MCQS FOR EACH CHAPTER

XII-PHYSICS

FROM THE DESK OF: FAIZAN AHMED

CHAPTER 11
1) According to the caloric theory heat is present in all bodies in the form of:
(a) Molecular Interaction
(b) Translatory motions of molecules
(c) Molecular Kinetic energy
(d) A weightless fluid
2) Caloric is the:
(a) Hypothetical weightless fluid
(b) Imaginary concept of energy
(c) Energy
(d) Molecular motion
3) The normal human body temperature is:
(a) 212 oF
(b) 100oF
(c) 98.4oF
(d) 37oF
4) The temperature at which both Celsius and Fahrenheit scales coincide with each other is:
(a) 100
(b) 273
(c) 40
(d) Zero
5) Absolute zero is equivalent to:
(a) 100 oC
(b) 460 oF
(c) 0 oC
(d) 273 K
6) Kinetic energy of gas molecule is:
(a) RT
(b)
(c) KT
(d)
7) Kinetic energy per mole of idea gas molecules is:
(a) RT
(b)
(c) KT
(d)
8) Upon which Physical quantity Kinetic energy of gas molecules depends:
(a) Number of moles of gas
(b) Temperature of gas
(c) Pressure of gas
(d) Volume of gas
9) Molecules of which gas, Oxygen or Nitrigen in air will move fast at some paeticular temperature:
(a) Molecules of both gases will move with same Velocities
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) None of these

10) The unit of Co-efficient of thermal expansion is:

(a) mK
(b)

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(c) K-1
(d) K
Co-efficient of Volumetric expansion is the:
(a) Intrinsic Quantity
(b) Thrice of Co-efficient of Linear expansion
(c) One third of Co-efficient of Linear expansion
(d) Thermometric Property
Which physical quantity of substance does not change with thermal expansion?
(a) Volume
(b) Length
(c) Mass
(d) Density
Which type of strips of metals are used in Bimetallic strip:
(a) Different Co-efficient of thermal expansion
(b) Different lengths
(c) Different Size
(d) Different Shapes
A thermostat is a device which is used:
(a) To keep the heat flow constant
(b) To Isolate the system from surroundings
(c) In all heating appliance
(d) To keep the temperature constant
The quantity of heat required to change the state of a substance is:
(a) Molar specific heat
(b) Heat capacity
(c) Latent heat
(d) Specific heat
The quantity of heat required per degree rise the temperature of a substance is:
(a) Molar specific heat
(b) Heat capacity
(c) Latent heat
(d) Specific heat
The quantity of heat required per degree rise the temperature of unit mass of a substance is:
(a) Molar specific heat
(b) Heat capacity
(c) Latent heat
(d) Specific heat
The quantity of heat required to rise the temperature of 1Kg of water through 1K, in Joules is:
(a) 420
(b) 4200
(c) 4.2
(d) 42
The quantity of heat required to rise the temperature of one mole of an ideal gas at constant pressure
through 1K is:
(a) Cv\
(b) C
(c) 1J
(d) Cp

20) The quantity of heat required to rise the temperature of one mole of an ideal gas at constant volume
through 1K is:
(a) Cv
(b) C
(c) 1J
(d) Cp
:
21) PV = _
(a) KT
(b) nRT
(c) Constant
(d) RT
22) The graph of Boyles law is a:
(a) Curve
(b) Slope
(c) Straight line
(d) Hyperbola
23) The graph of Charles law is a:
(a) Curve
(b) Slope
(c) Straight line
(d) Hyperbola
24) In which process there is no work done:
(a) Isothermal Process
(b) Adiabatic Process
(c) Isobaric Process
(d) Isochoric Process
25) Work done in an Isobaric Process is:
(a) PV
(b) R T
(c) P V
(d) n T
26) In which process there is no change in Internal energy of system, with heat transfer:
(a) Thermal Process
(b) Iso-thermal Process
(c) Isolated Process
(d) Isochoric Process
27) Efficiency of heat engine will be minimum when:
(a) Source and sink are kept at thermal equilibrium
(b) Sink is kept at 0 oC
(c) Temperature of source is kept at Infinity
(d) Sink is kept at Absolute zero
28) Entropy change of heat engine would be maximum when:
(a) Source and sink are kept at thermal equilibrium
(b) Sink is kept at 0 oC
(c) Temperature of source is kept at Infinity
(d) Sink is kept at Absolute zero
29) In which process work done is maximum:
(a) Isobaric Process
(b) Isochoric Process
(c) Isothermal Process Adiabatic Process
30) The internal energy of a system depends upon:
(a) Temperature
(b) Entropy
(c) Pressure
(d) Volume

31) The universal gas constant per molecule is called:

(a) Raleigh-Jeans constant
(b) Boltzman Constant
(c) Gas constant
(d) Stefans constant
32) 1 Cal = ______ J:
(a) 42
(b) 420
(c) 0.42
(d) 4.2
33) The difference of Molar specific heat capacity at constant pressure and at constant volume is equal to
the:
(a) Avagadros number
(b) Boltzman Constant
(c) Universal Gas constant
(d) None of these
34) The machine which works on the principle of Kelvins statement is:
(a) Refrigerator
(b) Heat engine
(c) Thermostat
(d) Oven
35) The machine which works on the principle of claussius statement is:
(a) Refrigerator
(b) Heat engine
(c) Thermostat
(d) Oven
36) There are four rods of same substance same area of cross action but of different length. When they
are heated through the same range of temperature the linear thermal expansion will be maximum in:
(a) 50m rod
(b) 100m rod
(c) 1.0m rod
(d) 10m rod
37) Incraes in length per unti length per degree rise in temperature of aluminum rod of 10m is 24 x 106
/C. What would be the increase in volume per unit volume per degree rise in temperature of a cube
of aluminum of volume 100m3 when both are heated through the same range of temperature?
(a) 72 x 10-6/C
(b) 7.2 x 10-3/oC
(c) 24 x 10-6/C
(d) 2.4 x 10-3/oC
38) Linear thermal expansion does not take place in which of the following:
(a) Water
(b) Iron stick
(c) Glass rod
(d) Steel bar
39) Ratio between the coefficient of linear thermal expansion and coefficient of cubical thermal
expansion is:
(a) 1:3
(b) 3:1
(c) 6:2
(d) a and b are correct
40) A fixed mass of a gas is heated at constant volume. Which one of the following will not change?
(a) Average distance between the molecules
(b) K. E. of the molecules
(c) Average speed of the molecules
(d) Frequency of collisions of the molecules

41) The pressure of a fixed mass of gas increases when it is heated at constant volume is due to:
(a) Increase in Average speed of the molecules
(b) Gas becomes light
(c) Increase in average distance between the molecules
(d) Elastic molecular collision
42) Change in temperature of a body is 50oC. The change in temperature on the Kelvin Scale is:
(a) 50 K
(b) 323 K
(c) 70 K
(d) 30 K
43) Absolute zero of a gas is the temperature at which its:
(a) K.E. is zero
(b) Volume is zero
(c) P.E. is zero
(d) a and b are correct
44) Bimetallic thermostat is used to:
(a) To increase the temperature
(b) To increase the K.E. of molecules of substance
(c) Measure the temperature
(d) To control the temperature
45) At volume V and temperature T, the pressure of N molecules the gas is P. If the number of molecule
of the gas is doubled at constant volume then:
(a) Temp. will become half
(b) Temp. will become twice
(c) Pressure will become half
(d) Pressure will become twice
46) The total K.E. of molecules of gas gives the measurement of:
(a) Temperature of the gas
(b) Specific heat capacity of the gas
(c) Heat energy of the gas
(d) Internal energy of the gas
47) At constant pressure the volume of the given mass of a gas is V at temperature T. At what
temperature volume of the gas will be 4V:
(a) 4T
(b) T
(c) 2T
(d) T
48) When ice cube melts into water the ice water system undergoes a change such that:
(a) Both entropy and the internal energy of system increase
(b) Entropy of the system decrease but internal energy of the system decrease
(c) Entropy of the system increases and internal energy of the system remains constant
(d) Entropy of the system increase and internal energy decreases
49) The temperature of a substance changes from 20oC to 20oC. What would be the change on Kelvin
Scale:
(a) 40 K
(b) 293 K
(c) 0 K
(d) 20 K
50) If heat energy is removed from an object, its temperature will normally:
(a) Does not change
(b) Rise
(c) Falls
(d) Falls then rise

