
cardiac enlargement. Which of the following drugs would likely serve to delay the
progression of this man's disorder?
A. Captopril
B. Digoxin
C. Furosemide
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
E. Verapamil
98. A 47-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes, depression, and hypertension
presents to the emergency department with spontaneous priapism. Which of the following
drugs is the most likely cause of his current condition?
A. Atenolol
B. Furosemide
C. Glyburide
D. Paroxetine
E. Trazodone
99. We have a 28-year-old female patient with Stage II essential hyper- tension, tachycardia,
and occasional palpitations (ventricular ectopic beats). Normally we might consider
prescribing a blocker to control the blood pressure and cardiac responses, but our patient
also has asthma, and she is trying to get pregnant. Which of the following drugs would be the
best alternative to the blocker in terms of likely efficacy on pressure and heart rate, and in
terms of relative safety?
a. Diltiazem
b. Enalapril
c. Furosemide

d. Phentolamine
e. Prazosin
100. A 40-year-old female with a history of AIDS develops a herpes simplex
keratitis of the eye. Which of the following antiviral agents should be
administered in this case?
a. Zanamivir
b. Trifluridine
c. Zidovudine
d. Amantadine