PART I Drugs acting on respiratory system

001. Following drugs directly activate the respiratory center

EXCEPT:
a) Bemegride
b) Caffeine
c) Aethymizole
d) Cytiton
002. The mechanism of Cytiton action is:
a) Direct activation of the respiratory center
b) The reflex mechanism
c) The mixed mechanism
d) None of the above
003. Indicate the drug belonging to antitussives of narcotic type of
action:
a) Glaucine hydrochloride
b) Aethylmorphine hydrochloride
c) Tusuprex
d) Libexine
004. Tick out the drug belonging to non-narcotic antitussives:
a) Libexine
b) Tusuprex
c) Codeine
d) Aethylmorphine hydrochloride
005. Indicate the expectorant with the reflex mechanism:
a) Sodium benzoate
b) Derivatives of Ipecacucnha and Thermopsis
c) Trypsin
d) Ambroxol
006. Tick the antitussive agent with a peripheral effect:
a) Codeine
b) Tusuprex
c) Libexine
d) Glaucine hydrochloride
007. Chymotrypsin is an agent containing free sulfhydryl groups.
It’s:
a) True
b) False
008. All of these drugs contain free sulfhydryl groups EXCEPT:
a) Acetylcysteine
b) Ambroxol
c) Bromhexin
d) Trypsin
009. Which of the following drugs is proteolytic enzyme?
a) Potassium iodide
b) Desoxiribonuclease
c) Carbocysteine
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d) Acetylcysteine
010. All of the following drugs destroy disulfide bonds of
proteoglycans, which causes depolymerization and reduction of
viscosity of sputum, EXCEPT:
a) Acetylcysteine
b) Ambroxol
c) Desoxiribonuclease
d) Bromhexin
011. Which of these groups of drugs is used for asthma treatment?
a) Methylxanthines
b) M-cholinoblocking agents
c) Beta2 - stimulants
d) All of above
012. Tick the drug belonging to non-selective beta2-adrenomimics:
a) Salbutamol
b) Isoprenaline
c) Salmeterol
d) Terbutaline
013. Select the side-effect characteristic for non-selective beta2-
adrenomimics:
a) Depression of the breathing centre
b) Tachycardia
c) Peripheral vasoconstriction
d) Dry mouth
014. Pick out the bronchodilator drug related to xanthine:
a) Atropine
b) Orciprenaline
c) Adrenaline
d) Theophylline
015. Pick out the bronchodilator drug belonging to
sympathomimics:
a) Isoprenaline
b) Ephedrine
c) Atropine
d) Salbutamol
016. The property of prolonged theophyllines is the prevention of
night asthmatic attacks. It’s:
a) True
b) False
017. The mechanism of methylxanthines action is:
a) Inhibition of the enzyme phosphodiesterase
b) Beta2 -adrenoreceptor stimulation
c) Inhibition of the production of inflammatory cytokines
d) Inhibition of M-cholinoreceptors
018. Which of the following M-cholinoblocking agents is used
especially as an anti-asthmatic?
a) Atropine
b) Ipratropium
c) Platiphylline
d) Metacin
019. Indicate the side effect of Theophylline:
a) Bradycardia
b) Increased myocardial demands for oxygen
c) Depression of respiratory centre
d) Elevation of the arterial blood pressure
020. All of the following drugs are inhaled glucocorticoids EXCEPT:
a) Triamcinolone
b) Beclometazone
c) Sodium cromoglycate
d) Budesonide
021. Choose the drug belonging to membranestabilizing agents:
a) Zileutin
b) Sodium cromoglycate
c) Zafirlucast
d) Montelucast
022. Tick the drug which is a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor:
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a) Budesonide
b) Sodium cromoglycate
c) Zileutin
d) Beclometazone
023. Zileutin prevents the production of leukotrienes. This
statement is:
a) True
b) False
024. Indicate the drug which is a leucotriene receptor antagonist:
a) Sodium cromoglycate
b) Zafirlucast
c) Zileutin
d) Triamcinolone
025. Zafirlucast prevents aspirin-sensitive asthma. This
consideration is:
a) True
b) False

