EE Objective Paper 2 1009

ESE - 2016
Detailed Solutions of
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
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Directors Message
UPSC has introduced the sectional cutoffs of each paper and screening cut off in
three objective papers (out of 600 marks). The conventional answer sheets of only
those students will be evaluated who will qualify the screening cut offs.
In my opinion the General Ability Paper was easier than last year but Civil
Engineering objective Paper-I and objective Paper-II both are little tougher/
lengthier. Hence the cut off may be less than last year. The objective papers of ME
and EE branches are average but E&T papers are easier than last year.
Expected Minimum Qualifying Marks in Each OBJECTIVE Paper (out of 200 Marks)
Category
GEN
OBC
SC
ST
PH
Percentage
15%
15%
15%
15%
10%
30
30
30
30
20
Marks
Expected Minimum Qualifying Marks in Each CONVENTIONAL Paper (out of 200 Marks)
Category
GEN
OBC
SC
ST
PH
Percentage
15%
15%
15%
15%
10%
30
30
30
30
20
Marks
Expected Screening cut off out of 600 Marks (ESE 2016)
Branch
GEN
OBC
SC
ST
CE
225
210
160
150
ME
280
260
220
200
EE
310
290
260
230
E&T
335
320
290
260
Note: These are expected screening cut offs for ESE 2016. MADE EASY does not
take guarantee if any variation is found in actual cutoffs.
B. Singh (Ex. IES)
CMD , MADE EASY Group
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query/doubts to MADE EASY at: info@madeeasy.in
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ESE-2016 : Electrical Engg.

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A
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3
Paper-II (Electrical Engineering)

1.
Compared to the salient-pole Hydroelectric generators, the steam and the gas turbine
generators have cylindrical rotors for
(a) Better air-circulation in the machine
(b) Reducing the eddy-current losses in the rotor
(c) Accommodating larger number terms in the field winding
(d) Providing higher mechanical strength against the centrifugal stress
Ans.
(d)
2.
Consider the following losses for short circuit test on a transformer:

1. Copper loss
2. Copper and iron losses
3. Eddy current and hysteresis losses
4. Friction and windage losses
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans.
(a)
3.
A 2000 V/200 V, 20 kVA, two winding single-phase transformer is reconnected as a step

up auto-transformer having 200 V/2200 V ratings. Then the power rating for the auto
transformer will be
(a) 160 kVA
(b) 180 kVA
(c) 200 kVA
(d) 220 kVA
Ans.
(d*)
2000 V/200 V, 20 kVA, two winding T/F
Reconnected as Auto T/F 200/2200 V
2000 V
200 V
2000 V
reconnected
as
2200
200 V
100 V
200 V
For current distribution....

V1 I 1 = V2I 2
200 I1 = 110 A
Auto transformer rating should be
V1 I1 or V2I2
200 110 (or) 2200 10
= 22000 (or) 22 kVA
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Options were given

(a) 160 kVA
(a) 200 kVA
* There is error/printing mistake.
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(a) 180 kVA

(a) 220 kVA
4.
The regulation of a transformer in which ohmic loss is 1% of the output and reactance
drop is 5% of the voltage, when operating at 0.8 power factor lagging is
(a) 3.8%
(b) 4.8%
(c) 5.2%
(d) 5.8%
Ans.
(a)
ohmic loss 1%
Reactance drop 5%
% ohmic loss = % ohmic voltage drop
% Resistance drop(Vr) = 0.01
% Reactance drop (Vx) = 0.05
Voltage Regulation : Vr cos Vs sin
Given operating power factor cos = 0.8
sin = 0.6
%V.R. = [(0.01 0.8) + (0.05 0.6)] 100

%V.R. = 3.8%
5.
In a power transformer, the core loss is 50 W at 40 Hz, and 100 W at 60 Hz, under
the condition of same maximum flux density in both cases. The core loss at 50 Hz will
be
(a) 64 W
(b) 73 W
(c) 82 W
(d) 91 W
Ans.
(b)
Core loss wc is expressed as
wc = kh f + kef 2
kh(40) + ke(40)2 = 50 W
kh(60) + ke(60)2 = 100 W
By solving (1) and (2)
kh = 0.4167
ke = 0.0208
Core loss at 50 Hz is wc = kh(50) + ke(50)2
wc = 0.4167(50) + 0.0208(50)2
= 73 Watts
Hysterisis loss wh f
Eddy current loss we f 2
(For Bm constant)
...(1)
...(2)
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Scroll down
For Answer Key of ESE-2016
Page 2 of 3

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6.
Consider the following advantages of a distributed winding in a rotating machine:

1. Better utilization of core as number of evenly placed small slots are used.
2. Improved waveform as harmonic emfs are reduced.
3. Dimensional armature reaction and efficient cooling.
Which of the above advantages are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(d)
7.
The breadth factor for 3rd harmonic emf of a 3-phase, 4-pole, synchronous machine having
36 stator slots is
(a) 0.47
(b) 0.53
(c) 0.67
(d) 0.73
Ans.
(c)
Breadth factor for rth harmonic:
nr
2
Kdr =
r
n sin
2
sin
= slot angle =
180
180
=
= 20
slots / pole 36 / 4
n = slots / pole / phase

= 36 / 4 / 3 = 3
Breadth factor for 3rd harmonic is
3 3 20
sin
2
Kd3 =
= 0.67
20 3
3 sin
2
8.
Consider the following factors for a dc machine:

1. Interpole
2. Armature resistance
3. Reduction in field current
Which of the above factors are responsible for decrease in terminal voltage of a shunt
generator?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(b)