51) The root mean square speed of the molecules of an ideal gas in a scaled container is v. The gas is
heated, until the pressure in the container tripled. The r.m.s. Speed is now:
(a) 3 v
(b) v/9
(c) 9v
(d) 3
52) The average K.E. of the molecules of an ideal in a closed vessel is increased by a factor 4. What would
be pressure of the gas?
(a) It will remain the same
(b) It will increases by a factor of 2
(c) It will increases by a factor of 4
(e) It will increases by a factor of 2 v
53) If Q heat energy is supplied to the system and W is the work done by of a gas:
(a) W - U
(b) Q - W
(c) U - W
(d) U - W
54) The work done during ______ process is obtained form the internal energy of a gas:
(a) Isobaric
(b) Isochoric
(c) Adiabatic
(d) Isothermal
55) The process in which whole amount of heta energy supplied is used to increase the internal energy is:
(a) Isobaric
(b) Isochoric
(c) Adiabatic
(d) Isothermal
56) In an isothermal process work done is maximum and change in internal energy is:
(a) Minimum
(b) Zero
(c) Maximum
(d) Negative
57) A fixed mass of a gas is heated at constant volume, which one of the following would not change:
(a) Temperature
(b) Molecular motion
(c) Internal energy
(d) Density of gas
58) The statement of the first law of thermodynamics implies that:
(a) All the work is mechanical
(b) Energy remains conserve
(c) No heat can enter or leave the system
(d) The temperature remains constant
59) The molar specific heat of an ideal gas is greater at constant pressure than at constant volume
because:
(a) There are more number of collisions at constant volume
(b) The molecules move fast
(c) Additional energy is needed for the external work at constant pressure
(d) The molecules acquire greater K.E. at constant pressure
60) The molar specific heat of an ideal monatomic gas at constant pressure is:
(a) 2R
(b) 5/2R
(c) R/2
(d) 3/2R

61) When a monatomic ideal gas under goes an isothermal change; then:
(a) There would be no exchange of heat with the surrounding
(b) No external work, will be done
(c) There would be no change of the internal energy
(d) The temperature changes
62) The efficiency of the Carnot engine depends upon:
(a) Temperature of the both source and sink only
(b) Temperature of the sink only
(c) Temperature of the source only
(d) None of these
63) The efficiency of the Carnot engine is directly proportional to the:
(a) Temperature of the working substance
(b) Difference of temperature of heat source and sink
(c) Temperature of the source only
(d) Temperature of the sink only
64) For an ideal gas an isobaric change is given by:
(a) Coulombs law
(b) General gas law
(c) Boyles law
(d) Charles law
65) If T1 is the temperature of the heat source and T2 is the temperature of the heat sink then the
efficiency of the Carnot engine will be:
(a) T1+T2/T2
(b) T1+T2/T1
(c) T2 T1/T1
(d) T1 T2/T1
66) The efficiency of Carnot heat engine is always:
(a) More then 100%
(b) Less then 100 %
(c) 100%
(d) None of these
67) If Q1 is the amount of heat energy supplied to the Carnot heat engine and Q2 is the heat energy
rejected to the sink. The efficiency to the heat engine is directly proportional to the:
(a) Q2 Q1
(b) Q2 + Q1
(c) Q1 Q2
(d) Q1 + Q2
68) For an ideal gas an isothermal change is given by:
(a) Coulombs Law
(b) General gas Law
(c) Boyles Law
(d) Charles Law
69) Two equal masses of an ideal gas at same temperature and pressure are compressed to half of their
volumes, one of them isothermally and the other adiabatically. Which one of the following would be
same for both?
(a) The internal energy of the compressed gases
(b) Heat given out during compression
(c) Temperature of the compressed gases
(d) None of these
70) Two Carnot heat engines would have same efficiencies when:
(a) The difference of temperature of their heat sources and heat sinks is same
(b) The temperature of their heat sources is same
(c) The same amount of heat energy is supplies to them
(d) None of these

71) Entropy is the measure of the _______________ fo a system:

(a) Disorder not change
(b) Work done
(c) Internal energy
(d) Change in temperature
72) When ice melt then entropy of the system:
(a) Does not change
(b) Is zero
(c) Increases
(d) Decreases
73) The maximum efficiency of a heat engine could be increased by:
(a) Decreasing the temperature of hot body and cold bodies simultaneously
(b) Keeping the temperature of hot and cold bodies constant
(c) Increasing the temperature of hot and cold bodies simultaneously
(d) Decreasing the temperature of sink and increasing the temperature of source
74) Net change in entropy of a system in a natural process:
(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) Positive
(d) Negative
75) Change in internal energy of system at constant pressure is:
(a) nCv T
(b) Zero
(c) Q
(d) W

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CHAPTER 12
76) The force between two charged particles is inversely proportional to the:
(e) Coulomb constant
(f) Product of charges
(g) Square of the distance between them
(h) Masses of cgarges
77) The force per unit charge:
(e) Electric field
(f) Electric Flux
(g) Electric Potential
(h) Electric Intensity
78) The force between two similar unit charges placed one meter apart in air in Newton is:
(e) Zero
(f) 1
(g) 9 x 109
(h) None of these
79) He magnitude of Coulombs force will be:
(e) Maximum in free space
(f) Maximum in other medium
(g) Same in free space and other medium
(h) None of these is correct
80) The magnitude of electrostatic force is F and separation between the charges is doubled then the
electrostatic force would be:
(e) 2F
(f) F
(g) 4F
(h) F
81) Coulombs Law closely resembles:
(e) Newtons second law of motion
(f) Newtons thirdlaw of motion
(g) Newtons gravitational law
(h) The law of conservation of energy
82) If the medium between the charges is other than air or space, than the electrostatic force will:
(a) Not change
(b) Increase
(c) Decrease
(d) Be zero
83) The magnitude of electrostatic force does not depend upon:
(e) Magnitude of the charges
(f) Medium between the charges
(g) Distance between the charges
(h) Nature of the charges
84) The magnitude of the force between two unit positive charges when the distance between them is one
metre would be:
(e) 0 N
(f) 1.0 N
(g) 2.0 N
(h) Coulombs constant

