(DD13 14) Bio Physio
(DD13 14) Bio Physio
(DD13 14) Bio Physio
Sugars that contain aldehyde groups that are _ _ _ to carboxylic acids are
classified as
sugars.
oxidized, non-reducing
oxidized, reducing
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reduced, non-reducing
reducing, oxidizing
BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
oxidized, reducing
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Because the reducing groups of both glucose and fructose are involved in the
glycosidic bond, sucrose is not a reducing sugar. In other words, sucrose contains
no free anomeric carbon.
Monosaccharides combine into larger molecules by forming glycosidic bonds.
These bonds form when the hydroxyl group on the anomeric carbon of a monosaccharide reacts with an -OH or -NH group of another compound (typi ca lly an alcohol, purine, pyrimidine, or in this case another sugar).
Glucosuria, the presence of glucose in the urine, can be caused by low
insulin levels, high blood sugar levels, impaired tubular reabsorption, or a high
glomerular filtration rate. Note: The threshold for glucosuria is 160-180mg/dl.
Glucose
H
I
C= O
Open Chain
H - C - OH
I
HO - C - H
I
H - C - OH
I
H - C - OH
I
H - C - OH
I
l
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Anomeric Carbon
H
OH
a - D-Glucopyranose
Cyclic form
H
OH
Cl-0 -Giucose
!3-D-Glucose
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Sucrose
Glycosidic bond
O
HO
OH
CH 20H
lA-1
carbohydrates
Which of the following glycosaminoglycans can be found functioning in synovial fluid?
hepari n
keratan sulfate
hyaluronate
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dermatan sulfate
chondroitin sulfate
heparan sulfate
BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
hyaluronate
Glycoproteins are conjugated proteins, w hich contain one or more saccha rides lacking a serial repeat unit
and are bound covalently to a protein. There i s a class of complex macromol ecules t hat may contain 95%
or more of carbohydrates, and it resembles polysaccharides more than it resembl es proteins. To d istinguish
them from other glycoproteins, they are called proteoglycans. Their ca rbohydrate chains are called glycosaminoglycans. Proteoglycans consist of many d ifferent g lycosaminoglycan chains linked coval ently to
a protein core. Six d istinct classes are recognized: chondroitin sulfate, dermatan sulfate, keratan sulfate, heparan sulfate, heparin, and hyaluronate.
Certain features are common to the d ifferent classes of g lycosaminoglycans (GAGs). The long unbranched
heteropolysaccha ride chains are made up l argely of d isaccha ride repeating units, consi sting of a hexosamine and a uronic acid. Common consti tuents of GAGs are sul fate groups, linked by ester bonds to certain monosaccharides or by amide bonds to the amino g roup of g lucosamine. Only hyaluronate is not
sulfated and is not covalently attached to protein. The carboxyl s of uronic acids and the sulfate groups contribute to the highly charged nature of GAGs.Their el ectrical charge and their macromolecular structure are
important in the their rol e as lubricants and support elements in connective t issue. GAGs are predominantly components of the extracellular matrices and cell surfaces, and they participate in cell adhesion and
signaling.
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(
uf<. \{.'!.
LouUulion
Hyaluronalc
Cunmuntll
Hcpamn sulfate
Heparin
Dmatan sulfate
Kttntan suli3tc:
carbohydrates
Which intestinal enzyme breaks down the 0 -glycosidic bond between
glucose and fructose?
maltase
lactase
sucrase
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BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
sucrase
A disaccharide is a carbohydrate cons isting of two sugar units in a covalent bond.
Examples include:
Maltose ("beer sugar") - cons ists of two glucose molecules j oined together by a
reaction (condensation reacti on) in which a molecule of water is removed. Th is reaction
produces a bond between the two glucose molecules called a glycosidic bond. The
intestinal enzyme maltase p romotes the conversion of maltose into glucose.
Lactose ("milk sugar") - consists of glucose and galactose. The intestinal enzyme
lacta se p romotes the conversion of lactose into glucose and galactose.
Sucrose ("table sugar")- consists of glucose and fructose. The intestinal enzyme sucrase (invertase) promotes the conversion of sucrose into glucose and fructose.
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carbohydrates
Glucose, fructose, and galactose are classified as:
monosaccharides
disaccharides
oligosaccharides
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polysaccharides
BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
monosaccharides
The simplest of the carbohydrates are the monosaccharides, which can be classified according
to the number of carbon atoms they contain. Those with three carbons are called trioses (for example, glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone); four, tetroses (for example, erythrose); five, pentoses (for example, ribose); and six, hexoses (for example, glucose).
Monosaccharides with an aldehyde as t heir most oxidized functional group are called aldoses
(for example, glyceraldehyde); those with a keto group as t heir most oxidized function al group
are called ketoses (for example, d ihydroxyacetone). Mon osaccharides wit h five, six, seven, or
eight carbon atoms occur as cyclic rings in nature (e.g., ribose, glucose, fructose, galactose).
Remember: The naming of configuration s of simple sugars (monosaccharides) and amino
acids is based on t he absolute configuration of glyceraldehyde. The sym bols L and D refer to
the absolute configuration of the four constituents around a specific chiral carbon
(asymmetric carbon) in monosaccharides and amino acids (see 0-Giyceraldehyde diagram
below). In a Fisher proj ection, t he 0 form has the hydroxyl group on the right; t he L form has
the hydroxyl group on the left. Sugars of the D form, which are related to 0-glyceraldehyde,
are the most common in nature.
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CHO
I
H-C-OH
I
CH 20 H
0 -Giyceraldehyde
CHO
I
H0-0 - H
I
CH20H
L-Giyceraldehyde
carbohydrates
Which of the following polysaccharides is hydrolyzed by glucan transferase?
starch
glycogen
cellu lose
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glycosaminoglycans
BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
glycogen
Polysaccharides are carbohydrates that are p olymers of monosaccharides.
Polysaccharides are made up of many sugar units covalently bonded by condensation
reactions (wh ich results in 0 -glycos idic b onds). Since polysaccharides have large
molecules, they are insoluble. Their main functions in living organisms are to act as
storage molecu les (starch and glycogen) or as st ructu ral materials (cel lulose).
Homopolysaccharides (starch, glycogen, dextrans, and glucans) contain only a single
monosaccharide species. Heteropolysaccharides (g lycosaminoglycans) contain a number
of different monosaccharide species. The two most important storage polysaccharides are
starch and glycogen.
Starch is a large, insoluble carbohydrate that forms an important energy store in
plant s. Starch is a polymer and consists of a large number of a-glucose molecul es
j oined together by condensation reactions. It consists of two main components
that may be present in different prop orti ons. Amylose (wh ich is unbranched)
forms long straight chains wh ile amylopectin has highly branched chains with a
a-1,6 linkages. Note: Both amylose and amylopectin are rapidly hydrolyzed by t he
enzyme alpha amylase, wh ich is secreted by the parotid glands and t he pancreas.
Glycogen is a branched polymer of between 10,000 and 40,000 glucose residues
held together by a-1,4 glycosid ic bonds. Approxim ately one in 12 glucose residues
serves as a branch point forming an a-1,6 glycosidic bond with another glucose residue.
It is especially abundant in the liver. Note: The glucose unit s of glycogen can enter the
glycolytic pathway after removal by t he action of glycogen phosphorylase. Note: The
cleavage of glycogen b eyond a branching point requi res the activity of
glucantransferase and amylo-alpha-1 , 6-glucosidase.
Cellulose is the most common organ ic co mpound on earth. Cellul ose is not digestible by
h umans and is often referred to as "dietary fiber" or "roughage:' acting as a hydrophilic
bulking agent for feces. Cellulose is still a glucose polymer chain, but linked differently w ith
81-41inkages. The term glycan refers to a polysaccharide or an oligosaccharide.
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carbohydrates
The ground substance ofthe extracellular matrix is made up of:
type II collagen
type Ill collagen
p roteoglycan molecules
fibri lli n
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BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
proteoglycan molecules
Proteoglycans consist of a co re protein w ith glycosaminog lycans (GAGs) attached in
a brush-like fashion and are 95% polysacchari de and 5% protein. Major functions
include: lubricants, extracellular matrix, and being a molecular "sieve: Note: Six
distinct classes are recognized: chondroitin sulfate, dermatan sulfate, keratan sulfate,
heparan sulfate, heparin, and hyaluronate.
Glycoproteins are conjugated proteins, which conta in one or more saccharides lacking a seri al repeat unit and are bound covalently to a protein. The carbohydrate portion
of most g lycoproteins d iffers from that of p roteoglycans in that it is shorter and
branched. They serve as enzymes, hormones, antibodies, and structural proteins. Glycoproteins are often components of cel l membranes and are involved in cell-to-cell interactions.
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Glycolipids (or sph ingolipids) are found in the cel l membrane with the
carbohyd rate portion extending into the extracellular space. They are derived from
the lipid ceramide, and th is class of com pounds includes cereb rosides,
globosides, and gangliosides.
Molecule
Components
C haracteristic
Role
Proteoglycan
Protein + GAGs
Glycoprotein
Protein + Carbohydrate
Glycolipids
l ipid + Carbohydrate
NIA
carbohydrates
The most abundant glycosaminoglycan in the body is:
keratan sulfate
dermatan sulfate
chond roitin sulfate
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heparan sulfate
BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
chondroitin sulfate
Chondroitin su lfate is a major constituent in various connective tissues, especially in the
ground substance of blood vessels, bone, and cartilage. In cartilage chondroitin sulfate,
provides structure by holding water and nutrients, and allowing other molecul es to move
through cartilage - an important property, as there is no blood supply to cartilage. Chondroitin may work by acting as a buil ding b lock for proteog lycan molecules, and may also
have anti-inflammatory pro perties. Important: In our joints, chondroitin sulfate contributes to strength, fl exibility, and shock absorption.
Remember: The extracellular space in animal t issues is filled with a gel-like material,
the extracellular matrix, also called ground substance, which holds the cells of a t issue
together and provides a porous pathway for the diffusion of nutrients and oxygen to
individual cell s. The ground substance is composed of an interlocking meshwork of
heteropolysaccharides (glycosaminog lycans), most covalently linked to protein forming
proteog lycans, and fibrous proteins.
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carbohydrates
For each Jetter, choose the most appropriate answer to fill in the blank.
Dextrans are (A) _ _ of (B) _ _ produced extracellularly by bacteria and
yeast. The enzyme used to produce dextrans is (C) __, and the substrate
is (D) _ _ . A side product of dextran production is (E) _ _ , which is
formed into (F) _ _ and stored intracellularly as reserve nutrients.
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BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
(A) polysaccharides
(B) glucose
(C) glucosyl transferase (dextran sucrase)
(D) sucro se
(E) f ructose
(F ) levans (fructan s)
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BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
The retina is the innermost layer (nervous tissue) of the eye. The retina receives visual
stimuli and sends the information to the brain. Photoreceptor cells ca lled rods and
cones compose the visual receptors (for the optic nerve) of the retina. Rods and
cones contain photopigments. There are four different photopigments, each
consisting of a protein called an opsin to which a chromophore molecule cal led
retinal is attached. Opsins differ from pigment to pigment and confer specific lightsensitive properties on each photopigment. Note: Retinal is produced from vitam in
A and is added to an opsin to synthesize rhodopsin.
Rods contain a photopigment called rhodopsin. Their response indicates d ifferent
degrees of brightness, but the entire rod system is characterized by a relative lack of
color discrimination. Rods are numerous in the periphery of the retina.
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Cones are primarily responsible for color vision. There are three d ifferent types of
cones (red, g reen, and blue). Each one contains a different photopigment and is
selectively sensitive to a particula r wavelength of light. They are concentrated in the
center of the retina, especially in the fovea .
lens
retina
cornea
iris
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iris
Ba sic anatomy of the eye:
Cornea- The crystal clear dome that covers the front of the eye. The maj ority (70%) of
the bending (refracting) of li ght rays is accompli shed by the cornea. The shape of the
cornea does not change (with t he except ion of small changes that occur over a lifetime). Remember: The majority of the focusing is done by the cornea, not the lens.
Lens- The crystalline lens finishes the focusing of light. The lens helps to "fine -tune"
vision, and it is able to change shape to allow focus on near objects. When the lens
becomes cloudy, it is called a cataract.
Pupil -This is the opening in the middle of the iris.
Iris -This is t he part of the eye that gives it co lor (i.e., b lue, green, brown). The iris
functions like a shutter in the camera analogy, allowing more or less light into the eye.
Retina - Th is is a th in layer of nerve t issue that senses light. Specialized cell s called
rods and cones convert light energy into nerve signals t hat travel through t he opt ic
nerve to the brain. The retina is analogous to the film in a camera.
Fovea- This is the center of t he retina that receives the focus of the object of regard.
Nerve cells are more densely packed in this area, especially cones, so im ages that are
focused on the fovea can be seen in greater detail.
Opt ic nerve- This is the nerve that runs f rom the eyeball to t he brain. The opti c nerve
carries information from the ret ina to the brain for interpretation.
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Note: The eyeball itself is divided into two segments, each fill ed w ith fluid. The anterior
segment has two chambers (anterior and posterior), which are both fill ed with aqueous
humor (watery fluid), and the posterior segment is fi lled w ith vitreou s humor (thick,
gelatinous material).
Anterior chamber
lridocorneal angle
I"<-- - Canal of Schlemm
chamber
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Vitreous body
Sclera
Lamina cribrosa
Central retinal artery
1().1
first.
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tympanic membrane
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t ympanic m embrane
Sound waves strike the tympanic membrane and cause it to vibrate. This causes the
membrane of the oval window to vibrate, which causes the perilymph in the bony
labyrinth of the cochlea and endolymph in the membranous labyrinth of the cochlea to
move. This movement of the endolymph causes the ba silar membrane to vibrate, which,
in turn, stimulates hair cells on the organ of Corti to transmit nerve impulses along the
cran ial nerve. Eventually, nerve impu lses reach the auditory cortex and are interpreted as
sound.
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Middle ear (tympanic cavity)- an air-fi lled cavity in the temporal bone
Auditory tube - equalizes pressure
Ossicles (mall eus, incus, stapes) - link together to transmit sounds to the oval win dow and create a 22 fold amplification of sound fro m the tympanic membrane to the
oval w indow
Inner ear - formed by a membranous labyrinth w ith in a bony labyrinth
Vestibule (saccule and utricle) - associated with sense of balance
Semicircular canals - concerned w ith equilibrium
Cochlea (contains two membranes, vestibular and basilar) - portion of inner ear
responsible for hearing. The spiral organ (organ of Corti) conta ins the receptors
(called hair cells) for hearing. The cochlea is the basic functional unit of hearing
because this portion t ransforms flui d vibrations from sound waves (mechanical
energy) into a nerve impulse (electrical energy).
Outer
Middle
Inner
Semicircular canal
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Vestibular
nerve
Cochlear
nerve
auditory canf l
Tympanic
membrane
Tympanic
cavity
lH
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the patient will have trouble seeing without bri ght light
the patient will experience blurry vision
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Farsightedness, or hyperopia, occurs when light entering the eye focuses behind
the retina, instead of d irectly on it. This is caused by a cornea that is flatter, or an eye
that is shorter, than a normal eye. Farsighted people usually have trouble seeing up
close but may also have difficulty seeing far away as well. To treat hyperopia, convex
lenses are used.
Astigmatism occurs when the cu rvature of the lens is not uniform and is corrected
with cylindric lenses.
Presbyopia is the inability of the eye to focus sharply on nearby objects, resulting
from the loss of elasticity of the lens with advancing age. Presbyopia is corrected w ith
bifocals.
blood
The normal range for hemoglobin is different between the sexes and is
approximately _ _ _ for men and _ _ _ for women.
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Important:
The Hgb value depends on the number of RBCs and the amount of Hgb in each RBC
A low Hgb value is found in anemia, in hyperthyroidism and in cirrhosis of the liver
A high Hgb value is found in polycythemia, in COPD, and in congestive heart failure
1. Hemoglobin carries oxygen to tissue from the lungs and carbon dioxide away from
tissue to the lungs. (Remember: the Bohr effect refers to a mechanism whereby acid in
the tissues assists in 0 2 unloading from Hb, to promote 0 2 delivery to the tissues; the Bohr
effect is very strong in the fetus.
2. Blood leaving the lungs is 98% saturated with oxygen. However, the hemoglobin of
normal venous blood returning to the lungs is only 75% saturated.
3.Carbaminohemoglobin is hemoglobin that is carrying carbon dioxide from the tissues
to t he lungs. Whereas about 97% of the oxygen is tra nsported by hemoglobin, only about
30% of the carbon dioxide iscarried by hemoglobin; the rest is transported as bicarbonat e
or as carbon dioxide.
blood
Although albumin accounts for only 60% of the total plasma protein, it provides 80% of the colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma.
The colloid osmotic pressure is necessary to prevent edema.
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The colloid osmotic pressure is necessary to prevent edema. In the capillaries, the hydrostatic pressure of the blood forces fluid from the blood into the interstitial spaces. The colloid osmotic pressure
of the albumin and other plasma proteins is necessary to draw this fluid back into the capillary. Fluid
balance across the endothelium is maintained as long as these two forces cancel each other.
Usually, edema develops when the albumin concentration drops below 2.0 g/dl. Edema can also be
ca used by an increase in capil lary permeability, venous obstruction, impaired lymph flow, and congestive heart failure with an increased venous pressure.
l .The kidney is the organ that is chiefly responsible for the regulation of the osmotic
pressure in the body fluids by regulating the reabsorption of water in response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH or vasopressin).
2. As a binding protei n, albumin is extremely versatile, with binding sites for fatty
acids, thyroxine, cortisol, heme, bilirubi n, and many other metabolites. With the
exception of albumin, almost all plasma proteins are glycoproteins.
blood
The principal hormone for serum calcium regulation is:
ca lcitonin
parathyroid hormone
thyroid hormone
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vasopressin/antidiuretic hormone
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parathyroid hormone
The human body contains 1-1.5 kg Ca', most of which (about 98%} is located in the mineral
substance of the bone. Calcium levels are regulated primarily by parathyroid hormone (PTH}, and
also by vitamin D and calcitonin. PTH and vitamin D increase serum calcium, while calciton in
decreases ("tones down"} blood calcium levels (see table below}.
Patients with hyperparathyroidism will have decreased renal calcium excretion and will also be
predisposed to an increased likelihood of bone fracture because PTH's primary purpose is to
increase the concentration of serum calcium .The bone resorption seen in elderly patients with low
dietary ca lcium is intensified by pa rathyroid hormone. Calcium blood levels are increased in
hypervitaminosis 0, in hyperparathyroidism, in bone cancer and other bone diseases. Calcium
blood levelsare decreased in severe diarrhea, in hypopa rat hyroidism, and in avitaminosis D (rickets
and osteomalacia}.
Note: Remember that calcitonin and PTH are complimentary hormones that work together to keep
a balance within serum calcium levels. Recall that if PTH increases serum calcium, calcitonin "tones
down the serum calcium level by depositing more in bone as well as increasing its excretion.
Plasma phosphorus concentration (normal is approximately 4 mg%} is also regulated by
parathyroid hormone. Increased hormone causes the kidneys to increase the rate of phosphate
excretion, which decreases plasma phosphate concentration.
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Frll
\ ' ifa1ai1t
Stilnutusru r
C.kJtoni11
ln('f'Q.'I<:llcnnn(C.'ll!<-)
so:rum pbo!!pbatc
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Bum:
O.:ac:uc
lrn:n::l.'lci'C'llurptwn
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lrn:n:a'!o:Ca1 rt'ab,;orphlllll
c.:
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rbullphuru..,;
N/A
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N fA
blood
Which of the following blood equations is correct?
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serum
=plasma - fibrinogen
Human blood constitutes about 8% of the body's weight. Blood consists of cells and
cell fragments in an aqueous medium, the blood plasma. The proportion of cellula r
elements, known as hematocrit, in the total volume is approximately 45%. The blood
is the most important transport medium in the body. Blood maintains homeostasis
and plays a decisive role in defending the body against pathogens.
Serum is the clea r, thin, and sticky flu id portion of the blood obtained after removal
of the fibri n clot and blood cel ls. Serum differs from the plasma in that serum lacks
fibrin and other coagu lation products.
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Plasma is blood m inus the formed elements. It is the flu id portion of the blood
(plasma makes up 55% of the blood). Plasma also conta ins no cells.
Plasma contains:
Proteins (7%)- consist of albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen
Water (91%)
Other solutes (2%) -consist of metabolic end products, food materials,
respiratory gases, hormones, and ions
1. Remember: The other 45% of the blood consists of formed elements erythrocytes (red blood cells), leukocytes (white blood cel ls), and
thrombocytes (platelets).
2. The function of platelets in hemostasis is that they agglutinate and plug
small ruptured vessels.
blood
The general term for reactions that prevent or minimize loss of blood
from the vessels if they are injured or ruptured is:
erythropo iesis
syneresis
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homeostasis
hemostasis
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hemostasis
Th rough a three-part process, the circulatory system guards against excessive blood loss. In this
process, vascular injury activates a complex chain of events - vasoconstriction, platelet
aggregation, and coagulation - that leads to clotting. Th is process stops bleeding without
stopping blood flow through the inj ured vessel.
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1. When blood vessels are ruptured and tissues are damaged, both the extrinsic and
intrinsic pathways are usually act ivated.
2. In cirrhosis of the liver, prothrombin and fibri nogen levels w ill be deficient and
cause impaired clot formation. Remember: The liver synthesizes factors II, VII, IX, and X.
3. Homeostasis - tendency toward equilibrium between different but interdependent
elements of an organism.
4. Erythropoiesis- the production of red blood cells.
5. Syneresis -liquid separating from a gel due to further solidification or coagulation.
(1)
Tissue trauma
Tissue Factor
(2)
VII
r: Vlli
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L A c.-
Activated X (Xa)
(3)
Platelet
phospholipids
Prothrombin
activator
I
't
17-1
Blood trauma or
contact with collagen
XII
(2)
(3)
XII (XIIa)
-+- (HMW kininogen, prekallikrein)
(4)
Ca
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X
(5)
Activated X (Xa)
v----.Prothrombin
Platelet activator
phospholipids )
Prothrombin - "":'t-+- Thrombin
Int rinsic pat hway for init iating blood clotting.
17 A l
blood
Iron, the most important mineral in the formation of hemoglobin, is absorbed
mainly in the _ _ _ and is only absorbed as _ _ _ .
ascending colon, Fe 3
sigmoid colon, Fe2
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duodenum, Fe3
jejunum, Fe2
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duodenum, Fe2
Iron is quantitatively the most important trace element. The human body contains
4-5 grams of iron, which is almost exclusively present in protein-bound form .
Approximately 75% of the total amount is found in heme p roteins, mainly
hemoglobin and myoglobin. In addition to hemoglobin and myoglobin, 15% to 25%
of iron is stored in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow, mainly in the form of
intracellular iron-protein complexes called ferritin and hemosiderin (a complex of
ferritin, denatured ferritin, and other proteins).
Iron is absorbed almost entirely in the upper part of the small intestine, primarily in
the duodenum. Here iron immediately combines in the blood plasma with a beta
globulin apotransferrin, to form transferrin, which is then transported in the
plasma. Iron is bound loosely with transferrin and can be released to any of the tissue
cells at any point in the body. Approximately 60% of excess iron is stored in the liver.
The iron stored in ferritin is ca lled storage iron.
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Important: Iron can only be absorbed by the bowel in bivalent form (i.e., as Fe 2 ). For
this reason, reducing agents in food such as ascorbate (vitamin C) promote iron
uptake.
l.The dominant factor controlling absorption of iron from the Gl tract is the
saturation of mucosal cells with iron particularly dictated by the rate at
which the transferrin complex is able to exit the epithelial cell into the
vascular system.
2. Hemochromatosis is an iron-storage d isease that results in the deposittion of iron-containing pigments in the peri pheral tissues with characteri stic
bronzing of the skin, diabetes and weakness.
3. Bilirubin is a product of heme degradation.
blood
0 blood type is referred to as:
universal donor
universal recipient
neither of t he above
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universa l donor
Type 0 people do not produce AB antigens. Therefore, type 0 people's blood normally will
not be rejected when it is g iven to others with d ifferent 0-A-B blood types. As a result, type 0
people are universal donors for transfusion s. AB blood type people do not make any AB
antibodies. The blood of AB type people does not discriminat e against any other 0 -A-B blood
type. Therefore, they are universal receivers for transfusions.
All humans and many other primat es can be typed by the 0 -A-B blood group. There are four
types: A, B, AB, and 0. There are two antigens and tw o antibodies that are mostly respon sible
for the 0-A-B blood types. The specific combination of these four components determines an
individual's blood type. The table below shows the possible permutat ions of antigens and
antibod ies with the correspond ing ABO types ("yes" indicates the presence of a com ponent,
and "no" indicates its absence in the blood of an ind ividual).
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Antigen A
Antigen B
Antibody Antibody
Anti-A
Anti-B
Y es
No
No
Yes
No
Y es
Y es
No
No
No
Y es
Yes
AB
Y es
Y es
No
No
For instance, type A people have the A antigen on the surface of their red cells (as shown in t he
ta ble above). As a result, anti-A antibodies will not be produced because they would cause t he
destruction of their own blood. However, if B-type blood is injected into their systems, anti-S
antibod ies in the plasma will recognize the blood as alien and burst or agglutinate t he
introduced red cells in order t o cleanse the blood of alien protein.
blood
The most important feature of the hemoglobin molecule is its ability to
combine loosely and reversibly with oxygen.
Oxygen does not combine with the two positive bonds of the iron in the
hemoglobin molecule. Instead it binds loosely with one of the so-called
coordination bonds of the iron atom.
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100
90
Oxygenated blood
.. leaving the lungs ---
80
c: 70
0
1- -
:;::
...::J
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60
iii
VI
50
c:
:0 40
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blood returning
0
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t-i
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r ojmt"'"l ---1---- -----
c,
0 30
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l:
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18
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80
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30
20
10
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90100110120130140
blood
All of the following are common subunit hemoglobin chains EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
alpha
beta
gamma
delta
epsilon
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epsilon
A molecule of hemoglobin Is composed of the following:
1. Globin (protein) portion
Consists of four polypeptid e chains- two alpha chains and two beta chains
The normal adult globin portion of Hb consists of two alpha and two beta chains, and the
normal fetal globin portion of Hb consists of two alpha and two gamma chains
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Each iron atom can bind reversibly with one molecule of oxygen; therefore, a hemoglobin
molecule can potentially associate with four oxygen molecules. When it is combined with oxygen,
the compound is cal led oxyhemoglobin. When the hemoglobin molecule is not combined with
oxygen, the compound is ca lled deoxyhemoglobin (reduced hemoglobin).
1. Hemoglobin combines reversibly with carbon dioxide at the protein portion of the
hemoglobin molecule.
2. Carbon monoxide decreases the amount of oxygen that can be tra nsported by hemoglobin by competing with oxygen for hemoglobin binding sites. Ca rbon monoxide has a
much higher affinity (240 x stronger) for hemoglobin tha n does oxygen.
3. As pH decreases, so does the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
4. Methemoglobin conta ins iron in the ferric state (Fe,.) and cannot function as an oxygen carrier.
5. Hemoglobin is a major H buffer of the blood. Deoxygenated hemoglobin is less acidic
than oxygenated hemoglobin and therefore ideally suited to buffer the H' ions (coming
from tissue C02).
blood
The most common form of hemoglobin in the adult human being i s:
hemoglobin H
hemoglobin S
hemoglobin M
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hemoglobin A
hemoglobin C
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hemoglobin A
Hemoglobin H is an abnormal hemoglobin composed of four beta chains; it is
usually associated with a defect in three of the four alpha chain genes resulting in
alpha-thalassemia.
Hemoglobin S is an abnormal hemoglobin in which valine has replaced glutamic
acid in t he beta chain. The presence of hemoglobin S causes the red blood cell to
deform and assume a sickle shape when exposed to decreased amounts of oxygen
(such as might happen when someone exercises or in the peri pheral circulation).
Sickled red blood cells can bl ock small blood vessels, causing pain and impaired
circu lation, decrease the oxygen-carrying capacity of the red bl ood cel l and decrease
the cell's life span. HemoglobinS is the predominant form of hemoglobin in persons
with sickle-cell anemia. Important: A major effect of sickle cell anemia is the
decreased solubility of the deoxy fo rm of hemoglobin.
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blood
In the normal person, about 90o/o of all erythropoietin is formed in the
- --' the remainder is formed mainly in the _ __
kidneys, liver
liver, kidneys
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kidneys, liver
Any cond ition that causes the quantity of oxygen transported to the tissues to decrease ord ina rily
increases the rate of red blood cell p roduction by the bone marrow. The principal stimulus for red blood
cell production in low oxygen states is a circulating hormone called erythropoietin, a glycoprotein.
Important: The p roduction of eryth ro poietin and thus erythrocytes, is regulated by a negative-feedback
mechanism that is sensitive to the amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues (particularly the kid neys).
