Substance, Attribute, and Mode in Spinoza
Substance, Attribute, and Mode in Spinoza
Substance, Attribute, and Mode in Spinoza
Abstract
Some of Spinozas most well-known doctrines concern what kinds of beings there
are and how they are related to each other. For example, he claims that: (1) there
is only one substance; (2) this substance has infinitely many attributes; (3) this
substance is God or nature; (4) each of these attributes express the divine essence;
and (5) all else is a mode of the one substance. These claims have so astonished
many of his readers that some of them have surely concluded that they must not
know what Spinoza means by substance, attribute, and mode. In this article
I shall try to explain how Spinoza understands the basic ontological categories
denoted by these expressions.
1. Introduction
Some of Spinozas most well-known doctrines concern what kinds of beings
there are and how they are related to each other. For example, he claims
that: (1) there is only one substance; (2) this substance has infinitely many
attributes; (3) this substance is God or nature; (4) each of these attributes
express the divine essence; and (5) all else is a mode of the one substance.
These claims have so astonished many of his readers that some of them have
surely concluded that they must not know what Spinoza means by
substance, attribute, and mode. In this article I shall try to explain
how Spinoza understands the basic ontological categories denoted by these
expressions.
2. Substance
The category substance has been called upon to play a wide variety of
theoretical roles. For example, substances are said to be (a) the ultimate
subjects of predication; (b) independent beings; (c) the things which persist
through changes; (d) the explanatory grounds of things; (e) true unities; (f )
the essences of things; and (g) the answer to the question, What is Being?
Although Spinozistic substances arguably play many of these roles, Spinoza
does not define substance in terms of any of them. Instead, he defines it as
that which is in itself and conceived through itself (1d3).1 That is, he
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Here Spinoza treats the concept of the one does not involve the concept
of the other as a paraphrase ofone cannot be understood through the
other.Thus x is conceived through y just in case x is understood through
y. If we say that explanation is what generates understanding, then we can
also say that x is conceived through y just in case x is explained by y.
Both conception and inherence are also related to causation for Spinoza.3
First of all, Spinoza believes that if x is caused by y, then x is conceived
through y.This can be seen from his argument for the claim that, because
substances are conceived through themselves, they must be self-caused as
well. His reason for holding this is stated in 1a4: Cognition of an effect
involves and depends on cognition of its cause. (This is, on the face of it,
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an implausible claim. Intuitively, it would seem that one can think about
many things without having any concept of their causes. For example, a
doctor might think about a symptom without having any concept of it
cause.A full account of Spinozas understanding of 1a4 would reveal that
it can accommodate many of the apparent counterexamples to it,4 but such
an account would, unfortunately, fall outside the scope of this article. Suffice
it to note that Spinoza lays it down as an axiom.) That is, our ability to think
about a thing depends upon our ability to think about its causes. But if a
substance had an external cause, then, by 1a4, in order to think about that
substance, we would also have to think about its cause, or, what is the same
thing for Spinoza, we would have to possess the concept of its cause. Spinoza
here seems to think that if we cant think about something without possessing
the concept of its external cause, then its not conceived through itself.And
so, if a substance had an external cause, then it would not be conceived
through itself. But substances are, by definition, conceived through
themselves. So, they must be self-caused.
2.1. GOD
We have seen why Spinoza believes that at least one substance, God,
necessarily exists. But he also believes that no other substance exists. (1p14)
His reason for believing this is his commitment to the claim that no two
substances can share an attribute. (1p5. See section 2 above for a brief
discussion of this commitment.) Since God is an absolutely infinite substance
(1d6), he is not limited in any way. (1d2) If there was an attribute that he
didnt possess, he would be ipso facto limited. So, God possesses all attributes.
If there was a substance other than God, it would have to share an attribute
with God. But no two substances can share an attribute. So, there cannot
be any substance other than God.
3. Attribute
In 1d4, Spinoza defines an attribute as that which the intellect perceives as
constituting the essence of a substance.There are many serious interpretative
issues surrounding Spinozas understanding of the attributes. In this article
I shall focus on the question of what if anything distinguishes an attribute
from a substance.
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position than its supporters. First, the text itself suggests this reading. Here
is the text of 1d3 in full:
By substance, I understand what is in itself and is conceived through itself, that
is, that whose concept does not require the concept of another thing, from which
it must be formed. (my emphasis)
The expression another thing (alterius rei) creates the implicature that 1d3
pertains only to things or objects ( just as the statement John lives in New
York and I have another friend who lives in DC creates the implicature
that John is a friend). Since attributes are standardly not conceived of as
things or objects, they do not fall under the definition of substance. So,
while the interpretation of 1p14 proposed by Loeb is not one that Spinoza
could have reasonably hoped to communicate, the proposed interpretation
of 1d3 is arguably forced upon us by the text.