85) Coulombs Law for the two equal charges q when they are at a distance r is expressed by:
(e) Kq2/r
(f) Kq2/r2
(g) Kq/r
(h) Kq/r2
86) Unit of coulombs constant K is:
(e) Nm2c-2
(f) NmC-2
(g) Nm-2c2
(h) Nm2c2
87) H atom has single electron and single proton each of charge q. If the radius of the first orbit is r
then the electrostatic force between them would be:
(e) Kq2/r2
(f) Kq/r2
(g) Kq/r
(h) Kq2/r2
88) Dielectric always __________ the electrostatic force between the two point charges:
(e) Increases
(f) Changes
(g) Decreases
(h) Does not change
89) What would be the distance between the equal charges of 3C when the coulombs force between
them is 9x10-3N:
(e) 3cm
(f) 3m
(g) 9cm
(h) 9m
90) Newton per coulomb is equivalent to:
(e) Meter per volt
(f) Volt per meter
(g) Volt per meter per meter
(h) Volt into meter
91) The physical quantity which possess both units, Newton per coulomb and Volt per meter is:
(a) Electric Intensity
(b) Electric Potential
(c) Electric Flux
(d) Electric Force
92) The unit of electric flux density is:
(a) N/C
(b) V/m
(c) Nm2
(d) A and B
93) Joule per coulomb and volt represent the:
(e) Electric flux
(f) Electric flux density
(g) Electric flux
(h) Electric potential
94) Which of the following could not be the unit of electric intensity:
(e) Joule per coulomb per meter
(f) Joule per coulomb
(g) Volt per meter
(h) Newton per coulomb

95) Force experienced by a unit positive charge in the electric field in known as:
(e) Charge density
(f) Electric potential
(g) Electric flux
(h) Electric flux density
96) Direction of electric force and electric field intensity is:
(e) Parallel to each other
(f) Perpendicular to each other
(g) Opposite to each other
(h) In any direction
97) Which of the following pair of unit is equivalent of Joule per coulomb per meter:
(e) N/C and V/m
(f) Farad and Amp
(g) Amp. And Volt
(h) Coulomb and Ohm
98) The Physical quantity which determines the effect of Force on charged particle in a certain region is
called:
(e) Electric Intensity
(f) Electric Flux
(g) Electric Potential
(h) Electric force
99) Maximum outgoing Flux would be obtained when:
(e) Electric lines fall parallel to the plane of surface
(f) Electric lines fall antiparallel to the place of surface
(g) Electric lines fall normally on of surface
(h) Electric lines fall at 45o on the plane of surface
100)
Electric intensity between two similarly charged plane sheets is:
(e)
0
(f) 2
0
(g) _
20
(h) Zero
101)
The Electric Flux through a closed surface depends upon:
(e) Size of the surface
(f) Shape of the surface
(g) Position of charge enclosed in the surface
(h) Magnitude of charge enclosed in the surface
102)
Electric Intensity at the centre of uniformly distributed charge is:
(a) Zero
(b) Kq
r2
(c) q
r2
(d) q
0
103)
The Flux through a surface will be minimum, when angle between E and A is:
(a) 90o
(b) 60o
(c) 30o
(d) 0o

104)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
105)

Electric field at the centre of square when 1C charge are placed at its each corner is:
Zero
2 Volt/m
2 Volt /m
4 Volt/m
The electric field intensity between two oppositely charged planes is:
(e) 2
0
(f)
20
(g) _
0
(h) Zero
106)
Electric flux will be positive when the angle between E and vector area is:
(e) Greater then 900
(f) Less then 900
(g) 900
(h) None of these
107)
The electric flux through the surface of the sphere is directly proportional to the:
(e) Surafce area of the sphere
(f) Radius of the sphere
(g) Charge at the center of the sphere
(h) (A) and (C) are correct
108)
Gausss Law is applied to determine the:
(e) Absolute potential
(f) Electric intensity due to a large charge distribution
(g) Electric intensity of an isolated point charge
(h) Electric potential between two point in an electric field
109)
Change in P.E. per unit charge in the electric field is:
(e) Electric potential
(f) Power
(g) K.E
(h) Work done
110)
Electric potential, which is measured with repect to the zero potential, is called:
(a) Absolute electric potential
(b) Change in K.E.
(c) An electric potential
(d) None of these
111)
In equipotential surface work cone in moving the charged particle is:
(e) Positive
(f) Negative
(g) Zero
(h) Infinity
112)
The potential difference between the pair of similar conducting plates is known. What
additional information is needed in order to find the electric field intensity?
(e) Permitivity of the medium
(f) Dielectric constant
(g) Separation between the plates
(h) Separation and area of the plates
113)
The change in potential energy per unit charge between two point in an electric field is
called:
(e) Potential difference
(f) Absolute potential
(g) Electric intensity
(h) Permitivity

114)
Work done per unit charge between two point in an equal potential surface is:
(e) Electric intensity
(f) Electric flux\
(g) Potential difference
(h) None of these
115)
If capacitors are connected in such a way that their net capacitance increases then they are
connected in:
(e) Complex network
(f) Different paths
(g) A single path
(h) Bridge Circuit
116)
Equivalent capacitance of three 3F capacitors connected in series is:
(e) 1F
(f) 3F
(g) 9F
(h) Zero
117)
Relative permittivity of medium is the ratio of its permittivity with the:
(e) Permitivity of any medium
(f) Permitivity of itself
(g) Permitivity of free space
(h) Permitivity of water
118)
Net capacitance of parallel capacitors:
(e) Does not change
(f) Increases
(g) Decreases
(h) None of these
119)
One coulomb per Volt is:
(e) Farad
(f) Tesla
(g) Joule
(h) Ampere
120)
Work done per unit charge against the electric field is called:
(e) Electric Intensity
(f) Electric Potential
(g) Electric Flux
(h) Electric Force
121)
How three capacitors each of capacitance 2F could be connected in circuit to obtain
equivalent capacitance of 3F?
(e) Two in series and one in parallel
(f) Two in parallel and one in series
(g) In parallel combination
(h) In series combination
122)
S. I. Unit of Relative permittivity is:
(e) C2Nm2
(f) Nm-2C-2
(g) C2N-1m-2
(h) None of these
123)
If capacitors are connected in such a way that their net capacitance decreases, then they are
connected in:
(e) Bridge circuit
(f) A single path
(g) Different paths
(h) Complex network

124)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
125)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
126)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)

Charge stored in a capacitor is directly proportional to the:

Current
Physical conditions of capacitor
Potential difference
Resistance
The ratio between the charge stored and potential difference of a capacitor is known as:
Inductance
Conductance
Reactance
Capacitance
For the capacitance of a parallel plates capacitor which of the following is correct:
It is inversely proportional to the area of the plates and distance between the plates
It is inversely proportional to the area of the plates and distance between the plates
Capacitance is directly proportional to the area of the plates and distance between the plates
It is directly proportional to the area of the plates and inversely proportional to the distance between
the plates
127)
When two or more capacitors are connected in series then they will have:
(d) Same charge
(e) Same capacitance
(f) Same potential difference
(g) Same charge and same capacitance
128)
When two or more capacitors are connected in parallel then they will have:
(e) Same charge
(f) Same capacitance
(g) Same potential difference
(h) Same charge and same capacitance
129)
A capacitor of 1.0 F will:
(e) Store 1.0C charge at the potential difference of 1.0V
(f) Discharge in 1 second when connected across a resistor of 1.0 Ohm
(g) Be fully charged in 1 second by a current of 1 amp
(h) Block the alternating current
130)
The separation between the parallel plates of a capacitor is doubled then its capacitance C
will be:
(a) 2C
(b) C
(c) 4C
(d) C
131)
Capacity of a capacitor means:
(e) Total potential of the capacitor
(f) Surface density of charge on the plates
(g) Total charge held by the capacitor
(h) None of these
132)
After charging the parallel plates capacitor, the battery is removed. If the separation
between the plates increase then:
(e) Capacitance decreases
(f) The charge on the capacitor increases
(g) The voltage across the plates increases
(h) None of these
133)
In order to get maximum equivalent capacitance, the capacitors must be connected in:
(e) Complex combination
(f) Series combination
(g) Parallel combination
(h) None of these