NotH
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Characteristics of erythrocytes:
1. Biconcave d iscs, about 7.8 microns in d iameter, lack nuclei and mitochondria.
2. Contain hemoglobin and a large quantity of carbonic anhydrase which converts carbon d ioxide
and water to bicarbonate and proteins
3. Have a lipid membrane containing lipoproteins and specific blood g roup substances (A. B, 0 ).
4. The principal function is to transport hemoglobi n, which in turn carries oxygen from the lungs to
the tissues.
5. The proportion of erythrocytes in a sample of blood is called the hematocrit (46.2% for males and
40.6% for females is the normal range).
6. The amount of bile pigments excreted by the liver is a good ind ication of the amount of erythrocyte
destruction per day.
7. Ufe span of erythrocytes = 105 to 120 days.
Source of erythrocyte production:
Early Embryo - yolk Sac
Mid Gestation - mostly liver, but also spleen and lymph nodes
Final Month of Gestation to about 20 yea rs o ld - exclusively in the bone marrow
20 years old and older- marrow of membranous bones, such as the vertebrae, sternum. ribs, and ilia
blood
Which ofthe following will shift the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to
the right?
Select all that apply.
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increase in pH
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Note: Acidic conditions will decrease the affinity of Hb for 0 2. The higher the H+ ion
because carbon di oxide molecul es bin d with Hb molecul es and alter the Hb
conformation from the R state (high 0 2 affinity) to the T state (low 0 2 affinity). Therefore, t he
higher t he Pco 2, the less 0 2 is bound to Hb.
Increased temperature
Note: The higher the temperature, t he less 0 2 is bound to Hb at any given Po 2.
Increased 2,3-biphosphoglycerate (BPG)
Note: Hypoxia increases the formation of BPG, which also shifts the oxyhemoglobi n
gastrointestinal system
The substance intrinsic factor, essential for absorption of vitamin B12 in the
ileum, is secreted by the:
ch ief cells
parietal cells
gastrin cells
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mucous cel ls
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parietal cells
The lining of the stomach is covered with a columnar epithelium folded into gastric pits; each
pit is the opening of a duct into which one or more gastric gland s empty. The gastric mucosa
is divid ed into three distinct regions based on the structu re of the glands. The small cardiac
glandular region, located just below the lower esophageal sph incter (LES), primarily contains
mucus-secreting gland cells. The remainder of the gastric mucosa is divided into the oxyntic
or parietal (acid-secreting) gland region, located above the gastric notch (equivalent to t he
proximal part of th e stomach), and th e pyloric gland region, located below th e notch
(equivalent to the distal part of the stomach).
The stomach mucosa has two important types of tubular glands: oxyntic glands (also called gastric
gland s) and pyloric glands. The oxyntic glands secrete hydrochloric acid, pepsinogen, intrinsic factor, and mucus. The pyloric glands secrete mainly mucus but also the hormone gastrin.
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An oxyntic gland is composed of th ree main types of cells: (1) mucous neck cells, which secret e
mainly mucus;(2) peptic (or chief) cells, which secrete large quantities of pepsinogen; and (3) parietal (or oxyntic) cells, which secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor.
The pyloric glands are structurally similar to the oxyntic gland s, but contain few peptic cells and almost no parietal cells. Instead, they contain mostly mucous cells that are id entical with the mucous
neck cells of the oxynt ic glands. These cells secrete a small amount of pepsinogen, and a large
amount of thin mucus.The pyloric glands also contain Gcells (enteroendocrine cells) that secrete the
hormone gastrin.
Important:
1. Oxyntic gland salso contain enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells which secrete histamine, and 0
cells, which secrete somatostatin.
2. Secretion of intrinsic factor is the only gastric function that is essential for human life.
3. Gast ric juice consists of inorganic and organic constituents together with water. The predominant organic constituent of gastric juice is pepsinogen, the inactive proenzyme of pepsin.
4. Parasympathetic innervation via the vagus nerve is the strongest stimulant of gastric H+ secretion. In addition, vagal stimulation results in t he secretion of pepsinogen, mucus, HC0 3, and
intrinsic factor.
gastrointestinal system
All of the following slow gastric emptying EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
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gastrointestinal system
Three of the following signaling molecules are important in causing
pancreatic secretion. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
cholecystokinin
secretin
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acetylcholine
epinephri ne
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epinephrine
Three signaling molecules important for pancreatic secret ion:
1. Acetylcholine, is released from parasympathetic vagus nerve endings and from other cholinergic nerves in the enteric nervous system.
2. Cholecystokinin, is secreted by the duodenal and upper jej unal mucosa when food enters the
small intestine.
3. Secretin, is also secreted by the duodenal and jejunal mucosa when highly acidic food enters
the small intestine.
The first two of the signaling molecules, acetylcholine and cholecystokinin, stimulate the acinar
cells of the pancreas, cau sing production of large quantities of pancreatic digestive enzymes but
relatively small quantities of water and electrolytes to go with the enzymes. Without the water, most
of the enzymes remain temporari ly stored in the acini and ducts until more fl uid secretion comes
along to wash them into the duodenum. Secretin, in contrast to the two other signaling molecules,
stimulates secretion of large quantities of water solution of sodium bicarbonate by the pancreatic ductal epithelium.
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Pancreatic secretion s (daily secretion = 1.5 liters; with a pH bet ween 7.5 and 8.8) from pancreatic
acinar cells include enzymes involved in protein breakdown (trypsin, chymotrypsin, and
ca rboxypeptid ase), carbohydrate breakdown (amylase), and fat breakdown (lipase, cholesterol
esterase, phospholipase). Pancreatic enzymes are secreted in an inactive form called a zymogen,
and are then activated in the small intesti ne. Note: Pancreatic duct cells secrete a fluid that is high
in bicarbonate ion. Quantitatively, the pancreas is the largest contributor to the supply of
bicarbonate ion s needed to neutralize the gastric acid load.
1. The secretions of the exocrine gastric glands, composed of the mucous, parietal,
and ch ief cells, make up the gastric juice (daily secretion 2-3 liters; with a pH bet ween
1.0 and 3.0). Gastric secretions include HCI. mucous, pepsinogen, and intrinsic factor.
2. Intestinal secretions (daily secretion unknown with a pH between 6.5 and 7.8),
mainly mucou s, are secreted by goblet cells and enterocytes.
3. Bile (pH around 7.8) is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder. Bile aids
in the emulsification, digestion and absorption of fats.
gastrointestinal system
Your patient comes in and says that his physician has diagnosed him with pernicious anemia. As you know, this is caused by the malabsorption of vitamin
812.
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2. What cell is res ponsible for the faulty glycoprotein impli cated in pernicious anemia?
ch ief cell s
parietal cell s
mucous neck cell s
gcells
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1. intrinsicfactor
2. parietal ce lls
3. gastric glands
The stomach mucosa has two important types of t ubul ar glands: oxyntic glands (also called
gastric glands) and pyloric glands. The oxyntic glands secrete hydrochloric acid, pepsinogen, intrinsic facto r and mucous. The pyloric glands secrete mainly mucous but also the
hormone gastrin.
An oxyntic gland is composed ofthree main types of cell s: (1) mucous neck cells, which secrete mainly mucou s;(2) peptic (or chief) cells, wh ich secrete large quantities of pepsinogen; and (3) parietal (or oxyntic) cells, which secrete hydrochloric acid and intrin sic
factor.
The pyloric glands are struct urally similar to the oxyntic glands, but contain few pepti c
cells and almost no parietal cells. Instead, they contain mostly mucous cells that are iden-
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tical w ith the mucous neck cell s of t he oxyntic glands. These cells secrete a small amount
of pepsinogen and a large amount ofthin mucou s. The pyloric glands also contain G cells
(enteroendocrine cell s) that secrete the hormone gastrin.
Functions of secretions:
Hydrochloric acid- p roduces an acid environment t hat helps to kill bact eria and to
activate pepsin. Th is solu bil izes connective t issue. Secretion is increased by
gastrointestinal system
Distension of the intestine by chyme and parasympathetic neural activity
_ _ _ the contractile force, while sympathetic neural activity
it.
decrease, increases
increase, decreases
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Following a meal, when the lumen of the small intestine contains chyme, two types
of motility predominate: segmentation contractions chop, mix, and roll the, chyme
and peristalsis slowly propels the chyme toward the large intestine.
gastrointestinal system
Which of the following pairings regarding the absorption in the small
intestine is INCORRECT?
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*** The key players in these two t ransformations are bile salts and pancreatic
lipase, both of which are mixed with chyme and act in the lumen of the small
intestine.
Dipeptides and amino acids are t he end products of protein digestion. The final
digestive stage occurs by brush border peptidases and absorption immediately
follows. Absorption across the brush border occurs by multiple secondary active
transporters utilizing either sodium-dependent cotransport (amino acids) or
hydrogen-dependent cotransport (di- and tri -peptides).
Disaccharides and small glucose polymers are hydrolyzed at the brush border by
lactase, sucrase, maltase and alpha-dextrinase. The resultant monosaccharides
(glucose and galactose) are then absorbed by secondary active transporters driven by
the sodium gradient. Fructose absorption is mediated by facilitated diffusion.
gastrointestinal system
Place the following phases of gastric secretion in their proper order:
intestinal phase
gastric phase
cephalic phase
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1. cephalic phase
2. gastric phase
3. intestinal phase
Phases of Gastric Secretion:
Cephalic phase ("wake up call"): sensations of thoughts about food are relayed to
the brainstem where parasympathetic signals to the gastric mucosa are initiated.
This d irectly stimulates gastri c juice secretion and stimulates the release of gastrin,
which prolongs and enhances the effect.
Gastric phase ("full steam ahead"): the presence of food, specificall y the d istension food t riggers local and parasympathetic nervous reflexes that increase thesecretion of gastri c juice and gastrin (which fu rther amplifies gastric juice secretion).
Products of protein digestion can also tri gger the gastrin mechanism.
Intestinal phase ("step on the brakes"): as food moves into the duodenum, the
presence of fats, carbohydrates and acid stimulates hormonal and nervous reflexes
that inhibit stomach activity.
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muscles
As an action potential reaches a skeletal muscle cell, what is the order of
activation by which the signal is transmitted internally through the muscle
cell so that contraction results?
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Note: This process is repeated as long as calcium ions are bound to troponin and ATP is
available. Once calciu m ions are returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum, tropomyosin
moves back into its b locking position and prevents further interaction between highenergy myosin and actin subunits. Contraction ceases and the muscle fi bers relax.
Important: In the contractile cycle, the dissociation of the actin-myosin complex results
from ATP binding to the myosin head (actin -myosin + ATP __. actin+ myosin-ATP).
Remember: Composition of myofilaments
Thick filament - co mposed mainly of the protein myosin
Thin filaments- composed mainly of the protein actin
1111111
1111111
1111111
II IIIII
1111111
1111111
1111111
1111111
1111111
I I IIIII
1111111
1111111
1111111
1111111
1111111
1111111
1111111
1111111
1111111
111111 I
Relaxed
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Relaxed and contracted slates of a myollbril s howing (top) sliding of the actin fi laments (thinner) into
the spaces between the mysosin filaments (thicker), and (bottom) pulling of the Z membranes toward
each other.
Head
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Cross-bridges
Hinges
Body
Mysoin filament
A, Myosin molecule. B, Combination of many myosin molecules to form a myosin fi lament. Also shown are thousands of
myosin cross-bridges and interaction between the heads of the
cross-bridges with adjacent actin filaments.
F-aciin
Tropomyosin
Actin fi lament, composed of two helical strands of F-actin molecules and two strands
of tropomyosin molecules that fit in the grooves between the actin strands. Anached to
one end of each tropomyosin molecule is a troponin complex that initiates contraction.
32A-I
muscles
The immediate source of energy for muscle contraction is ATP binding to
myosin. The ATP pool, however, is extremely small and has three sources
of replenishment. Which of the following is NOT a source?
creatine phosphate
lactic acid
glycogen
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cellular respiration
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lactic acid
The hydrol ysis of ATP (adenosine tri phosphate) provides the immediate source of
energy for muscle contraction. Although a muscle fiber conta ins only enough ATP to
power a few twitches, its ATP "pool" is replenished as needed. The three sources of
high-energy phosphate to keep the ATP"pool"filled are creatine phosphate, g lycogen
and cellula r respiration in the m itochondri a of the muscle fibers.
Creatine phosphate - the phosphate group in creatine phosphate is attached by a
"high-energy" bond like that in ATP. Creatine phosphate deri ves its high-energy phosphate from ATP and can donate the phosphate back to ADP to form ATP.
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muscles
As you complete the seating of a crown, you ask your patient to tap lightly on
the articulating paper. Which of the following statements correctly describes
the physiology responsible for a patient's light tapping on the articulating
paper?
the "all or nothing" phenomenon occurs; all fibers in the masseter and medial
pterygoid are partially stimulated, causing a light contraction
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BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
Remember: The Size Principle - motor unit s are recruited in order of t he size of the motor
unit. If only a small amount of t ension is required to perform t he movement, then only small
motor units will be activated. If greater force is required, more and larger motor units will be
recruited. Important: When a patient bites down rapid ly on an unexpect ed hard surface
wh ile chewing, the cessation of mot or unit recruitment in the jaw closing muscles is caused
by periodontal mechanoreceptors. Fractionation means that it is not necessary to
activate all of the motor unit s in a muscle.
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The contraction of skelet al muscle is controlled by t he nervous system. Action pot entials
t raveling down somati c alpha mot or neurons cause depolarization of the skeletal muscle
fibers at which they terminate. The juncti on between t he terminal of a motor neuron and a
muscle f iber is called a neuromuscular junction. When an action potential arrives at a
neuromuscular j unction, calcium ions enter the nerve terminal, causing the release of
acetylcholine from synaptic vesicles w ithin t he motor neuron. Acetylcholine then binds to
t he nicot inic cholinergic recept ors in the muscle fiber plasma membrane. This causes
depolarization, which triggers an action pot ential (the action potenti al travels along the
membrane and the t-tubules). This action potential triggers t he release of calcium ions from
t he sarcoplasmic reticulum. This leads to crossbridge formation between actin and myosin.
These interactions are responsible for the development of t ension and t he short ening of t he
fibers.
muscles
All of the follow ing statements comparing fast and slow-twitch muscle fibers
are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
fast-twitch fibers are about twice as large in diameter than slow-twitch muscle fibers
slow-twitch fibers have a g reater resistance to fatigue than fast-twitch muscle fibers
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the enzymes of oxidative phosphorylation are considerably more active in slowtwitch fibers than in fast-twitch fibers
fast-twitch fibers contain more mitochondria and myoglobin than slow-twitch
muscle fibers
fast-twitch fi bers can deliver extreme amounts of power for a few seconds to a
minute versus slow-twitch fibers
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Low
High
Slow/Low
Fast/High
Resistance to fatigue
High
Low
Oxidative capacity
Hig h
Low
Low
High
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Mitochondria
Many
Few
Less extensive
More extensive
Capillaries
Many
Few
Myoglobin content
High
Low
Glycogen content
Low
High
Notes
1. "Fast" muscles are for rapid, powerful actions (jumping, short distance
runn ing) while "slow" muscles are for prolonged activity (body postu re, running
a marathon).
2. Oxidative capacity is related to (1) the number of capillaries, (2) the
myoglobin content, (3) the number of mitochondria.
muscles
All of the following statements concerning muscle spindles are true
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
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the finer the movement required, the smaller the number of muscle spindles in a
muscle
they detect both static and dynamic changes in muscle length
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***This is false; the finer the movement required, the greater the number of muscle
spindles in a muscle.
Muscle tone is "fine-tuned" by t wo sensory organs:
1. Muscle spindle (measures muscl e length) has three components:
1. Specialized muscle fibers: (intrafusal fibers)
2. Sensory terminals: g roup Ia and II afferents
3. Motor terminals: gamma motor (efferent) neurons
*** Activates alpha motor neuron when stretched.
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muscles
When a muscle is
, the _ _ _ reflex reacts. This reflex is considered _ _ _ , and the result is _ __
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Reflex
Number of
Stimulus
Syn apses
Afferent
Fibers
Stretch reflex
(knee j erk)
Monosynaptic
Disynaptic
Muscle contracts lb
Flcxorwithdrawal
reflex (atler touch
Polysynaptic
Pain
Muscle is
Ia
R esponse
stretched
1. The Golgi tendon reflex is the reverse of the stretch reflex. Golgi tendon
organs also depolarize in response to muscle stretch but inhibit the motor
neuron, causing the muscle to relax.
2. The flexor-withdrawal reflex is a polysynaptic reflex that is used when a
person touches a hot object or steps on a needle.
muscles
Most reflex arcs have:
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Note: When the stretch reflex stimulates the stretched muscle to contract, antagonistic muscles that oppose the contraction are inhibited. This occurrence is cal led
reciprocal inhibition and the neuronal mechanism that causes this reciprocal
relationship is ca lled reciprocal innervation.
muscles
In a single muscle, there are both intrafusal and extrafusal fibers. All of the
following statements are true in the description of intrafusal fibers EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
contain nucl ear bag fibers that detect fast, dynamic changes
innervated by gamma-motor neurons
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2. lntrafusal Fibers
Are encapsulated in sheaths to form muscle spindles
Innervated by gamma-motor neurons (efferent neurons)
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sensory impulses
all of the above
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sensory impulses
*** Those cell bodies in the anterior (ventral) horn transmit motor impulses.
The white matter surrounding these horns consists of myelinated nerve fibers, wh ich
form the ascending and descending tracts. A tract represents a group of axons w ithin
the central nervous system having the same origin, termination and function; it is often
named for its origin and termination (e.g., spinothalamic tract).
Axons of cells that run on the same side as their cell bodies of origin are referred to as
ipsilateral. Axons of cells that run on the opposite side of their cell bodies of origin are
referred to as contralateral.
Note: Sensory pathways are ascending systems (e.g., spinothalamic and DC-ML systems);
motor pathways are descending systems (e.g., pyramidal and extrapyramidal systems).
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Remember: The white matter refers to those parts of the brain and spinal cord that are
responsible for communication between the various gray matter regions and between
the gray matter and the rest of the body. In essence, the gray matter is where the
processing is done and the white matter is the channels of communication. By analogy,
the gray matter is like the CPU in a computer, and the white matter is like t he p rinted
circuit board that connects it to the other parts of the computer.
White Matter vs. Gray Matter (both the spinal cord and the brain consist of):
White Matter = bundles of axons each coated with a sheath of myelin
Gray Matter = masses of the cell bodies and dendrites, each covered w ith
synapses
In the spinal cord, the white matter is at the surface, and the gray matter inside. In the
brain of mammal s, th is pattern is reversed.
hypothalamus
hippocampus
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basal ganglia
thalamus
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basal ganglia
Collections of nerve cells (nuclei) lie at the base of the cerebrum (subcortical) in structures called
the:
Basal ganglia -like the cerebellum, constitutes anot her accessory motor system that functions
usually not by itself but in close association with the cerebral cortex and corticospinal motor
system. ln fact, the basal ganglia receives most of its input signals from the cerebral cortex itself
and also returns almost all of its output signals back to the cortex. On each side of the brain, these
ganglia consist of the striatum (caud ate nucleus and putamen), globus pallid us, substantia nigra
and the subthalamic nucleus. They are located mainly lateral to and surrounding the thalamus.
The function of the basal ganglia is to control complex patterns of motor activity.
Note: An example is t he writing of letters of the alphabet When there is serious damage to
the basal ganglia, the cortical system of motor control can no longer provide these patterns.
Instead one's writing becomes crude.
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Important: The basal ganglia are a group of anatomically closely related subcortical nuclei. Damage
to these nuclei does not cause weakness, but can cause dramatic motor abnormalities. Clinical
syndromes associated with damage to these nuclei include Parkinson's disease and Huntington's disease (Huntington's chorea).
Thalamus -a large ovoid collection of nuclei (gray matter) that relays all sensory stimuli
(except olfactory) as they ascend to the cerebral cortex. Output from the cortex also can synapse
in the thalamus. General functions include sensory and motor relay to the cerebral cortex,
regulation of cort ical activation and visual input. Key point: The thalamus is a distribution
center that controls activity in specific regions of the cerebral cortex.
Hypothalamus - controls many homeostatic processes, which are often associated with the
autonomic nervous system. The hypothalamus is involved in regulating body temperature, water
balance, appetite, gastrointestinal activity, sexual activity, sleep and even emotions such as fear
and rage. The hypothalamus also regulates the release of the hormones of the pituitary gland;
and thu s the hypothalamus greatly affects the endocrine system. Important: Sti mulation of the
posterior hypothalamus by a reduction in core temperature will produce shivering.
Hippocampus - functions in the consolidation of memories and in learning.
medulla oblongata
pons
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cerebral hemispheres
cerebellum
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medulla oblongata
pons
cerebellum
The human forebrain (prosencephalon) is made up of:
A pair of cerebral hemispheres called the telencephalon
A group of structures located deep within the cerebrum t hat make up the diencephalon (composed of the epithalamus, dorsal thalamus and hypothalamus; it forms the central core of the
brain)
Main Structures of the Hindbrain (rhombencephalon):
Cerebellum- is the large brain mass lying posterior to t he ponsand medulla and inferior to the
posterior part of the cerebrum. The cerebellum's functions include motor coordination, motor
learning and equilibrium.
Pons - connects the cerebellum with the cerebrum and links the midbrain to the medulla
oblongata. CN V is associated with the pons. General funct ions includ e: respiratory/uri nary
control, control of eye movement and facial sensation/motor control.
Medulla oblongata- the medulla looks like a swollen tip to the spinal cord. General funct ions
include: cardiovascular and respiratory control, auditory and vestibular input and brainstem
reflexes. CN IX, X, and XII are associated with the medulla, whereas CN VI-VIII are associat ed with
the j unction of pons and medulla.
Note: The neurons controlling breathing have mu (!J) receptors, the receptors to which opiates,
like heroin, bind. This accounts for the suppressive effect of opiates on breath ing.
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The brain stem lies immediately inferior to the cerebrum, j ust anterior to the cerebellum. The brain
stem consists of the midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata. The midbrain (mesencephalon)
connects dorsally with the cerebellum and contains large voluntary motor nerve tracts.
The limbic system is a pri mitive brain area deep within the temporal lobe. Besides initiating basic
drives (hunger, aggression, emotional feelings and sexual arousal), the limbic system screensall
sensory messages traveling to the cerebral cortex.
A. Frontal lobe
B. Temporal lobe
C. Occipital lobe
D. Parietal lobe
SAADDES
2. I ... ummm ... j ust cannot make my wrist move the bmsh ... um
... but ... and ... why do I need ... to brush my teeth'!
3. Every time I grasp my brush, it won't fit in my mouth.
It also hurts to have the water on my teeth.
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1. B (Temporal lobe) -this patient will also have trouble hearing you respond
2. A (Frontal lobe) -motor trouble and trouble with language expression
3. D (Parietal lobe)- sensations
4. C (Occipital lobe)- patient has vision troubles -tell him or her to put toothpaste
directly on his/her teeth and use the brush as normal
The cerebrum (cerebral cortex), the largest region of the brain, occupies t he superior
portion of the cranial cavity. The cerebrum con sists of right and left hem ispheres. The
right hemisphere controls the left side of the body; the left hemisphere control s the right side.
The corpus callosum is a mass of nerve fibers connecting the hemispheres. Each cerebral
hemisphere is divided into four lobes, based on anatomical landmarks and functional differences. The lobes are named for the cranial bones that overlie them.
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Note: In addition to the functions of the primary areas in each lobe, the vast majority of the
cerebral cortex is involved in associative and higher order functioning such as ideation, language, and thought.
Frontal
Temporal
Parietal
Occipital
Parietal Lobe
Frontal Lobe
Occipital
Lobe
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Temporal
Lobe
Medulla Oblongata
Spinal Cord
197-1
PARIETAL LOBE
behaviour
Intelligence
memory
movement
intelligE>.,ce
language
reading
sensation
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TEMPORAL LOBE
beh I!LJr
h anng
poeeh
CEREBELLUM
balance
coor dination
VISiOn
mt
ry
BRAIN STEH
bloCid pre ou-- P
brcathmg
consciOusness
heartbeat
swallowing
197 C-1
circulatory system
For the following questions, use the same answer choices.
1. Which of the following has the thickest layer of muscle?
2. Which of the following is the major regulator of blood flow?
3. Which of the following contain valves?
4. Which of the following are large vessels that contain deoxygenated
blood? Is there an EXCEPTION to this rule?
5. Which has higher compliance, veins or arteries?
veins
arteries
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capillaries
arterioles
venu les
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1. arteries
2. arterioles
3. veins
4. veins- EXCEPTION - (pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood and
pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood )
5. veins have higher compliance and arteries have a lower compliance
Systemic arteries - transport oxygenated blood under high pressure away from the heart to
tissues of the body. These arteries have strong muscular walls to withstand the high pressure
and low compliance.
Note: The pulmonary and umbilical arteries are the on ly arteries that contain deoxygenated
blood.
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Systemic veins -function as conduits for the tra nsport of deoxygenated blood from the
tissues back to the heart. These veins have larger lumens and thinner walls than the arteries
the veins accompa ny but a higher compliance and act as volume reservoirs. Some contain
valves (especially the veins of the limbs) that allow blood to flow toward the heart but not
away from it.
Note: The pulmonary and umbilical veins are the only veins that contain oxygenated blood.
Capillaries - this is where the exchange of fluid, nutrients and metabolic waste products
occurs between the blood and t he interstitial spaces. The capillary walls are very thin. They
consist of a single layer of endothelial cells surrounded by a thin basal lamina of the tunica
intima.
Note: The amount of blood that flows th rough the capillaries per minute is equal to the
amount of blood that flows through the aorta per minute.
Arterioles - regulate the flow of blood into capillaries. Blood flow is regulated to meet tissue
metabolic needs.
Venules- are very small veins that collect blood from the capillaries; venules gradually coalesce
into progressively larger veins.
Pulmonary Circulation
Left
Pulmonary
veins
Lobar arteries
to right lung
Superior
vena cava
..
veins
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Right
atrium
lnferior
vena cava
Oxygenated blood
Unoxygenated blood
Pulmonary circulation showing the pulmonary trunk dividing into right and left pulmonary arteries, which in turn divide into lobar arteries.
44-1
with pcrmis..-.ion from Spcacx AI', Mason EB: Httma11 AntiiMIJ' Ond
circulatory system
Which structures are the site of highest resistance in the cardiovascular
system?
veins
arteries
arterioles
venules
SAADDES
When these structures are acted on by nitric oxide or adenosine, they will:
constrict
d il ate
stay the sam e
BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
1. arterioles
2. dilate
3. decrease
Arterioles are the last small branches of the arterial system and act as control valves
through which b lood is released into the capillaries. Arterioles vary in diameter ranging
from 30 m to 400 m. Any artery smaller than 0.5 mm in diameter is considered to be an
arteriole.
They have a sma ll lumen and a relatively thick tunica media that is composed almost
entirely of smooth muscle, w ith very little elastic tissue. The intima of an arteriole is
composed of endothelial cells lying on a basement membrane w ith an underlying fine
internal elastic lamina in the larger arterioles.
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Arterioles p lay a major role in regulating the flow of b lood into the capillaries. Blood flow
to tissue is mainly regulated by arteriolar diameter. Constriction of the arterioles restricts
the flow of blood into the capillaries, while dilation allows the blood to enter the
capillaries more freely. Important: Arterioles are the primary resistance vessels and
determine the distribution of cardiac output. Arteriolar res istance is regulated by the
autonomic nervous system. Remember: Alpha 1-adrenerg ic receptors are found on the
arterioles of the skin and splanchnic circulations. BetaTadrenergic receptors are found on
arterioles of skeletal muscle. Beta 1-adrenergic receptors are found primarily in the heart
muscle and kidneys. Beta b lockers are comm only p rescribed for their antihypertensive
effects.
Local blood flow is regulated by t issue metabolism. Various humoral factors can also
affect arteriolar diameter, including endothelins (vasoconstrictor), nitric oxide and
adenosine (vasodilators). Sympathetic activation results in an overall vasoconstriction of
arterioles and an increase in total peripheral resistance (TPR).
circulatory system
For the following questions, use the same answer choices.
1. Which circuit supplies the alveoli of the lungs?
2. Which circuit supplies the connective tissue of the lungs?
3. Which has a lower blood pressure?
4. Which has a greater volume of blood flow per minute?
5. Which circuit involves the thick-walled left ventricle?
SAADDES
pulmonary circuit
systemic circuit
both
neither
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1. pulmonary circuit
2. systemic circuit
3. pulmonary circuit
4. neither (they have the same, about 5 L/ min)
5. systemic circuit
The vessels of the circulatory system can be divided into two separate circuits, each of which
leaves and return s to the heart. The pump for the pulmonary circuit, which circulates blood
through the lungs, is the right ventricle. The left ventricle is the pump for the systemic circuit,
which provid es the blood supply for the tissue cells of the body.