PART II SYNTHETIC ANTIBACTERIAL DRUGS

001. Sulfonamides are effective against:
a) Bacteria and Chlamidia
b) Actinomyces
c) Protozoa
d) All of the above
002. Mechanism of sulfonamides’ antibacterial effect is:
a) Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase
b) Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase
c) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
d) Activation of DNA gyrase
003. Combination of sulfonamides with trimethoprim:
a) Decreases the unwanted effects of sulfonamides
b) Increases the antimicrobial activity
c) Decreases the antimicrobial activity
d) Increases the elimination of sulfonamides
004. Sulfonamide potency is decreased in case of co-
administration with:
a) Oral hypoglycemic agents
b) Local anesthetics – derivatives of paraaminobenzoic
acid
c) Local anesthetics – derivatives of benzoic acid
d) Non-narcotic analgesics
005. The following measures are necessary for prevention of
sulfonamide precipitation and crystalluria:
a) Taking of drinks with acid pH
b) Taking of drinks with alkaline pH
c) Taking of saline drinks
d) Restriction of drinking
006. Resorptive sulfonamides have the following unwanted effects
on blood system:
a) Hemolytic anemia
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Granulocytopenia
d) All of the above
007. Mechanism of Trimethoprim’ action is:
a) Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
b) Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase
c) Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase
d) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
008. Sulfonamides have the following unwanted effects:
a) Hematopoietic disturbances
b) Crystalluria
c) Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea
d) All of the above
009. Tick the drug, which is effective against mycobacteria only:
a) Isoniazid
b) Streptomycin
c) Rifampin
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d) Kanamycin
010. Tick the antimycobacterial drug belonging to first-line agents:
a) PAS
b) Isoniazid
c) Kanamycin
d) Pyrazinamide
011. Tick the antimycobacterial drug, belonging to second-line
agents:
a) Isoniazid
b) PAS
c) Rifampin
d) Streptomycin
012. Tick the antimycobacterial drug, belonging to antibiotics:
a) Isoniazid
b) PAS
c) Ethambutol
d) Rifampin
013. Tick the antimycobacterial drug – hydrazide of isonicotinic
acid:
a) Rifampin
b) Isoniazid
c) Ethambutol
d) Pyrazinamide
014. Mechanism of Izoniazid action is:
a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
b) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
c) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
d) Inhibition of ADP synthesis
015. Mechanism of Rifampin action is:
a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
b) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase
c) Inhibition of topoisomerase II
d) Inhibition of cAMP synthesis
016. Mechanism of Cycloserine action is:
a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
b) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
c) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
d) Inhibition of pyridoxalphosphate synthesis
017. Mechanism of Streptomycin action is:
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis
d) Inhibition of cell membranes permeability
018. Rifampin has the following unwanted effect:
a) Dizziness, headache
b) Loss of hair
c) Flu-like syndrome, tubular necrosis
d) Hepatotoxicity
019. Isoniazid has following unwanted effect:
a) Cardiotoxicity
b) Hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy
c) Loss of hair
d) Immunotoxicity
020. Ethambutol has the following unwanted effect:
a) Cardiotoxicity
b) Immunetoxicity
c) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness
d) Hepatotoxicity
021. Streptomycin has the following unwanted effect:
a) Cardiotoxicity
b) Hepatotoxicity
c) Retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness
d) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
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022. Mechanism of aminosalicylic acid action is:
a) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
b) Inhibition of folate synthesis
c) Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase
d) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
023. All of the following agents are the first-line antimycobacterial
drugs, EXCEPT:
a) Rifampin
b) Pyrazinamide
c) Isoniazid
d) Streptomycin
024. All of the following antimycobacterial drugs have a
bactericidal effect, EXCEPT:
a) Pyrazinamide
b) Streptomycin
c) Rifampin
d) Isoniazid
025. Combined chemotherapy of tuberculosis is used to:
a) Decrease mycobacterium drug-resistance
b) Increase mycobacterium drug-resistance
c) Decrease the antimicrobal activity
d) Decrease the onset of antimycobacterial drugs
biotransformation:
026. Tick the antibacterial drug – a nitrofurane derivative:
a) Nitrofurantoin
b) Trimethoprim
c) Ciprofloxacin
d) Nystatin
027. Tick the antibacterial drug – a nitroimidazole derivative:
a) Clavulanic acid
b) Metronidazole
c) Nitrofurantoin
d) Doxycycline
028. Tick the antibacterial drug – a quinolone derivative:
a) Nitrofurantoin
b) Nalidixic acid
c) Streptomycin
d) Metronidazole
029. Tick the antibacterial drug – a fluoroquinolone derivative:
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Nitrofurantoin
c) Nalidixic acid
d) Ciprofloxacin
030. Tick the indications for nitrofuranes:
a) Infections of respiratory tract
b) Infections of urinary and gastro-intestinal tracts
c) Syphilis
d) Tuberculosis
031. Tick the unwanted effects of nitrofuranes:
a) Nausea, vomiting
b) Allergic reactions
c) Hemolytic anemia
d) All of the above
032. Tick the indications for Metronidazole:
a) Intra-abdominal infections, vaginitis, enterocolitis
b) Pneumonia
c) As a disinfectant
d) Influenza
033. Tick the unwanted effects of Metronidazole:
a) Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, stomatitis
b) Hypertension
c) Disturbances of peripheral blood circulation
d) All of the above
034. The mechanism of fluoroquinolones’ action is:
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a) Inhibition of phospholipase C
b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
c) Inhibition of bacterial cell synthesis
d) Alteration of cell membrane permeability
035. Fluoroquinolones are active against:
a) Gram negative microorganisms only
b) Mycoplasmas and Chlamidiae only
c) Gram positive microorganisms only
d) Variety of Gram-negative and positive microorganisms,
including Mycoplasmas and Chlamidiae
036. Tick the unwanted effects of fluoroquinolones:
a) Hallucinations
b) Headache, dizziness, insomnia
c) Hypertension
d) Immunetoxicity
037. Tick the indications for fluoroquinolones:
a) Infections of the urinary tract
b) Bacterial diarrhea
c) Infections of the urinary and respiratory tract, bacterial
diarrhea
d) Respiratory tract infections
038. The drug of choice for syphilis treatment is:
a) Gentamycin
b) Penicillin
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Doxycycline