134)
Three capacitor of 3F of each are connected in __________________ combination to get
equivalent capacitance of 1F:
(e) Complex network
(f) Parallel
(g) Series
(h) None of these
135)
The presence of dielectric between the plates of a capacitor results in:
(e) No change in capacitance
(f) Increase in the capacitance
(g) Decrease in the capacitance
(h) None of these

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(87)

(88)

(89)

(90)

(91)

(92)

(93)

(94)

(95)

(96)

(97)

(98)

(99)

(100)

(101)

(102)

(103)

(104)

(105)

(106)

(107)

(108)

(109)

(110)

(111)

(112)

(113)

(114)

(115)

(116)

(117)

(118)

(119)

(120)

(121)

(122)

(123)

(124)

(125)

(126)

(127)

(128)

(129)

(130)

(131)

(132)

(133)

(134)

(135)

CHAPTER 13
136)
Charge carrier in Metallic conductors are the electrons of:
(i) Valence shells
(j) All shells
(k) Excited states
(l) Inner shells
137)
Free electrons in an Electric field moves from:
(i) All potentials
(j) High potential to low potential
(k) Low potential to high potential
(l) None of these
138)
If a wire of a uniform area of cross section is cut into two equal parts, the resistivity of each
part would be:
(i) Doubled
(j) Halved
(k) Same
(l) None of these
139)
A resistor carries a current I. The power dissipated is P. the power dissipated if the same
resistor carries the current 3 I is:
(i) 9P
(j) P/3
(k) 3P
(l) P
140)
Ohms Law is applicable only for:
(a) Electrolytes
(b) Metallic Conductors
(c) Semi Conductors
(d) All of these
141)
An electric current through a conductor produces around it:
(i) A magnetic field
(j) An electric field
(k) Both electric and magnetic field
(l) None of these
142)
1 KWh = ____________
(e) 3.6 x 103J
(f) 3.6 x 106J
(g) 3.6 x 109J
(h) 3.6 x 1012J
143)
The e.m.f. of a source in the presence of internal resistance is:
(i) IR
(j) Ir
(k) IR + Ir
(l) IR Ir

144)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Electrical energy which converts into heat energy in electrical circuits is given by:
VIt
Qt
I2Rt
V 2t
R

145)
Resistor connected in a number of paths are in:
(i) Parallel combination
(j) Series combination
(k) Simultaneously in series and in parallel combination
(l) Either in series or in parallel combination
146)
Loss of Voltage in Electrical circuits is given by:
(i) IR
(j) Ir
(k) IR + Ir
(l) IR Ir
147)
If Net resistance of resistors increases, then resistor are in:
(i) Parallel combination
(j) Series combination
(k) Simultaneously in series and in parallel combination
(l) Either in series or in parallel combination
148)
Kilowatt hour is the unit of:
(i) Electric power
(j) E.M.F
(k) Electric energy
(l) Electric potential
149)
The source which maintains the steady current in electrical circuits is called:
(i) Electric motor
(j) E. M. F.
(k) Generator
(l) Thermocouple
150)
Volt per Ampere is:
(i) Ohm
(j) Joule
(k) Watt
(l) KWh
151)
current which flows from high potential to low potential is called:
(e) Pulsuating current
(f) Direct current
(g) Alternating current
(h) Conventional current
152)
How three resistors each of resistance 3 could be connected with each other so that their
net resistance with a 2 series resistor is 3:
(e) In series
(f) In parallel
(g) In complex network
(h) Conventional current

153)
Power dissipated in two parallel resistors is inversely proportional to their:
(i) Potential difference
(j) All of these
(k) Current
(l) Resistances
154)
A wire of length L and resistance R is cut into four equal pieces. Resistance of each piece
would be:
(a) R
(b) R
2
(c) 2R
(d) R
4
155)
A wire is cut into two equal halves, which of the following physical quantity will not change:
(i) Conductance
(j) Resistivity
(k) Resistance
(l) All of these
156)
E.M.F. of a source in the absence of internal resistance is:
(i) IR
(j) IR + Ir
(k) Ir
(l) IR Ir
157)
How three parallel resistors each of resistance 3 could be connected with a 2 resistor to
have net resistance of 3:
(i) In series
(j) In parallel
(k) In complex network
(l) Not in any way
158)
Power dissipated in two series resistors is directly proportional to their:
(i) Resistances
(j) Current
(k) Potential difference
(l) All of these
159)
Electrical conductor contains:
(i) Only free electrons
(j) Only bound electrons
(k) Both free and bound electrons
(l) Neither bound nor free electrons
160)
Total potential difference across the combination of three cells becomes maximum when:
(a) They are connected in parallel
(b) They are connected in series
(c) Two cells are connected in parallel and one in series
(d) Two cells are connected in series and one in parallel

ANSWER KEY
(136) A

(137) B

(138) C

(139) A

(140) B

(141) A

(142) B

(143) C

(144) C

(145) A

(146) B

(147) B

(148) C

(149) B

(150) A

(151) D

(152) B

(153) D

(154) D

(155) B

(156) A

(157) A

(158) A

(159) C

(160) B

CHAPTER 14
1) Maximum force on a charged particle moving in magnetic field is given by:
a) qvB
b) qvB sin
c) BL
d) BL sin
2) Which of the following is not the unit of magnetic induction?
a) Weber
b) Tesla
c) Newton per ampere per meter
d) Weber per meter squarez
3) The principle of transformer is:
a) Mutual Induction
b) Electromagnetic Induction
c) Self Induction
d) None of these
4) Non-inductive wiring is used to minimize:
a) Conductance
b) Resistance
c) Mutual Inductance
d) Self Inductance
5) Henry is equivalent to:
a) Weber per ampere
b) Weber per meter square
c) Weber per ampere per meter
d) Weber x meter
6) A.C Generator is converted into D.C Generator by replacing:
a) Rectangular coil from circular coil
b) Commutator from slip rings
c) Slip ring from split rings
d) Armature from Solenoid
7) Which of the two charged particles of same masses will deflect more in the same magnetic field?
a) Slow moving
b) Fast moving
c) Both
d) None of these
8) A transformer is used to change:
a) Power
b) Voltage
c) Resistance
d) Capacitance
9) The magnetic flux through a surface will be minimum when angle between B and A is:
a) 0
b) 45
c) 60
d) 90
10) If an electron and a proton enter into a magnetic field perpendicularly with the same momentum:
a) The proton will deflect more
b) The electron will deflect more
c) Both will deflect equally
d) They will no deflect at all

11) In step up transformer:

a)
-=1
b)
!> #
c)
!= #
d)
#> !
12) A charged particle enters from the left on the plane of paper, perpendicularly on the vertically downward
magnetic field. The direction of force on it would be:
a) Perpendicularly on the plane of paper
b) Along the plane of paper
c) Inward on the plane of paper
d) Outward on the plane of paper
13) When a charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly, its path is:
a) Circular
b) Parabolic
c) Elliptical
d) Spiral
14) Upon which of the following, magnetic field inside the solenoid does not depend:
a) Diameter of solenoid
b) Current
c) Permeability
d) Turns per length
15) If a wire of length L carrying current I placed in a field B placed perpendicularly. The force on the
wire would be:
a) Zero
b) BIL
c) BIL sin
d) BIL cos
16) The current produced by moving the loop of wire across the magnetic field is called:
a) Direct current
b) Steady current
c) Pulsating current
d) Induced current
17) The phenomenon of producing e.m.f in the coil itself due to varying current is called:
a) Motional e.m.f
b) Electromagnetic Induction
c) Mutual Induction
d) Self Induction
18) The device which converts Mechanical energy into Electrical energy is called:
a) Generator
b) Electric Motor
c) Transformer
d) Thermocouple
19) Due to change of magnetization some heat is produced in the coils of transformer when alternating
current is supplied at its input. This process is called:
a) Rectification
b) Drifting
c) Induction
d) Hysteresis
20) Which of the following laws is satisfied by the Lenzs law?
a) Faraday Law of Induction
b) Law of conservation of energy
c) Law of conservation of charge
d) None of these