1. Pulmonary ci rcu it - pulmonary circulation tra nsports oxygen-poor blood from the
rig ht ventricle to the lungs where blood picks up a new blood supply. Then the pulmonary
circulation returns the oxygen-rich blood to the left atriu m. Note: The vessels of this circuit
supply only the alveoli.
2. Systemic circuit - the systemic circulation provides t he functional blood supply to all
body tissue. The systemic circulation ca rries oxygen and nutrients to the cell s and picks
up carbon dioxid e and waste products. Systemic circulat ion carries oxygenated blood from
the left ventricle, through the arteries, to the capillaries in the tissues of t he body. From t he
t issue capillaries, the deoxygenated blood returns through a system of veins to the right
atriu m of the heart.
Note: The vessels of this circuit transport blood to all tissues of the body except the alveoli of
the lungs.
SAADDES
Note: The volume of blood flow per minute (5 L/min) is the same in both circuits.
Remember:
1. Mean arterial blood pressure = Cardiac output x Total peripheral resistance
2. Vascular compliance = Increase in Volume /Increase in pressure
3. Blood pressure in the pu lmonary circuit is much lower than that of the systemic circu lation,
because pu lmonary arterioles are usually dilated and have little resistance to blood flow. The
pulmonary vessels are highly compliant, allowing the pulmonary circuit to store blood volume
without changing blood pressure.
Blood C irculation
Lung
capillaries
Pulmonary
circuit
Left
atrium
Left
ventricle
Right
ventricle
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Hepatic
portal
system
Systemic capillary
beds
46-1
The right heart chambers propel blood into the pulmonary circuit (dashed arrows), and
the left heart chambers propel blood into the systemic circuit (solid arrows).
with pcnn is..-.ion from Spcae< AP, Mason EB: HmtlliJI Anammyand
circulatory system
Your patient tells you that he just had a heart bypass operation. He says that
they used a vein from his leg and re-routed blood that previously flowed
through his left anterior descending coronary artery (often referred to as the
widow maker). Which of the following explanations is correct in answering
how a vein can adequately replace an artery?
although veins have higher compliance norm ally, when under high pressure, compliance
decreases and so t he vein acts very simil ar to an artery when put in these conditions
SAADDES
although veins have lower co mp li ance normally, when under the high pressure, compliance increases and so the vein acts very similar to an artery when put in these conditions
although veins have higher resistance norm ally, when under the high pressure, resistance
decreases and so t he vein act s very simil ar to an artery when put in t hese conditions
although veins have lower resistance norm ally, when under high pressu re, resistance increases and so the vein acts very similar to an artery when put in these conditions
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Important points about compliance: (1) Compliance decreases at higher pressures and
volu mes (i.e., vessels become "stiffer" at higher p ressures and volum es); (2) At lower
p ressures, the compliance of a vein is about 10 to 20 t im es greater than that of an artery.
Therefore, veins can accommodate large changes in b lood volum e w ith on ly a small
change in pressure. However, at higher pressures and volum es, venous compliance
becomes similar to arterial compliance. This makes veins suitable for use as arterial by-
pass grafts.
Re lative volumes of blood at rest in different parts of the adult cardiovascular
system:
66% - in the systemic veins, venules
circulatory system
Your patient presents with stage 1 hypertension. His blood pressure is
1 SO mmHg/99 mmHg, confirming his diagnosis.
SAADDES
3. Norm ally, the mean pressure in the aorta is about 100 mmHg. Eventually, the blood w ill
return via the vena cava at a pressure of 4 mmHg. Where did the blood pressure decrease
the most as b lood traveled through the body?
large veins
large arteries
arterioles
venules
capillaries
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l.high
2. decrease it
3. arterioles- the site of highest resistance
Although capillaries have a smaller diameter than arteri oles, there are vastly more
capillaries arranged in parallel than there are arterioles. Thus, most of the pressure
drop in the systemic circu lation occurs in the arterioles.
Pressure decreases as blood moves through the systemic ci rcu lation. This pressure
gradient is required for blood flow.
Remember: blood flow= pressure gradient/resistance
SAADDES
The resistance to the flow of blood offered by the entire systemic circu lation is
ca lled the total peripheral resistance (TPR).
The target systolic blood pressure is 120 mmHg and the recommended diastolic
blood pressure is 80 mmHg. However, as blood enters arterioles the pressure can
drop to as low as 30 mmHg.
The pulse pressure equals the systolic pressure minus the diastolic pressure (Pulse
pressure = SBP-DBP). The most important determinant of pulse pressure is stroke
volume.
1. The pressure is highest in the aorta and lowest in the venae cavae.
2. Mean pressure is as follows: in the aorta _ . 100 mmHg; at the end of
the arterioles - . 30 mmHg; and in the vena cava - . 4 mmHg.
circulatory system
There are two general causes of extracellular fluid edema:
(1) abnormal leakage of fluid from the plasma to the interstitial spaces
across the capillaries, and (2) failure of the lymphatics to return fluid from
the interstitium back into the blood.
The most common clinical cause of interstitial fluid accumulation is
excessive capillary fluid filtration.
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Any one of the following cha nges can increase the capillary filtration rate:
Increased capillary filtration coefficient
Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
Decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure
Important:Two major forces influence fluid movement between capillaries and interstitial fluid: Hydrostatic Pressure and Colloid Osmotic Pressure (Oncotic Pressu re). Increased hydrostat ic pressure pushes fluid out of a system, while increased colloid osmotic pressure draws fluid into a system.
Netfluid movement between the capillary and interstitial fluid can be determined by the following
equation: Net Pressure= [Pc - Pi] - [nc- nil
P= Hydrostatic Pressure; n= Colloid Osmotic Pressure; c= capillary; i= interstitial fluid
A positive Net Pressure number means filtration (fluid moves out of capillaries) will occur; while a
negative Net Pressure number indicates absorption (fluid moves into capillaries) will take place.
Generally, hydrostatic pressure is higher in the capillaries than the interstitial fluid, so hydrostatic
pressure tends to favor filtration . On the other hand, colloid osmotic pressure usually favors absorption because the colloid osmot ic pressure isalso higher in the capillaries (remember: higher colloid osmotic pressure draws fluid into a system!).
circulatory system
Your patient has just finished her 2-hour appointment and is eager to get
out of the office. She stands up from the chair very fast, and quickly becomes
dizzy and nearly faints. This is termed orthostatic hypotension.
1. Wh ich of the following receptors a re most important in the short-term regul ation of her
blood p ressure and returning it to normal?
stretch receptors in the carotid sinus
chemoreceptors in the aortic bodies
chemoreceptors in the carotid bod ies
stretch receptors in the p ulm onary circul ation
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Stretch receptors in the carotid sinus are stimulated by elevated blood pressu re,
resulting in the activation of the para sympathetic nervous system and inhibition of the
sympathetic nervous system to reduce blood pressure back toward its set point.
Chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bod ies, as well as chemoreceptive neurons in the
vasomotor center of the medulla itself, detect increases in carbon dioxide, decreases in blood
oxygen and decreases in pH (which is really an increase in hydrogen ion concentration). This
information feeds back to the cardiac control center and vasomotor control center of the
medulla, which in t urn, alters the ratio of parasympathetic and sympathetic output. When
oxygen drops, carbon dioxide increases, and/or pH drops, a dominance of sympathetic
impulses increases heart rate and stroke volume and constricts "reservoir" vessels, in response.
Stretch receptors in t he atria and pulmonary circul ations are stimulated by an
expansion of blood volume. They DO NOT directly respond to changes in systemic
arterial blood pressure.
circulatory system
It's 4 o'clock on a Friday afternoon, and you are about to do a quick preparation and
restoration. When you give the injection, the patient complains of severe discomfort. You
realize you forgot to aspirate the needle first, and you have just injected into an artery.
SAADDES
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Arteries
Veins
Capillaries
Tunica Intima
(Endothelium)
Tunica Media
(Smooth :\'luscle;
Elastic Connective Tis.-.ue)
Smooth lining
Tunica Adventitia
(Fibrous Connective T issue)
SAADDES
Allows constriction and dilation of
vessels; thinner than in arterie..'i;
muscle innervated by autonomic
fi bers
Properties of Vessels
Arteries
Largest pressure
Arterioles
Largest resistance
Capillaries
Veins
dna/rna
In your practice, you see quite a few HIV/AIDS patients. These patients have a
virus that has the unique ability to:
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Reverse t ranscriptase enzymes are found naturally in certa in vi ruses cal led
retroviruses. These are viruses in which the genetic information is carried on an RNA
molecule. When one of these viruses infects a host cell, it uses this enzyme to make a
complementary DNA (eDNA) copy of its genetic information, which is then
incorporated into the host DNA.
1. The human immunodeficiency vi rus (HIV), the causative agent of AIDS, is
a retrovirus .
2. The d rug AZT (a thymidine analog) is a competitive inhibitor of the HIV
reverse transcri ptase. The w ild-type reverse transcri ptase seems to have a
high affinity for AZT and other base analogs.
3. Reverse transcriptase is one of the enzymes used in genetic engineering,
in which t he enzyme can be used to obtain a copy of a particular gene from
the relevant mRNA.
dna/rna
Ribosomes are surrounded by a membrane and form a separate cellular compartment.
In bacteria, they are either free-floating in the cytoplasm or attached to the
plasma membrane, and in eukaryotes they are either free floating in the cytoplasm or bound to the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum.
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At a ribosome, amino acids are linked together in the order specified by mRNA to form a
polypeptide or protein (this process is ca lled protein synthesis or translation). Ribosomes
have enzymatic activity. They catalyze the formation of peptide bonds, which link amino
acids to one another. Many ribosomes in different stages of translation can be attached to
a single mRNA strand (call ed a polyribosome), thus multiplying its effect. Proteins formed
by ribosomes attached to the RER are destined for secretion from the cell, incorporation
into the plasma membrane or formation of lysosomes. Since all protein synthesis begins on
free ribosomes, attachment of a ribosome to the ER requires the presence of a specific sequence at the amino end of the growing protein chain to signal the attachment of the ribosome to the ER.
1. The 70s ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis (translation) in bacterial
cells and chloroplasts and are composed of two rRNA subun its (30s & 50s) and 55
proteins.
2. The 80s ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis (translation) in the cytop lasm of eukaryotic cell s and are composed of two rRNA subunits (40s & 60s) and
84 proteins.
dna/rna
Genetic recombination experiments depend heavily upon the action of
which enzymes?
Select all that apply.
dna ligases
alkaline phosphatase
SAADDES
creatine kinase
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dna ligases
restriction endonucleases
The nuclea se is used to cleave both the DNA to be cloned and a plasmid DNA. The specificity
of the nuclease is such that, when mixed, the DNA to be cloned and the plasmid DNA will
anneal (base pair) and can then be joined together by a DNA ligase.
Southern blotting is a technique that can be used to detect mutations in DNA and can also
identify DNA restriction fragments. It combines the use of restriction enzymes and DNA
probes.
Advances in this technology (DNA cloning) are revolutionizing many aspects of medicine,
agriculture and other industries. Commercial products of recombinant DNA technology
include human insulin (for diabetes}, anticoagulants (tissue plasminogen factor},
erythropoietin (for anemia) and human growth hormone (for dwarfism}.
SAADDES
1. The first organism used for DNA cloning was E. coli, and it is still the most common
host cell. Bacterial cloning vectors include plasmids, bacteriophages and cosmids.
2. Some other enzymes that are used in recombinant DNA technology (gene
cloning) are:
DNA polymerase I -fills in t he gaps in duplexes by step-wise addition of nucleotides to 3' -end
Reverse transcriptase - makes a DNA copy of an RNA molecule
Exonucleases - remove nucl eotides from 3'- or 5'-end of DNA depending on
the specific exonuclease
dna/rna
All of the follow ing statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
SAADDES
the replication of DNA involves the building of the new ssDNA strand from 3' to 5'
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the replication of DNA involves the building of the new ssDNA strand from 3' to 5'
***RNA intermediates are involved to prime the DNA polymerase and then are later replaced by DNA.
Replication is the process of completely duplicating the DNA within a cell. The
primary enzyme in this process is DNA polymerase, which reads a single strand of
DNA from the 3'-end toward the 5'-end whi le forming the new, complementary,
continuous strand from the 5'-end toward its 3'-end. As the DNA polymerase complex
moves along the DNA molecule, the original complementary strand (lagging strand)
is also duplicated. The DNA polymerase that is moving along the lagging strand from
the 5'-end towa rd the 3'-end thus cannot form a continuous copy of the lagging
strand. Instead, the DNA polymerase fo rms approximately 1,000 to 5,000 base long
multiple segments (Okazaki fragments), wh ich are joined together by DNA ligase to
form a continuous strand.
SAADDES
DNA polymerase can only add nucl eotides to a pre-existing piece of nucl eic acid
(primer). Duri ng replication, the primer is provided by RNA polymerase. The short
10-base segments created by RNA polymerase are removed, once the DNA has been
added to it, by an exonuclease; and the gap in the sequence is filled in by a DNA
polymerase. Important point: RNA polymerase synthesizes RNA primer chains fo r
DNA polymerase and does not require a primer cha in.
Note: Topoisomerases are responsible for unwinding supercoiled DNA to allow DNA
polymerase access to replicate the genetic code. The enzyme DNA gyrase re-forms
the supercoiled structure once the repl ication fo rk has passed.
dna/rna
Which of the following enzymes is NOT involved in unwinding, unzipping
and rezipping the DNA molecule during replication?
topoisomerases
helicases
gyrases
polymerases
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polymerases
1. Ribose and uracil are the only d ifferences between the products of RNA
and DNA hydrolysis.
2. DNA is double-stranded; RNA is single-stranded.
3. Replication forks are sites at which DNA synthesis (replication) occurs.
4. The hydrolysis of DNA (deoxyribonu cl eic acid) will yield:
Phosphoric acid
Deoxyribose (sugar)
Nitrogenous base (adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine)
SAADDES
dna/rna
Which of the following is contained in a nucleoside?
Select all that apply.
nitrogen base
phosphate
SAADDES
ribose/deoxyribose sugar
serine
nitrate
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nitrogen base
ribose/deoxyribose sug ar
Note: A nucleotide also contains the phosphate.
A single base-sugar-phosphate unit is called a nucleotide. Without the phosphate group,
the molecule is called a nucleoside. These individual nucleotides are linked together to
form a polynucleotide chain (the link or bond is between a phosphate group of one
nucleotide and the sugar of the next and is called a phosphodiester bond).
If the polynucleotide chain contains the sugar ribose, the chain is called ribonucleic acid
(RNA); if the polynucleotide chain contains the sugar deoxyribose, the chain is called
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
Nucleic acid s store and transmit information to synthesize the polypeptides and proteins
present in the body's cells. Nucleic acids are complex molecules composed of structures
known as nitrogenous bases (purines and pyrimidines), five-carbon sugars (pentoses)
and phosphate groups (which conta in phosphorus and oxygen).
SAADDES
dna/rna
Which of the following are the same in RNA and DNA molecules?
the purines
the pyri midines
both the purines and pyrimidines
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the purines
***The purines (A and G) are the same.
In DNA, the pyrimidine bases are thymine (T) and cytosine (C). In RNA, the pyrimidine
bases are uracil (U) and cytosine (C).
***The phrase "CUT down the pyramid s" may help you remember that cytosine, uracil,
and t hymine are all pyrimi dines.
Remember: The backbone of the DNA molecule consists of the deoxyriboses linked by
phosphodiester b ridges (i.e., the 3'-0H group of the sugar of one is linked to the 5'-0H of
the next sugar by a phosphate). The va riable part of the DNA is the sequence of the bases
and the p recise sequence of the purine and pyrimid ine bases carry the geneti c
information to express t he characteristics of the organism.
SAADDES
After t he form ation of the DNA molecule, there is a polarity with the 5'-0H group at one end
of the helical structure and the 3'-0H group at the other end. The base sequence is written
in t he 5' ..... 3' direction. A resulting spiral double helical structure results.
1. Purine ba ses t hat are cons umed in the human diet in the form of DNA or
RNA are mostly excreted in t he form of uric acid. Xanthine oxidase catalyzes this
formation of uric acid from p urine bases.
2. The use of tetrahydrofolic acid (TFA) by several of the enzymes in purine and
pyrimid ine synt hesis has made TFA metabolism a prime target for a number of
antimetabolites, such as methotrexate, used in cancer chemotherapy.
3. Ultraviolet light produces pyrimidine dim ers in DNA, which interfere w ith
replication and transcription. These lesions are removed via the acti on of an
endonuclease, an enzyme that excises a 12 bp (base pair) fragment surrounding
the dim er. Then DNA polymerase I fill s in the gap and DNA ligase seals the
seams.
dna/rna
Which of the following RNA mutations is least likely to have a significant
effect on the product protein?
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Important: Only tryptophan, methionine, and selenocysteine are coded by just one codon.
The other 17 amino acids are coded by two or more. Codon s that specify the same amino acid
are called synonyms.
Several of the codons serve special functions:
1. Initiation codon (AUG) - signals the beginning of polypeptide chains and codes for
methionine: thus all proteins begin with methionine.
2. Termination codons (UAA, UAG, and UGA)- signal the end of polypeptide chain synthesis. These codons are also referred to as stop codons or nonsense codons.
dna/rna
A sequence of DNA reads "A-T-T-G-C-A:' How many hydrogen bonds would you
expect to see holding this sequence to its complementary strand?
12
14
16
18
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In the Watson-Crick structure, the two cha ins or strands of the heli x are antiparallel,
such that one strand runs 5' to 3' ("five prime to three pri me") wh ile the other runs 3'
to 5'.
The DNA double helix is held together by two sets of forces: hydrogen bonding
between complementary base pairs and base-stacking interactions facili tated by
phosphodiester bonds.
The helix structure results in a major and a m inor g roove being formed along the DNA
molecule. The major groove is the binding region for many proteins that control the
transcri ptional activity of the DNA molecule.
Important: Three hydrogen bonds can form between G and C, but only two can
form between A and T. The weaker bonding between A and T (or U in RNA) is used in
transcri ption to aid in the release of the newly formed RNA from the DNA template.
dna/rna
A sequence of DNA is " T-A-G-T-A-T-C-A-T". What would the complementary
RNA sequence be?
A-T-C-A-T-A-G-T-A
A-U-C-A-U-A-G-U-A
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U-T-C-U-T-U-G-T-U
A-G-C-A-U-A-G-T-U
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A-U-C-A-U-A-G-U-A
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Remember: This complementary base pairing can also occur in RNA and between
RNA and DNA; however, uracil substitutes for thymine in RNA. Uracil base pairs w ith
adenine.
Important point: The A-T base pair promotes helix stabilization in DNA but does
not do so in RNA.
l .ln all DNA, the number of thymine residues equals the number of adenine
residues. Also, the number of guanine residues equals the number of
cytosine residues.
2. Puri nes are the larger of the two types of bases found in DNA.
3. In addition, the sum of purine residues equals the sum of pyrimidine
residues (A + G = T + C).
4. The melting temperature of the double helix is a function of the base
composition with a higher GC content having a higher melting temperatu re.
dna/rna
All of the following statements concerning the backbone of DNA are true
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
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it is hydrophobic
it is highly polar
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it is hydrophobic
*""*This is false; it is hydrophilic.
The backbone of DNA, which is constant throughout the molecule, consists of deoxyriboses
linked by phosphodiester bonds. Note: The backbone of RNA consists of riboses linked by the
same phosphodiester bonds.
Specifically, the 5'-hydroxyl group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 3'-hydroxyl group of the
next nucleot ide by a phosphodiester linkage. Thus, the covalent backbones of nucleic acids
consist of alternating phosphate and pentose residues and a purine or pyrimidine base is attached
to each pentose. The 5'-0H group and the 3'-0H moiety are linked in a condensation reaction.
The most prominent features of the DNA Double Helix:
The two strands of the double helix have opposite polarity. Base-pairing is always antiparallel,
not only in the DNA double helix but also in other base-pai red structures formed by DNA or RNA.
The 2-deoxyribose/phosphate backbones of the t wo strands form two ridges on the surface of
the molecule. The phosphate groups are negatively charged.
The bases face inward to the helix axis, but their edges are exposed. They form the lining of two
grooves that are framed by the ridges of the sugar-phosphate backbone. The two grooves are of
unequal size. They are called the major and minor groove.
In each of the two strands, successive bases lie flat. one on top of the other, like a stack of pancakes. The flat surfaces of the bases are hydrophobic and successive bases in a strand form numerous van der Waals interactions. This base stacking is the strongest noncovalent force in t he
double helix.
Bases in opposite strands interact by hydrogen bonds. Note: The base sequence of one strand
predicts exactly the base sequence of the opposite strand. This is essential for DNA replication and
DNA repair.
The double strand is wound into a right-handed helix with about 10.4 base pairs per turn.
1. The backbones of both DNA and RNA are hydrophilic and highly polar.
2. The hydroxyl groups of the sugar residues form hydrogen bonds with water.
3. The ribose phosphate portion of purine and pyrimidine nucleotides comes from 5phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate (PRPP). PRPP is synthesized from ATP and ribose
5-phosphate, which is primarily formed by the pentose phosphate pathway.
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dna/rna
Which type of RNA is the least abundant in the cell?
messenger RNA
t ransfer RNA
ri bosomal RNA
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messenger RNA
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dna/rna
The activity level of which enzyme controls the rate of glycolysis?
aldolase
phosphoglucose isomerase
phosphofructokinase
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phosphofructokinase
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Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm in the absence of oxygen and involves the following:
1. Two molecules of ATP are used to phosphorylate glucose and start glycolysis.
2. The phosphorylated molecule is then broken down in a series of reactions into two, three
carbon molecules (lysis}.
3.Two molecules of NAD capture Wand are reduced to 2 molecules of NADH + W.
4. Four molecules of ATP are produced by substrate phosphorylation.
5. The end product pyruvate may then either undergo aerobic respiration in the mitochondria or anaerobic respiration (fermentation}.
*** Net Gain of 2 ATP
Notes
Hexoldnase or
glucokinase
ATP
Glycolysis
ADP
Glycoraldohydo
3phos photo
2H 2PO.. + 2NAD'
dehydrogenase
Glucose _ _\.::.,._,.:
/ ;__ _ Glusosc 6phosphate
Phosphoglycoroto
2ADP
kin ase
Fructose &.phosphate
Phosphofructokinase 1
3-phoaphQ91yterate ( 2)
ATP
Phosphoglycoroto1 l
mutase
ADP
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Fructose 1, 6bisphosphate
2phosphoglyeerato (2)
Eno/as1'
Glyceraldehyde + Dlhydroxyac:tone
3-phosphate
phosphate
Phosphoenolpyruvate (2)
\____/
Triose phosphate
isomerase
Pyruvate kinese
2ADP
2ATP
Pvruvate l 2l
enzymes
All of the following are the most useful enzymes for the diagnosis of acute
myocardial infarction EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
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In the heart:
Creatine kinase (CK): CK-2 along with CK-3
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): specifically H subunits
Aspartate transaminase (AST)
1. Levels of lipase and amylase are elevated in acute pancreatitis and their main use is the
differential diagnosis in patients who present with severe abdominal pain of sudden onset.
2. CK is used for the diagnosis of muscle diseases. Along with LDH, AST and myoglobin levels, CK level is elevated in dermatomyositis, polymyositis and muscular dystrophies.
3. Elevated LDH with more or less normal AST and CK levels is typical for pulmonary infarction.
4. Glutamyl transferase (GGT) is used as a sensitive indicator of biliary obstruction.
5. Acid phosphatase (ACP) and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) are tumor markers used
for the diagnosis and follow-up of patients with prostatic cancer.
enzymes
All ofthe following statements concerning transamination reactions are true
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
these reactions involve the transfer of an amino g roup from one amino acid to an
a-keto acid
the enzymes that cata lyze these reactions are known as t ransaminases o r
aminotransferases
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glutamate and a-ketoglutarate are often involved in these reactions, serving as one
of the amino acid/a-keto acid pairs
pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), which is derived from vitamin B6 serves as the cofactor
for these reactions
all amino acids participate in these reactions at some point in their catabolism
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all amino acids participate in these reactions at some point in their catabolism
***
This is false; serine and threon ine are not transaminated. They are oxidatively
deaminated (release NH3) by a dehydratase enzyme to form pyruvate and propionyl coA
respectively.
The first step in the catabolism of most amino acids involves the removal of the a -amino
group. Once removed, th is nitrogen can be incorporated into other compounds or
excreted.
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Note: Glutamate and a -ketoglutarate usually serve as one of t he pairs; tran saminases
(aminotransferases) catalyze the t ransfer of amino groups; all transaminases require the
coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate.
In contrast to transamination reactions that t ransfer amino groups, oxidative
deamination reacti ons result in the liberation of the amino group as free ammonia (NHl
These reactions occur primarily in the liver and ki dney and provide a -ketoacids (for
energy) and ammonia (wh ich is a source of nitrogen in urea synt hesis). Note: Enzymes
involved in deamination reactions include glutamate dehydrogenase (for glutamate),
histida se (for h istidine) and serine dehydratase (for serine and threonine).
enzymes
All of the following are true of oxidative deamination reactions EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
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*** Important: Both aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
are transaminases (aminotransferases). They are not involved in oxidative deamination
reactions. In contrast to transamination reactions that transfer amino groups, oxidative
deamination results in t he liberation of the am ino group as free ammon ia.
1. Glutaminase deaminates glutamine to glutamate and ammonium ion;
asparaginase deaminates asparagine to aspartate and ammonium ion.
2. Glutamate is unique in that it is t he only am ino acid that undergoes rapid oxidative deamination.
3. Histidine is deaminated by histidase to form ammonium ion (NH',J and urocanate.
4. Serine and threonine are deaminated by serine dehydratase. Serine is converted
to pyruvate and threonine to a-ketobutyrate (which is decarboxylated oxidatively
to form propionyl CoA); ammon ium ion is released.
enzymes
Carbonic anhydrases are _ _ _ -containing enzymes that catalyze the
reversible reaction between carbon dioxide hydration and bicarbonate
dehydration.
manganese
selenium
zinc
mercury
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zinc
Carbon dioxide (C0 2) is a key metabolite in all living organism s. Carbon dioxide exists in
equilibrium with bicarbonate (HC0 3"), which is poorly soluble in l ipid membranes compared to carbon dioxide; carbon dioxide can freely diffuse in and out of the cell, while bicarbonate must be transported. The conversion of bicarbonate to carbon dioxide facilitates
its transport into the cell, wh ile the conversion of carbon dioxide to b icarbonate helps trap
the carbon dioxide in the cell. The interconversion of carbon dioxide and b icarbonate proceeds slowly at physiological pH, so organisms produce enzymes to speed up the process.
Carbonic anhydrases are zinc-containing enzymes that catalyze the reversible rea ction
between carbon dioxide hydration and bicarbonate dehydration.
Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the following reaction: H20 + C0 2 -
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H+ + HC03
Carbonic anhydrase is one of the fastest known enzym es (one molecule of carbonic
anhydrase can process one milli on molecules of C0 2 each second) and is found in great
concentration in erythrocytes. Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that enables red b lood
cells to transport carbon dioxide from the t issues to the lungs.
1. Within the erythrocyte, carbon ic anhydrase facilitates the combination of carbon dioxide and water to form carbonic acid.
2. Carbonic anhydrase also functions in the kidney with the reabsorption of bicarbonate ion.
3. Although not required for carbon dioxide and water to form carbon ic acid,
carbonic anhydrase greatly increases the reaction in both respects (formation
and dissociation).
4. Most of the carbon dioxide (C0 ) is transported in the b lood as bicarbonate
2
ion (HC0 3). It is converted to carbonic acid (H C0 ) more rapidly in whole
2
3
blood than in plasma. The reason for this is that whole blood contains erythrocytes with carbonic anhydrase while plasma does not contain erythrocytes.
enzymes
Which of the following components of the electron transport chain accepts
only electrons?
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cytochrome b
oxygen
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cytochrome b
***The cytoch romes accept only electrons. The other components accept hydrogen and
electrons.
The majority of the energy conserved during catabolism reactions occurs near the end of
the metabolic series of reacti ons in the electron trans port chain. The electron tran sport,
or respiratory chain, gets its name fro m the fact that electrons are transported to meet
up with oxygen from respiration at the end of the chain. This chain is present in the inner
mitochondrial membrane and is the fi nal common pathway by which electrons derived
from different fuels of the body flow to oxygen. Elect ron transport and ATP synt hesis by
oxidative phosphorylation proceed continuously in all cells of the body that contain
mitochondria.