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9.
A dc motor develops an electromagnetic torque of 150 N-m in a certain operation

condition. From this operating condition, a 10% reduction in field flux and 50% increase
in armature current is made. What will be new value of electromagnetic torque.
(a) 225 N-m
(b) 202.5 N-m
(c) 22.5 N-m
(d) 20.25 N-m
Ans.
(b)
T = 150 N-m
Field reduced by 10% Ia increased by 50%
2 = 0.9 1
and
Ia2 = 1.5 Ia1
T Ia
T2
I
= 2 a2
T1
1 Ia1
T2
= 0.9 1.5
T1
T2 = 1.35 (T1)
T2 = 1.35 150
= 202.5 N-m
10.
A dc machine having a symmetrical closed-circuit armature winding and a sinusoidal

air gap flux density distribution, will have a sinusoidal voltage induced in the individual
coils. The resultant brush-to-brush voltage will have a waveform
(a) Sinusoidal with the negative half
(b) Unidirectional and constant without
(c) Unidirectional and constant with ripples superimposed
(d) Sinusoidal positive half and zero negative half, in each cycle
Ans.
(c)
11.
A 3-phase, induction motor operating at a slip of 5% develop 20 kW rotor power output.

What is the corresponding rotor copper loss in this operating condition?
(a) 750 W
(b) 900 W
(c) 1050 W
(d) 1200 W
Ans.
(c)
Slip
Rotor power output
Rotor copper loss
Rotor power output
=
=
=
=
0.05
20 kW
Slip Rotor power input
(1 s) Rotor power input

Rotor power input =

=
=
Rotor cu. loss =
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rotor power input / 1 s

20 kW/ 1 0.05
21.0526 kW
(0.05) (21.05) kW
1050 watts
12.
What are the signs of load angle in an alternator during generator and motor operations,
respectively?
(a) Negative, negative
(b) Positive, negative
(c) Negative, positive
(d) Positive, positive
Ans.
(b)
13.
In an alternator the armature winding is kept stationary while the field winding is kept
rotating for the following reasons:
1. Armature handles very large current and high voltage.
2. Armature fabrication, involving deep slots to accommodate large coils, is easy if
armature is kept stationary.
3. It is easier to cool the stator than the rotor.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(b)
14.
Increasing the air gap of a squirrel-cage induction motor would result in

(a) increasing in no-load speed
(b) increase in full-load power factor
(c) increase in magnetizing current
(d) maximum available torque
Ans.
(c)
15.
A cumulative compound dc motor runs at 1500 rpm on full load. If its series field is
short circuited, its speed
(a) becomes zero
(b) remains same
(c) increases
(d) decreases
Ans.
(c)
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16.
If the capacitor of a capacitor start single-phase motor fails to open when the motor picks
up speed.
(a) The motor will stop.
(b) The auxiliary winding will be damaged.
(c) The capacitor will be damaged.
(d) The winding will be damaged.
Ans.
(b)
17.
For a 3-phase induction motor, what fraction/multiple of supply voltage is required for
a direct on line starting method such that starting current is limited to 5 times the full
load current and motor develops 1.5 times full load torque at starting time?
(a) 1.632
(b) 1.226
(c) 0.816
(d) 0.456
Ans.
(b)
Let x be the fraction of supply votlage
Tst (xv)2 and Tf v2
Tst starting torque
Tf full load torque
Tst
x2v 2
=
Tf
v2
Tst
= 1.5
Tf
x=
x = 1.22
18.
What is the material of slip rings in an induction machine?

(a) Carbon
(b) Nickel
(c) Phosphor bronze
(d) Manganese
Ans.
(c)
19.
The stator loss of a 3-phase induction motor is 2 kW. If the motor is running with a slip
of 4% and power input of 90 kW, then what is the rotor mechanical power developed?
(a) 84.48 kW
(b) 86.35 kW
(c) 89.72 kW
(d) 90.52 kW

Ans.
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(a)
Stator loss
Slip
Power input stator loss
Rotor input
Rotor power output
Rotor power input
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
2 kW
0.04
Stator ouput = Rotor input
90 kW 2 kW = 88 kW
(1 s) Rotor power input
(1 0.04) (88)
84.48 kW
20.
In a single-phase capacitor start induction motor, the direction of rotation

(a) can be changed by reversing the main winding terminals.
(b) cannnot be changed.
(c) is dependent on the size of the capacitor.
(d) can be changed only in large capacitor motors.
Ans.
(a)
21.
Air pollution due to smoke around a thermal power station can be reduced by installing
(a) Induced draft fan
(b) Super heater
(c) Economizer
(d) Electrostatic precipator
Ans.
(d)
22.
The load curve is useful in deciding.

1. The operating schedule of generating units.
2. The total installed capacity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.
(c)
23.
The maximum demand on a steam power station is 480 MW. If the annual load factor
is 40%, then the total energy generated annually is
(b) 18819.2 105 kWh
(a) 19819.2 105 kWh
(c) 17819.2 105 kWh
(d) 16819.2 105 kWh