21) A steady current passing through the conductor produces:

a) Both electric and magnetic fields
b) A magnetic field only
c) An electric field only
d) Neither electric nor magnetic field
22) Net electric field in a current carrying conductor is:
a) The difference of electric fields of protons and electrons
b) The sum of electric fields of protons and electrons
c) Negative
d) Zero
23) The current which flows in the coil to oppose the dragging force on the coil is called:
a) Direct current
b) Steady current
c) Pulsating current
d) Zero
24) The magnetic field of induction is ___________ outside the core of toroid:
a) Non uniform
b) Maximum
c) Uniform
d) Zero
25) The magnetic field of induction within the core of toroid for the given value of current is:
a) Directly proportional to the square of the radius of turns
b) Directly proportional to the radius of turns
c) Inversely proportional to the number of turns
d) Directly proportional to the number of turns
26) Induced e.m.f is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux linked with the coil, is the statement of:
a) Biot-Savarts Law
b) Faradays Law
c) Lenzs Law
d) Amperes Law
27) Weber per ampere is known as:
a) Mutual Inductance
b) Self Inductance
c) Induced e.m.f
d) a and b are correct
28) Self induction of the coil increases as the ___________ increases:
a) Magnetic-flux through the coil
b) Number of turns of the coil
c) Induced current
d) a and b are correct
29) Non inductive winding is required where:
a) Self induced e.m.f is required
b) Minimum back e.m.f is required
c) Self induced e.m.f is not required
d) b and c are correct
30) If V is the speed of a conductor of length L moving perpendicularly across the magnetic field B then
the motional e.m.f is given by:
a) vBL
b)
c)
d)

%&
'&
%
&%
'

31) A.C Generator works on the principle of:

a) Self Induction
b) Mutual Induction
c) Motional e.m.f
d) a and b are correct
32) When in mutual induction change of magnetic flux in secondary coil is increased then the mutual
induction between the coils will:
a) Be zero
b) Increase
c) Decrease
d) No change will occur
33) A straight conducting wire is moved with constant speed at right angle to a magnetic field. If the strength
of the magnetic field is decreased, the induced current in the wire will:
a) Fluctuate
b) Remain same
c) Increase
d) Decrease
34) Which one of the following in D.C Generator does not have :
a) Armature
b) Commutator
c) Slip rings
d) Magnets
35) The current which fluctuates from zero to maximum and maximum to zero is called:
a) Steady current
b) Alternate current
c) Direct current
d) Pulsating Direct current
36) In electric motor Commutator is used for:
a) Inducing the current
b) Increasing the current
c) Decreasing the current
d) Reversing the current
37) When the coil is moved towards he magnetic poles then:
a) No effect
b) Light will appear
c) Heat will produce
d) e.m.f will induce in the coil
38) Cause of self inductance is:
a) Changes in flux in the same coil
b) Change in current in the same coil
c) Both a and b are wrong
d) Both a and b are correct
39) Purpose of step down transformer is to make the:
a) Input current same as output current
b) Output current higher than input current
c) Output voltage lower than input voltage
d) Output current lower than input current
40) The core of a transformer is made of soft iron because:
a) Iron is cheaper than copper
b) Iron is a good magnetic substance
c) Iron is a good conductor of current
d) Iron has high melting point

41) The core of transformer is used to link the primary coil to the secondary coil. What type of link is this?
a) Thermal
b) Electrostatic
c) Magnetic
d) Mechanical
42) A magnet is introduced onto the coil and a voltage is induced across the coil. Which of the following factor
has no effect on the induced voltage?
a) Thickness of the wire of the coil
b) The strength of the magnetic field
c) The time in which magnet is introduced
d) Number of turns of the coil
43) Weber per meter square is equivalent to:
a) Newton into ampere into meter
b) Newton per ampere
c) Newton per meter
d) Newton per ampere per meter
44) Current in a conductor produced around it:
a) Magnetic field
b) An electric and magnetic field
c) An electric field
d) None of these
45) When the north pole of a bar magnet in electric motor approaches the face of a closed coil, the face of the
coil becomes:
a) No effect is observed
b) First north pole then south pole
c) North pole
d) South pole

ANSWER KEY
(1) A

(2) A

(3)A

(4) D

(5) A

(6) C

(7) D

(8) B

(9) D

(10) B

(11) D

(12) C

(13) A

(14) A

(15) B

(21) A

(22) D

(23) D

(24) D

(25) D

(26) B

(27) D

(28) D

(29) C

(30) A

(31) C

(32) B

(33) D

(34) C

(35) C

(36) D

(37) D

(38) D

(39) C

(40) B

(41) C

(42) A

(43) D

(44) A

(45) C

CHAPTER No 15
1.

Galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting

a. A high resistance in series
b. A low resistance in series
c. A high resistance in parallel
d. A low resistance in parallel
2. Sensitivity of Galvanometer is given by
a. CBNA
b. 1/CBNA
c. C/BNA
d. BAN/C
3. The device which makes use of wet stone bridge is
a. Meter bridge
b. Voltmeter
c. Ohm Meter
d. Potentiometer
4. The device which can measure e.m.f of cells without drawing current from them is called
a. Potentiometer
b. Meter bridge
c. Voltmeter
d. Ohm Meter
5. In a circuit voltmeter is always connected in
a. Series
b. Parallel
c. Both Series and parallel
d. None Of These
6. PO Box is used to find
a. Current
b. Resistance
c. E.m.f
d. All of These
7. A VO meter is used to find
a. Current
b. Resistance
c. E.m.f
d. All of these
8. To increase the accuracy of potentiometer
a. A uniform wire of small length should be used
b. Thickness of wire will be increased
c. Thickness of wire will be decreased
d. A uniform wire of a large length should be used
9. The deflection of a coil of galvanometer is directly proportional to
a. Resistance of coil
b. Strength of magnetic field
c. Current passing through coil
d. Area of coil
10. The process of reducing amplitude of vibration of coil of galvanometer is called
a. Drifting
b. Doping
c. Shunting
d. Damping
11. Which of the following device is used for measuring resistance?
a. PO Box
b. Potentio Meter
c. Ohm Meter
d. Meter Bridge

12. For balance position of wheat stone bridge

a. R1/R3 = R2/R4
b. R2/R1 = R3/R4
c. R1R4 = R2R3
d. R1R2 = R3R4
13. Balanced position of wheat stone bridge is obtained when potential at the terminals of galvanometer
a. Is Same
b. Altered
c. Different
d. Established
14. The couple per unit twist of the suspension is equal to
a. Sum of deflection and restoring torque
b. Product of deflection and restoring torque
c. Deflection per restoring torque
d. Restoring torque per deflection
15. Which of the following can be used to measure the resistance?
a. Ohm Meter
b. Meter Bridge
c. Po Box
d. All of These