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Complex I
NADH dehydrogenase
Complex JJ
Succinate dehydrogenase
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Complex JJJ
Ubiquinone-cytochrome c
oxidoreductase
Complex IV
Cy tochrome oxidase
enzymes
Which ofthe following is NOT an enzyme classification?
oxidoreductase
ligase
transferase
oxygenase
hydrolase
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isomerase
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oxygenase
***Oxygenase is an enzyme but not an enzyme classification. It belongs to the oxidoreductase enzyme class.
Enzymes are catalysts. Most are very large proteins. Enzymes b ind temporarily to one or
more of the reactants of the reaction the enzymes catalyze.ln doing so, the enzyme introd uces a new reaction pathway, which lowers the amount of activation energy needed and
thus speeds up the reaction. The functioning of the enzyme is determined by the shape of
the protein. Enzymes are substrate specific. For example, the enzyme pepti dase (which
breaks peptide bonds in proteins) will not work on starch (which is b roken down by humanproduced amylase in the mouth). The arrangement of molecules on the enzyme prod uces
an area known as the active site w ithin which the specific substrate(s) w ill "fit". It recognizes, confines, and orients the substrate in a particular direction.
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Classification of enzymes:
enzymes
Which of the following enzymes is responsible for dissolving blood clots?
prothrombin
thrombin
fibri nogen
plasmin
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plasmin
Plasmin (aka fibrinolysin) is normally present in the blood in an inactive form ca lled
plasminogen. Substances known as plasminogen activators (for example, urokinase
produced in the kidney) can convert plasminogen to plasmin, which will cleave the
peptide bond in fibri n, leading to its breakdown and dissolution of clots.
Fibrinogen is a soluble protein normally present in the plasma that is essential to the
blood clotting process. Fibrinogen is converted into an insoluble, th read-like polymer
ca lled fibrin by the enzyme thrombin. Thrombin is produced from the inactive
plasma protein precursor prothrombin, which is formed in the liver. In the presence
of th romboplastin and ca lcium ions, prothrombin is converted to thrombin.
Deficiency in plasmin can lead to thrombosis and defective wound healing.
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Note: Research has shown that thrombin acts upon the arginyl-glycine linkages
(specific peptide bonds) in fibrinogen to produce a fibrin monomer.
enzymes
A zymogen is converted to its active enzyme form by which of the following
mechanisms?
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Zymogen
Active E nzyme
Stomach
Pepsinogen
Pepsin
Pancreas
Chymotlypsinogen
Chymotrypsin
Pancreas
Trypsinogen
T rypsin
Pancreas
Procarboxypeptidase A
Carboxypeptidase A
Pancreas
Procarboxypeptidase B
Carboxypeptidase B
Pancreas
Proelastase
Elastase
enzymes
Starch molecules are broken down by enzymes known as:
oxygenases
isomerases
peroxidases
amylases
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amylases
Amylase is the name given to glycoside hydrolase enzymes that break down starch into glucose molecules. Amylase is also known as ptyalin. Although the amylases are designated by
d ifferent Greek letters, they all act on et- 1.4-glycosidic bonds.
Classifi cation of amylases:
et-a myiases: by acting at random locations along the starch chain, a -amylase breaks
down long-chain carbohydrates, ultimately yielding maltotriose and maltose from amyllose, or maltose, glucose, and "limit dextrin" from amylopectin. Because a-amylase can
act anywhere on the substrate, a-amylase tends to be faster acting than [3-amylase. In
animals, a-amylase is a major digestive enzyme.
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Note: In human physiology, both the sa livary and pancreatic amylases are a-amylases.
1. "Limit dextrins" are various branched polysaccharide fragments that remain following the hydrolysis of starch.
2. Disaccharides and small glucose polymers are hydrolyzed at the intestinal brush
border by lactase, sucrase, maltase and alpha-dextrinase.
3. Remember: Only monosaccharides (e.g., glucose, galactose, fructose) are absorbed
in the small intestine. Lactase degrades lactose to glucose and galactose, isomaltase
cleaves a glucose linked 1,6 to another glucose as is found at the branch points in
starch and glycogen and sucrase degrades sucrose to glucose and fructose.
4. a-1,4 linkages are the predom inant linkages between glucose units within
glycogen molecules.
enzymes
Your patient's medical history says that she has von Gierke's disease. She is
missing the enzyme
which converts _____
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carboxykinase)
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate -
bisphosphatase)
Glucose-6 -phosphate -glucose (catalyzed by glucose-6-phosphatase)
1. Glucose-6-phosphate does not contain a high-energy bond.
2. In glycolysis, glucose is converted to pyruvate; glycolysis is the first part of
the respiratory pathway. In gluconeogenesis, pyruvate is converted to glucose.
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Summary:
2 Pyruvate + 4ATP + 2GTP + 2NADH + 4H20 --- glucose + 4ADP + 2GDP + 6P; + 2 NAD + 2H '
The bypass reactions are in bold; a ll other reactions are reversible steps of g lycolysis. The
figures at the right indicate that the reaction is to be counted twice, because two three-carbon
precursors are required to make a molecule of glucose. Note that the reactions required to replace the cytosol ic NADH consumed in the glycera ldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase reaction (the conversion of lactate to pyruvate in the cytoso l or the transport of reducing
equiva lents from the mitochondria to the cytosol in the fom1 of malate) are not considered in
this summary.
7 .,_ 1
enzymes
Km is the substrate concentration at which the enzyme is half-saturated with
its substrate.
Km is also the substrate concentration at which the reaction is half maximal.
both statements are true
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The Michaelis Menton constant (Kml is frequently and incorrectly said to be equivalent
to the dissociation constant of the enzyme-substrate complex. For most reactions, the
Michaelis constant is a co mp lex function of many different reaction constants, but this
constant does give a method by which to compare the affinity (reciprocal of dissociation)
of an enzyme for different substrates or different enzymes for the same substrate. The
lower the Km the higher the relat ive affinity.
1. Km va lues for enzyme-substrate reactions:
enzymes
All of the following statements concerning allosteric enzymes are true
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
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The hallmark of effectors is that when they b ind to enzymes, the effectors alter the
catalytic properties of an enzyme's active site. Those that increase cata lytic activity are
known as positive effectors. Effectors that reduce or inhibit cata lytic activity are
negative effectors. These modifiers may be either the substrate itself or some other
metabolite. For example, ATP inhibits phosphofructokinase (an allosteric enzyme) even
though ATP is also a substrate for this enzyme.
enzymes
What is the substrate for glycogen synthesis?
UDP-glucose
TOP-glucose
ADP-glucose
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CTP-glucose
GTP-glucose
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UDP-gluco se
The synthesis of glycogen from glucose is carried out by the enzyme glycogen synthase.
It is the key regulatory enzyme for glycogen synthesis and utilizes UDP-glucose as one
substrate and the non-reducing end of glycogen as another.
Note: Glycogen synthase is respon sible for making the a -1,4linkages in glycogen.
UDP-glucose is the substrate for glycogen synthesis. Glucose enters the cell and is
p hosphorylated to g lucose -6-phosphate by hexokinase (in most tissues) or by
glucokinase (in the liver). To initiate glycogen synthesis, the glucose-6-phosphate is
reversibly converted into glucose -1-phosphate by phosphoglucomutase. Th is glucose1-phosphate is then converted to UDP-glucose by the action of UDP-glucose
pyrophosphoryla se.
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8
enzymes
Which of the following best describes an "uncompetitive inhibitor"?
essentially a noncompetitive inhibito r that can bind only when the substrate is
attached
essentially a competitive inhibitor that can bind only when the substrate is attached
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enzymes
A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme:
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Vmax is decreased
Km is unchanged
Km is increased
Vm is decreased
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enzymes
Trypsinogen is activated either by trypsin or by the duodenal enzyme:
endopeptidase
alanine aminotransferase
enteropeptidase
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pancreatic lipase
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enteropeptida se
The presence of amino acids (from protein digestion) in the small intestine (specifically t he
d uoden um) stimulates the release of cholecystokinin (CCK). This hormone causes the release
of the pancreatic zymogens (e.g., trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, proelastase,
procarboxypeptidases and prophospholipases) and the contraction of the gallbladder to
deliver bile to the duodenum.
To prevent self-digestion, the dangerous enzymes (not the lipases and glycosidases) are
synthesized and secreted as inactive precursors called zymogens. The zymogens are
synthesized at the rough endoplasmic reticulum, stored in secretory vesicles, released by
exocytosis and activated by selective proteolytic cleavage in t he lumen of the Gl tract.
Remember:
Trypsinogen is activated either by trypsin or by enteropeptidase
Trypsin converts trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, proelastase and procarboxypeptidase
A and B to their active forms. Important point: Trypsin can act as an activator for all zymogens of pancreatic proteases.
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enzymes
Which enzyme is derived from osteoblasts and its serum level rises in bone
conditions with increased osteoblastic activity?
lactate dehydrogenase
alanine t ransaminase
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alkaline phosphatase
acid phosphatase
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alkaline phosphatase
Alkaline phosphatase is abundant in bone, placenta, intestine and the hepatobil iary system.
Each of these organs contains a different isoenzyme.The bone and liver enzymes are the most
abundant in the normal serum. The bone enzyme is derived from osteoblasts and its serum
level rises in bone conditions with increased osteoblastic activity: rickets, osteomalacia, hyperparathyroidism, osteitis deformans, neoplastic di seases with bone metastases and healing
fractures. Note: The liver enzyme level is increased in patients with biliary obstruction.
Remember: The levels of only a limited number of enzymes are determined on a rout ine basis
in most clinical laboratories. The most important of these are as follows:
1. Plasma cholinesterase is one of the few diagnostically important enzymes whose major
place of residence is in the plasma. It is decreased in severe liver diseases, includ ing viral
hepatitis and liver cirrhosis. More important is its use in the diagnosis of organophosphate poisoning. Respon sible for metabolism of ester anesthetics used in dentistry.
2. Alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST): these enzymes are
most abu ndant in the liver. They are not secreted into the blood and therefore any elevation of their plasma levels is due to leakage from damaged cells. The transaminase levels are
used for the diagnosis of liver diseases.
3. -y-Giutamyl transferase (GGT): although present in most tissues, it is most abundant in
liver and kidney. GGT is used as a sensitive indicator of biliary obstruction.
4. Acid phosphatase (ACP) and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) are tumor markers, used
for the diagnosis and follow-up of patients with prostatic cancer.
5. Creatine kinase (specifically CK-2 along with CK-3) is the first heart enzyme to appear in
the blood after a heart attack, followed by aspartate transaminase (AST) and lactate
dehydrogenase (LDH).
6. Levels of lipase and amylase are elevated in acute pancreatitis and their main use is the
d ifferential diagnosis in patients who present with severe abdominal pain of sudden onset.
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enzymes
Which of the following equations is correct?
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t.'lll\ mt.s
cunl.tinml!,
t.'lcntcnh .t\ (UI.tcturs
Enzymes
Cofactor
Fc1 ' or Fe3 "
murl!.tnh:
Cytochrome oxidase
Catalase
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Peroxidase
Ferredoxin
Cul
Cytochrome oxidase
Pyruvate phosphokinase
Zn2
Carb<lnic anhydrase
Alcohol dehydrogenase
Mg'
Hexokinase
Glucose-6-phosphatasc
Pyruvate kinase
Mn 2
Arginase
Rib<lnuelcotide reductase
Pyruvate
Ni1..-
Urease
Mo
Dinitrogcnasc
Se
Glutathione peroxidase
enzymes
Which ofthe following functions as a coenzyme vital to tissue respiration?
pyridoxal phosphate
biocytin
thiamine pyrophosphate
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tetrahydrofolate
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thiamine pyrophosphate
Thiamine pyrophosphate functions as a coenzyme vital to tissue respiration. It is req uired as a
cofactor for the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase, which catalyzes the oxidative decarboxylation
of pyruvate, to form acetyi-CoA, which then enters into the Krebs cycle for the generation of energy.
Thiamine pyrophosphate is also a coenzyme for transketolase, which functions in the pentose
phosphate pathway, an alternate pathway for glucose oxidation.
Suml' COl'llL\ nus sen
Coenzyme
Derived from
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Nicotinamide adenine.
dinucleotide (NAD)
vitamin 8.1)
Coenzyme A
in the body.
Pantothenic acid
(vitamin Bs)
Tetrahydrofolate
folic acid
Lipoate
Coenzyme. B u
Vitamin Bu
hormones
All of the major anterior pituitary hormones, EXCEPT for growth hormone
exert their principal effects by stimulating target glands such as the
thyroid gland, adrenal cortex, ovaries, testicles and mammary glands.
Growth hormone, in contrast to other hormones, does not function
through a target gland but exerts its effects directly on all or almost all
tissues of the body.
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hormones
Testosterone and pituitary FSH are required for normal sperm production.
Many cells express the androgen receptor and the FSH receptor.
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G land
Tatget
Source
Hormone
Action (s)
Thyroid-stimulating
honnone
11tyroid gland
FoJliclestimulating
honnone
Ovary
Testis
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Luteinizing hormone
Growth hom1one
secretion
Anterior pituitary
Ovary
Testis
Anterior pituitary
Bone
Prolactin
Mammary
Adrenocorticotropic
honnone
AdrenaJ cortex
Melanocyte
stimulating hom1one
Skin
S timulates melanin
Oxytocin
Milk ejection
Uterine contraction
S timulates water reabsorption a t rena] collecting
ducts
hormones
All of the following hormones use the adenylyl cyclase-cAMP second messenger system EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
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somatostatin
thyroid-releasing hormone
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thyroid-releasing hormone
Second messengers are small, diffusible molecules that mediate the intracellular effects of
hormones. These "second messenger molecules intervene between the original message (the
neurotransmitter or hormone) and the ultimate effect on the cell.
The following second messenger systems play critical roles in hormone-mediated cell regulation:
adenylate cyclase (cAMP), ca lcium ions and associated calmodulin and products of membrane
phospholipid breakdown (e.g., inositol triphosphate [IP3 1and diacylglycerol [DAG]). Note: Not
only do multiple hormones ut ilize the same second messenger system, but a single hormone can
also utilize more tha n one system. lmportant: Hormones that utilize second messengers are usually
water soluble peptide/protein hormones.
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Important: cAMP is released into the cytoplasm after a first messenger G protein bind s to its receptor on the catalytic domains of adenylyl cyclase. Once adenylyl cyclase forms cAMP and releases it into
the cytoplasm, the cAMP binds to ion channels or to an enzyme, such as protein kinase, to expose
this enzyme's active site, which continues the commu nication pathway.
Remember:
1. cAMP issynthesized from adenosine triphosphat e (ATP) by adenylate cyclase, a hormone-controlled enzyme in the plasma membrane.
2. cAMP is degraded by a group of enzymes that are collectively known as phosphodiesterases.
3. The most important target of cAMP is protein kinase A.
hormones
Which of the following is the best-known stimuli for increasing the rate of
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion by the anterior pituitary
gland?
exposure to heat
exposure to cold
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exposure to stress
exposure to relaxation
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exposure to cold
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), also called thyrotropin, is secreted by cel ls called thyrotropes
of the anterior pituitary gland. TSH controls the rate of secretion of thyroxine (T4 ) and
triiodothyronine (T 3 ) by the thyroid gland and t hese hormones control the rates of most
intracellular chemical reactions in the body.
Various types of stress can inhibit TSH secretion, most likely by way of neural influences that inhibit
the secretion ofthyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Remember: TSH secretion is stimulated by TRH. There are several negative feedback loops that
regulate the secretion of thyroid hormones, including the following:
1. High levels of circulating thyroid hormone decreases the secretion of both TRH and TSH.
2. Elevated levels ofTSH decreases the secretion ofTRH.
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Causes of Hyperthyroidism (e.g., Toxic Goiter, Thyrotoxicosis, Graves' disease): In the patient with hyperthyroidism the entire thyroid gland is usually markedly hyperplastic. These changes in the t hyroid gland are similar to those ca used by excessive thyroid-stimulating hormone. However,
radioimmunoassay studies have shown the plasma TSH concentrations to be less than normal rather
than enhanced and often to be essentially zero. On the other hand, another substance that has an
action similar to that ofTSH is found in the blood of most patients. This substance, called long-acting thyroid stimulator (LATS), has a prolonged stimulating effect on the thyroid gland.
Note: In hypothyroidism (whether it is manifested as myxedema in adults or as cretinism in children), there is decreased serum free T4 and increased serum TSH.
Remember: About 93% of the metabolical ly active hormones secreted by the t hyroid gland is t hyroxine, and 7% triiodothyronine. However, almost all of the thyroxine is eventually converted to triiodothyronine in the tissues, so that both are functionally important. The functions of these two
hormones are qualitatively the same, but they differ in rapidity and intensity of action. Triiodothyronine is about four times as potent as t hyroxine, but it is present in the blood in much smaller quantit ies and persists for a much shorter t ime than does thyroxine.
hormones
Releasing hormones are synthesized in the:
posterior pituitary
hypothalamus
anterior pituitary
ovary
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hypothalamus
The secretions of the anterior pituitary are controlled by hypothalamic releasing and inhibitory
hormones (factors), which are secreted within the hypothalamus itself and then conducted to the
anterior pituitary through min ute blood vessels called t he hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal
system .
The hormones of the posterior pituitary (ADH and oxytocin) are synthesized in neuroendocrine
cells located within the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus. The synthesized
hormones are packaged in granules that are transported dow n the axon of the cell and stored in
nerve terminals located in the neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary).
Uonnones of tlu: lh poth.ll.unus
Jlormo.nt
Sou ret
Growth hormone-
llypothalamus
Adenohypophysis
(somatotropes)
llypothalamus
Adenohypophysis
(somatotropes)
Cortic.oLropinllypothalamus
releasing; hormone
Adenohypophysis
((."'rticotropes)
Adenohypophysis
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releasing; hormone
(GRI I)
Acljon ($)
Growth hormone-
inhibiting: hormone
(SontatOSLatin)
hormone (ACTI1)
(CRII)
Th>rotropinllypothalamus
releasing; hormone
(thyrotrop)
(TRH)
Gonad otropinllypothalamus
hormone
(GNRII)
Adenohypophysis
(gonadotropes)
Prola<:1inll)'pOthalamus
rtlc.asing hormone
(PRH)
(lac1o1ropes)
Prola<:1inll)'pOthalamus
inhibiting hormone
(Pil l)
(lac1o1ropes)
Stimulates
of prolactin
hormones
ADH is formed primarily in the paraventricular nuclei and oxytocin is formed
primarily in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus.
ADH and oxytocin are secreted by the posterior pituitary.
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hormones
All of the following are factors and conditions that decrease insulin secretion
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
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somatostatin
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ln!.'rea!led blood glucosclncrcas.cd bliXId free fany adds
blood ami1\0 acids
Gl
(gascrin, o:'holccyl!tokini.n.. GIP)
Glucagoo.. Growth OOtmo.,e. rot1isul
Parasympathetic simulatioo. ai,'!Ct)'lcholi.n.c
PadtMcrgk s-timulatio"
Ikcrcascd blood
Fasting
Som:uos:t.:uin
o.-:.drcnergic acti\'ity
LCJ)Iin
1. Insulin is secreted by the beta cells in the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas.
2. Maj or stimuli for insulin secretion include increased serum g lucose and some amino acids
(particularly arg inine and lysine).
3. Key point: Insulin promotes the utilization of carbohyd rates for energy, whereas it
depresses the utilization of fats. Conversely, lack of insulin causes fat util ization mainly to the
exclusion of glucose util ization, except for brain tissue.
4. Clinical manifestations of hypoglycemia include: hunger, nervousness, shakiness,
perspiration, dizziness or lightheadedness. sleepiness, confusion, d ifficult y speaki ng and
feeling anxious or weak. Important: Seizures can occur as a result of severely low glucose
levels.
hormones
Glucagon, a hormone secreted by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans
when blood glucose concentration falls, has several functions that are
diametrically opposed to those of insulin.
The most important function of glucagon is to increase the blood glucose
concentration, an effect that is exactly the opposite that of insulin.
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hormones
As the acidic stomach contents pass into the small intestine, the low pH
triggers secretion of the hormone _ _ _ into the blood.
cholecystokinin
gastric inhibitory peptide
gastrin
secretin
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secretin
Several hormones control Gl secretion and moti lity of the Gl tract:
Secretin: was the first Gl hormone discovered and is secreted by the "S" cells in the mucosa of
the duodenum in response to acidic gastric juice emptying into the duodenum from the pylorus
of the stomach. Secreti n functions as a type of firefighter: secretin stimulates the pancreas to
release a flood of bicarbonate base which neutralizes the acid. Secretin has the following
functions:
Inhibits stomach moti lity and gast ric acid secretion
Stimulates the pancreatic duct cells to secrete a fluid that contains a lot of bicarbonate ions
but is low in enzymes
Stimulates the secretion of bile from the gallbladder
Cholecystokinin plays a key role in facilitating digestion within the small int estine. Cholecystokinin is secreted by the "I" cells in the mucosa of the duodenum and jejunum mainly in response
to digest ive product s of fat. fatty acids and monoglycerides in the intest inal contents. This hormone strongly contracts the gallbladder, expelling bile into the small intestine where the bile in
turn plays important roles in emulsifying fatty substances, allowing them to be digested and absorbed. Cholecystokinin also inhibits stomach contraction moderately. Therefore, at the same
time that this hormone causes emptying of the gallbladder, it also slows the emptying of food
from the stomach to give adequate time for digestion of the fats in the upper intestinal tract.
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Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) is secreted by the mucosa of the upper small intesti ne mainly
in response to fatty acids and amino acids but to a lesser extent in response to carbohydrates. It
has a mild effect in decreasing motor activity of the stomach and therefore slows emptying of gast ric contents into the duodenum when the upper small intestine is already overloaded with food
products.
Gastrin is a major physiological regulator of gastric acid secretion. Gastrin also has an important
trophic or growth-promoting influence on the gastric mucosa. Gastrin is secreted by "G" cells of
the antrum of the stomach in response to sti muli associated with ingestion of a meal (e.g., distension of the stomach, productsof protein degradation and gastrin releasing peptide, which itself
is released by nerves of gastric mucosa during vagal stimulation). The pri mary actions of gastrin
are (1) stimulation of gastric acid secretion and (2) sti mulation of growth of the gastric mucosa.
hormones
The enterogastric reflex. which is initiated when the duodenum fills with
_ _ _ , inhibits the "pyloric pump:' thereby inhibiting gastric motility and
emptying.
bicarbonate
acid chyme
enkephalins
water
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acid chyme
As acid chyme enters the duodenum, the decreasing pH inhibits gastrin secretion and
causes the release of negative o r "stop" signals in the duodenum. These take the form
of hormones cal led enterogastrones, which include cholecystokinin (the most important"stop" signal), secretin and gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP). These hormones
inhibit stomach secretion and motility and allow time for the digestive process to
proceed in the duodenum before it receives more chyme.
The enterogastric reflex also reduces motili ty and forcefully closes the pyloric sphincter. Eventuall y, as the chyme is removed, the pH increases, and gastrin and the"go" signal resumes, and the process of digestion occurs all over again. The process of"go" and
"stop" signals continues until stomach emptying is complete.
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hormomes
All of the following statements concerning aldosterone are true EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
causes Na retention
causes K excretion
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renin controls it
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The major target of aldosterone is the distal tubule of t he kidney, where aldosterone
stimulates exchange of sodium and potassium. Three primary physiologic effects result:
Increased resorption of sodium: sodium loss in urine is decreased under aldosterone
stimulation
Increased resorption of water, with consequent expansion of extracellular fluid
volume. This is an osmotic effect directly related to increased resorption of sodium.
Increased renal excretion of potassium
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hormones
Oral contraceptives work by:
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Oral contraceptives ("the pill") are pills consisting of one or more female sex
hormones taken by women to prevent pregnancy. Most oral contraceptives are
combined pills that contain synthetic estrogen-like (ethinyl estradiol and mestranol)
and progesterone-like (norethindrone,norethynodrel, ethynodiol and norgestrel)
substances.
These synthetic hormones apparently prevent the rise in luteinizing hormone. This
in turn, prevents ovulation. The exact mechanism is thought to be as follows: In the
presence of either estrogen or progesterone (or a synthetic substitute), the
hypothalamus fa ils to secrete the normal surge of LH-releasing factor (also called
gonadotropin-releasing factor) . This then inhibits the release of luteinizing hormone
from basophils of the anterior pituitary gland. Subsequently, ovulation does not
occur.
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1. The main reason for using synthetic estrogens and progestins is that the
natural hormones are almost entirely destroyed by the liver within a short
t ime after they are absorbed from the Gl tract and portal circulation.
However, many of the synthetic hormones can resist this destructive
propensity of the liver, thus allowing oral administration.
2. Ovulation occurs as a result of the estrogen-induced LH surge.
3. Unlike other steroid hormones, all estrogens have an aromatic A ring.
hormones
About 93% of the metabolically active hormones secreted by the thyroid
gland is thyroxine (T4 ), and 7% triiodothyronine (T3 ).
T4 is deiodinated and then T3 typically binds to the TH receptor.
both statements are true
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About 93% of the metabol ically active hormones secreted by t he thyroid gland is thyroxine, and
7% triiodothyronine. However, almost all of the thyroxine is eventually converted to triiodothyronine in the tissues, so t hat both are functionally importa nt. The functions of these two hormones are qualitatively t he same, but they differ in rapidity and intensity of action.
Triiodothyronine is about four times as potent as thyroxine, but it is present in the blood in much
smaller quantit ies and persists for a much shorter t ime than does thyroxine.
These hormones enter the bloodstream and produce the following actions:
Important for normal growth and development (especially the brain)
Affect many metabolic processes and the metabolic rate
Increase oxygen consumption and heat production
Note: A dietary iodine deficiency will increase the secretion of thyroglobulin (as opposed to
thyroxine, triiodothyronine or TSH).
hormones
Catecholamines are synthesized from:
alanine
tyrosine
proline
arginine
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t yro sine
The water-soluble co mpounds epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline) are catecho lamines. They are synthesized from tyrosine.
Secretion of these hormones is stimulated by acetylcholine release from pregangli onic
sympathetic fibers innervating the adrenal medulla. Common stimuli for secretion of
adrenomedullary hormones include exercise, hypoglycemia, hemorrhage and emotional
distress. Following release into blood, these hormones b ind adrenergic receptors on
target cell s where the hormones induce essentially the same effects as direct sympathetic
nervous stimulation.
Outside t he nervou s system, norepinephrine and its methylated derivative epinephrine
act as regulators of carbohydrate and lipid metabolism. Norepinephrine and
epinephrine increase the degradation of triacylglycerol and glycogen as well as increase
the output of the heart (specifically, epinephrine) and blood pressure. These effects are
part of a coordinated response to prepare the individual for emergencies and are often
called the "fight or flight" reactions.
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hormones
All of the following are affected by epinephrine and/or norepinephrine
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
blood g lucose
tota l peripheral resistance
heart rate
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kidney function
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kidney function
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hormones
Parathyroid hormone causes which of the following to occur?
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hormones
Which of the following hormones' secretion is stimulated by stomach distention?
gastrin
cho lecystokinin (CCK)
secretin
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gastrin
Gastrin is a maj or physiological regulator of gastric acid secretion. Gastrin also has an importa nt trophic or g rowth-promoting influence on t he ga stric mucosa. Gastrin is synthesized in G
cells, which are located in gastric pits, primarily in the antrum region of the stomach and bi nds
receptors found predom inantly on parietal and enterochromaffin-like cell s.
G l U oJ moncs
Hormone
Source
Action (s)
Gastrin
o f the S[Oil\ilCh
SAADDES
proteins and GRP
Cholecys[OJcinin
r ctlb in the-muc-.os.a
Secretin
Digestive- pi'Oducts of
fat, fany acids, and
monoglyc.erides in the
inteslinal contem.s
small imestine
Inhibits S[Om.ach contraction moderately
duode.num
1. The five (-term inal amino acids of gastrin and cholecystokinin are identical, which
explains their overlapping biological effects.
2. Excessive secretion of gastrin, or hypergastrinemia, is a well-recognized cause of
a severe d isease known as Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.
hormones
Which of the following gastrointestinal hormones seems to be the most
potent in causing a moderate increase in insulin secretion?
gastrin
gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
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cholecystokinin (CCK)
secretin
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Important: Other hormones that either d irectly increase insulin secretion or potentiate the glucose stimulus for insulin secretion include glucagon, growth hormone, cort isol and, to a lesser extent, progesterone and estrogen. The importance of the
stimulatory effects of these hormones is that prolonged secretion of any of them in
large quantities can occasionally lead to exhaustion of the beta cells of the islets of
Langer hans and thereby increase the risk for developing d iabetes mellitus.
1. GIP is also thought to have significant affects on fatty acid metabolism
through stimulation of lipoprotein lipase activity in adipocytes.
2. GIP receptors are seven-transmembrane proteins found on beta cells in the
pancreas.
3. It has been found that type 2 d iabetics are not responsive to GIP.
hormones
A tumor of the adrenal gland is causing your patient to conserve sodium in
the renal tubules causing increased blood volume, pressure and edema.
Where is the location of this adenoma?