Ans.
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(d)
Average power
Maximum demand
Average power = 0.4 480 = 192 mW
= 192103 kW
Total energy generated in one year
= 192 103 365 24 kW hr
= 16819.2 106 kWh
Load factor =
1.
24.
To equalize the sending and receiving end voltages, impedance is connected at the
receiving and of a transmission line having the following ABCD parameters:
A = D = 0.90 B = 20090
The impedance so connected would be
(a) 10000
(b) 100090
(c) 200090
(d) 20000
Ans.
(c)
TL
A B 1 0
Equivalent T-parameter =
C D 1/ 2 1
Aeq = A +
for
20090
= 0.90 +
z
Z
VS = VR
Aeq = 1 = 0.90 +
20090
z
z = 200090
25.
The maximum efficiency in the transmission of bulk ac power will be achieved when the
power factor of the load is
(a) slightly less than unity lagging
(b) slightly less than unity leading
(c) unity
(d) considerably less than unity
Ans.
(b)
For max. Power Transfer Condition load should be of leading nature.
1.
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26.
A speed of a dc motor is
(a) directly proportional to back emf and inversely proportional to flux.
(b) inversely proportional to back emf and directly proportional to flux.
(c) directly proportional to back emf as well as to flux.
(d) inversely proportional to back emf as well as to flux.
Ans.
(a)
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11
Eb
27.
When the sending end voltage and current are numerically equal to the receiving end
voltage and current respectively, then the line is called
(a) a tuned line
(b) a transposed line
(c) a long line
(d) a short line
Ans.
(a)
VS = VR, SS = SR
For a tuned line.
1.
28.
If Vm is the peak value of an applied voltage in a half wave rectifier with a large capacitor
across the load, then the peak inverse voltage will be
(a) 0.5 Vm
(b) Vm
(c) 1.5 Vm
(d) 2.0 Vm
Ans.
(d)
A
VM
VS
VM
L
O
A
D
The steady state voltage across load VM [due to large capacitor]
PIV = 2 VM
29.
A 100 MVA generator operates load of 50 Hz frequency. The load is suddenly reduced
to 50 MW. The steam valve begins to close only after 0.4 and if the value of the inertia
constant H is 5s, then the frequency at 0.4s is nearly
(a) 38 Hz
(b) 44 Hz
(c) 51 Hz
(d) 62 Hz

Ans.
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12
(c)
1
100 5 + 50 0.4 2
H .S + (PD )Td 2
fn = f0
= 50
= 51 Hz
H .S
100 5
1.
30.
A 25 MVA, 33 kV transformer has a pu impedance of 0.9. The pu impedance at a new

base 50 MVA at 11 kV would be
(a) 10.4
(b) 12.2
(c) 14.4
(d) 16.2
Ans.
(d)
Zpun = Z pu o
= 0.9
(MVA)n (KV )20
(MVA)0 (KV )n2
50 33

25 11
= 16.2 pu
31.
Symmetrical components are used in power system for the analysis of

(a) balanced 3-phase fault
(b) unbalanced 3-phase fault
(c) normal power system under steady conditions
(d) stability of system under disturbance
Ans.
(b)
1.
32.
For
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans.
(c)
33.
Critical clearing angle is related to

(a) stability study of power system
(b) power flow study of power system
(c) regulation of transmission line
(d) power factor improvement of the system
Ans.
(a)
V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph is drawn between

terminal voltage and load factor
power factor and field current
field current and armature current
armature current and power factor
1.

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13
34.
A 2-pole, 50 Hz, 11 kV, 100 MW alternator has a moment of inertia of 10,000 kg.m2.
The value of inertia constant, H is
(a) 3.9s
(b) 4.3s
(c) 4.6s
(d) 4.9s
Ans.
(d)
2
H.S
2
M = J.e 10 6 =
P
f
2
H 100
2
10,000 2 50 106 =
2
50
H = 4.93
35.
Stability of a power system can be improved by:

1. Using series compensations
2. Using parallel transmission lines
3. Reducing voltage of transmission
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans.
(d)
1.
36.
Equal-area criterion is employed to determine:

(a) The steady-state stability
(b) The transient stability
(c) The reactive power limit
(d) The rating of a circuit breaker
Ans.
(b)
37.
Consider the following advantages with respect to HVDC transmission:

1. Long distance transmission
2. Low cost of transmission
3. Higher efficiency
Which of the above advantages are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(d)
If the line length is more than 600 km HVDC is more economical than HVAC. So, HVDC
is economical to transmit Bulkpower for long distance.
1.
S UPER T ALENT B ATCHES

for ESE, GATE & PSUs
Super Talent batches are designed for students with good academic records and who have secured good ranks in GATE/ESE or other national
level competitive examinations. Super Talent batches are a kind of regular batches in which faculty, study material, tests, teaching pedagogy is
similar to other batches. But due to eligibility criteria, the composition of students in this batch is homogeneous and better than other batches.
Here students will get a chance to face healthy competitive environment and it is very advantageous for ambitious aspirants.
Eligibility (any one of the following)

MADE EASY repeater students with 65% Marks in B.Tech
Cleared any 3 PSUs written exam
GATE rank upto 2000
60% marks in B.Tech from IITs/NITs/DTU
GATE Qualified MADE EASY old students
Cleared ESE written exam
70% marks in B.Tech from

private engineering colleges
65% marks in B.Tech from reputed
colleges (See below mentioned colleges)
BITS-Pilani, BIT-Sindri, HBTI-Kanpur, JMI-Delhi, NSIT-Delhi, MBM-Jodhpur, Madan Mohan Malviya-Gorakhpur, College of Engg.-Roorkee,
BIT-Mesra, College of Engg.-Pune, SGSITS-Indore, Jabalpur Engg. College, Thapar University-Punjab, Punjab Engg. College
Why most brilliant students prefer Super Talent Batches!

Highly competitive environment
Meritorious students group
Opportunity to solve more problems

More number of tests
In-depth coverage of the syllabus

Motivational sessions
GATE-2016 : Top Rankers

from Super talent batches
AIR
AIR
AIR
AIR
Classes by senior faculty members

Discussion & doubt clearing classes
Special attention for better performance
ESE-2015 : Top Rankers

from Super talent batches
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Udit Agarwal
Piyush Kumar
Amit Kumar Mishra
Anas Feroz
Kirti Kaushik
EC
ME
EE
EE
CE
CE
EE
CE
AIR
10
10
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10
AIR
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10
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Arun Kumar
ME
EE
CE
CE
CE
CE
ME
9 in Top 10
58 in Top 100
6 in Top 10
ADMISSIONS OPEN
Online admission facility available
To enroll, visit : www.madeeasy.in
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Stream
Batch Commencement
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30th May (Morning) &