ANSWER KEY

(1)D

(2)D

(3)A

(4)A

(5)A

(6)B

(7)D

(8)D

(9)C

(10)D

(11)B

(12)C

(13)C

(14)D

(15)D

CHAPTER 16
161)
Speed of electromagnetic wave in free space is given by:
(a) o o
(b)
1__
o o
(c) o o
(d)
1__
o o
162)
The device which can receive or generate Electromagnetic wave is called:
(m) Decorder
(n) Diode
(o) Antenna
(p) Semi conductor
163)
The single crystal of Germanium or Silicon, formed after adding a trivalent impurity is
known as:
(m) Semi conductor
(n) P-N substance
(o) N- type substance
(p) P-type substance
164)
In Semi Conductor devices there is a:
(m) Valence band only
(n) Valence band and a medium forbidden gap
(o) Valence band and a narrow forbidden band
(p) Valence band and a wide forbidden gap
165)
The single Germanium or Silicon Crystal formed after adding the pentavalent impurity is
known as:
(i) Semi conductor
(j) P-N substance
(k) N- type substance
(l) P-type substance
166)
The two terminal Semi Conductor device used as a rectifier is called:
(m) Diode\
(n) Transistor
(o) Triode
(p) P-type device
167)
The process of converting A.C into D,C is called:
(i) Modulation
(j) Amplification
(k) Biasing
(l) Rectification
168)
In P-type Substance charge carrier are:
(m) A and c.
(n) Protons
(o) Holes
(p) Electrons

169)
Whenever a potential is applied across the P-n junction diode so as to increase the height of
the Potential barrier, the diode is said to be:
(i) Choked
(j) Both reverse and forward biased
(k) Forward biased
(l) Reverse biased
170)
The three terminal device, used as an amplifier and brought revolution in Electronics is
called:
(m) Diode
(n) Transistor
(o) Triode
(p) P-type
171)
In N-type substance charge carrier are:
(m) A and c
(n) Protons
(o) Holes
(p) Electrons
172)
The process of generating the effect of Audioo Signal in Electromagnetic wave is called:
(m) Modulation
(n) Amplification
(o) Biasing
(p) Rectification
173)
Whenever a Potential is applied across the P-n junction diode so as to decrease the height of
the Potential barrier, the diode is said to be:
(m) Choked
(n) Both reverse and forward biased
(o) Forward biased
(p) Reverse biased
174)
The device which rises the strength of a week signal at the output is:
(m) Amplifier
(n) Decorder
(o) Recorder
(p) Diode
175)
The process of adding impurity of Trivalent or Pentavalent into Semi Conductor is called:
(m) Modulation
(n) Rectification
(o) Doping
(p) Biasing
176)
The Semi Conductor mixed with impurity of Trivalent or Pentavalent is called:
(i) None of these
(j) Extrinsic Semi Conductor
(k) Intrinsic Semi Conductor
(l) Electronic device
177)
Base Emitter junction and Base-Collector junction of transistor are:
(i) Forward biased and reverse biased
(j) Reverse biased and forward biased
(k) Both reverse biased
(l) Both forward biased
178)
The semi-conductor device which increases the strength of weak input signal at the output is
a:

(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
179)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
180)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
181)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
182)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
183)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
184)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
185)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

N-type semi conductor

P-n diode
Transistor
P-type semi conductor
Which quantity of audio signal is changed by transistor:
All of these
Amplitude
Frequency
Wave length
Which characteristic of audio signal is changed by transistor:
Quality of sound
Both pitch and loudness
Pitch
Loudness
Choose the right option for A.M:
Amplitude monitor
Amplitude modulation
Amplitude magnification
Amplitude measurement
The process in which the height of potential barrier of P-n diode is increased is called:
Both reverse and forward biasing
Reverse biasing
Forward biasing
Biasing
The process in which original signal is recovered from modulated signal is called:
Doping
Biasing
Rectification
Demodulation
In frequency modulation, which one of the following of the original signal does not changed:
Pitch
Wavelength
Frequency
Amplitude
The most commonly used configuration of transistor in electronic circuits is:
All of these
Common collector
Common-base
Commom-emitter

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(6)

(7)

(8)

(9)

ANSWER KEY

(10) B

(11) D

(12) A

(13) C

(14) A

(15) C

(16) B

(17) A

(18) C

(19) B

(20) D

(21) B

(22) B

(23) D

(24) D

(25) D

CHAPTER 17
1) Gallilean transformations are applicable in:
a) All frames
b) Frame of Reference
c) Non- Inertial Frame
d) Inertial Frame
2) Minimum energy required for pair production is:
a) 939 MeV
b) 942 MeV
c) 1.02 MeV
d) 0.511 MeV
3) Black body radiations are:
a) Infra red and visible light rays
b) All Radiations
c) Visible light and ultra violet rays
d) Ultra violet and X-rays
4) Heisenbergs Uncertainty principle is:
*
a) !) =
+
b) !) =
c) !) =
d) -./0 .1 20#0
5) Wave nature of light is proved by:
a) Polarization
b) Black body radiation
c) Comptons Effect
d) Photo electric effect
6) Kinetic energy of Photo electrons could be increased by:
a) Decreasing the plate potential
b) By decreasing the of incident light wave length
c) Increasing the of incident light wave length
d) Increasing the plate potential
7) Maximum change in wave length of X-rays photon could be obtained when X- rays are scattered at:
a) Right angle
b) 180
c) 45
d) 0
8) Range of wavelength of visible light is:
a) 700A 1000A
b) 1nm 100nm
c) 0.1 nm 1 nm
d) 4000A 7000A
9) Dual nature of light is proved by:
a) Davisson and Germers Experiment
b) Black body radiation
c) Comptons Effect
d) Photo electric effect
10) The minimum light frequency required for photo electric effect is called:
a) Normal frequency
b) Cut-Off frequency
c) Threshold frequency
d) Natural frequency

11) 3456 is the:

a) Wave length of maximum energy
b) Maximum wave length of radiation
c) Wave length of minimum energy
d) All of those
12) The formula for the momentum of photon is:
7
a)
*
b) h
*
c)
7
*8

d)
7
13) If the frequency of light causing photo electric emission is doubled, the kinetic energy of photo electrons
will be:
a) The same
b) Zero
c) Doubled
d) Halved
14) The reverse process of pair production is known as:
a) Annihilation of energy
b) Antipair production
c) Materialization of matter
d) Annihilation of particle into its antiparticle
15) Existence of photon was confirmed by:
a) Compton
b) DeBrogile
c) Einstein
d) Max plank
16) Planks Constant is analogous to:
a) Inertia
b) Wave nature
c) Angular momentum
d) Linear momentum
17) Weins displacement law is:
a) :;<) = =./#2</2
7 >?
b)
= =./#2</2
@
7 AB

c)
= =./#2</2
@
d) : min = =./#2</2
18) Wave nature and particle nature of photon is linked by:
a) Rest mass of Photon
b) Wavelength of Photon
c) Light Speed
d) Momentum of Photon
19) In Comptons scattering process, wave length of scattered X-rays:
a) Remains Same
b) Increases
c) Decreases
d) None of these
20) Black body radiations are called
a) Temperature radiations
b) High energy radiations
c) Communication radiations
d) Coherent radiations