Second, the substantival interpretation requires a more radical revision in
our understanding of Spinoza.The proponent of that interpretation must
claim that Spinoza is not really a substance monist and that his apparent
commitment to monism is the result of leaving implicit a qualification that
is not obviously suggested by any explicit textual material in 1p14.The
opponent of the substantival interpretation need only claim that 1d3 is
restricted to things, which is already strongly suggested by the text.Thus,
the opponent of the substantival interpretation has a more conservative
response to the textual evidence.10
4. Mode
Spinoza introduces the term mode in 1d5:
By mode I understand the states of a substance, or that which is in another
through which it is also conceived.
And in 1p25c, Spinoza tells us that the finite particular things that populate
our world are modes.Thus, it would appear, shoes, ships, cabbages, and
kings are all modes.These two claims that modes are states of a substance
and that concrete particulars are modes are together very puzzling. How
can shoes and ships be states of a substance? Common sense tells us that they
are objects, not states. Such puzzlement is only deepened when we consider
the Cartesian heritage of the term mode.
Spinozas metaphysical vocabulary is largely borrowed from Descartes.
Indeed, substance, attribute, and mode are Descartes names for what
he takes to be the fundamental ontological categories. For Descartes,
substance denotes ultimate subjects of predication, which are, for him,
independent beings. Attribute denotes the unchanging features of a
substance, which constitute its essence. Mode denotes the changing and
accidental properties of a substance.This meaning is closely related to the
meaning of the word in ordinary Latin which can be translated by way
or manner.
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there is no reason why the traditional interpretation and the Van Cleve
interpretation cannot be both right. Modes are defined by Spinoza things
which inhere in and are conceived through substance. It is very natural to
suppose that both entities like dents and properties inhere in and are
conceived through substance.The category of mode would then comprise
both properties and objects-exemplifying-properties.
What then can we say in response to Curleys observation that modes of
extension are the objects of affirmations and so must have propositional
structure as facts do?We can take on board Curleys claim that modes are
facts if we allow that facts supervene on modes as they are depicted by the
Van Cleve interpretation. Once we have substance and all of its modes, all
the facts are fully determined. For example, the fact that the hand is closed
supervenes on the fist.The fact that the fist is pounding the table supervenes
on the mode which results when fists exemplify table-pounding-ness. Since
the facts are nothing over and above the modes, ideas represent and affirm
facts in virtue of representing modes.
Notes
1
All citations from Spinoza are from Spinoza Opera, ed. C. Gebhardt, 4 vols. (Heidelberg: Carl
Winter, 1925) (G hereafter). Most English translations are from Edwin Curley ed. and trans., The
Complete Works of Spinoza, vol. 1 (Princeton: Princeton University Press, 1985), with occasional
modifications. In citations from the Ethics, I use the following abbreviations: the first numeral
refers to parts; p means proposition; c means corollary; s means scholium; e.g. 4p37s means
Ethics, part 4, proposition 37, scholium.
2 G. W. Leibniz, Die philosophischen Schriften von Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz, ed. C. I. Gerhardt. 7
vols. Berlin, 187590; repr. Hildesheim: Georg Olms, 1978, vol. 1, p. 139.
3 My discussion here is indebted to Garretts Conatus, and Curleys Spinozas Metaphysics.
4 See Della Rocca, Representation (5760) and Garrett, Imagination and Perception, for helpful
discussions of how Spinoza can accommodate some of the apparent counterexamples.
5 Spinoza explicitly commits himself to metaphysical rationalism in 1p11d2, where he writes,For
each thing there must be assigned a cause or reason both for its existence and its nonexistence.
6 Spinoza gives four arguments for the existence of God. Here I shall focus exclusively on the
argument given in 1p11d2.
7 We might wonder, as Leibniz did, why there couldnt be two substances that shared an attribute
but were distinguished by other attributes. For example, why couldnt there be a substance a that
was F and G and substance b that was G and H.They would be distinguished by as possession of
F and non-possession of H and bs possession of H and non-possession of F.The full response to
this objection requires more exposition than would be possible here. But Spinozas response can
be suggested by noting that Spinoza believes that each attribute must be sufficient for distinguishing
the substance to which it belongs from every other substance (this follows from 1d4 and 2d2).
In the scenario described above, G is not sufficient for conceiving of either substance as distinct
from the other. For this reason, Spinoza would deny that the scenario describes a possible situation.
See Della Rocca,Spinozas Substance Monism (1722), for an illuminating discussion of this issue.
8 This is not clearly so. For example, recall the famous problem of the coherence of omnipotence:
can God create an object so heavy that even he cannot lift it? I believe however that Spinoza has
interesting grounds for believing that the nature of an absolutely perfect being is coherent. See
Della Rocca,Spinozas Substance Monism (2233), and my Spinozas Arguments, section 6.
9 See my Spinozas Arguments for a fuller treatment of this argument as well as a discussion of
Spinozas other arguments for the existence of God. See also Garrett, Spinozas Ontological
Arguments, 198223 for a related but interestingly different interpretation of those arguments.
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