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Corp. Office : 44 - A/1, Kalu Sarai, New Delhi - 110016; Ph: 011-45124612, 09958995830
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38.
The three sequence voltages at the point of fault in a power system are found to be
equal. The nature of the fault is
(a) L G
(b) L L L
(c) L L
(d) L L G
Ans.
(d)
39.
A distance relay with inherent directional property is known as

(a) Buchholtz relay
(b) Admittance relay
(c) Directional over current relay
(d) Directional switched relay
Ans.
(b)
40.
Consider the following circuit breakers for 220 kV substations:

1. Air
2. SF6
3. Vaccum
Which of the above circuit breakers can be used in an indoor substation?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
Ans.
(c)
41.
A semiconductor differs from a conductor in that it has

(a) only one path for the free electrons in the valence band.
(b) only one path for holes in the conductance band.
(c) two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an ordinary path in the conduction
band and the other one an extraordinary path in the valence band, respectively.
(d) Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an extraordinary path in the
conduction band and the other one an ordinary path in valence band, respectively.
Ans.
(c)
42.
Which of the following circuits is used for converting a sine wave into a square wave?
(a) Monostable multivibrator
(b) Bistable multivibrator
(c) Schmitt trigger circuit
(d) Darlington complementary pair
Ans.
(c)

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15
43.
What is the type of breakdown that occurs in a Zener diode having breakdown voltage
(6 V)?
(a) Avalanche breakdown only
(b) Zener breakdown only
(c) Avalanche breakdown where breakdown voltage is below 6 V and Zener breakdown
otherwise
(d) Zener breakdown where breakdown voltage is below 6 V and Avalanche breakdown
otherwise
Ans.
(d)
44.
Consider the following statements:

A power supply uses bridge rectifier with a capacitor input filter. If one of the diodes
is defective, then
1. The dc load voltage will be lower than its expected value.
2. Ripple frequency will be lower than its expected value.
3. The surge current will increase considerably.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(d)
45.
The lowest frequency of ac components in the outputs of half-wave and full-wave rectifiers
are, respectively, (where is the input frequency)
(a) 0.5 and
(b) and 2
(c) 2 and
(d) and 3
Ans.
(b)
1 HWR:
1-
V0
Fourier Series
V0(t) =
VM VM
2V
2V
+
sin t M cos2t M cos 4t ....
2
3
15
Lowest frequency of ac componetns is

1 FWR:
1-
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16
V0
Fourier Series:
2VM 4VM
4V
cos2t M cos 4t ......
3
15
Lowest frequency of ac component is 2
V0(t) =
46.
Ans.
A half-wave rectifier circuit using ideal diode has an input voltage of 20 sint volt. Then
average and rms value of output voltage respectively are
(a)
10
V and 5 V
(b)
20
V and 10 V
(c)
20
V and 5 V
(d)
10
V and 10 V
(b)
1 HWR:
1-
V0
V0 =
VM
(1 + cos )
2
= 0,
Vor =
t
2
V0 =
VM
20
=
VM
20
=
= 10 V
2
2
47.
For a BJT; IC = 5 mA, IB = 50 A and ICBO = 0.5 A, then the value of is

(a) 99
(b) 91
(c) 79
(d) 61
Ans.
(a)
IC = IB + ICBO
=
IC
5 103
=
= 99
IB + ICBO
50.5 10 6
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in
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Top 10
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Top 10
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Top 20
17
Selections
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68
Selections
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16
Selections
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19
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48.
Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for a transistor to be in saturation?

1. Its collector to base junction should be under forward bias.
2. Its collector to base junction should be under reverse bias.
3. Its emitter to base junction should be under reverse bias.
4. Its emitter to base junction should be under forward bias.
Which of the above conditions are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans.
(d)
49.
In an amplifier with a gain of 1000 without feedback and cut-off frequencies at 2 kHz
and 20 kHz, negative feedback of 1% is employed. The cut-off frequencies with feedback
would be
(a) 220 Hz and 22 kHz
(b) 182 Hz and 220 kHz
(c) 220 kHz and 220 kHz
(d) 182 Hz and 22 kHz
Ans.
(b)
f
2 103
L
fL1 = 1 + A = 1 + 1000 0.01 = 182 Hz
fH1 = fH(1 +A) = 20 103 11 = 220 kHz
50.
Consider the following circuits?

1. Oscillator
2. Emitter follower
3. Power amplifier
Which of the above circuits employ feedback?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.
(a)
51.
Three identical amplifiers each having a voltage gain of 50 are cascaded. The open loop
voltage gain of the combined amplifier is
(a) 71 dB
(b) 82 dB
(c) 91 dB
(d) 102 dB
Ans.
(d)
20 log10 A1A2A3 = 20 log 50 50 50
= 102 dB

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18
52.
A clamper circuit
1. Adds or subtracts a dc voltage to or from a waveform.
2. Does not change the shape of the waveform.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.
(c)
53.
The operational amplifier circuit shown in figure having a voltage gain of unity has
(a) High input impedance and high output impedance
+
(b) High input impedance and low output impedance
vi
v0
(c) Low input impedance and low output impedance
(d) Low input impedance and high output impedance
Ans.
(b)
54.