21) Special theory of relativity deals with:

a) Objects moving with accelerated speed
b) Objects moving with variable speed
c) Objects moving with constant speed
d) Both a and b
22) Inertial frame is:
a) Constant velocity
b) Zero velocity
c) Zero acceleration
d) All of these
23) According to the special theory of relativity, the energy of an object depends upon:
a) Its mass only
b) Momentum and position
c) Velocity and time
d) Mass and velocity
24) Which is one of the following is correct for the inertial frame of reference?
a) Its is in uniform velocity
b) It has zero acceleration
c) Net force acting on it zero
d) All of these
25) Non inertial frame is that:
a) Which has constant velocity
b) Which has zero acceleration
c) Which has acceleration
d) None of these\
26) According to the theory of relativity all motions are:
a) Neither absolute nor relative
b) Some time absolute some time relative
c) Absolute
d) Relative
27) The wavelength of maximum radiation of a black body is inversely proportional to the absolute
temperature is the statement:
a) Rayleigh Jean Law
b) Planks Law
c) Stefans Law
d) Wiens Law
28) E T is the mathematical statement of:
a) Rayleigh Jean Law
b) Planks Law
c) Stefans Law
d) Wiens Law
29) The energy associated with a particular wavelength is inversely proportional to the fourth power of wav
elength Is the statement of:
a) Rayleigh Jean Law
b) Planks Law
c) Stefans Law
d) Wiens Law
30) According to the Planks theory energy radiate from black body in the form of:
a) Photons
b) Packets
c) Quantum
d) All of the above

31) Energy of photon is directly proportional to its:

a) Temperature
b) Frequency
c) Wavelength
d) None of the above
32) Product of frequency and wavelength of photon is:
a) Energy absorbed by photon
b) Absolute temperature
c) Energy radiates by photon
d) Velocity of light
33) The photon is the particle, which has
a) Infinite rest mass
b) Rest mass but no change
c) No rest mass and no change
d) a and c are correct
34) Wave theory of light is unable to prove:
a) Black body radiation
b) Photoelectric effect
c) Compton effect
d) All of them
35) Wave theory of light cannot prove the:
a) Reflection of light
b) Polarization
c) Compton Effect
d) Interference of light
36) Minimum energy required by the electron to leave the metal surface is called as ______ of the metal
surface:
a) Threshold frequency
b) Cut-off frequency
c) Work frequency
d) Threshold energy
37) Photo electric effect cannot be produced by non metallic surface because:
a) They have work function of higher value
b) They have large number of free electrons
c) They have no free electrons
d) Both a and c
38) Above, threshold frequency the K.E of photoelectron is:
a) Inversely proportional to the wave length of the incident photon
b) Directly proportional to the frequency of emission
c) Directly proportional to the frequency of incident photon
d) b and c are correct
39) In Comptons effect a high energy photon on striking with a stationary electron looses its energy:
a) Conditionally
b) Partially
c) Wholly
d) None of these
40) The frequency of incident photon after the Compton Effect will:
a) Not change
b) Increase
c) Decrease
d) None of the above.
41) The wave length of the incident photon after the Compton Effect will:
a) Not change
b) Increase
c) Decrease
d) None of the above

42) When the frequency of incident radiation is doubled above threshold frequency then the velocity of
photoelectron will be:
a) Remain same
b) Doubled
c) Halved
d) Increase
43) X-rays is the reverse process of:
a) Pair production
b) Compton Effect
c) Photoelectric effect
d) a and b are correct
44) In pair production we have a pair of:
a) Position and electron
b) Protons
c) Electrons
d) a and b are correct
45) In annihilation process of matter:
a) Protons and electrons are converted for energy
b) Energy is converted into mass
c) Mass is converted into energy
d) a and b are correct
46) In pair production _______ are produced:
a) Position and electron
b) Photons
c) Electron and Neutron
d) b and c are correct
47) In annihilation process ________ are produced:
a) Protons
b) Photon
c) Electrons
d) b and c are correct
48) Which physical quantity will change if intensity of light falling on metals surface is increased?
a) K.E of photo electrons
b) Velocity of photo electrons
c) Plate potential
d) Current
49) The fast moving electrons stopped by a heavy metallic target is an evacuated glass tube, give rise to the
production of:
a) X-rays
b) LASER
c) particles
d) particles
50) As the temperature of a black body is raised, the wave length corresponding to the maximum intensity:
a) Remains the same
b) Shifts towards longer wavelength
c) Shifts towards shorter wavelength
d) None of the above will happen
51) Number of photo electrons emitted from metal depends upon:
a) Intensity of incident light
b) Energy of incident light
c) Wavelength of incident light
d) Frequency of incident light
52) Where the energy lost by fast moving electron goes?
a) Appears as photon
b) Appears as electron-proton pair
c) Appears as its K.E

d) It variables
53) Which of the following is not true for antiparticle of electron?
a) It follows mass-energy relation
b) It posses the same charge as that of electron
c) It posses the same momentum as that of electron
d) Its charge to mass ratio is the same as that of electron
54) Which is not the result of special theory of relativity?
a) Length contraction
b) Space-time transformation
c) Time dilation
d) Mass variation
55) The black body which is close to perfect black body is:
a) Translucent glass box
b) Cavity radiator
c) Black holes
d) All Of These

ANSWER KEY

(1) a

(2) c

(3) b

(4) c

(5) a

(6) b

(7) a

(8)d

(9) a

(10) c

(11) a

(12) c

(13) c

(14) a

(15) a

(16) c

(17) a

(18)d

(19) b

(20) b

(21) c

(22) d

(23)d

(24) d

(25) c

(26) d

(27) d

(28) c

(29) a

(30) d

(31) b

(32) d

(33) c

(34) d

(35) c

(36) c

(37) a

(38) c

(39) b

(40) c

(41) b

(42) d

(43) c

(44) a

(45) c

(46) a

(47) b

(48) d

(49) a

(50) c

(51) a

(52) a

(53) b

(54) b

(55) b

CHAPTER 18
186)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
187)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)
188)
(q)
(r)
(s)
189)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
190)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
191)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)
192)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
193)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)
194)
(m)

In a hydrogen atom Balmer series electron falls into:

n=1
n=2
n=3
n=4
Laser is the:
Beam of electrons
Coherrent bean of light
Beam of ultra violet rays
All of these
According to Bohrs theory, electron revolving around the nucleus in a fixed orbit radiates:
Energy
X-rays
= ray
The first Spectral line emitted in Lyman Series of Hydrogen atom when electrons fall from:
n=1
n=2
n=3
n=
Spectral lines in the Balmer Series of Hydrogen atom lies in the region of:
Ultraviolet rays
X-rays
Visible light
Infra red rays
According to the Bohrs theory, angular momentum of electron is integral multiple of:
h

Range of wave length of X-rays is:

400 nm -------- 700 nm
700 nm -------- 1000 nm
100 nm -------- 0.1000 nm
0.1 nm -------- 1nm
X-rays are produces when:
Electron falls to ground state
Electron loses its energy in the Vicinity of nucleus
Electron jumps to higher state
All of these
Frequency of Photon emitted, from Bohrs theory is given by:
D
*

(n) E1 - Er
h
(o) -13.6eV
n2
(p) None of these

195)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)
196)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)
197)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)
198)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)
199)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)
200)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(q)
201)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
202)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
203)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)
204)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Radius of 1st orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.53 oA. Radius of fifth state of Hydrogen atoms is:
2.65 A
13.25 oA
20 oA
Infinite
The most stable state of yuby is::
Ground state
Meta state
Higher state
Excited state
The process of collecting excited electrons from unstable state into stable state is called:
Induced absorption
Population Inversion
Emitted radiation
de excitation
Wave length of maximum radiant energy in Hydrogen atom spectrum belongs to:
Lyman series
Balmer series
Paschen series
Pfund series
Ground state energy of Hydrogen atom is:
Zero
3.45 eV
13.6 eV
-13.6 eV
In Hydrogen atom spectrum longest wave length of radiations belongs to:
Lyman series
Balmer series
Paschen series
Pfund series
Number fo photoelectrons emitted from a metal depends upon:
Frequency of light
Wavelength of light
Intensity of light
Speed of light
Wave nature of particle is linked by:
Speed of light
Planks constant
Inertial mass
Momentum of particle
The black body which is close to perfect black body is:
Cavity radiator
Black holes
Translucent glass box
All of these
Wave length of minimum radiant energy in hydrogen atom belongs to:
Lyman series
Balmer series
Paschen series
Pfund series
o