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Hor mone
Source
A ldosterone
Conisol
Ta rget
AdrenaJ col'lex
(zona glomerulosa)
Kidney
Adrenal conex
(zona fasciculata)
General
Action (s)
Stimulate$ kidney tubules 10 consene sodium, which
Adre.nal conex
Sex organs
E.xact role uncenain, but may suppon sexual ftmction
Other effectors
Sex organs
Adrenal medulla
Sympathetic
effectors
/\drena1 medulla
Sympathetic
effectors
Enhance$ and
the effects ofrhe sympathetic
division of the autonomic nervous system
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Adrenal estrogens
(zona reticularis)
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
hormones
Cortisol is the primary glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex gland.
Cortisol's principal physiological actions include all of the following EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
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BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
Horrnone
Insulin
Glucagon
Thyroxine
Metabolic EffHts
Promotes: Glucose uptake into cells
Amino acid uptake into cells
Glycogenesis, lipogenesis, protein synthesis
Inhibits: Lipolysis, gluconeogenesis
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Promotes : Glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis
Growth honnone Promotes: Amino acid uptake into cells, protein synthesis, glycogenolysis, lipolysis
Cortisol
Testosterone
hormones
Which of the follow ing is classifi ed as a "stress hormone"?
growth hormone (GH)
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
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hormones
Cortisol (hydrocortisone) has a direct inhibitory effect on which structures?
Select all that apply.
adrenal cortex
hypothalamus
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hypothalamus
anterior pituitary gland
The release of cortisol is controlled primarily by ACTH, which is secreted by
basophils in the pars distalis of the anterior pituitary gland. The release of ACTH in
turn, is influenced by co rticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the
hypothalamus. Cortisol exerts an inhibitory influence on both ACTH and CRH
release by way of negative feedback.
Feedback circuits are at the root of most control mechanisms in physiology and are
particularly prominent in the endocri ne system. Instances of positive feedback certainly occur, but negative feedback is much more common. Negative feedback is
seen when the output of a pathway inhibits input to the pathway. The heating system
in your home is a simple negative feedback circuit. When the furnace produces
enough heat to elevate the temperatu re above the set point of the thermostat, the
thermostat is tri ggered and shuts off the furnace (heat is feeding back negatively on
the source of heat). When the temperature drops back below the set point, negative
feedback is gone and the furnace comes back on.
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Cortisol is the main glucocorticoid produced and secreted by the cells of the zona
fasciculata in the adrenal cortex. Cortisol allows glucagon and epinephri ne to work
more effectively at their ta rget t issues, but antagonizes the actions of insulin. By fa r
the best-known metabolic effect of cortisol and other glucocort icoids on
metabolism is their ability to stimulate gluconeogenesis (formation of carbohyd rate
from proteins and some other substances) by the liver, often increasing the rate of
gluconeogenesis as much as 6- to 10-fold.
Important: A patient taking cortisol for a long period of time may experience
atrophy of the adrenal cortex due to inhibition of ACTH production.
hormones
The placenta secretes five hormones that are essential to pregnancy. Which of
the following is NOT one of them?
oxytocin
progesterone
relaxin
estrogen
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oxytocin
llormunrs ol Othlr \ laJor Endocrilll' G lands
Hor mone
Source
Target
Action (s)
Testosterone
Testis
Estrogen
Proge,'iterone
Corpus luteum
U terus
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Other tissues
During pregnancy, human chorionic gonadotro pin (hCG) is secreted by the placenta and
circulates both in the mother and fetus. It promotes growth of the corpus luteum and
secretion of estrogens and progesterone by corpus luteum.
The ovaries of a female produce ova, the female sex hormones (progesterone and estrogen) and follicles. The corpus lute um is a yellowish mass of cell s that forms from an
ovarian follicle after the release of a mature egg (ovul ation). If the mature egg is not
fe rtilized and pregnancy does not occu r, the corpus luteum retrogresses to a mass of
scar tissue (corpus albicans) which eventually disappears. If the mature egg is fertilized
and pregnancy does occur, the corpus luteum does not degenerate but pe rsists for
several months.
hormones
Somatostatin acts by both endocrine and paracrine pathways to affect its target cells. A majority of the circulating somatostatin appears to come from the
and ___.
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mones:'
Effects of somatostatin (growth hormone inhibitory hormone):
Inhibits the secretion of growth hormone from the pitui tary gland
Acts locally within the isl ets of langerhans t hemselves to depress the secretion of insulin and glucagon
Inhibits t he secretion of many of t he other Gl hormones including gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin and
vasoactive intestinal peptide
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xcns
Action
Hype.rglyc-emia
Hypoglycemia
Ga..<>lrin
intestines
stomach and
iniC$tinC$
Unclear
Unclear
No symptoms
hormones
Prolactin is said to be under "predominant inhibitory control:' Which ofthe
following explains why?
SAADDES
In normal conditions, prolactin is synthesized by the hypothalamus. However, prolactin inhibitory hormone prevents the secretion unless prolactin is needed.
In normal conditions, prolactin inhibitory factor is produced by the anterior pituitary.
Only when prolactin is needed does th is stop and the ovaries are able to produce
prolactin.
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hormones
Steroid hormones are synthesized by a series of enzymatic modifications of:
trii odothyronine
thyroxine
cholesterol
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5-dihydrotestosterone
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cholesterol
Steroid hormones are crucial substances for the proper function of t he body. They mediate a
wide variety of vital physiological functions ra nging from anti-inflammatory agents to regulating events during pregnancy. Steroid hormones are synthesized and secreted into t he bloodstream by endocrine glands such as the adrenal cortex and the gonad s (ovary and testis). Steroid
hormones are all characterized by t he steroid nucleus, which is composed of three six- member
rings and one five-member ring.
Cholesterol is a sterol, which is a natura l prod uct derived from the steroid nucl eus. In addition
to being the building block for steroid hormon es, cholesterol is also a component of the cell
membrane. It is thought that the cholesterol present in the cell membrane is responsible for allowing steroid hormones to enter the cell, bind to the hormone receptor and ultimately to a
specific site on the chromatin, in t urn activating the gene in question.
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hormones
Calcitonin, a peptide hormone secreted by the thyroid gland, tends to
decrease plasma calcium concentration.
In general, calcitonin has effects opposite to those of parathyroid hormone.
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PTH is secreted by the parathyroid glands and its secretion is regulated by the [Ca] in ECF.
The p roduction of calcitriol, a metabolite of vitamin D3 produced in the proxim al tubule
of the kidney is stimulated by hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia. Calcitonin is secreted
by thyro id C cells (aka, parafollicular cells) and its secretion is stimul ated by hypercalcemia.
Calcitonin decreases plasma [Ca' ') mainly by stimulating bone formation (i.e., deposition of
[Ca') in bone).
Note: Calciton in inhibits tubular reabsorpti on of calcium and phosphate, leading to increased rates of their loss in urine and decreased plasma concentrations.
SAADDES
Hormone
Source
Action (s)
Target
Ge.neral
Ge.neral
Calcitonin
'Thyroid gland
(parafollicular
c.ells)
Bone tissue
Kidneys
Ca2"" levels
Parathyi'Oid glands
Bone tissue
Triiodothyronine
(f,)
Paralhyroid hom10ne
(PTH)
hormones
The amount ofT4 produced and released by the thyroid gland is controlled
by which of the following?
hypothalamus
medulla oblongata
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parathyroid gland
pituitary g land
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pituitary g land
The thyroid gland is a small g land, norm ally weighing less than one ounce, located in the
front of the neck. The thyroid g land is m ade up of two halves, called lobes, that lie along
the trachea and are j oined together by a narrow band of thyroid t issue, known as the isth-
mu s.
The thyroid gland is under the contro l of the pituitary gland, a small g land the size of a
peanut at the base of the brain. When the level of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) drops too
low, the pitu itary g land produces thyroid -stimulating hormone (TSH or thyrotrop in),
which stimulates the thyro id g land to produce m ore horm ones.
SAADDES
The pituitary g land itself is reg ulated by the hypothalam us. The hypothalamus prod uces
thyroid-relea sing hormone (TRH), which tell s the p itu itary gland to stimulate the thyroid
g land (by releasing TSH).
The function of the thyroid g land is to take iodine, fo und in m any foods, and convert it into
thyroid horm ones: thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). Thyroid cells are the only cells
in the body that can absorb iod ine. These cell s combine iodine and the amino acid tyrosine
to make T3 and T4 . T3 and T4 are then released into the bloodstream and are transported
throughout the body where they control metabolism.
hormones
On his 21st birthday, John celebrates with his first few beers. He notices
(along with other symptoms of inebriation) that he has an increased need to
urinate. This is physiologically caused by a decrease in production of:
oxytocin
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
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The single most important effect of antidiuretic hormone is to conserve body water by reducing the loss of water in urine. Antidiuretic hormone bind s to receptors on cells in the collecting
d ucts of the kidn ey and promotes reabsorption of water back into th e circulation. In the absence of antidiuretic hormone, the collecting ducts are virtually impermeable to wat er and it
flows out as urine.
Antidiuretic hormone stimulates water reabsorption by stimulating insertion of"water channels; or aquaporins, into the membranes of kidney tu bules. These channels t ransport solutefree water through tubular cells and back into blood, lead ing to a decrease in plasma osmolarity
and an increased osmolarity of urine.
SAADDES
The most important variable regulating antidiuretic hormone secretion is plasma osmolarity, or the concentration of solutes in blood . Osmolarity is sensed in the hypothalamus by
neurons known as an osmoreceptors, which in turn, stimulate secretion from th e neurons that
produce antidiuretic hormone.
Secretion of antidiuretic hormone is stimulated by decreases in blood pressure and volume,
conditions sensed by stretch receptors in the heart and large arteries. Another potent stimulus
of antidiuretic hormon e is nausea and vomiting, both of which are controlled by regions in
the brain with links to the hypothalamus.
1. Ethanol and caffeine decrease ADH release while nicoti ne increases its release.
2. Sweating causes an increase in ADH, while drinking large amounts of water
causes a decrease in ADH.
3. Hyposecretion of ADH results in diabetes insipidus (polyuria, polydipsia, and
polyphagia). Diabetes insipid us wou ld also result from the hypoactivity of the posterior pituitary gland.
hormones
Polypeptide and protein hormones are stored in secretory vesicles until needed.
Steroid hormones are usually synthesized from cholesterol and are not stored.
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The chemical structure of steroid hormones is similar to that of cholesterol and in most instances they are
synthesized from cholesterol itself. They are lipid soluble. Al though there is usually very little hormone
storage in steroid-producing endocrine cells, large stores of cholesterol esters in cytoplasm vacuoles can
be rapid ly mobilized for steroid synthesis after a stimulus. Much of the cholesterol in steroid-producing
cell s comes from the plasma. Because the steroids are highly lipid soluble, once they are synthesized, they
simply diffuse across the cell membrane and enter the interstitial fluid and then the blood.
The two group s of hormones derived from tyrosine, the thyroid and adrenal medulla ry hormones, are
formed by the actions of enzymes in the cytoplasmic comp artments of the glandular cells. Thyroid hormones are synthesized in foll icular cell s and stored in follicular colloid as thyroglobulin. They cross cell
membranes and associate w ith nuclear receptors. Catecholamines are synthesized in the cytosol and secretory granules and do not readily cross cell membranes. They act through cell membrane-associated receptors.
nerves
All cells have a resting potential.
During the upstroke of the action potential, the cell repolarizes, or becomes
Jess positive.
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Important point: During the upstroke of the action potential, the cell depolarizes, or
becomes less negative. The dep olarization is caused by inward current (i.e., the
movement of positive charge into the cell). In nerve and in most types of muscl e, this
inward current is carried by sodium (Na).
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Note: As sodium (Na) fl oods the cell during initial depolarization, the membrane
potential can reach as high as (+)55 mV (inside positive).
Certa in external stimuli reduce the charge across the p lasma membrane.
Mechanical stimu li (e.g., stretching, sound waves) activate mechanically gated
sodium channels
Certain neurotransmitters (e.g., acetylcholine) open ligand-gated sodium channels
In each case, the facilitated diffusion of sodium into the cell reduces the resting potential
at that spot on the cell creating an excitatory postsynaptic potential or EPSP. If the
potential is reduced to the threshold voltage (about -50 mV in mammali an neurons), an
action potential is generated in the cell. Important: If the neuron does not reach this
crit ical threshold level, then no action potential will occur (all or none). So long as
suprathreshold stimuli can reach the thresho ld of the cell, they produce the same action
potential that threshold stimuli do.
Depolarization
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Depolarization and repolarization. A. Resting membrane potential (RMP) resu lts fro m
an excess of positive ions on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. More Na+ ions
are on the outside of the membrane than K+ ions are on the inside of the membrane. B.
Depolarization of a membrane occurs when Na+ channels open, allowing Na+ to move to
an area of lower concentration (and more negative charge) inside the cell -reversing the
polarity to an inside-positive state. C, Repolarization of a membrane occurs w hen K+ channels then open, allowing K+ to move to an area of lower concentration (and more negative
charge) outside the cell- reversing the polarity back to an inside-negative state. Each voltmeter records the changing membrane potential as a red line.
n-
nerves
All of the follow ing statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
peripheral nerve fibers can sometimes regenerate if the soma (cell body) is not
damaged and some of the neurilemma rema ins intact
the neurilemma forms a regeneration tube through which the growing axon
reestablishes its original connection
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if the nerve o riginally led to a skeletal muscl e, the muscle atrophies in the absence
of innervation but regrows when the connection is re-established
nerve fibers of the CNS (brain and spinal cord) possess the th ickest neurilemma
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1. All axons of the PNS have a sheath of Schwann cells (and thus a neurilemma, made up of the outer layer of Schwann cells) around them.
2. When a Schwann cell is w rapped successively around an axon, it becomes
a myelin sheath. In the CNS, the sheath cells are called oligodendrocytes.
Remember: Right-sided lesions of the spinal cord result in loss of motor activity on
the same (ipsilateral) side and pain and temperature sensations on the opposite
(contralateral) side.
nerves
The primary action of local anesthetics in producing a conduction
block is to decrease the permeability of the ion channels to:
calcium ions
ch loride ions
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potassium ions
sodium ions
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sodium ions
Local anesthetics selectively inhibit the peak permeability of sodium, whose value is normally
about five to six times greater than the minimum necessary for impul se conduction. The
following sequence is a proposed mechanism of action of local anesthetics:
1. Displacement of calcium ions from the sodium channel receptor site, which permits ...
2. Binding of local anesthetic molecule to t hi s receptor site, which thus produces ...
3. Blockade of the sodium channel, and a...
4. Decrease in sodium conductance, which leads to ...
5. Depression of the rate of electrical depolarization, and a...
6. Failure to achieve the threshold potential level, along with a...
7. Lack of development of propagated action potentials, which is called ...
8. Conduction blockade
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The mechanism whereby sodium ions gain entry to the axoplasm of the nerve, t hereby initiating an action potential, is altered by local anesthetics. The nerve membrane remains in a polarized state because ionic movements responsible for the action potential fail to develop. Nerve
block produced by local anesthetics is called a nondepolarizing nerve block.
1. Local anesthetics reversibly block nerve impulse conduction and produce
reversible loss of sensation at their administration site. The site of action of local
anesthetics is at the lipoprotein sheath of the nerves.
2. Local anesthetics are clinically effective on both axons and free nerve endings.
3. Important: Small, myelinated nerve fibers which conduct pain and temperature sensations are affe.cted first, followed by touch, proprioception and skeletal
muscle tone.
4. Emergence from a local anesthetic nerve block follows the same diffusion patterns
as induction does; however, it does so in reverse order.
5. Recovery is usually a slower process than induction because the anesthetic is
bound to t he drug receptor site in the sodium channel and t herefore is released
more slowly than it is absorbed.
6. Potassium, calcium and chloride conductance's remain unchanged.
nerves
Match the major ascending tract of th e spinal cord on the left with the
function on the right.
Tract
l. Latera l spinothalamic
2. Anterior spinothalamic
Fu nction
A. Discriminating touch and pressure
sensations
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1. C, 2 . D, 3. A, 4 . B
The white matter of the spinal cord contains tracts that travel up and down the
cord. Many of these tracts travel to and from the brain to provide sensory input to
the brain or bring motor stimuli from the brain to control effectors. Ascending
tracts, those that t ravel toward the brain are sensory; descending tracts are
motor. For most, the name will indicate if it is a motor or sensory tract. Most
sensory tracts' names begin with spino, indicating origin in the spinal cord, and
their names end with the part of the brain where the tract leads. For example, the
spinothalamic tract travels from the spinal cord to the thalamus. Tracts whose
names begin with a part of the brain are motor. For example, the corticospinal
tract begins with fibers leaving the cerebral cortex and travels down toward motor
neurons in the cord.
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\lajor \seen ding Tracts of the Spinal ( ord
Name
Function
Location
Origin
Te1mination
La teral
spinothalamic
coJumns
A nterior
Anterior w hite
coJumns
opposite side
Spina] gangJia; same
spinothalamic
opposite side
Posterior
n meatus
pressure sensations
Lateral white
coJumns
Anterior or posterior
gray coJumn
Medulla
Ce rebe llum
The origin refers to the location of cell bodies of neurons from which the axons of
tract ari se.
The termination refers to the structure in which the axons of the tract terminate.
nerves
Spatial summation occurs when:
two inhibitory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron within 1 m inute of each other
two excitatory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron simultaneously
two inhibitory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron 10 seconds apart
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2. Temporal summation occurs when two excitatory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron in rapid succession. In temporal summation, t here is an increase in the
frequency of nerve impulses in a single presynaptic fi ber.
Note: An action potential initiated at the m idpoint along the length of an axon will
spread toward the cell body (soma) and nerve ending.
nerves
Saltatory conduction happens in myelinated neurons only. Which of the
following are effects of saltatory conduction compared to conventional
conduction?
Select all that apply.
conduction is faster
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conduction is slower
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conduction is faster
conduction consumes less energy
In an unmyelinated neuron, the impulse t ravels along the entire membrane surface
and is known as continuous conduction. Note: This conduction is relatively slow
(1.0 m/sec) compa red to saltatory conduction (up to 100m/sec).
In a myelinated neuron, the myelin sheath decreases membrane capacitance and
increases membrane resistance, preventing movement of sodium and potassium
through the membrane. If the myelin sheath were continuous, action potentials could
not be produced. However, the myelin sheath is interrupted by nodes of Ranvier.
The distance between these nodes is between 0.2 and 2 mm. Action potentials
traveling down the axon "jump" or "leap" from node to node. This is called saltatory
conduction.
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In most instances, acetylcholine has an inhibitory effect.
GABA is believed always to cause inhibition.
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Release of excitatory neurotransmitters from the presynapt ic membrane openschannels in the postsynaptic membrane and leads to an increase in the concentration of sodium ions withi n the postsynaptic cell and a decrease in potassium ions. This leadsto a depolarization of the postsynaptic cell,
which is propagated furt her along the cell membrane by an action potent ial.
Inhibitory neurotransmitters encourage the hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell, making it
less likely to generate an act ion potential. This hyperpolarized state is achieved either by increasing
n flow into the cell (GABAA receptors) or increasing K flow out of the cell (GABA8 receptors).
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nerves
A patient of yours presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease. He
claims that the physicians have not diagnosed him with Parkinson's because
it was due to trauma. The trauma affected which part of his brain?
pons
pari etal lobe
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basal ganglia
tha lamus
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lentiform nucleus.
The basa l ganglia and cere be llum are large collections of nuclei that modify movement
on a minute -to -minute basis. The cerebral (motor) cortex sends information to both, and
both structures send information back to the cortex via the thalamus. This
a direct and an indirect path
communication occurs via two opposing pathways both which use dopamine as a neurotransmitter. Dopamine is inhibitory in the indirect
path and excitatory in the direct path w ith an overall net excitatory role. The basal ganglia
is located deep to the cerebral cortex. Note: The output of the cerebellum is excitatory,
while the basal gangli a are inhibitory.
Remember: The cere bellum is situated below and posterior to the cerebrum and above
the pons and medulla. It is morphologically divided into two lateral hemispheres and a
middle portion. Its function is to maintain equilibrium and mu scle coordination.
Note: The major parts of the extrapyramidal system are the "subcortical nuclei':Th is
includes the caudate nucleus, putamen and globus pallidus (which are also known as the
basal ganglia).
nerves
The two classes of acetylcholine receptors in autonomic ganglia are:
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Muscarinic Receptors
Stimulated by ACh and muscarine, not stimulated by nicotine
Found at target organs when ACh is released by postganglionic neurons (all of parasympathetic and some sympathetic) including heart, smooth muscle and glands
The slow EPSP is mediated by muscarinic receptors that inhibit theM current, a current produce by conductance of potassium
Blocked by at ropine
Note: Those fibers that secrete acetylcholine are said to be cholinergic. Those that secrete norepinephrine are said to be adrenergic.
The cholinergic effect s of preganglionic autonomic neurons (both sympathetic and
parasympathet ic) are excitatory. The cholinergic effects of postganglionic parasympathetic
fibers can be either excitatory or inhibitory.
Important: All preganglionic neuronsare cholinergic in both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous systems. Either all or almost all of the postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic system are also cholinergic. Conversely, most of the postganglionic sympathetic neurons are
adrenergic, except for the postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers to the sweat glands, to the piloerector muscles of the hairs, and to a very few blood vessels which are cholinergic.
Sympathetic division
Cholinergic
(nicotinic)
Ach
receptors
release4h
NE
Adrenergic
(alpha or beta)
rec{2Jptors
A
""
Effector
cell
Cholinergic
(nicotinic)
Cholinergic
(muscarinic)
ted.
weat glands ar
timulated and skele
al m uscle blood ves
els are inhibited
vasodilate) during
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Postganglionic neuron
Effector
cell
Cholinergic
(nicotinic)
eneral response i
xcitatory but som
arget tissues are in
itied (e.g., the heart
c
cell
Locations of neurotransmitters and receptors of the autonomic nervous system. In all pathways.
p reganglionic fibers are chol inergic, secreting acetylcholine (ACh), which stimulates nicotini c receptors
in the postganglionic neuron. Most sympathetic postganglionic fibers are adrenerg ic (A), secreting norepinephrine (NE), thus sti mulating alpha or beta adrenerg ic recep tors. A few sympathetic postganglionic
fibers are choli nergic, stimulating muscarinic receptors in effector cells (8). All parasympathetic postganglionic fibers are choli nergic (C), stimulating muscarinic receptors in effector cells.
l22-l
nerves
Motor signals are transmitted directly from the cortex to the spinal cord
through the corticospinal tract and indirectly through multiple accessory
pathways that involve the basal ganglia, cerebellum and various nuclei of
the brain stem.
The most important output pathway from the motor cortex is the corticospinal tract, also called the pyramidal tract.
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1. Descending pathways can be subd ivided into (1) a lateral system, which ends on motor neurons to li mb muscles and on the lateral group of interneurons, and (2) a medial system, which
ends on the medial group of interneurons.
2. The lateral system incl udes the lateral corticospinal tract and part ofthe corticobulbar tract .
These pathways infl uence the contralateral motor neurons that supply the musculature of the
limbs, especially the d igits and the muscles of the lower part of the face and the tongue.
3. The medial system incl udes the ventral corticospi nal, lateral and medial vestibulospinal, reticulospinal and tectospinal tracts. These pathways mainly affect posture and provide the motor
background for movement of the limbs and digits.
nerves
The effectors of the autonomic nervous system include all of the following
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
smooth muscle
cardiac muscle
glands
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skeletal muscle
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skeletal muscle
The autonomic nervous system (ANS} is a motor system that controls smoot h muscle, cardiac muscle and
glands. It helps maint ain homeostasis and coordinates responses to external stimuli . lts components are the
sympathetic, pa rasympatheti c and enteri c nervous systems. Autonomic motor pathways have preganglionic and postganglionic neurons. Preganglionic neurons reside in the CNS, whereas postganglionic
neu rons lie in peripheral ganglia.
Important Points to Remember:
1. Sympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in the thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord and
sympathetic postganglionic neurons are located in paravertebral and prevertebral ganglia.
2. Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are l ocated in crani al nerve nuclei or in the sacral spinal
cord. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons reside in ganglia locat ed in or near the target organs.
3. Sympathetic pregangl ionic axons are short while their postgangluionic axons are long. Parasympathetic axons are the opposite
preganglionics are longer and the postganglionics are shorter.
4. The ANS is activat ed mainly by centers located in the spinal cord, brain stem and hypot halamus. Al so
portions of the cerebral cortex, especially of the limbic system, can transmit signal s to the lower centers and in this way influence autonomic control.
5. The enteric nervous system includes the myenteric and submucosal pl exuses in the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. The myenteric pl exus regulates motility and the submucosal pl exus regulates ion and
water transport and secretion.
6. Neurotransmitters at the synapses of preganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia include acetylcholine (acting at both nicotini c and musca rinic receptors) and a number of neuropeptides. lnterneurons in the ganglia release catecholamines. Sympathetic postganglionic neurons generally release
norepinephrine (acting on adrenergic receptors) as thei r neurotransmitter. Sympathetic postganglionic neurons that supply sweat glands rel ease acetylcholine. Parasympathetic postganglionic
neurons rel ease acetylcholine (acting on muscarinic receptors}.
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Note: Those fibers that secrete acetylcholi ne are said to be cholinergic.Those that secrete norepinephrine
are sai d to be adrenergic. Quick summary: All preganglionic neurons are cholinergic in both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous systems. Either all or almost all of the postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic system are also cholinergic. Conversel y, most of the postganglionic
sympathetic neurons are adrenergic, except for the postganglionic sympat hetic nerve fibers to the sweat
glands, to the piloerector muscles of the hairs and to a very few blood vessel s which are cholinergic.
Central
Nervous
System
(CNS)
Brain and
spinal cord
Somatic Nervous
System (SNS)
Somatic
Autonomic Nervous
System (ANS)
Autonomic
Integration cente rs
Peripheral
Nervous
Pa s
System
(PNS)
Cranial nerves
and
spinal nerves
pathetic
di sion
rent)
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Stimulus
Response
Stimulus
Response
Organizational plan of the nervous system. This diagram summarizes the scheme used by most neurobiologists in s tudying the nervous system. Both the somatic nervous system (SNS) and the autonomic
nervous system (ANS) include components in the central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous
system (PNS). Somatic sensory pathways conduct information toward integrators in the CNS, and somatic motor pathways conduct info nnation toward somatic effectors. In the ANS, visceral sensory pathways conduct infonnation toward CNS integrators, whereas the sympathetic and parasympathetic
pathways conduct information toward autonomic effectors.
12 .,.1
nerves
The action potential is generated by the rapid opening and subsequent
voltage inactivation of voltage-dependent _ _ channels and the delayed
opening and closing of voltage-dependent _ _ channels.
Na, K
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Na , K
The action potential is generated by the rapid open ing and subsequent voltage inactivation of voltage-dependent Na channels and the delayed open ing and closing of voltage-dependent Kchannels.
lon channels are integral m embrane proteins that have ion-selective pores. Different regions of an ion
channel protein act as gates to activate and inactivate the channel. An ion channel typi cally has t wo
states: high conductance (open) and zero conductance (closed). The channel oscillates randomly between the open and closed states. For the voltage-dependent channel, the fraction oftime that the channel spends in the open state is a function of the transmembrane potential difference.
Remember: After the action potential is over, for a few milliseconds, the increased potassium
conductance allows for additional potassium efflux, leaving the interior of the cell even more
negative than the origi nal resting membrane potential. This is called hyperpolarization. Gradually, the
ion concentrations go back to resting levels and the cell membrane returns to (-) 70 mV.
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nerves
A patient of yours lists a selective 13-blocker in her medication list. You know
that this is for her hypertension. What is the mechanism of this drug?
blocks 13 1 -adrenergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and
force of contraction
blocks 13 2-cholinergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and
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force of contraction
blocks 13 1-cholinergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and
force of contraction
blocks 13 2-adrenergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and
force of contraction
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Adrenergic receptors are membrane receptor proteins located on autonomic effector organs
that are regulated by catecholamines (epinephrine and norepineph rine).
Two main types of adrenergic receptors:
a.-receptors:
a. 1 : located in sympathetic postsynaptic nerve terminals- increase vascular smooth
muscle contraction
a.2 : located in sympathetic presynaptic nerve term inals; beta cell of pa ncreatic isletsinhibit NE release; inhibit insulin release
hepatic glucose output; decrease contraction of blood vessels, bronchioles and uterus
Important:
1. Norepinephrine stimulates mainly a. -receptors.
2. Epinephrine stimulates both a. and 13 -receptors.
nerves
All cells, including neurons, have a resting membrane potential that is
typically around (-)70mV.
An action potential is propagated with the same shape and size along the
entire length ofthe axon.