1. Race-around condition occurs in a JK flip-flop when the inputs are 1, 1.
2. A flip-flop is used to store one bit of information.
3. A transparent latch consists of D-type flip-flops.
4. Master-slave configuration is used in a flip-flop to store 2-bits of information.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans.
(a)
A Master-slave configuration stores only 1 bit of information.
55.
An operational amplifier has a slew rate of 2 V/ sec. If the peak output is 12 V, what
will be the power bandwidth?
(a) 36.5 kHz
(b) 26.5 kHz
(c) 22.5 kHz
(d) 12.5 kHz
Ans.
(b)
fm =
S.R
2 106
=
= 26.5 kHz
2 Vm 2 12

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19
56.
A voltage follower is used as

1. An isolation amplifier
2. A buffer amplifier
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.
(c)
57.
If a, b, c are 3 input variables, then Boolean function y = ab + bc + ca represents

1. A 3 input majority gate
2. A 3 input minority gate
3. Carry output of a full adder
4. Product circuit for a, b and c
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans.
(c)
The following truth table represents a 3-input majority gate as well as the carry output
of a full adder.
a
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
Simplification using K-map,

a
bc
bc
bc
bc
bc
a
a
y = ab + bc + ca
58.
In a 2 input CMOS logic gate, one input is left floating i.e. connected neither to ground
nor to a signal. What will be the state of that input?
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) same as that of the other input
(d) indeterminate (neither 1 nor 0)
Ans.
(d)
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Selections in
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Ijaz M Yousuf
4 Streams
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Students
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352
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out of total
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Top 20
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CE
Selections in Top 10
10
20
MADE EASY Selections 120 Out of 151 Vacancies
ME
10
18
MADE EASY Selections
83
Out of
99
Vacancies
MADE EASY Percentage 83%
EE
16
67
Out of
86
Vacancies
E &T
19
82
Out of
98
Vacancies
MADE EASY Percentage
84%
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59.
The expression for MOD number for a ripple counter with N flip-flop is
(b) 2 N
(a) N
N
1
(c) 2
(d) 2N 1
Ans.
(b)
MOD number of a ripple counter represents the total number of states followed by it
with N flip-flops, the total possible number of states that could be followed is 2N.
60.
Why a ROM does not have data inputs?

(a) It does not have a WRITE operation.
(b) Data inputs are integrated with data outputs
(c) Data inputs are integrated with address inputs.
(d) ROM is sequentially accessed.
Ans.
(a)
ROM Read only memory, so no write operation.
61.

1. RAM is a non-volatile memory.
2. RAM is a volatile memory whereas ROM is a non-volatile memory.
3. Both RAM and ROM are volatile memories but in ROM data is nor when power is
switched off.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) none of the above
Ans.
(b)
RAM Volatile, ROM Non-volatile
Volatile Data only with power supply
Non-volatile Data is present permanently.
62.
Consider the following instructions:

1. LOCK
2. STD
3. HLT
4. CLI
Which of the above are machine control instructions?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans.
(b)
HLT & LOCK are for internal machine control operations of NP.
HLT To stop NP execution of program
LOCK Related to 8086, instruction with lock prefix is executed first.

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21
63.
What is the assembler directive statement used to reserve an array of 100 words in
memory and initialize all 100 words with 0000 and give it a name STORAGE?
(a) STORAGE DW 100
(b) STORAGE DW 100 DUP (0)
(c) STORAGE DW 100 DUP (?)
(d) STORAGE DB 100
Ans.
(b)
Words so DW Define words i.e., 2 bytes of memory locations are reserved.
But for array STORAGE DW 100 DUP (0)
DUP (0) Means 100 words space is reserved with data in location initialized as 0000H.
64.

1. Auxiliary carry flag is used only by the DAA and DAS instruction.
2. Zero flag is set to 1 if the two operands compared are equal.
3. All conditional jumps are long type jumps.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans.
(b)
AC Auxiliary carry flags staus is used only in DAA { DAS
Decimal adjust after additions {subtraction}
All conditional jumps are short jumps z = 1 if data is same when compared.
65.
If a 3-phase slip ring induction motor is fed from the rotor side with stator winding short
circuited, then frequency of currents flowing in the short circuited stator is
(a) slip frequency
(b) supply frequency
(c) frequency corresponding to rotor speed
(d) zero
Ans.
(a)
66.
The reversing of a 3-phase induction motor is achieved by

(a) Y- starter
(b) DOL starter
(c) Auto transformer
(d) Interchanging any two of the supply line
Ans.
(d)

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22
67.
Consider the following interrupts for 8085 microprocessor:

1. INTR
2. RST 5.5
3. RST 6.5
4. RST 7.5
5. TRAP
If the interrupt is to be vectored to any memory location then which of the above interrupt
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 5 only
(d) 1 only
Ans.
(d)
INTR is non-vectored so no spacific location.
68.
The instruction JNC 16-bit refers to jump to 16-bit address if

(a) Sign flag is set
(b) CY flag is reset
(c) Zero flag is set
(d) Parity flag is reset
Ans.
(b)
JNC 16 bit address
Jump if no carry/ if CY = 0 i.e., reset.
69.
Consider the symbol shown below.

What function does the above symbol represent in a program flow chart?
(a) A process
(b) Decision making
(c) A subroutine
(d) Continuation
Ans.
(c)
Symbol for subroutine.
70.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the instruction CMP A?
(a) Compare accumulator with register A
(b) Compare accumulator with memory
(c) Compare accumulator with register H
(d) This instruction does not exist
Ans.
(a)
CMPA Compare accumulator with itself i.e., register A.
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71.
The instruction RET executes with the following series of machine cycle
(a) Fetch, read, write
(b) Fetch, write, write
(c) Fetch, read, read
(d) Fetch, read
Ans.
(c)
RET Unconditional returns
1 B instruction, 3 machine cycles (Fetch, Read, Read), 10 T-states.
Read operations are from state memory.
72.
Consider the following circuits:

1. Full adder
2. Half adder
3. JK flip-flop
4. Counter
Which of the above circuits are classified as sequential logic circuits?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans.
(b)
Full adder Combinational
Half adder combinational
JKFF Sequential
Counter sequential
73.
When a peripheral is connected to the microprocessor in input/output mode, the data

transfer takes place between
(a) any register and I/O device
(b) memory and I/O device
(c) accumulator and I/O device
(d) HL register and I/O device
Ans.
(c)
In I/O mapped I/O data transfer takes place only between accumulator and I/O device.
74.
While execution of I/O instruction takes place, the 8-bit address of the port is placed
on
(a) lower address bus
(b) higher address bus
(c) data bus
(d) lower as well as higher order address bus
Ans.
(d)
In IN and OUT instructions, as I/O has 8 bit address in last machine cycle address
is placed on A15 A8 (AD7 AD0).