205)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)

Linear and angular momentum of electron of hydrogen atom is linked by:

Planks Constant
Quantum number of state
Energy of state
Orbital radius

ANSWER KEY
(26) B

(27) D

(28) A

(29) B

(30) C

(31) B

(32) D

(33) B

(34) B

(35) B

(36) B

(37) B

(38) B

(39) D

(40) D

(41) D

(42) A

(43) B

(44) B

(45) D

CHAPTER 19

1) Number of Neutrons in 92U235is:

(a) 152
(b) 148
(c) 143
(d) 92
2) In Nuclear Fission, 92U235is bombarded by:
(a) Slow neutron
(b) High energy neutron
(c) Low energy neutron
(d) Fast Neutron
3) The time in which half of parent nuclear decay is called:
(a) Life time
(b) Time of decay
(c) Decay interval
(d) Half time
4) Breeder Reactor used to convert:
(a) 92U238 into 94Pu239
(b) 92U235 into 92Pu238
(c) 92U235 into 56Ba144 and 36Kr89
(d) 92U238 into 56Ba144 and 36Kr89
5) In the nuclear reaction:
14
4
17
+ _____________
7N + 2He
8O
(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) -Particle
(d) Neutron
6) The process in which a bigger nucleus spilts up into its smaller fragments with an evolution of a large
amount of energy is called:
(a) Nuclear Fission
(b) Nuclear Disintegration
(c) Nuclear Fusion
(d) Nuclear Decay
7) In the process of gamma emission from a nucleus, which of the following will change:
(a) Both mass and Charge number
(b) Mass number
(c) No change occurs
(d) Charge number
8) LMFBR is the abbreviation of:
(a) Liquid metal fast breeder reactor
(b) None of these
(c) Lithium metal Fission breeder reactor
(d) Lithium metal of Fission and Bomb Radiation
9) In + decay, a Parent nucleus convert into a daughter nucleus accompanied with:
(a) Alpha Particle
(b) Electron
(c) Beta Particle
(d) Positron
10) Binding fraction is the:
(a) Binding energy Per mass defect
(b) Mass defect Per binding energy
(c) Mass defect Per nucleon
(d) Binding energy Per nucleon
11) Half Life of radioactive element is given by:
E.GH
(a)
7

(b) 0.693
(c) 0.693
7
(d)
E.GH
12) Mass deficit is the difference of:
(a) Increased mass and decreased mass
(b) Mass of Nuclear Constituents in free state and in combined state
(c) Inertial mass and non-inertial mass
(d) Nuclear mass and atomic mass
13) Activity of Radioactive nuclei is given by:
I
(a)
(b)

14)

15)

16)

17)

18)

19)

20)

21)

22)

IJ
IJ
I
K

(c)
I
(d) N
A material consisting of the fissionable isotopes of Uranium is called the:
(a) Reactor fuel
(b) Nuclear fuel
(c) Atom bomb fuel
(d) Atomic fuel
The process of converting non-fissionable uranium into fissionable is called:
(a) Disintegration
(b) Breeding
(c) None of these
(d) Decay Process
Half life of 94Pu239 is:
(a) 2.44 x 104 years\
(b) 3.80 days
(c) 1662 years
(d) One week
Decay process in radioactive nuclei takes place:
(a) Conditionally
(b) Linearly
(c) Exponentially
(d) Smoothly
Critical mass of fissionable isotope of Uranium is:
(a) 7.07%
(b) 0.7 %
(c) 77.07%
(d) 0.07%
I u = ____________ Me V:
(a) 9.315
(b) 0.9315
(c) 931.5
(d) 93.15
In periodic table most stable nuclei are those whose:
(a) Mass number is greater then two
(b) Charge number is greater then two
(c) Mass number lie between 30 and 60
(d) Charge number lie between 30 and 60
Which one of the following is not true for Nuclear reactors:
(a) They are the source of making atom bomb
(b) They provide neutrons which are the basic tool of nuclear studies
(c) They are the source of power generation
(d) They provide certain radioactive isotopes which are used in medicine
The arte of decrease of decay in parent nuclei is directly proportional to the:

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Activity
Number of parent nuclei
Relative activity
Half life

23) The process of beta emission from a nucleus involves the change in:
(a) Both mass and charge number
(b) Mass number
(c) No change occurs
(d) Charge number
24) According to the law of radioactive decay, number of parent nuclei is equal to:
(a) e-t
(b) N0
(c) None of these
(d) N0 e-t
25) The process in which heavier nucleus is formed from the combination of lighter nuclei is called:
(a) Radioactivity
(b) Fission
(c) Mass defect
(d) Fusion

(46) B

(47) D

(48) A

(49) B

(50) C

(51) B

(52) D

(53) B

(54) B

(55) B

(56) B

(57) B

(58) B

(59) D

(60) D

(61) D

(62) A

(63) B

(64) B

(65) D

ANSWER KEY

CHAPTER 20
1.

In treating a localized cancerous tumor a narrow beam of

a. Alpha Rays from Cobalt 60 is used
b. Laser beam from cobalt 60 is used
c. Gamma Rays from cobalt 60 is used
d. Beta Rays from cobalt 60 is used
2. A Modern technique of tracing complexity of molecules is called
a. Tracer technique
b. Radiology
c. Molecular technique
d. Polymerization
3. Ulceration, cataract of eye and Cancer are the examples of
a. Viral disease
b. Bacterial disease
c. Somatic disease
d. Genetic Disease
4. Radio active elements used as tracer in medicine are
a. 1H353I131 and 6C14
b. 6C12 and 53I131
c. 6C14 and
d. 20Ca42 and 1H3
5. The technique by which the absorption of CO2, the seat of Photosynthesis and the distribution of
plant food could be traced is called
a. Radiation Therapy
b. Polymerization
c. Auto-radiography
d. Tracer technique
6. Cancer of the thyroid glands is treated by
a. 1H3
b. 6C14
c. 53I131
d. 6C19
7. The age of the specimen such as dead body, wood, bone or fossil, could be measured by C14 Called
a. Carbon detector
b. Radio Analyzer
c. Radio Carbon dating
d. Radio Carbon tracer
8. Study and discovery of radio isotopes is made easier by a device called
a. G.M Counter
b. Cloud Chamber
c. Spectrometer
d. Tachometer
9. Electric field generator in G.M tube is due to
a. Ionization of alcohol
b. Low vapor pressure of alcohol
c. Low boiling point of alcohol
d. All of these
10. Path of track of droplets of Alpha Particles in cloud chamber is a
a. Random streak
b. Indefinite streak
c. Continuous streak
d. Discontinuous Streak

11. In an Alpha Decay, mass number of parent nuclei

a. Remains same
b. changes per 2 unit
c. Decreases by 4 unit
d. increases by 4 units
12. In Beta emissions from nucleus _________ are emitted
a. Protons
b. Neutrino
c. Positron
d. Electrons
13. The rate of flow of blood is determined by
14. If a small quantity of radio active iodine _________ is taken in food, most of it deposited in
a. Thyroid gland
b. Blood
c. Kidneys
d. Brain
15. On ionizing gases, Alpha particles by capturing electrons, convert into
a. Energy
b. Helium Atom
c. Radio active particles
d. None Of These

ANSWER KEY

(1)C

(2)A

(3)C

(4)C

(5)C

(6)C

(7)C

(8)D

(9)B

(10)C

(11)C

(12)C

(13)A

(14)A

(15)B