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The size of the resting membrane potential varies but in excitable cells runs between
(-) 40 and(-) 85 millivolts. The resting membrane potential ari ses from two activities:
1. leakage of potassium and sodium through nerve membranes. There are
channel proteins in the nerve membrane through which potassium and sodium
ions can leak, called a potas sium-sodium "leak" channel. The emphasis is on
potassium because, on average, the channels are far more permeable to
potassium than to sodium, normally about 100 t imes as permeable. This
differential in permeability is exceedingly important in determining the level of
the normal resting membrane potential.
2. The sodium /pota ssium pump establishes the sodium and potassium
g radients across the membrane using ATP. Important: This pump is an
electrogenic pump because more positive charges are pumped to the outside
than to the inside (three Na ions to the outside for each two K ions to the
inside), leaving a net deficit of positive ions on the inside; this causes a negative
potential inside the cell membrane.
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Remember:
1. The action potential is propagated rather than merely being conducted; it is
regenerated as it moves along the axon. In this way an action potential remains the
same size and shape as it is conducted.
2. Visceral smooth muscle and cardiac pacemaker cells lack a stable resting
membrane potential.
nerves
Exteroreceptors signal internal events.
Sensory receptors can be classified in terms of the types of energy that they
transduce or according to the sources of the input.
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All receptors are linked to sensory neurons. When a receptor responds to a stimulus, a signal is sent
along the sensory neu ron to t he CNS (brain o r spinal cord). Wit hin the CNS, the stimulus is identified
and if a response is required to maintain homeo stasis, signals are sent to effectors along motor neurons.
nerves
When scaling and root planing, you are using a firm finger rest for minutes at
a time.
1. Which of the following are the receptors that are used in sensing this
continuous pressure?
2. Which of the following are the receptors used when you are manipulating an instrument in your fingers?
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pacinian corpuscles
meissner's corpuscles
ruffini's corpuscles
krause's corpuscles
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1. ruffini's corpuscles
2. pacinian corpuscles
Somatic Sensory Receptors
Classification by structure
By Activation
Stimulus
Nociceptors
Merkeldisk.o;
Root hair plexu..o;e..o;
Exteroc.eptors
Exteroc.eplors
ehange; mechanical
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Meissnet's corpuscle.
Krause's COI'puscle
Rutlini's COI'J)lt..KIe
Paeinian corpu.;c::le
Dennis. of skin.
e--xteroc.eptors
Dennis. of skin. joint
caps.l1les
Mechanical; thermal
Skeleral musde
tvlus.culotendinous
junction
Stretch receptors
Muscle spindles
Golgi tendon receplors
Important: Skin contains low-threshold mechanoreceptors, thermoreceptors and nociceptors. Muscle, joints and viscera have mechanoreceptors and nociceptors. Low-threshold mechanoreceptors
may be rapidly or slowly adapting.
Remember: Baroreceptors are special ly adapted groups of nerve fibers within the walls of the
carotid sinus and the aortic arch . Baroreceptors are stretch receptors that respond to changes in
blood pressure.
nerves
The primary functional unit of the sympathetic and parasympathetic
nervous systems is the:
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Remember: The primary functional unit of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
isthe two-neuron motor pathway, which consists of a preganglionic neuron, whose cell body is located in the CNS, and a postganglionic neuron, whose cell body islocated in one of the autonomic
ganglia.
Important:
1. Motor neurons in the ANS do not reach their targets directly (as do those in the somatic system)
but rather connect to a secondary motor neuron which in turn innervates the target organ.
2. Motor neuronsof the somatic system are distinct from those of the autonomic system. Inhibitory
signals cannot be sent through the motor neuronsof the somatic system.
nerves
All preganglionic neurons are _ _ _in both the sympathetic and the
parasympathetic nervous systems.
dopaminergic
serotonergic
cholinergic
adrenergic
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cholinergic
All preganglionic neurons are cholinergic in both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic
nervous systems. Eith er all or almost all of the postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic system are also cholinergic. Conversely, most of the postganglionic sympathetic neurons are adrenergic, except for the postga nglionic sympathetic nerve fibers to the sweat
glands, to the piloerector muscles of the hairs and to a very few blood vessels which are
cholinergic. Note: Those fi bers that secrete acetylcholine are said to be cholinergic. Those that
secrete norepinephrine are said to be adrenergic.
Note: Each sympathetic preganglionic neuron bra nches extensively and synapses with
numerous postganglionic neurons. It is this high ratio of postgang lionic to preganglionic
fibers that results in widespread effects throughout the body.
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Remember:
1. The presynaptic sympathetic nerve fibers originate in the lateral horn s of spinal cord
segments T1 -L2. From the lateral horns, all of these fibers must reach the sympathetic trunk.
Presynaptic sympathetic fibers exit the spinal cord in the ventral roots (because they are
motor fibers), pass through the spinal nerves and eventually enter the ventral primary rami
of spi nal cord segments T1-L2. Shortly after entering the ventral primary rami, the
presynaptic sympathetic fibers exit the ventral primary rami via white rami communicantes
which carry the presynaptic sympathetic fibers to the sympathetic trunk.
2. The main nerves of the PNS are the vagus nerves. They originate in the medulla oblongata. Eac h preganglionic parasympathetic neuron synapses with ju st a few postganglionic
parasympathetic neurons, which are located near or in the effectors (organs, muscles or
glands).
Dysfunction of the ANS causes organ-specific or organ system-specific disease. In Horner's syndrome, a lack of sympathetic tone causes miosis, ptosis and anhydrosis on the affected side.
Excessive PNS activity carried by the vagus nerve can cause a vasovagal episode with hypotension and possible syncope. In dentistry this can be most commonly seen with standing up
very quickly after sitting for a long period of time, known as orthostatic hypotension.
nerves
Nerves connect with muscles at the
. There, the ends of nerve
fibers connect to special sites on the muscle's membrane called _____
These plates contain receptors that enable the muscle to respond to
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Acetylcholine (ACh) is the neurotransmitter released from the presynaptic terminal and
the postsynapt ic membrane contains a nicotinic receptor. ACh is synthesized in the
neurons from which it is released. Choline acetyltransferase catalyzes the formation of
acetylcholine from acetyi-CoA and choline in the presynaptic terminal. The terminals of
motor axons contain thousands of synaptic (storage) vesicles fi lled w ith acetylcholine.
The action potential conducted along the motor nerve causes depolarization and an
influx of calcium. The influx of calciu m stimulates the release of ACh from storage
vesicles into the synapse. ACh binds to nicotinic receptors on the motor end plate.
Stimulation of the ACh receptor results in the opening of sodium channels (and some
potassium channels), thereby leading to an infl ux of sodium and an effl ux of potassium
through the cell membrane that resu lts in a small net depolarization termed "miniature
end plate potentials" (mEPP). If enough mEPPs occur simultaneously, their summation
creates a full-fledged "end plate potential" (EPP, not an action p otential) which
generates current in adjacent muscle tissue. This sparks an action potential in the muscle
fiber followed by muscle contraction.
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Important: Following its release from the presynaptic terminal, ACh is rapidly broken
down into acetate and cho line by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE) on the motor
end-plate. Note: If acetylcholinesterase is inhibited, there w ill be prolongation of the
end-plate potential (EPP), which can lead to tetanus of the affected muscle fibers.
Note: The neuromuscular junction (NMJ) is the synapse between the presynaptic
motor neuron and the postsynaptic muscle membrane.
nerves
The entry of which of the following into the presynaptic terminal
triggers the release of neurotransmitter?
sodium
potassium
chloride
ca lcium
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calcium
An axon terminal of a presynapt ic neuron closely app roaches a dendrite or cell body of a
postsynaptic neuron; however, the two cells are separated by a small synaptic cleft.
Neurotransmitters are stored w ithin the axon terminal of a presyna ptic neuron in
synaptic vesicles. When an action potential depolarizes the presynaptic membrane,
voltage-gated calcium channe ls are op ened, causing an increase in intracellular
calciu m. Calcium causes the synaptic ves icles to empty the neurotransmitter molecules
into the synapt ic cleft. These neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft and
bind to specific receptors on the postsynaptic cell, causing a change to the cell
membrane's ion permeability and subsequent membrane potential. This p rocess is called
synaptic transmission and the time required is called the synaptic delay. The final step
is enzymatic deactivati on of the neurotransmitter through conformati onal change or
removal from the synapt ic cleft.
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Note: Gap junctions are the morphological correlate of electrical synapses. Gap junctions
contain channels formed by hemichannels called connexons. Connexons are formed by
proteins called connexins.
nerves
Strictly speaking, the all-or-none principle refers to the:
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action potential
Any stimulus strong enough to initiate a nerve impulse is referred to as a threshold stimulus.
A single nerve cell, j ust like a sing le muscle fiber, transmits an action potential according to
t he ali-or-none principle. The principle states that if a stimulus is strong enough to generate
a nerve action potential, the impulse is conducted along the entire neuron at maximum
strength, unless conduction is altered by conditions such as toxic materials in cells or fatigue.
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After a brief pe riod of hype rpoJarization, the re sting potential is restored by the sodiumpotassium
pump and the return of ion channcJs to their resting state.
The action potential differs from the subthreshold and passive responses in t hree important
ways: (1 ) it is a much larger response in which the polarity of the membrane potential actually
overshoots (the cell interior becomes positive with respect to the exterior), (2) the action potent ial is propagated down the entire length of the nerve fiber, and (3) t he action potential is propagated without decrement (i.e., it maintains its size and shape as it is regenerated along the
axon).ln addition, when a stimulus even larger than the t hreshold stimulus is applied, the action potential remains the same and does not increase wit h greater stimulus strength. A stimulus either produces a full-sized action potential or fails to do so.
nerves
Tracts descending to the spinal cord are concerned with voluntary motor
function, muscle tone, reflexes, equilibrium, visceral innervation and
modulation of ascending sensory signals. The largest and most important
of these tracts that controls skilled voluntary movement is the:
rubrospinal tract
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corticospinal tract
Universally regarded as the single most important tract concerned w ith skilled vo lunta ry activity, t he corticospinal t ract ori ginates from pyramid-shaped cells in the premotor, primary motor and primary sensory motor.
Name
Fun ction
Lateral
Voluntary movement,
corticospinal
contraction of individual or
small groups of muscles,
particularly those moving
hand'i, fingers, feet and toes
of opposite side
Anterior
corticospinal
Location
Lateral white
columns
Same as late ral corticospinal Anterior white Motor cortex but on Lateral or anterior
columns
except ma inly musc les of
same side as location gray columns
same side
in cord
Reticular formation,
midbrain, pons and
Lateral or anterior
gray columns
medulla
Lateral or anterior
gray columns
Lateral white
columns
(of midbrain)
Lateral or anterior
gray columns
Lateral white
columns
Lateral vestibular
nuc leus
Lateral or anterior
gray columns
V<-<tibulospinal
T ermination
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Rubrospinal
Origin
Motor areas or
Lateral or anterior
cerebral cortex
gray columns
opposite side from
tract location in cord
Red nucJcus
(4th ventricle)
nerves
There are two major groups of descending tracts from the brain: the corticospinal, or pyramidal tracts, and the extrapyramidal tracts.
The pyramidal tracts descend directly without synaptic interruption, from the
cerebral cortex to the spinal cord.
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The ascending fiber tracts convey sensory information from cutaneous receptors, proprioceptors
(muscle and joint senses) and visceral receptors. Most of the sensory information that originatesin the
right side of the body crosses over and eventually reach the region on the left side ofthe brain, which
analyses thisinformation. Similarly, the information arising in the left side of the body isultimately analyzed by the right side of the bra in. This decussation occurs in the medulla oblongata for sensory
modalities, or in the spinal cord for other modalities of sensation.
There are t wo major groups of descending tracts from the brain: the corticospinal, or pyramidal
tracts, and the extrapyramidal tracts. The pyramidal tract sdescend directly wi thout synapt ic interruption f rom the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord. The cell bodies that contribute fibers to these pyramidal tracts are located pri marily in the precentral gyrus(also called the motor cortex). Other areas
of the cerebral cortex however, also contribute to these tracts.
Note: The corticospinal tract scarry voluntary motor stimuli from the cerebral cortex to motor neurons in the spinal cord . They are called the "pyramidal tracts" because some of them cross in th e
pyramids of the medulla. The other t racts (i.e., tectospinal, vestibulospinal, anterior corticospinal, lateral and anterior reticulospinal and rubrospinal) come from a variety of locations in the brain, as a
group are termed the "extra-pyramidal tracts:' and are generally associated with balance and muscle tone.
miscellaneous
Which of the following characteristics is shared by simple and facilitated
diffusion of glucose?
it is saturable
requires metabolic energy
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miscellaneous
Which of the following patients has the least chance of edema formation?
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Note: Arteriolar dilation increases the likelihood of edema. Venous constriction and
standing cause increased capill ary hydrostatic pressure and tend to cause edema.
Inflammation causes local edema by dilating arterioles and increasing permeability.
Condition s that w ill cause extrace llular fluid e dema:
Increased capillary pressure due, for example, to b lockage of a vein
Decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure due to decreased p lasma protein
concentration
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Note: Under normal cond itions, negative pressure is p resent in t he interstitium. Negative pressure is maintained by the co mb ination of oncoti c forces and lymphatic drainage,
w ith a combined drainage capacity that exceeds hydrostatically induced shifts of water
from the intravascular compartment When factors associated with this relationship are
changed, the outcome is often abnormal interstitial water retenti on creating a positive
interstitial pressure.
miscellaneous
Match the scenario to the solution options.
So lution Options
I. Isotonic
2. Hypoton ic
3. Hypertonic
Scenarios
A. A solution that when placed on the outs ide of the cell will
cause osmos is out of the cell
B. A solution that when p laced on the outs ide of the cell wall will
cause osmos is into the cell
C. A solution that when p laced on the outs ide of the cell will not
cause osmos is
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1. C, 2. B, 3. A
An isotonic solution is a solution that has the same salt concentration as t he normal
cells of t he body and the blood. This solution, when placed on the outside of a cell,
wi ll not cause osmosis and the cel l will not shrink or swell.
Note: A 0.9% solution of sodium chlori de or a 5% g lucose solution are both
approximately isotonic to plasma.
A hypotonic solution is a solution w ith a lower salt concentration t han in normal
cells of the body and the blood. This solution, when placed on the outside of a cell,
will cause osmosis into the cell and lead to swelling and lysis of the cell.
Note: Any solution of sodium ch loride w ith less than 0.9% concentration is hypotonic.
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miscellaneous
Which of the following is NOT an oncogene?
HER-2/neu
ras
myc
src
CAAT
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CAAT
A key feature of oncogene activity is that a single altered allele leads to unregulated growth. This is in contrast with tumor suppressor genes, in which both alleles
must be defective to lead to abnormal cell division.
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The following selected oncogenes have been associated with numerous cancer
types:
HER-2/neu: a growth factor receptor - it has been identified in up to 30% of
human breast cancers
ras: a signal transduction molecule - it has been identified in cancers of many different origins including pancreas (90%), colon (SO%), lung (30%), thyroid (SO%), bladder (6%), ovarian (lS%), breast, skin, liver, kidney and some leukemias
myc: a transcription factor - mutations in the myc gene have been found in many
different cancers, including Burkitt's lymphoma, B-cell leukemia, and lung cancer
src: a protein tyrosine kinase - it was t he first oncogene ever d iscovered. It has
been identified in human neuroblastoma, small-cell lung cancer, colon and breast
ca rcinomas and rhabdomyosarcoma
miscellaneous
The organic part of bone matrix is mainly composed of type Ill collagen.
The collagen fibers provide bone with great tensile strength, while the
inorganic salts allow bone to withstand compression.
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miscellaneous
All of the following bonds are considered to be weak bonds EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
hydrogen bonds
ionic bonds
covalent bonds
van der Waa ls forces
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Weak bonds are involved in all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
secondary structure of proteins
cell membrane
dsDNA structure
amino acid linkage
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covalent bonds
amino acid linkage
Covalent bonds are t he strongest possible type of chemical bond. Other chemical
bonds include ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds and the van der Waals force. There are numerous other types of rare and exotic bonds, but the first fou r are by far t he most common.
Covalent bonds are created between atoms w ith similar electronegativity. In general,
electronegativity increases as you move to the right of the periodic table and decreases
as you move down the peri odic table. Electronegativity is not an atomic property, but
emerges when atoms interact w ith other atoms.
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Covalent bonds are forces that hold atoms together. The forces are formed when the
atoms of a molecule share electrons. Two examples of covalent bonds are peptide
and disulfide bonds. Note: Hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and ca rbon are capable of
forming one, two, three and fou r cova lent bonds, respectively. Carbon is very
versatile and can form cova lent single, doubl e and t ri ple bonds.
Weak bonds may be easily broken but are very important because they help to
determ ine and stabilize the shapes of biological molecules. For example weak bonds
are important in stabilizing t he secondary structure (a-helix and
of
p roteins. Hydrogen bonds keep complementa ry strands of DNA together and
participate in enzymatic catalysis. These interactions are individually weak but
collectively strong.
Note: Denaturing agents (organic solvents, urea and detergents) act primarily by
disrupting the hydrophobic interactions that make up t he stable core of g lobular
proteins.
miscellaneous
The pitch of a sound is related mainly to which of the following
characteristics of a sound wave?
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superimposed wave
secondary waves
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miscellaneous
The major intracellular cation is:
sodium
potassium
magnesium
chrom ium
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potassium
Functionally, the body's water is effectively compartmentalized into two major fluid compartments:
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miscellaneous
The temperature of the body is regulated by neural feedback mechanisms
that operate primarily through the hypothalamus.
Shivering is the most potent mechanism for increasing heat production.
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The human body has the remarkable capacity for regulating its core temperature
somewhere between 98F and tooF when the ambient temperature is between
approximately 68F and 130F.
When the amb ient temperature is above body temperature, then radiation, conduction
and convection all transfer heat into the body rather than out. Since there must be a net
outward heat transfer, the on ly mechanisms left under those cond itions are the
evaporation of perspiration from the skin and the evaporative cooling from exhaled
moisture.
Radiation is heat transfer by the emission of electromagnetic waves that carry energy
away from the emitting object. Conduction is heat transfer by means of molecular
agitation w ithin a material without any motion of the material as a whole. Convection
is heat transfer by mass motion of a flu id such as air or water when the heated fluid is
caused to move away from the source of heat, carrying energy with it .
miscellaneous
Which of the following solutions has an osmotic pressure different from the
other two solutions?
1M glucose
1M sodium chloride
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1M potassium chlori de
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1M glucose
***The key to this question is the fact that osmotic pressure of a solution depends on
the number of solute particles present and not on their various properties. Sodium
chloride and potassium ch loride wil l ionize into two ions per molecule, whereas
glucose will remain a single molecule in solution.
Osmosis is the net d iffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane
caused by a concentration difference.
Osmotic pressure is the pressure that develops in a solution as a result of net
osmosis into that solution; osmotic pressure is affected by the number of d issolved
particles per unit volume of flu id. Note: Intracellular (fluid w ithin cells) and extracellular (interstitial flu id and plasma) fluids have similar total osmotic pressures.
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Osmolarity is expressed in units of osmoles per liter of solution (osmoi/ L), wh ile osmolality is defined as osmoles per kilogram solvent (osmol/kg).
While similar, osmolarity and tonicity are not the same. The key d ifference between
the two is that osmolarity is a measure of all solutes in solution, whereas tonicity is a
measure of impermeable solutes. Osmolarity compares the amount of solutes in
two solutions, whereas tonicity compares the osmotic pressure gradient. If a
solution in compartment A is hyperton ic to a solution in compartment B, water will
flow from compa rtment B to compartment A in an effort to dilute the solutes in
compa rtment A. This allows the two compa rtments to have equal solute concentration.
miscellaneous
Which of the following statements concerning the two principal laws of
thermodynamics is FALSE?
Select all that apply.
they apply only to closed systems, that is, entities within which there can be no
loss of energy or of mass
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the f irst law says that the total quantity of energy in the universe remains
constant (this is the pri nciple of the conservation of energy)
the second law states that the quality of this energy is degraded irreversibly
(this is the principle of the degradation of energy)
the second law, known as Carnot's principle, is controlled by the concept of
entropy
the two laws describe the concept that Delta G is positive in an exergonic
reaction
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The principle energy laws that govern every organization are derived from the two
famous laws of thermodynamics. Heat, being a form of energy, is subject to the
princip le of energy conse rvation; th is p ri nciple is called the fi rst la w of
thermodynamics - the tota l energy, including heat, in a closed system is conserved.
Heat, being a form of energy can be transformed into work and other forms of
energy, and vice versa. However, this t ransformation of heat energy is subject to a
very important restriction, called the second law of thermodynamics.
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miscellaneous
Isotopes of an element:
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Remember: The atomic number is the number of protons and the mass number is
the sum of protons and neutrons.
Note: The radioactive forms of isotopes are often used as tracers in medical radiography
miscellaneous
Growth and preparation of the chromosomes for replication occurs in
which phase of the cell cycle?
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The cell cycle is an ordered set of event s, culminating in cell growth and division into two
daughter cells. The stages are G 1 - S- G2 - M .
The G 1 stage stands for "GAP 1"
The S stage stands for "Synthesis" (the stage when DNA replication occurs)
The G2 stage stands for "GAP 2"
The M stage stands for "Mitosis" [t he stage when nuclear chromosomes separate
and cytoplasmic (cytokinesis) division occur). Mitosis is further divided into: p rophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. Interphase is often
included in discussions of mitosis, b ut interphase is techn ically not part of mitosis, but
rather encompases stages G1, 5 and G2 of the cell cycle.
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M = mitosis
The period between M and 5 is called G 1; that between 5 and M is G2 . Note: Many t im es
a cell will leave the cell cycle, temporarily or permanently. The cell exits the cycle at G1 and
enters a stage designated G0 (G zero). Many G0 cells are busy carrying out their functions
in the organism (e.g., secretion, attacki ng pathogens).
Important: Protein and RNA synthesis occu r in all phases of the cell cycle except M
(mitosis). A eukaryotic cell cannot divide into two, t he two into four, etc. unless two
p rocesses alternate: doubling of its genome (DNA) in S pha se (synthesis phase) of t he
cell cycle
halving of that genome during mitosis (M phase)
-<
M
II
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GO
(/
Cell Cycle
Schematic of the cell cycle. M =Mitosis, G J=Gap I, G2=Gap 2, S=Synthesis; not in
ring: GO=Gap 0/Resting
149 1
miscellaneous
Which class of antibody is the first antibody to appear in the circulation after
antigen stimulation?
lgA
lgD
lgE
lgG
lgM
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lgM
Antibodies are protein molecules produced by plasma cells in the spleen and lymph
nodes in response to stimulation by antigens. Antibodies leave the immune system
environment and travel through the circulation to the infection site. Here they
interact with microorganisms or other biochemicals and exert a specific immune
response. Antibody molecules are composed solely of protein; a typical antibody
molecule consists of two "heavy" chains of 400 amino acids and two "light" chains
of 200 amino acids.
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lgG
Most common antibody; important antibody of the secondary antibody response; passes the
placenta and enters d1e fetal c irculation.
lgA
Second most abundant; occurs in body secretions and protects surface tissues; synthesized by
the plasma cells in the mucous membranes of the GI, respiratory and urinary tracts.
IgO
Serves as the receptor site on the surface of the B lymphocytes; function is unknown or not
fully understood .
JgM
Large antibody consisting o f five antibody units; important in the primary antibody response;
first antibody to appear in the circulation after antigen stimulation; does not pass the placenta
or enter the fetal circulation. Important in complement activation and primary antibody against
A and B antigens on red blood cells
lgE
Is present in only trace amounts in serum; reaginic activity resides in the immunoglobulin;
protects extemal mucosal surfaces; tightly bound to its receptors on mast cells and basophils;
responsible for type I hypersensitivity reactions (allergic and anaphylactic).
kidneys
Three patients ingest three different substances. Match the substance to the
description of the patient's urine.
Substance
Description
I. J im are a substance that is fi ltered into the renal tubules
bur is then reabsorbed fully
2. Art are a substance that is filtered and secreted, so the
entire amount of substance was released in the first pass
3. Mau are a substance that was freely filtered and neither
secreted or reabsorbed
A. Inu lin
B. Glucose
C. Para-am inohippurate (PAH)
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Which patient is being tested for his glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
Jim
Art
Matt
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1. B, 2. C, 3. A
Matt
Inulin is a starch that is given by mouth. Inulin is freely fil tered from t he g lomerular
capillaries into Bowman's capsu le, but inulin does not undergo tubu lar secretion or
reabsorption. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) can be calcu lated by the clearance
of inulin from plasma. The rate at which a substance is cleared from plasma =
plasma volume completely cleared I unit time = (the uri ne concentration of the
substance * urine vo lume) I plasma concentration ofthe substrate.
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1. PAH is both filtered and secreted and is used to estimate rena l plasma
flow. Glucose and sodium chloride are filtered and subsequently reabsorbed.
2. Assessment of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine can also
be used to estimate t he GFR. Some literatu re states that the most accurate
measure of GFR is creatinine clearance. Patients w ith chronic kidney disease
are staged according to GFR and proteinuria. Risk factors incl ude diabetes,
high bl ood pressure, fami ly history, and smoking. Staged 1 through 5- Stage
5 (requiring dialysis).
3. If t he amount of a substance excreted in the urine is less than the amount
filtered, then the substance is reabsorbed.
kidneys
The thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle is called the "diluting
segment" because:
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The loop of Henle extend s from the proximal tube and consists of a descending limb and ascending limb. The loop of Henle begins in the cortex, receiving filtrate from the proximal convoluted
tubule, extends into the medulla and then returns to the cortex to empty into the distal convoluted
tubule.The loop of Henle's primary role is to concentrate the salt in the interstitium, the tissue surrounding the loop.
l . lts descending limb is permeable to water but completely impermeable to salt and thus
only indirectly contributes to the concentration of the interstitium.
2. Unlike the descending limb, the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to
water, a critical feature of the countercurrent exchange mechanism empl oyed by the loop.
The ascending limb actively pumps sodium out of the filtrate, generating the hypertonic interstiti um that drives countercurrent exchange.
Much of the ion transport taking place in the distal convoluted tubule is regulated by the endocrine system. In the presence of parathyroid hormone, the distal convoluted tubule reabsorbs
more calcium and excretes more phosphate. When aldosterone is present, more sodiu m is reabsorbed and more potassium excreted.
kidneys
The kidneys regulate acid-base balance by the:
secretion of bicarbonate ions (HC0 3-) into the rena l tubu les and the reabsorption of
hydrogen ions (H ')
secretion of hydrogen ions (W) into the rena l tubu les and the reabso rption of
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secretion of both hydrogen (W) and bicarbonate ions (HC0 3-) into the rena l tubu les
reabsorption of both hydrogen (W) and bica rbonate ions (HC0 3-)
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secretion of hydrogen ions (H') into the renal tubules and the
reabsorption of bicarbonate ions (HCo 3 )
There are three primary systems that regulate the hydrogen ion concentration in the body fluids:
1. The chemical acid base buffer system of the body fluids, which immediately com bi ne
with acid or base to prevent excessive changes in hydrogen ion concentration.
2.The respiratory center, which regulates the removal of C02 (and therefore H2C0 3) from the
extracellular fluid.
3. The kidneys, which can excrete either acid or alkaline urine, thereby readjusting t he extracellular fluid hydrogen ion concentration toward normal during acidosis or alkalosis.*** The
kidneys, although providing t he most powerful of all the acid-base reg ulatory systems, req uire many hours to several days to readjust t he hydrogen ion concentration.
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The hydrogen ions are secreted into t he tubules by tubu lar cells. The secretion mechanism
derives hydrogen ions from carbonic acid. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is present within
tubular cells and it catalyzes the formation of carbonic acid from carbon dioxide and water. The
carbonic acid dissociates into hydrogen ions (H+) and bicarbonate ions (HC0 3'). The H ions are
secreted into the t ubules, and the HC0 3 ions pass out of the tubu lar cells and into the blood.
This leads to a net reabsorption of HC0 3, but not a net secretion of H+.
Phosphate compounds (HP04 ) and ammonia (NH 3) act as buffers to tie up hydrogen ions in
t he tubular fluid and are responsible for the net secretion of H+. Phosphate compounds are
excreted in combination with a cation such as sod ium (Na+), Ammonium ions are excreted in
combination with anions such as chloride (Cr).
Notes
kidneys
_ _ _ is the best overall index of kidney function.
CPR
TFR
APR
GFR
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GFR
The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the rate at which the glomeruli filter blood, normally
about 120 ml/minute. Clinically, the GFR is evaluated by measuring plasma [creatinine). GFR
depends on:
Permeability of capi llary walls
Vascular pressure
Filtration pressure
Clearance
The GFR is increased by:
Vasodi lation of afferent arterioles: increases t he glomeru lar capillary hydrostatic
pressure and increases renal blood flow (RBF)
Vasoconstriction of efferent arterioles: also increases the glomerular capi llary hyd rostatic pressure
Decreased hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsu le: blockage of urine transport
th rough t he ureters will increase hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule and cause a
decrease in GFR
Decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure: associated with a decrease in the concent ration of plasma proteins
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Important: Autoregulation allows GFR and RBF to remain constant despite changes in arterial
blood pressure between 90 and 180 mm Hg.