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24
75.
The port C of 8255 can be configured to work in

(a) mode 0, mode 1, mode 2 and BSR
(b) mode 0, mode 1 and mode 2
(c) mode 2 and BSR
(d) BSR mode only
Ans.
(a)
Only port C can be used in BSR mode i.e., bit set reset in mode 0 as only port i/p
or o/p mode 1 and 2 for control signals.
76.

1. Semiconductor memories are organized as linear array of memory locations.
2. To address a memory location out of N memory locations, at least log N bits of
address are required.
3. 8086 can address 1048576 addresses.
4. Memory for an 8086 is set up as two banks to make it possible to read or write
a word will one machine cycle.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans.
(d)
All are true.
In 8086 two banks are used as data bus is 16 bits wide i.e., each bank contains
one byte.
77.
The sticker over the EPROM window protects the chip from
(a) infrared light from sunlight
(b) UV light from fluorescent lights and sunlight
(c) magnetic field
(d) electrostatic field
Ans.
(b)
EPROM Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory.
A crystal window is present on the chip so that data can be erased by exposing chip
to UV light after removing chip out of board.
78.
A 2400/240 V, 200 kVA, single-phase transformer has a core loss of 1.8 kW at rated
voltage. Its equivalent resistance is 1.1%. Then the transfer efficiency at 0.9 power factor
and on full load is
(a) 95.60%
(b) 96.71%
(c) 97.82%
(d) 98.93%

Ans.
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25
(c)
Equivalent resistance = 1.1%
% copper loss = % resistance drop
copper loss = 1.1% of output

= 0.011 (200) = 2.2
=
Output
Output + Losses
200 0.9
200 0.9 + 1.8 + 2.2
= 97.82%
79.
The 8259 A programmable interrupt controller in cascade mode can handle interrupt of
(a) 8 priority levels
(b) 16 priority levels
(c) 32 priority levels
(d) 64 priority levels
Ans.
(d)
In 8259A i.e., pic a maximum of 64 I/O devices can be connected in interrupt mode.
By using nine 8259, 64 I/Os are possible in cascaded mode.
80.
8259 A programmable interrupt controller uses the following initialization commands:

1. ICW1
2. ICW2
3. ICW3
4. ICW4
If 8259 A is to be used in cascaded and fully nested mode, the ICW1 bits D0 and D1
are
(a) 0 and 0
(b) 1 and 0
(c) 0 and 1
(d) 1 and 1
Ans.
(b)
In ICW, bits D1, D0
0 ICW4 not needed
1 ICW4 needed
0 Cascade mode
1 Single mode
So, D0 and D1 should be 1 and 0.
81.
The induced emf in the armature conductor of a D.C. machine is

(a) Sinusoidal
(b) Trapezoidal
(c) Rectangular unidirectional
(d) Triangular
Ans.
(b)
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26
82.
If a carrier of 100% modulated AM is suppressed before transmission, the power saving

is nearly
(a) 50%
(b) 67%
(c) 100%
(d) 125%
Ans.
(b)
For AM; with = 1, 66.6% of AM power distributed to carrier.
83.
An FM signal is represented by v = 12 sin (6 108t + 5 sin 1250t). The carrier frequency

fc and frequency deviation , respectively, are
(a) 191 MHz and 665 Hz
(b) 95.5 MHz and 995 Hz
(c) 191 MHz and 995 Hz
(d) 95.5 MHz and 665 Hz
Ans.
(b)
V = 12 sin (6 108t + 5 sin 1250t)

Standard FM expression is
s(t) = Ac cos (2fct + sin2fmt)
By comparison 2fc = 6 108
fc = 95.5 MHz
= 5; 2fm = 1250
f = fm = 995 Hz
84.
When the modulation frequency is doubled the modulation index is halved and the
modulating index is halved and the modulation voltage remains constant. This happens
when the modulating system is
(a) AM
(b) PM
(c) FM
(d) Delta Modulation
Ans.
(c)
For FM;
Kf Am
fm
For FM; if modulating frequency is doubled then modulation index is halfed.
85.
v = A sin (ct + m sin m t ) is the expression for

(a) Amplitude modulated signal
(b) Frequency modulated signal
(c) Phase modulated signal
(d) Carrier signal used for modulation

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27
Ans.
(b or c)
Given
V = A sin (ct + m sinmt)
Standard FM expression s(t) = Ac sin[ct + 2kf m (t)dt]
Standard PM expression s(t) = Ac sin[ct + kpm (t)]
If m(t) = Am cosm t then given expression is FM.
If m(t) = Am sinm t, then given expression is PM.
86.
The four basic elements in a PLL are loop filter, loop amplifier, VCO and
(a) Up converter
(b) Down converter
(c) Phase detector
(d) Frequency multiplier
Ans.
(c)
87.
In a frequency modulated (FM) system, when the audio frequency is 500 Hz and audio
frequency voltage is 2.4 V, the frequency deviation is 4.8 kHz. If the audio frequency
voltage is now increased to 7.2 V then what is the new value of deviation?
(a) 0.6 kHz
(b) 3.6 kHz
(c) 12.4 kHz
(d) 14.4 kHz
Ans.
(d)
Given:
f = 4.8 kHz = kf Am ; Am = 2.4 V
If message amplitude is 7.2 Volts
i.e.,
Am = 3Am
Now
f = 3 4.8 = 14.4 kHz
88.
Modulation is used to
1. Separate different transmission
2. Reduce the bandwidth requirement
3. Allow the use of practicable antennas
4. Ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long distance
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans.
(b)

89.
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28
Carsons rule is (with symbols having their standard meaning)

(b) B = 2 (D + 1) W
(a) B = 2 DW
(c) B = 2(D + 1)W
(d) B =
2 DW
Ans.
(b)
Bandwidth of FM is ( + 1) 2fm
90.
Consider the following features of FM vis-a-vis AM:

1. Better noise immunity is provided
2. Lower bandwidth is required
3. The transmitted power is better utilized
4. Less modulating power is required
Which of the above are advantages of FM over AM?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans.
(b)
Bandwidth requirement of FM higher than AM.
91.
The total characteristic of a stabilizer is

(a) constant output voltage with low internal resistance.
(b) constant output current with low internal resistance.
(c) constant output voltage with high internal resistance.
(d) constant internal resistance with variable output voltage.
Ans.
(a)
92.
For a d.c. shunt generator to self excite, the conditions to be satisfied are that there
must be some residual magnetism in the field magnet, it must be in the proper direction
and the shunt field resistance must be
(a) Above the critical field resistance (b) Equal to the critical field resistance
(c) Less than the armature resistance (d) Less than the critical field resistance
Ans.
(d)
93.
In an IGBT cell the collector and emitter are respectively

(b) n+ and p+
(a) n and p
(c) p and n
(d) p+ and n+
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Ans.
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29
(d)
Collector
p+ substract
n+ -Buffer layer
n epi
p+
p
p
n+
Gate
n+
Gate
94.
The main units in a pulse code modulator are:

1. Sampler
2. Quntiser
3. Encoder
4. Comparator
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans.
(c)
Main units of PCM modulator are sampler, quantizer and encoder.
95.
di
The reverse recovery time of a diode is 3 s and rate of fall is 30 A/s. The stored
dt
charge of the diode is

(a) 45 C
(c) 270 C
Ans.
(b) 135 C
(d) 540 C
(b)
QRR =
=
1 di 2
t rr
2 dt
2
1
30A / s (3 106 ) = 135 c
2

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30
96.
NAND and NOR gates are called Universal gates primary because
(a) they are available everywhere.
(b) they are widely used in I.C. packages.
(c) they can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOR gate.
(d) they can be manufactured easily.
Ans.
(c)
A logic gate is known as universal logic gate if all other logic gates can be obtained/
implemented from it.
97.
If a medium transmission line is represented by nominal T, the value of B of ABCD

constant is
(a) Z
1
(b) Y 1 + YZ
1
(c) Z 1 + YZ
1
(d) 1 + YZ
Ans.
(c)
98.
To turn-off a GTO what is required at the gate?

(a) A high amplitude (but low energy) negative current
(b) A low amplitude negative voltage
(c) A high amplitude negative voltage
(d) A low amplitude negative voltage
Ans.
(a)
A negative gate current of 20 to 25% of Anode current is required to turn off GTO.
99.
A chopper circuit is operating on TRC control mode at a frequency of 2 kHz of a 230 V

dc supply. For output voltage of 170 V, the conduction and blocking periods of a thyristor
in each cycle are respectively
(a) 0.386 ms and 0.114 ms
(b) 0.369 ms and 0.131 ms
(c) 0.390 ms and 0.110 ms
(d) 0.131 ms and 0.369 ms
Ans.
(b)
f
VS
V0
V0
=
=
=
=
2 kHz
230V
170 V
VS
V0 170
= V = 230 = 0.739
S
Crack in1 Attempt

st
ESE, GATE & PSUs
Mr. B.Singh (Ex. IES)

CMD, MADE EASY Group
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31
TON
= 0.739
T
0.739
0.739
= 3.69 104
=
3
f
2 10
= 0.369 ms
= T TON = 0.131 ms
TON =
TOFF
100.
A switched-capacitor network is/are

1. Time variant sample data network
2. Non linear network
3. Linear time invariant network
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2
Ans.
(d)
101.
A transformer may have negative voltage regulation if the load power factor (p.f.) is
(a) Leading for some values of p.f.
(b) Unity p.f.
(c) Lagging but not zero p.f.
(d) Only zero p.f. lag
Ans.
(a)
102.
Current source inverters are suitable for supply power to

(a) R.I. loads
(b) Inductive loads
(c) All loads
(d) Capacitive loads
Ans.
(d)
103.
The main application of multilevel inverter is in

(a) Reactive power compensation
(b) D.C. motor drive
(c) Synchronous Buck-converter
(d) Voltage regulator
Ans.
(a)
104.
In a-phase inverter with 180 conduction mode the number of switches that is on at any
instant of time is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans.
(c)

105.
Ans.
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32
In the sinusoidal pulse-width modulation scheme, if the zero of the triangular wave
coincides with the zero of the reference sinusoidal, then the number of pulse per half
cycle is
(a)
fc
2f
(b)
fc
+1
2f
(c)
2fc
f
(d)
fc
1
2f
(d)
Directions:
Each of the next Fifteen (15) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the
Statement (I) and the other as Statement (II). Examine these two statements carefully
and select the answers to these item using the codes given below.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is not
the correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.
106.
Statement ((I)) : The armature structures of all rotating machines are laminated in order
to reduce the eddy-current losses.
Statement ((II)) : The armature windings of both the D.C. and A.C. machines have to
deal with alternating currents only.
Ans.
(a)
107.
Statement ((I)) : The electro-mechanical energy conversion principles are developed

with the field energy, being magnetic or electric, as the basis.
Statement ((II)) : This approach can deal with only the steady-state analysis of the
electro-mechanical energy conversion, but not the transient-state analysis.
Ans.
(d)
108.
Statement ((I)) : A Direct-On-Line (DOL) starter for starting dc motor is used for reasons
of economy:
Statement ((II)) : DOL starter limits the starting current to a safe limit.
Ans.
(c)
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109.
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33
Statement ((I)) : For constant applied voltage to its terminals, the effect of armature
resistance in the operation of a dc shunt motor, is to reduce the
operating speed, and cause a drooping speed Vs. load characteristic.
Statement ((II)) : The effect of armature demagnetization with the decreasing load is to
reduce the drop in operating speed, and can be designed to give a
rising speed Vs. load characteristic which may result in a possible
runaway
Ans.
(c)
110.
Statement ((I)) : Synchronous motor is a constant speed motor.