Remember:
If t he tubules neither reabsorb nor secrete the substance, as happens with inulin or
creatinine, clearance equals the GFR
If the tubules reabsorb the substance, clearance is less than the GFR
If the t ubules secrete the substance, clearance exceeds t he GFR
lfthe t ubules reabsorb and secrete the substance, clearance may be less than, equal to,
or greater than the GFR
Note: Excessive constriction of the afferent arteriole will decrease RBF and GFR.
kidneys
The countercurrent mechanism is a system in the renal _ _ that facilitates
the _ _ of the urine. The system is responsible for the secretion of _ _
urine in response to _ _ plasma osmolarity.
cortex/concentration/hyperosmotic/elevated
medulla/dilution/hypo-osmotic/depressed
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cortex/dilution/hypo-osmotic/depressed
medulla/concentration/hyperosmotic/elevated
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medulla/concentration /hyperosmotic/elevated
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The countercurrent multiplier in the loop of Henle is dependent upon the active
reabsorption of sodium chloride by the thick ascending loop of Henle, the osmotic
equilibrium between interstitial fluid and tubular fluid in the descending loop of
Henle and continued inflow of new sodium chloride from the proximal tubule into
the loop of Henle. The sodium chloride reabsorbed from the ascending loop of Henle
keeps adding to the newly arrived sodium chlori de, thus "multiplying" its
concentration in the medullary interstitium.
Countercurrent exchange occurs in a region of the peritubular capillary bed called
the "vasa recta:'
Important point: The vasa recta do not create the medullary hyperosmolari ty but
do prevent it from being dissipated and can carry away the water that has been
reabso rbed.
kidneys
Reabsorption of glomerular filtrate would be most affected if modifications
were made to the permeability of which section of the nephron?
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Reabsorption is the movement of solutes from tubular flu id into interstitial flu id.
Reabsorption takes place not only in the proximal tubule but also in the loop of
Henle, the d istal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct.
Processes include: pri mary active transport, secondary active transport, faci litated
diffusion, simple d iffusion and solvent drag. Transport can be either transcellular or
paracellular.
Secretion is the movement of solutes from the interstitial fluid into the tubular flu id.
kidneys
Your afternoon patient complains that she has consumed "tons of liquids"
today. The patient asks ifthis will have an effect on her urine concentration.
What would you say in response to this question?
Your plasma osmolarity is lower than normal, and yo u will likely excrete a large amount
of concentrated urine
Your plasma osmolarity is lower than normal, and yo u will likely excrete a large amount
of dilute u rine
Yo ur plasma osmolarity is higher than normal, and you will likely excrete a large amount
of concentrated urine
Yo ur plasma osmolarity is higher than normal, and you will likely excrete a large amount
of dilute u rine
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What are the normal values for daily glomerular filtrate amount and
excretion amount, respectively?
1SO - 2SO L; 1 - 2 L
1SO - 2SO L; 12 L
4S - 7S L; 1 - 2 L
4S - 7S L; 12 L
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When tu bular secretion and reabso rption processes are completed, the fluid
remaining w ithin the tubu les is transpo rted to other components of t he uri nary
system to be excreted as urine. Urine consists of water and other materi als that were
filtered or secreted into the tubu les but not reabso rbed.
Although the daily GFR in normal individuals is variable, with a range of 1 SO to 2SO
L/24 hr., the kidneys normally excrete only 1 to 2 L of urine per day. Approximately
99% of the filtrate is returned to the vascular system, while 1% is excreted as urine.
Water and substances t he body needs are retu rned to the blood, w hereas waste
products and excess flu id and solutes remain in the tubu les and are excreted from the
body as urine.
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kidneys
Ammonia is produced from the metabolism of a variety of compounds.
1. Which compound listed below is quantitatively the most important source
of ammonia?
2. Which compound is not a source of ammonia?
3. Which compound is converted to ammonia mainly in the kidney?
glutamine
amino acids
amines
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amino acids
triglycerides
glutamine
Sources of ammonia:
1. From amino acids: many tissues, but particula rl y the liver, form ammonia
from amino acids by the aminotransferase and glutamate dehydrogenase reactions.
2. From glutamine: the kidneys (specifically, the tubular cells) form ammonia
from glutamine by the action of rena l glutaminase. Most of this ammonia is
excreted into the urine as NH4 , which is an important mechanism for maintaining
the body's acid-base balance.
3. From amines: amines obtained from the d iet and monoamines that serve as
hormones or neurotransmitters give rise to ammonia by the action of amine oxidase.
4. From purines and pyrimidines: in the catabolism of purines and pyrimidines,
amino groups attached to the rings are released as ammonia.
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kidneys
1. Which of the following processes is not involved in the formation of urine?
2. Which two of the following processes in the formation of urine involve the
most similar amounts of fluid transport?
3. Which two processes supplement each other, working in the same
"direction"?
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Normal urine is clear, straw-colored and slig htly acidic, and has the characteristic odor of
urea. The formation of urine is important in the regulation of acid-base balance, maintenance
of ECF volume and blood pressure and in maintaining the normal osmolarity of ECF.
Diuresis results from a decrease in the tubu lar reabsorption of water.
Absence of ADH
Diabetes insipidus
heart
Cardiac muscle has a shortened action potential compared to skeletal
muscle.
In cardiac muscle, the action potential is caused by opening oftwo types of
channels.
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Important: The strength of card iac muscle contracti on is directly proportional to intracell ular Ca2
concentration.
1. The refracto ry period of atrial muscle is much shorter t han that for the ventricles (about
0.15 second for the atria compared with 0.25 to 0.30 second for the ventricles). Therefore,
the rhythmical rate of contraction of t he atria can be much faster than t hat of the ventricles.
2. Skeletal muscle cells have a short refractory period t hat allows them to be stimulated
to contract a second time before they have relaxed from an initial contraction.
heart
The bicuspid or mitral valve is located between which two chambers of the
heart?
the right and left ventricl es
the right atri um and the left ventricle
the right and left atri a
the left atrium and the left ventri cle
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Which valve is unique in having a different number of cusps than the others?
mitral valve
tri cuspid va lve
pulmonary semilunar va lve
aortic semilunar valve
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The mitral (bicuspid} valve is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle,
surrounding the AV orifice. The mitral valve is composed of two cusps t hat prevent a
backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium d uring ventricular contraction.
Note: These valves are open during ventricular diastole, but they are forced sh ut during
systole as the pressure in the ventricles increases, thu s preventing the flow of blood back into
the atria while the ventricles are contracting.
The pulmonary semilunar valve is located at t he entrance to t he pu lmonary trunk. It is
composed of three cusps that prevent the backflow of blood from the pulmonary artery into
the right ventricle d uring ventricular relaxation. The aortic semilunar valve is located at the
entrance to the ascending aorta. It is composed of three cusps that prevent a backflow of
blood from the aorta into the left ventricle d uring ventricular relaxation. These valves are open
during ventricular systole.
Important: At no time during the cardiac cycle are all the valves of the heart open at the same
time. The first heart sound (5 1} corresponds to closure of the AV valves; the second heart
sound (5 2} corresponds to closure of the semilunar valves.
heart
An electrocardiogram is a graphic illustration of the:
ca rdiac cycle
cardiac conduction system
ca rdiac output
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1. An ECG that shows extra P waves before each QRS compl ex indicates
partial heart block (or second-degree block).
2. An ECG that shows the P wave and the QRS complex being dissociated
is indicative of complete heart block; that is, there is no correlation between
the P wave and the QRS-T complex on the ECG.
heart
Cardiac function is the volume of blood pumped each minute, and is
expressed by which equation?
CO = SV- HR
CO = SV + HR
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CO = SVx HR
CO = SV I HR
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CO=SVxHR
Where:
CO is cardiac output expressed in L/min
SV is stroke volume per beat
HRis the number of beats per minute
Cardiac output (CO) is perhaps the single most important factor that is used in relation to the
circulation, for it is the CO that is responsible for t ransport of substances to and from the tissues.
The average resting cardiac output is about 5.6liters per minute for men and 10% to 20% less for
women. CO varies depending upon the level of body activity, age, body size, condition of the heart,
etc.
Heart Rate (HR) is directly proportional to cardiac output; an adult HR is normally 80-100 beats per
minute (bpm). Heart rate is an intri nsic factor of the SA (pacemaker) node in the heart and is modified by autonomic, humoral and local factors.
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Stroke Volume (SV) is determined by three factors: preload, afterload and contractility.The preload
gives the volume of blood that the ventricle has available to pump, as well as the end diastolic length
of the muscle (increased preload increases stroke volume).The contractility is the force that the muscle can create at the given length- increased contractility increases stroke volume. Afterload is the
arterial pressure again st which the muscle will contract (increased afterload decreases stroke volume).
SV = End Diastolic Volume - End Systolic Volume
"'** The average SV is 70 to 80 ml
Important: The cardiac output of the left and right sides of the heart is equal. Blood ejected from
the left side of the heart to the systemic circulation must be oxygenated by passage through the
pulmonary circulation.
Tota l peripheral resistance (TPR) is the sum of the resistance of all peripheral vasculature in the
systemic circulation. Thus we have the equation, BP = CO x TPR. This is one of the fundamental
equations of cardiovascular physiology. You can see from the equation that blood pressure can be
maintained by altering cardiac output and/or total peripheral resistance.
heart
The Bainbridge Reflex is a positive feedback mechanism in which there is a
compensatory increase in heart rate, due to a rise in right atrial pressure.
It is commonly referred to as an Atrial Reflex.
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The Bainbridge Reflex is a positive feedback mechanism in w hich there is a compensatory increase in heart rate, due to a rise in right atrial pressure. It is commonly referred to as an Atrial Reflex.
The stretch receptors of the atria that elicit the Bainbridge Reflex t ransmit their
afferent signals throug h the vagus nerves to t he medulla of the brain. Then efferent
signals are transmitted back t hrough vaga l and sympathetic nerves to increase heart
rate and strength of heart contraction. Thus, this reflex helps prevent damming of
blood in the veins, atria, and pulmonary circu lation.
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Remember: The baroreceptors in the internal carotid arteries and aorta are tonically active and regu late bl ood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis. An increase in
arterial pressure stretches these receptors to initiate a reflex that inhibits t he medullary
vasoconstrictor center and induces vasod ilation. Conversely, a decrease in arterial pressure d isinhibits the vasoconstricto r center and induces vasoconstriction. The baroreceptors in the internal carotid arteries predominate over those in the aorta and t hey
respond more vigorously to changes in pressure (stretch) than they do to elevated or
reduced nonpulsatile pressure.
Note: Peripheral chemoreceptors (carotid and aortic bodies) and central chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata are stimulated by a decrease in blood P0 2 and by an
increase in blood PC0 2. Stimulation of these chemoreceptors increases the rate and
depth of respiration, but it also produces peripheral vasoconstriction. Cardiopulmonary
baroreceptors are also present in t he cardiac chambers and large pulmonary vessels.
They have Jess influence on blood pressure but participate in regulation of blood volume.
heart
Use the same answer options for the following questions.
1. Your patient has a defective mitral valve, allowing backflow. Which of the
following cardiac phases will be least affected by this defect?
2. Normally, which phase would have the highest ventricular pressure?
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isovolumetric contraction
fill ing phase
isovolumetric relaxation
ejection phase
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filling phase (because the mitral valve is open through this phase normally)
ejection phase (isovolumetric contraction would have an increasing pressure
right up until the ejection where the pressure would be the highest)
The spontaneous generation of an action potential within the SA node initiates a sequence of events
known as the cardiac cycle. Each cardiac cycle lasts approximately 0.8 seconds and spans the interval from the end of one heart contraction to the end of the subsequent heart contraction.
There are two phases of the cardiac cycle.ln t he diastole phase, the heart ventricles are relaxed and
the heart fills with blood. In the systole phase, the ventricles contract and pu mp blood into the arteries.
Duri ng the diastole phase, the atria and ventricles are relaxed. Blood flows into the right and left
atria. The valves located between the atria and ventricles (AV valves) are open once blood pressure
in the at ria exceeds the pressure in the ventricles, allowing blood to fl ow through to the ventricles.
Here is a summary of the events that occur during the diastole phase:
Atrioventricular valves are open
The sinoatrial node, which startscardiac conduction, contractscausing atrial contraction
The atria empt y blood into the ventricles
Semilunar valves close, preventing backflow into the ventricles
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During the systole phase, the ventricles contract pumping blood into the arteries. The right ventricle sends blood to the lungs via the pulmonary artery. The left ventricle pumps blood to the aorta.
Here is a summary of the events that occur during the systole phase:
The ventricles contract
Atrioventricular valves close and semilunar valves open
Blood flows to either the pulmonary artery or aorta
1. Blood flow to the coronary arteries woul d be greatest during ventricular relaxation
in a resting individual.
2. Ventricular volume is greatest following atrial systole.
3. Ventricular pressure is greatest during ventricular ejection.
4. 1ncreased ventricular volume increases end-diastolic fiber length. This is why an
increased fi lling of the ventricle during diastole causes a more forceful heartbeat.
heart
The first heart sound ("Lub") is associated w ith the closure of the:
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The first heart sound ("Lub") is associated with the closure of the atrioventricular
valves (mitral and tricuspid va lves) at the beginning of ventricular contraction. This
sound is largely due to vibrations of the taut A-V va lves immediately after closu re and
to the vibration of the wal ls of the heart and major vessels around the heart.
1. It is louder and longer than the second heart sound.
2. Ventricu lar systole starts with the first heart sound.
3. Ventricu lar d iastole ends with the first heart sound.
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The second sound ("Dub") is associated w ith the closure of the semilunar valves
(aortic and pulmonary valves) as the ventricles begin to relax fol lowing thei r
contraction. This sound is due largely to vibrations of the taut, closed semilunar
va lves and to the vibration of the wal ls of the pulmonary artery, the aorta, and to
some extent, the ventri cles.
1. Diastole begins with the second heart sound.
2.The aortic valve closes before the pulmonary va lve; this causes"splitting"
of the second heart sound.
heart
You have four patients with the following heart defects. For each patient,
choose which portion of the cardiac conduction system that is most likely
malfunctioning.
1. Craig has a higher than normal heart rate (tachycardia).
2. Gary's ventricles contract nearly simultaneously with the atria.
3. Ashley's right ventricle does not contract on the lateral side.
4. Jimmy's entire left ventricle does not contract.
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sinoatrial node
atrioventricula r node
internodal pathways
atrioventricula r bundle
purkinje fibers
[refer to AS card 160-1for illustration]
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SA node (pacemaker): located within the superior lateral wall of the right atrium near the
opening of the superior vena cava. Specialized pacemaker cells depolarize at an intrinsic
rate that drives the depolarization of the remainder of the heart.
Internodal pathways: rapidly transmit the wave of depolarization to the left atrium and
to the AV node.
Atrioventricular node (AV node): located in t he posterior wall of the right atrium behind
t he tricuspid valve within the lower right interatrial septum. An impulse is delayed in the AV
node for about 0.13 seconds to allow the atrial blood to empty into t he ventricles before
ventricular contraction occurs. Aside from the AV node, t he atria and ventricles are electrically isolated.
AV bundle (bundle of Hi s): originates in the AV node, passes su bendocardially down
the right side of t he interventricular septum fo r about 1 em and t hen d ivides into t he
right and left b undle branches.
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Purkinje fibers: originate from t he right and left bundle branches, extending to t he
papillary muscles and lateral walls of the ventricles. The wave of depolarization travels
extremely fast t hrough t he bundle branches and purkinje fibers (total elapsed time of 0.03
seconds).
heart
Use the same answer options for the following questions.
1. The ventricles are completely depolarized during which isoelectric
portion of the ECG?
2. This portion of the ECG represents atrial depolarization.
3. This portion of the ECG represents the segment between depolarization of
the atria and depolarization of the ventricle.
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QRS complex
Q-T interval
S-T segment
P wave
P-R interval
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S-T segment
P wave
P- R interval
The ECG, wh ich is recorded from the surface oft he body, traces the conduction of the
cardiac impulse throughout the heart. The ECG may be used to detect and analyze
certain card iac arrhythmias, such as altered sinoatrial rhythms, AV conduction blocks,
premature depolarizations, ectopic tachyca rdias and atrial and ventricu lar fibrill ation.
The Normal Electrocardiogram (ECG) Is Compo sed of:
P wave: represents atrial depolarization prior to the atria's contraction
T wave: represents ventricular repolarization
QRS complex: represents ventricular depolarization
S-T segment: represents the period when the ventri cles are depolarized; is isoelectric
P-R interval: represents the length of time between depolarization of the atria
and depolarization of the ventricles (approximately 0.16 seconds) Note: Varies w ith
heart rate; when HR increases, the P-R interva l decreases.
Q-T interval: represents the period between ventricu lar depolarization and
ventri cular repolarization (approximately 0.35 seconds)
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Note: The ECG is also isoelectric between the T and P waves (the ventricle is at resting
membrane potential). This peri od of ventricular diastole, when the ventricle is fi lling
with blood, greatly diminishes at high heart rates.
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ST segment - 80 to 120ms
T wave - 160ms
ST interval - 320ms
QT interval - 300 to 430ms
168 1
heart
Venous return (VR) is the flow of blood back to the heart. Under steady-state
conditions, venous return must equal
when averaged over time
because the cardiovascular system is essentially a closed loop.
sv
CO
HR
BP
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CO (cardiac output)
**"*Otherwise, blood would accumulate in either the systemic or pulmonary ci rculations. Although
ca rdiac output and venous return are interdependent, each can be independent ly regulated.
The circulatory system is made up of two circulations [pulmonary and systemic) situated in series bet ween the right ventricle (RV) and left ventricle (LV). Balance is achieved, in large part, by the FrankStarling relationship. For example, if systemic venous return is suddenly increased [e.g., changing
from supine to upright position), right ventricular preload increases, leading to an increase in stroke
volume and pulmonary blood flow. The left ventricle experiences an increase in pulmonary venous
return, which in turn increases left ventricular preload and stroke volume by the Frank-Starling relat ionship. In this way, an increase in venous return can lead to a matched increase in cardiac output.
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l .ln ventricular contraction, preload is stretch of the fibers by blood during vent ricular filling. Afterload is the arterial pressure against which the ventricle ejects the blood. An increase in myocardial fiber length, as occurs with augmented ventricular filli ng (preload)
during diastole, produces a more forceful ventricular contraction. This relationship between
fiber length and strength of contraction is known as the Frank-Starling relationship or
Starling's law of the heart.
2. Preload value is related to right atrial pressure. The most important determining factor
for preload is venous return.
3. Afterload for the left ventricle is determined by aortic pressure; afterload for the right
ventricle is determined by pulmonary artery pressure.
4. Contractility is an expression of cardiac performa nce at a given preload and afterload.
Contractility can be modulated by the autonomic nervous system.
S. lncreases in heart rate will also increase cardiac output, EXCEPT at very high heart rates
where there will be less ti me for filling.
6. Sympathetic activation of the heart will increase heart rate, conduction velocity in the
heart and contractility of the card iac muscle.
7. The myocardium functions only aerobically and in general, it uses substrates in
proportion to their arterial concentration.
heart
Which of the following equations correctly defines blood flow through the
vasculature?
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Blood flow is directly proportional to the pressure difference between the two ends of
the vessel (the pressure gradient) and is inversely proportional to the resistance of the
vessel.
This relationship indicates that:
1) t he greater the pressure gradient, the greater t he flow rate; and
2) the flow rate decreases with increased resistance
Factors influencing resistance are expressed as:
Resistance = viscosity (of bl ood) x length (of vessel)
(radius)
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Note: It is the fourth power of the radius. This means that if the radius is doubled
the resistance will decrease by a factor of 16. Thus, the major physiological
regulation of blood flow is via the activation of vascu lar smooth muscl e (vasoconstriction). This fact explains why arterioles, w ith their ability to quickly constri ct o r
dilate, are the most critical factor in controlling blood flow to peri pheral t issues.
Regulators of vascu lar smooth muscle include the sympathetic nervous system,
ci rcu lating hormones and local factors.
Pressure is the d ri ving force of the blood flow. When blood vessels are connected,
the b lood flows from the higher pressure site to the lower p ressure site and the
rate of flow is proportional to the pressure difference. The overall pressure
difference is between the ascending aorta and the entrance to the ri ght atrium
(the circulatory pressure [about 100 mmHg]).
heart
Changes in vessel _ _ are most important quantitatively for regulating
blood flow within an organ, as well as for regulating arterial pressure.
thickness
length
diameter
viscosity
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diameter
Resistance to blood flow within a vascu lar network is determined by the size of individual vessels (length and diameter), the organization of the vascular network (series and
parallel arrangements), physical cha racteristics ofthe blood (viscosity, laminar flow versus turbu lent flow) and extravascular mechanical forces acting upon the vasculature.
Changes in vessel diameter, particularly in small arteries and arterioles, enable organs to adjust their own blood flow to meet the metabolic requirements of the t issue.
Therefore, if an organ needs to adjust its blood flow (and therefore, oxygen delivery),
cel ls surrounding these blood vessels release vasoactive substances that can either
constrict or dilate the resistance vessels.
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The ability of an organ to regulate its own blood flow is termed local regulation of
blood flow and is mediated by vasoconstri ctor and vasodilator substances released
by the tissue surrounding blood vessels (vasoactive metabolites) and by the vascula r
endothelium. There is also a mechanism intrinsic to the vascular smooth muscle (myogenic mechanism) that is involved in local blood flow regulation.
In organs such as the heart and skeletal muscle, mechanical activity (contraction and
relaxation) produces compressive forces that can effectively decrease vessel d iameters
and increase resistance to flow during muscle contraction.
Important: C0 2, N02, W, K, lactate and adenosine are metabolites that cause local vasodilation. Hormones regulating local blood flow include histamine and bradykinin
(cause arteri olar d ilation and venous constriction), serotonin (causes arteri olar constri ction) and prostaglandins (cause constriction or dilation depending on specific
type).
heart
Fill in the blanks so that each statement correctly describes a situation that
will increase venous return to the heart.
the contraction of
a(n)
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(valves I peristalsis)
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skeletal
decrease
valves
decrease
Venous return is influenced by several factors.
Muscle contraction. Rhythmical contraction of limb muscles as occurs during normal
locomotory activity (walking, running, swimming) promotes venous return by the muscle
pump mechanism.
Decreased venous compliance. Sympathetic activation of veins decreases venous
compliance, increases central venous pressure and promotes venous return indirectly by
augmenting cardiac output t hrough t he Frank-Starling relationship, which increases the
total blood flow through t he circulatory system.
Respiratory activity. During respiratory inspiration, the venous return increases because
of a decrease in right atrial pressure.
Vena cava compression. An increase in the resistance of t he vena cava decreases venous
return.
SAADDES
Remember: Under normal circumstances, the rate of venous return is the major factor that
determines cardiac output as stated in Starling's law of the heart (or the Frank-Starling
relationship).
1. Contraction of the skeletal muscles, especially in the limbs, squeezes the veins
and t his pushes blood in the extremities towards the heart; back flow is prevented
by the presence of numerous one-way valves in t he vein s. Thus, rhythmic
contractions of the leg muscl es will counteract t he force of gravity, which tends to
cause pooling of blood in the feet in standing persons.
2. Veins have a great degree of compliance t hat can be regulated by the
sympathetic nervous system. An increase in sympathetic activation decreases
venous compliance and increases venous return .
heart
Which ofthe following parameters is decreased during exercise?
heart rate
cardiac output
total peripheral resistance
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stroke volume
arteria l pressure
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heart
Parasympathetic fibers innervate the heart by way of the vagus nerves.
The right vagus nerve goes to the AV node while the left vagus nerve goes to
the SA node.
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Parasympathetic fibers innervate the heart by way of the vagus nerves. The right
vagu s nerve goes to the SA node while the left vagus nerve goes to the AV node.
Parasympathetic activation decreases heart rate and de creases the spread of
depolarization from the atria to the ventricles.
l .The SA node serves as the cardiac pacemaker to initiate the cardiac impulse.
This impu lse is propagated from the SA node to the atria and ultim ately reaches
the AV node. After a delay in the AV node, the cardiac impul se is propagated
throughout the ventricles.
2. Velocity of conduction: highest in Purkinje system; slowest in AV node.
3. The properties of automaticity (the ability to init iate its own beat) and rhythmicity (the regularity of pacemaker activity) allow a perfused heart to beat even
when it is comp letely removed from the body.
4. Automaticity: greater in SA node than in AV node which is greater than in
Purkinje system.
heart
If a patient's SA and AV nodes fail, what is the most likely situation the patient
will be in?
SAADDES
the ventricles w ill contract and passively fill, keeping the patient alive for a short
period
the atri a will ta ke over and contract; the ventricles will allow the blood to flow
through and out to the periphery of t he body
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The right bundle branch and the t wo divisions of the left bundle branch ultim ately subdivide into a co mp lex network of conducting fibers, called Purkinje fibers that spread out
over the subendocardial surfaces of both ventricles. Collectively, the bundle branches and
Purkinje network comprise the ventricular conduction system. Note: It takes about 0.030.04 seconds for the impulse to travel fro m the bundle of His to the ventricular m uscle.
Remember: The ventricular conducting system is capable of intrinsic pacem aker activity at
a rate of 30-40 impulses per minute. If the SA and AV nodes are injured, the ventricular
conducting system can take over control of heart rate and rhythm.
pH
The isoelectric point (pi):
is the pH at which the number of positive and negative charges on a molecule equal
each other
is the pH at wh ich the number of positive and negative charges in a solution equal
each other
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Note: Whereas the pK (the negative logarithm of the dissociation constant of an acid)
is the property of an individual ionizable group, the pi is a property of the whole molecule.
Example:
The amino acid g lycine has a net negative charge at any pH above glycine's pi and
wi ll thus move toward the positive electrode (the anode) when placed in an electric
field. At any pH below g lycine's pi, g lycine has a net positive charge and will move
toward the negative electrode (the cathode). The farther the pH of a glycine solution
is from its isoelectric point (pi), the greater the net electric charge of the population
of glycine molecules.
Note: At physiologic pH, all amino acids have both a negatively cha rged carboxyl
group (-Coo) and a positively cha rged amino group (-NH 3+). They are therefore,
dipolar ions (in this state, the compound is said to be a zwitterion).
Amino acid
pKa 1
Glycine
2.34
5.97
pi
Alanine
2.34
6.00
Valine
2.32
5.96
Leucine
2.36
5.98
Isoleucine
2.36
6.02
Methionine
2.28
5.74
Proline
1.99
6.30
Phenylalanine
1.83
5.48
Tryptophan
2.83
5.89
Asparagine
2.02
5.41
Gluta mine
2.17
5.65
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Serine
2.21
5.68
Threonine
2.09
5.60
Tyrosine
2.20
5.66
Cysteine
1.96
5.07
Aspartic acid
1.88
2.77
Glutamic acid
2.19
3.22
Lysine
2.18
9.74
Arginine
2.17
10.76
1.82
7.59
Histidine
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pH
Which of the following represents the pH of a solution that has a 10-4 M
concentration of OH- ion?
8
7
10
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10
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14 = pH+ 4
pH = 10
pH
Carbonic acid/bicarbonate is the most important physiological buffer
system in the body.
Proteins also participate in pH buffering, mainly through their histidine side
chains.
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the plasma but also in the interstitial and int racellular compartments. Also, the C0 2 level can
be regulated by the lungs and t he HC0 31evel by the kidneys.
Phosphate groups provide an additional buffer system: Only H2P04 ' is present in appreciable
q uantities at physiological pH values. The ph osphate buffer is important only in t he intracellular compartments, in which phosphate is the major inorganic anion.
Proteins also participate in pH buffering, mainly through their histidine side chains: Serumalbumin for example, has 16 histid ine residues with pK values not far from t he blood pH of 7.4. Like
phosphate, protein s are more important buffer systems in t he cells than in the plasma.
Remember: Buffer systems most common ly consist of a weak acid (the proton donor) and a
"salt'; or conjugate base of that acid (the proton acceptor}. These systems minimize pH
changes brought about by a change in the acid or base content of the solution. These buffer
systems reduce the effect of an abrupt change in W ion concentration by releasing W ions
when t he pH rises and accepting Wions when the pH drops.
Note: Hemoglobin is a major intracellular buffer.
pH
The famous relationship stated in the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation can
be used to:
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Note: The larger the Ka, the stronger the acid because most of the HA has been converted into W
and A'. Conversely, the smaller the Ka, the less acid has dissociated and therefore, the weaker the
acid.
The Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation was derived from the equation for the dissociation
constant:
[A]
pH = pK. + log - [HAl
Not..
1. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation shows that pH=pK when an acid is half neutralized.
2. The pH of a buffer system depends on the pK of the weak acid and the ratio of molar
concentrations of salt and weak acid .