Statement ((II)) : Synchronous motor is not a self-starting motor.
Ans.
(b)
111.
Statement ((I)) : A synchronous motor can be used as an active device to improve the
power factor of a power system.
Statement ((II)) : By over-excitation the synchronous machine would operate a capacitor.
Ans.
(a)
112.
Statement ((I)) : Stability of a power system can be improved by using by using parallel
transmission lines.
Statement ((II)) : Two transmission lines in parallel with increase the impedance between
sending end and receiving end compared to single line.
Ans.
(c)
113.
Statement ((I)) : When all inputs of a NAND gate are shorted to get a single input, single
output gate, it becomes an inverter.
Statement ((II)) : When all inputs of a NAND gate are at logic 0 level the output is at
logic 0 level.
Ans.
(c)
When all inputs of a NAND gate are at logic 0 level, the output is at logic 1 level.

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34
Statement ((I)) : XOR gate is not a universal gate.

Statement ((II)) : It is not possible to realize all Boolean function using XOR gates only.
Ans.
(a)
A logic gate is known as universal logic gate if all other logic gates can be obtained/
implemented from it.
115.
Statement ((I)) : READY is an output signal used to synchronize slower peripheral.

Statement ((II)) : HOLD is activated by an external signal.
Ans.
(d)
I. False as READY is i/p signal to P.
II. Hold is activated by DMA controller.
True.
116.
Statement ((I)) : The direct memory access or DMA mode of data transfer is the fastest
among all the modes of data transfer.
Statement ((II)) : In DMA mode the device directly transfers data to/from memory without
interference from CPU.
Ans.
(a)
I and II both are true and II is correct explanation as in DMA data takes place between
P memory at faster rate without intervention of CPU/P.
117.
Statement ((I)) : Modulation index of AM is always kept less than 1.

Statement ((II)) : Modulating index for FM may be greater than 1.
Ans.
(b)
Modulation index of AM is always kept less than 1 to make demodulation simple.
Modulation index of FM may be greater than 1.
118.
Statement ((I)) : The main function of a freewheeling diode in Rectifier circuits is to

prevent the reversal of load voltage.
Statement ((II)) : The freewheeling diode is never connected across the load.
Ans.
(c)

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35
Statement ((I)) : In sinusoidal pulse width modulation, width of each pulse is varied in
proportion to amplitude of a sine-wave evaluated at the centre of the
same pulse.
Statement ((II)) : The rms value of output voltage can be varied by varying the modulation
index.
Ans.
(a)
120.
Statement ((I)) : Equal-area criterion can be used to determine the stability of single
machine infinite bus system.
Statement ((II)) : An infinite bus system has infinite inertia and constant voltage.
Ans.
(b)

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ESE - 2016

Expected Screening cut off out of 600 Marks (ESE 2016)

ESE-2016 : Electrical Engg.

Paper-II (Electrical Engineering)

Consider the following losses for short circuit test on a transformer:

A 2000 V/200 V, 20 kVA, two winding single-phase transformer is reconnected as a step

For current distribution....

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ESE-2016 : Electrical Engg.

Options were given

(a) 180 kVA

%V.R. = [(0.01 0.8) + (0.05 0.6)] 100

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Indias Best Institute for IES, GATE & PSUs

Paper-I : General Studies & Engineering Aptitude

4. General Principles of Design, Drawing, Importance of Safety : Engineering Drawing,

ESE-2016 : Electrical Engg.

Consider the following advantages of a distributed winding in a rotating machine:

n = slots / pole / phase

Consider the following factors for a dc machine:

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ESE-2016 : Electrical Engg.

A dc motor develops an electromagnetic torque of 150 N-m in a certain operation

A dc machine having a symmetrical closed-circuit armature winding and a sinusoidal

A 3-phase, induction motor operating at a slip of 5% develop 20 kW rotor power output.

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ESE-2016 : Electrical Engg.

Rotor power input =

rotor power input / 1 s

Increasing the air gap of a squirrel-cage induction motor would result in

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Indias Best Institute for IES, GATE & PSUs

Old students who have undergone classroom course from any

Comprehensive problem solving sessions

Course Duration : Approximately 25 weeks (400 teaching hours)

Syllabus Covered : Technical Syllabus of GATE-2017 & ESE-2017

Sat & Sun : 8:00 a.m to 5:00 p.m

Sat & Sun : 8:00 a.m to 5:00 p.m

2nd July, 2016

Lado Sarai (Delhi)

8:00 a.m to 11:30 a.m (Mon-Fri)

Rank Improvement Batch

Those students who were enrolled in

Those students who

Fee is inclusive of classes, study material and taxes

Rank Improvement Batches will be conducted at Delhi Centre only.

ESE-2016 : Electrical Engg.

What is the material of slip rings in an induction machine?

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ESE-2016 : Electrical Engg.

Rotor power input

In a single-phase capacitor start induction motor, the direction of rotation

The load curve is useful in deciding.

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ESE-2016 : Electrical Engg.

Corporate Office: 44-A/1, Kalu Sarai, New Delhi-16