3. The optimum pH for an enzyme is the pH that facilitates the most rapid reaction rate.
4. A buffer is most effective when the pH of the solution equals the buffer's pKa, though it
still works well within 1 pH unit of its pKa.
pH
All of the following are mechanisms the body uses to control the blood's
acid-base balance EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
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***
The 0.03 multipl ier is the solubili ty constant of C0 2 in blood. The multiplier
converts the PC0 2 measurement to C0 2 concentration in mmoi/ L. This is necessary
to ensure that both the HCo3 and C0 2 concentration have the same units.
pH
Respiratory acidosis results from hyperventilation.
Metabolic acidosis results from excessive vomiting.
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Even small deviations from the normal blood pH lead to severe cl inical disturbances.
An arteri al pH lower than 7.35 is called acidemia and an arteria l pH exceeding 7.45 is
ca lled alkalemia. The pathological states leading to these outcomes are ca lled
acidosis and alkalosis, respectively.
Respiratory acidosis is caused by any impairment in t he d isposal of C02 . Conversely,
respiratory alkalosis results from hyperventilation. For example, a doubling in the
rate of alveolar ventilation raises the blood pH from 7.40 to 7.62. A 50% reduction in
alveolar ventilation lowers t he blood pH from 7.40 to 7.12. Note: If you administer a
high nitrous-oxygen mixture (for example, 90:10) to a patient, th is will cause respiratory
depression and result in respiratory acidosis.
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Metabolic acidosis is caused either by an overproduction of o rganic acids or by an inability of t he kidneys to excrete excess acid. The normal urinary pH va ri es over a range
of 4.0 to 7.0, depending on the need to excrete excess protons. Conversely, metabolic
alkalosis is caused by the abnormal loss of acids from t he body: for exampl e, as a result of excessive vomiting.
The most important laboratory test for t he distinction between metabolic and respiratory acidosis is t he determination of the tota l plasma carbon dioxide (C0 2 + H2C0 3 +
HC03lln respiratory acidosis, the total carbon dioxide is elevated because C0 2 retention is by definition, the cause of the acidosis; in metabolic acidosis, it is reduced because the patient hyperventilates in an attempt to eliminate excess ca rbonic acid. The
converse applies to alkalosis.
membranes
The cell (plasma) membrane is a fluid mosaic of:
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carbohyd rates
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The cell membrane (plasma membrane) is composed mainly of lipids and proteins.
The lipids form a bilayer, t heir hydrophilic head groups interact w ith water on both
intracellular and extracellular surfaces while the hydrophobic fatty acyl chains of the
lipids interact with in t he central portion of t he membrane. Peripheral proteins do
not cross the length of the membrane and are either embedded within the outer or
inner layer of the membrane; integral proteins span from one side of the membrane
to the other side.
1. Carbohydrates are attached to proteins and lipids on the exterior side of
the cell membrane.
2. Integral proteins are associated w ith the hydrophobic phase of the
bilayer.
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The lipids that make up the bulk of a cell's surface membrane fall into three classes:
phospholipids, steroids (primarily cholesterol) and g lycolipids. About half of the
molecules in an average membrane are phospholipids. Examples of phospholipids
include: phosphatidylethanolamine, phosphatidylserine and phosphatidylinositol.
Examples of glycolipids includes phosphatidylcholine and sphingomyelin.
Phospholipids are amphiphilic with the hydrocarbon ta il of t he molecule
hydrophobic and its polar head hydrophilic. As the plasma membrane faces watery
solutions on both sides, its phospholipids accommodate this by form ing a
phospholipid bilayer with t he hydrophobic tails facing each other.
membranes
Proteins account for about one quarter of the total mass in most membranes.
Membrane proteins are globular proteins.
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Proteins account for about one half of the total mass in most membranes. Membrane p roteins are globular proteins. Accord ing to the fluid -m osaic model of membrane structure,
they associate with the lipid b il ayer in different ways:
Integral membrane proteins: are embedded in the lipid b ilayer. In most cases, the
polypept ide traverses the lipid b il ayer by means of a transmembrane helix. The nonpolar side chains of these amino acids interact w ith the membrane lipids.
Note: Integral membrane proteins can be solu bilized only w ith treatments that destroy
the lipid b ilayer (action of detergents).
Peripheral membrane proteins: interact with integral membrane proteins or the hydrophilic head groups of the memb rane lipids, but they do not t raverse the lipid b ilayer.
Note: They can be detached from the membrane by manipu lating pH or salt concentrations.
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membranes
What is the name of the structure shown below?
Hint: It is the basic structure of cell membranes.
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lipid bilayer
In an aqueous environment (water), phospholipid molecules form lipid bilayers (also called
bimolecular sheets), in which t he polar regions (phosphate group that is negatively charged)
are located at the surfaces of the bilayer, where the molecules interact with water (hydrophilic).
The nonpolar regions (fatty acid portion) are hydrophobic and orient themselves toward the
interior of the bilayer so as to minimize contact with t he aqueous portion. In this lipid bilayer,
globular proteins (peripheral and integral) are embedded at irregular intervals, held by
hydrophobic interactions between the membrane lipids and hydrophobic domains in the
proteins.
1. lipids, when suspended in water, spontaneously form bilayer structures that are
stabilized by hydrophobic interactions.
2.This lipid bilayer serves as a permeability barrier, yet it is quite fluid. The membrane
mosaic is fluid because the interactions among lipids and between lipids and proteins,
are noncovalent, leaving individual lipid and protein molecules free to move laterally
in the plane of the membrane.
3. Bilayers arise through the operation of two opposing forces: (1) attractive forces
between hydrocarbon chains (van der Waals forces) caused by the hydrophobic effect
forcing such chains together and (2) repulsive forces between the polar head groups.
4. The lipid bilayer is impermeable to small inorganic ions such as sodium and protons.
5. All noncovalent structures are fragile. Biological membranes are especially vulnerable to agents that disrupt hydrophobic interactions. Exposed membranes tolerate
neither nonpolar organic solvents nor detergents. Many disinfectants, including phenol, ethanol and cationic detergents, act by disrupting the membranes of microorganisms.
6. Gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse freely across membranes, but most
nutrients, metabolic intermediates and coenzymes are water soluble and can-not
cross the lipid bilayer. Also because inorganic ions cannot cross, the electrical conductivity of lipid bilayers is very low.
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membranes
Molecules that can easily penetrate a biologic membrane are usually:
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tooth/mouth
The organic matrix of enamel is made from noncollagenous proteins only
and contains several enamel proteins and enzymes.
Of the enamel proteins, 90% are a heterogenous group of low-molecularweight proteins known as amelogenins.
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Ameloblasts produce an enamel matrix (organic matrix) w ith protein components called
amelogenins and enamel ins. Th is organ ic matrix makes up about 1% to 2% of enamel and water
makes up about 4%.
Enamel is a highly mineralized structure conta ining approximately 95% inorganic matter. The
hydroxyapatite crystals, which are made up of calciu m and phosphate, are the largest mineral
constituents (90% to 95%) of this inorganic matter.
Note: Enamel is semipermeable; it is this property of enamel that allows fluoride ions to be
absorbed on the hydroxyapat ite crystals, forming fluorapatite via fluoride ion displacement of a
hydroxyl group. The tooth becomes more resistant to bacteria-producing acids because
fluorapatite has a lower solubility product constant than hydroxyapatite (another way of saying
t his is hydroxyapatite has a higher solubility than fluorapatite).
Remember: Enamel is harder tha n bone. The main reason for this is that enamel hydroxyapatite
crystals are larger and more firmly packed. These tightly packed masses of hydroxyapatite crystals
are keyhole-shaped rods called enamel prisms and form the structural found ation of enamel.
Actually, these hydroxyapatite crystals in enamel are four times larger than those in bone, dentin
and cementum.
tooth/mouth
All of the following statements concerning enamel hypoplasia are true
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
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rad iographically, the enamel is either absent o r very thin over tips of cusps and
interproximal areas
it can be caused by nutritional deficiencies
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The enamel is hard in context but thin and deficient in amount. The etiology may be
hereditary or environmental. Examples of environmental causes include a vitam in
deficiency (A and D), inadequate ca lcium intake, fluorosis, congenital syphilis, high
fever, injury o r trauma to the mouth.
tooth/mouth
Caries activity is directly proportional to all of the following EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
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Remember: S. Sanguis (which is the most frequently iso lated Streptococcus in the oral
cavity), S. Salivarius and Lactobacillus species also produce g lucosyltransferase. This
enzyme catalyzes the formation of extracellular glucans from d ietary sucrose. Glucan
production contributes to the formation of dental plaque. Th is dental plaque holds the
lactic acid wh ich is p roduced by these Streptococci against the tooth. This acid disso lves
the hydroxyapatite crystals which form the enamel of the tooth, creating caries.
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Each time that plaque bacteria come into contact with food or drink conta in ing simple
sugars (monosaccharides such as glucose and fructose, and d isaccharides such as sucrose,
lactose and maltose), the plaque bacteria use the sugars for the bacteria's metabolic
needs, making organic acids (i.e., lactic acid) a metabo lic by-product. If these acids are not
buffered by sa liva, they d issolve the surface of the a patite crystals of adjacent tooth
structure. This is called demineralization (this occurs when the pH level of the mouth
drop s be low 5.5). Caries depends on the ba lance between demineralization and
remineralization, i.e., on the frequency of eating (and on the microbial co mposition of
the p laque and its chemical nature and th ickness, on the local fl uoride concentration and
on the b uffering capacity of saliva). A frequent pattern of eating therefore increases caries
risk.
tooth/mouth
The primary physiologic control of the salivary glands is by the sympathetic
nervous system.
Control of salivary secretion is exclusively neural.
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Stimulation of the parasympathetic nerves to salivary glands increases blood flow by dilati ng the
vasculature of the glands. Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP) and acetylcholine are released
from parasympathetic nerve terminals in the salivary glands and are vasodilatory during secretion.
Control of salivary secretion is exclusively neural. In contrast, control of most other Gl secretions is
primarily hormonal. Salivary secretion is st imulated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic
subd ivisions of the autonomic nervous system. The pri mary physiological control of t he salivary
glands is by the parasympathetic nervous system. Note: Sympathetic fibers to the salivary glands
stem from the superior cervical ganglion. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers travel via branches
of the facial and glossopharyngeal nerves. These fibers form synapses with postganglionic neurons
in ganglia in or near the salivary glands.
Note: Vagal stimulation increases saliva production, so vagotomy (or at ropine) inhibits saliva
production and produces dry mouth.
..,.* Atropine prevents the action of acetylcholine on the secreting cells in the oral cavity.
tooth/mouth
All of the following characterize saliva EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
low K+concentration
low osmolarity
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the inorganic composition is entirely dependent on the stimulus and the rate of
salivary flow
it is always hypotonic
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low K concentration
The important p roperties of saliva are a large flow rate relative to the mass of gland, low
osmolarity, high K+concentration and organic constituents - including enzymes (amylase, lipase), mucin and growth factors. The inorganic co mposition is entirely dependent
on the stimulus and the rate of sa livary flow, which is stimulated during a meal. The major
components are Na, K, Hco3, Ca 2 , Mg 2 and cr.
Note: In humans, salivary secretion is always hypotonic due to the fact that the salivary
ductal cell s reabsorb sodium and chloride in exchange for potassium and bicarbonate.
The organic constituents of saliva, p roteins and glycoproteins, are synthesized, stored
and secreted by the acinar cells. The major p roducts are amylase (an enzyme that in itiates
starch digestion), lipase (important for lipid di gestion), glycoprotein (mucin, which forms
mucus when hydrated) and lysozyme (attacks bacterial cell wa ll s to limit colonization of
bacteria in the mouth).
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Note: Saliva supplies calcium and p hosphate, which are important for remineralization of
the enamel.
Remember: Caries is modified by saliva. High flow-rate saliva is a very effective buffer. The
balance between demineralization and remineralization can therefore be altered
substantially by the rate of salivary flow. Flow is decreased by salivary gland pathology (as
occurs in several connective tissue disease and w hich can follow radiotherapy and cancer
chemotherapy), by many mood-altering drugs and so me drugs used in other medical
treatment, in dehydration and during sleep. Flow increases naturally during vigorous
chewing. A maximum salivary flow rate of less than 0.7 ml/min. is associated with
high caries risk.
proteins/amino acids
The nonessential amino acids are synthesized either from common
metabolic intermediates or from other amino acids.
Only three amino acids: leucine, lysine and histidine, are exclusively
ketogenic.
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Amino acids can also be classified as ketogenic, glucogenic, or both according to the natu re
of their metabol ic end products.
The seven amino acid s (phenylalanine, tyrosine, isoleucine, leucine, tryptophan, th reonine
and lysine) that are degraded ent irely or in part to acetoacetyi-CoA and/or acetyi-CoA can
yield ketone bodies in the liver, where acetoacetyl-Co-A is converted to acet oacetate and
then to acetone and p-hydroxybutyrate. These are the ketogenic amino acids.
The amino acids that are degraded t o pyruvate, a-ketog lutarat e, succinyi-CoA, fumarate,
and/or oxaloacetate can be converted to glucose and glycogen. They are the glucogenic
amino acids.
Note: The division between ketogenic and glucogenic amino acids is not sharp, five amino acids
(tryptophan, phenylalanine, tyrosine, t hreonine and isoleucine) are both ketogenic and glucogenic. Only leucine and lysine are purely ketogenic.
Important: The nitrog en of the amino acid s is incorporated in urea, a soluble, nontoxic product that is excret ed in the urine.
proteins/amino acids
In eukaryotes, DNA does not exist free; it is complexed with an approximately
equal mass of basic proteins called histones. These histones contain a large
portion of:
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The nucleus contains the chromosomes of the cell. Each chromosome consists of a
single molecule of DNA complexed with an equal mass of proteins. Collectively, the
DNA of the nucleus with its associated proteins is ca lled chromatin. Most of the
protein consists of multiple copies of 5 kinds of hi stones (H l , H2A, H2B, H3 and H4).
These are basic proteins, bristling with positively charged arginine and lysine
residues. Important: Both Arg and Lys have a free amino group on thei r R group,
which attracts protons (W), giving them a positive cha rge (perfect amino acids to
bind tightly to the negatively-charged phosphate g roups of DNA).
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Note: These histones help neutralize the large negative charge of the DNA phosphate
groups and stabilize DNA in a compact form.
Remember: Histones package and order the DNA into structural units called
nudeosomes. Nucleosomes are repeating subunits of chromatin, consisting of a DNA
cha in coiled around a core of histones.
proteins/amino acids
Which one of the following statements about protein structure is correct?
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*** The correct folding of a protein is guided by specific interactions among the side
chains of the amino acid residues of a polypeptide chain.
Proteins are polymers b uilt from amino acids j oined by peptide bonds. The resulting chain
of amino acids (called a polypeptide) is then folded in different ways and to different
extents. Generally, amino acids have a central or alpha carbon to which is attached a
hydrogen atom (H), a carboxyl group (COOH), an amino group (NH 2) and a fourth
group that differs from one amino acid to another and is often indicated by the letter R.
App roxim ately 20 different amino acids (they possess different R groups) are common ly
found in proteins of the body.
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Proteins are formed from amino acids by reactions that bond the alpha amino group of
one amino acid to the alpha carboxyl group of another. This bond is called a peptide
bond. Two amino acids joined together by a pept ide bond form a dipeptide. Ten or more
amino acids linked in a chain by peptide bonds form a polypeptide chain. A protein is a
polypeptide chain of approxim ately 100 or more amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
The order of amino acids in a protein from the amino terminal to the carboxy terminal of
the protein chain is referred to as the primary structure of the protein. Higher-order
structures are dependent on the prim ary structure.
1. The two cysteine residues that react to form the disulfide bond (a covalent
bond) may be a great distance apart in the primary structure but are brought
into close proximity by the three-dimensional folding of the polypeptide chain.
2. Many proteins are composed of two or more polypept ide chains, generally
referred to as subunits, which associate through non covalent interaction s and
occasionally, disulfide bonds to form protein quaternary structu res. It has been
known for long that the functions of proteins are closely related to their
quaternary structure.
proteins/amino acids
Most plasma proteins are derived from the:
kidney
liver
plasma cells
T cells
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liver
Most plasma proteins are derived from the liver.ln all, the liver synthesizes about 25 g of plasma
proteins every day, which accounts for nearly 50% of the total protein synthesis in the liver. Only
the immunoglobulins are not produced by the liver. They are synthesized by plasma cells.
Most plasma proteins (exception: albumin) are glycoproteins. They circulate for several days
and are eventually removed from the circulation when their oligosaccharide chains are worn
down.
Although albumin accounts for only 60% of the total plasma protein, it provides 80% of the colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma. This is because the colloid osmotic pressure depends on
the amount of water and electrolytes that a protein attracts to its surface and albumin is one of
the most hydrophilic plasma proteins. Remember: The colloid osmotic pressure is necessary
to prevent edema. Usually, edema develops when the albumin concentration drops below 2.0
g/dl. Edema can also be caused by an increase in capillary permeability, venous obstruction, impaired lymph flow and CHF with an increased venous pressure.
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Globulins (are soluble in salt solutions but not pure water) make up 35% of plasma protein and
are used in the transport of ions, hormones and lipids. They also assist in immune function. Fibrinogen accounts for 4% of plasma protein and is essential in the clotting of blood and can be
converted into insoluble fibrin. Regulatory proteins, which make up less than 1% of plasma
protein, are proteins such as enzymes, proenzymes and hormones.
Remember: Plasma proteins act as buffers that help stabilize the pH of the internal
environment. Intracellular proteins absorb hydrogen ions generated by the body's metabolic
processes.
Note: Other plasma proteins include the following:
1. Lipoproteins (chylomicrons, VLDL, LDL, HDL) that are responsible for the transport in the
blood of triglycerides, phospholipid s, cholesterol and cholesterol esters from the liver to
tissues or organs.
2. Transferrin (for iron transport)
3. Prothrombin (a blood-clotting protein)
proteins/amino acids
A peptide bond forms between the _ _ group of one amino acid and the
_ _ group of the adjacent amino acid.
amino; amino
carboxyl; carboxyl
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ca rboxyl; amino
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carboxyl; amino
Amino acids are j oined together in proteins by peptide bonds. A peptide bond is a chemical
bond formed between two molecules when the carboxyl group of one molecule reacts with the
amino group of the other molecule, thereby releasing a molecule of water. This is a condensation reaction and usually occurs between amino acids. The resulting CO-NH bond is called a
peptide bond and t he resulting molecule is an amide.
Important Characteristics of the Peptide Bond:
The bonds involving the <x-carbon can rotate freely
Unlike its components (the a-amino and a-carboxyl group), the components of the pept ide bond do not accept or give off protons; therefore it does not ionize at physiologic pH
It is not cleaved by organic solvents or urea, but is susceptible to strong acids. They are extremely stable.
It is generally a trans bond (occurs in trans configu ration as opposed to cis configuration)
It is uncharged but polar
Proline d ue to formation of a tertiary amine restricts the range of rotation of the a-carbon
in the peptide bond
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Remember: Another type of covalent bond that occurs in many proteins is the disulfide bond.
It is formed from the sulfhydryl group (-SH) of each of two cysteine residues, to produce a
cystine residue. It is widely thought t hat these strong, covalent bonds help stabilize the
structure of proteins and prevent them from becoming denatured in the extracellular
environment. Exa mples include the hormone insulin and the immunoglobulins.
proteins/amino acids
Both hemoglobin in RBCs and myoglobin in the muscles employ heme as a
prosthetic group.
Myoglobin consists of a single polypeptide with a noncovalently bound
heme group while hemoglobin has four polypeptides, each with its own
heme.
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Myoglobin has a m uch greater affinity for oxygen than does hemoglobin . This makes myoglobin
well suited for its biolog ical function within muscle cells, which is to store oxygen and make
myoglobin's available to the mitochondria. Myoglobin is in fact, much bet ter at this than
hemoglobin because its very high affinity for oxygen at low P0 2 enables myoglobin to bind and
store oxygen effectively. In summary, hemoglobin and myoglobin are specialized proteins,
adapted for different kinds of oxygen-binding fu nctions.
Important: The heme iron in hemoglobin and myoglobin binds molecular oxygen on ly in the ferrous
(Fe') state. Its oxidation to the ferric (Fe') form produces useless methemoglobin. The enzyme
methemoglobin reductase reduces methemog lobin back to normal hemoglobin, using the coenzyme NADH as a reductant.
Note: Carbon monoxide also binds coordinately to heme iron atoms in a manner similar to that of
oxygen, but the binding of carbon monoxide to heme is much stronger than that of oxygen. The
preferential binding of carbon monoxide to heme iron is largely responsible for the asphyxiation
that results f rom carbon monoxide poison ing.
proteins/amino acids
All amino acids found in proteins are of the:
D-configuration
l-configuration
F-configuration
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(-configuration
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L-configuration
Stereoisomers (optical isomers or enantiomers) are compounds that have the same
composition and the same order of atomic connections, but different molecular
arrangements. In all standard amino acids (except glycine), the a-carbon is
asymmetric, bonded to four different substituent groups (a carboxyl group, an amino
group, an R group and a hydrogen atom). This carbon is ca lled a chiral center. The
fou r different substituent groups can occupy two different arrangements in space,
which are non-super-imposable mirror images of each other. These two forms are
ca lled stereoisomers (optical isomers or enantiomers). Note: All molecules with a
chiral center are also optically active.
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proteins/amino acids
In contrast to hemoglobin and myoglobin where the iron is always in the
ferrous state (Fe 2 ), the heme iron of the cytochromes:
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The electron transport chain is the final common pathway by which electrons derived from
different fuels of the body flow to oxygen. Note: Electron transport and ATP synthesis by oxidative
phosphorylation proceed continuously in all cells of the body that contain mitochondria.
Cytochromes receive electrons from the reduced form of coenzyme Q (ubiquinone). Each contains
a heme group made of a porphyrin ring containing an atom of iron. This cytochrome iron atom is
t he electron carrier and is reduced when the cytochrome accepts an electron (Fe, Fe2 ) .
Cytochromes are distinguished by differences in their light-absorption spectra and are designated
b, c1, c, a3 and a. These differences are a result of the heme prosthetic group. Note: Cytochromes
a3 and a are the terminal members of the electron transport chain. They exist as a complex which is
called Complex IV or cytochrome oxidase complex.
Note: The prosthetic groups of cytochromes have four five-membered, nitrogen-containing rings
in a cyclic structure called a porphyrin. The four nitrogen atoms are coordinated with a central Fe
ion that can be either Fe 2 or Fe'. Remember: These porphyrins are also found in the heme proteins
hemoglobin and cytochrome P450. Glycine and succinyi-CoA are the precu rsors to the
biosynthesis of these rings.
proteins/amino acids
All amino acids have a carboxyl group and an amino group, both bound
to the same carbon. This carbon is called the:
a-carbon
f3 -carbon
y-carbon
),-carbon
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a.-carbon
General structure of the amino acids found in proteins
1 [9
H- Ni-C- tC- OH
' Amino ,
Group
l.al
1Carboxylic Acid
Group
Sid'e Chain ex -carbon
L With the except ion of the nature of the R group, this structure is common
to all the a-amino acids, The central or a.-carbon is in the center, Attached
to this is a hydrogen atom (H), a carboxyl group (COOH), an amino group
(NH 2) and the R group, In all amino acids except glycine, the a-carbon atom has
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four different substituent groups (in glycine, the R group is a hydrogen atom),
2, Amino acids can lose their n itrogen-contain ing amino groups and be
converted to a-keto acids (alpha -keto acids) that can ultimately enter the
Krebs cycle (for example, by way of pyruvic acid or the Krebs cycle co mponent oxaloacetic acid, both of which are a-keto acids), An a -keto acid is
simil ar to an amino acid, except that an a -keto acid has oxygen rather than
an amino group bonded to its a -carbon,
3, When proteins are broken down and used for energy, most of this energy
is derived from the oxidation of a-keto acids (Le,, pyruvate, oxaloacetate and
a-ketoglutarate), These substances can then enter the Krebs cycle,
4, Dipept ides are formed by a reaction between the carboxyl group of one
amino acid and the amino group of another amino acid, The substituted
amide bond thus formed is called the pept ide bond,
proteins/amino acids
Glutamate can be synthesized by the addition of ammonia to a -ketoglutarate. All of the following amino acids can be derived from glutamate EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
asparagine
glutamine
proline
arginine
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asparagine
Synthesis of amino acids:
CL-ketoglutarate gives rise to glutamate, which in turn is the precursor of glutamine, proline and arginine
3-phosphoglycerate gives rise to serine, which in turn is the precursor of glycine and cysteine
Oxaloacetate gives rise to aspartate, which in turn is the precursor of asparagine, methionine, threonine and lysine
Note: Threonine is the precursor of isoleucine.
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proteins/amino acids
Elastin has an aberrant amino acid composition, with high proportions of:
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The elastic fibers of the extracellular matrix have two components: an inner core of
amorphous elastin and a layer of 10-nm microfibrils surrounding t he elastin. Elastin
has high proportions of g lycine (31%), alanine (22%) and proline (11%). Some
hyd roxyproline (1%; a derivative of proline) is also present, but t here is no
hydroxylysine. Like collagen, elastin conta ins covalent crosslinks that are derived
from allysine. Therefore, lysyl oxidase is required for the synthesis of elastin as well
as of collagen. The covalent cross links of elastin are similar to those of collagen except
for desmosine, which is present in elastin but not collagen.
In contrast to collagen, which forms fibers t hat are toug h and have high tensile
strength, elastin is a connective tissue protein w ith rubber-li ke properties. Elastic
fibers can be stretched to several t imes their normal length (it is the elastin that gives
these fibers the capacity of return ing to their ori ginal lengths after being stretched).
These fibers are found in the skin, ligaments and the walls of arteri es, where t he fibers'
elastic properties are important.
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proteins/amino acids
Which of the following amino acids carry a positive charge on the side chain
which makes them basic?
Select all that apply.
lysine
glutamate
arginine
histidine
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aspartate
tyrosine
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lysine
arginine
histidine
Each of the 20 amino acids found in proteins can be distinguished by the R-group substitution on
the a-carbon atom . There are two broad classes of amino acids based upon whether the Rgroup is
hydrophobic or hydrophilic.
The hydrophobic (non-polar) amino acids tend to repel the aqueous environment and therefore,
resid e predominantly in the interior of proteins. This class of amino acid s does not ion ize or
participate in the formation of H-bonds. Hydrophilic (polar) amino acid s tend to interact with the
aqueou senvironment, are often involved in the formation of H-bonds and are predominantly found
on the exterior surfaces proteins or in the reactive centers of enzymes.
The functions of amino acid s in proteins are determined by the noncovalent int eractions and the
cova lent bonds that their side chains can form:
The small amino acids (glycine and alanine) occupy little space. In proteins they are often
found in places where two polypeptide chains have to come close together.
The branched-chain amino acids valine, leucine and isoleuci ne have hydrophobic sid e chains.
The hydroxyl amino acids seri ne and threonine form hydrogen bonds with their hydroxyl
group. This group also forms covalent bonds with carbohydrate in glycoprotein sand with phosphate in phosphoproteins.
The sulfur amino acids cysteine and methionine are quite hydrophobic, although cysteine also
has weak acidic properties.
The aromatic amino acids phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan are hydrophobic, although
the sid e chains of tyrosine and tryptophan can also form hydrogen bonds.
The acidic amino acids glutamate and aspa rtate have a carboxyl group in the side chain that
is negatively charged at pH 7. The corresponding carboxamid e groups in glutamine and asparagine are not acidic but can form strong hydrogen bonds.
The basic amino acids lysine, arg inine and histidine carry a positive cha rge on the sid e chain,
although the pK value of the histidine side chain is quite low.
Proline is a freak among amino acids with its nitrogen tied into a ring structure as a second ary
amino group. Being stiff and angled, it is often found at bends in the polypeptide.
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OH
'./
.......,........
Aromatic
amino
acids
CH>
J-ilN- CH- COo-
Tyroslne
0
II
y-N
H,
Acidic
amino
acids
coo-
C-NH<!
CH;.
Cll"
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f-t,N-CH-coo-
Aspartate
Asparagine
TH'
TH"
?H>
TH'
H3N- CH
Lysine
Glutamine
WH;
rr,
Basic
amino
acids
9Hl
TH'
CH,
COO
N -.
""/NH
YH'
Imino acid
Histidine
OH
'./
.......,........
Aromatic
amino
acids
CH>
J-ilN- CH- COo-
Tyroslne
0
II
y-N
H,
Acidic
amino
acids
coo-
C-NH<!
CH;.
Cll"
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f-t,N-CH-coo-
Aspartate
Asparagine
TH'
TH"
?H>
TH'
H3N- CH
Lysine
Glutamine
WH;
rr,
Basic
amino
acids
9Hl
TH'
CH,
COO
N -.
""/NH
YH'
Imino acid
Histidine
proteins/amino acids
The primary st ructure of a protein refers to the spatial a rrangement of a portion
of a polypeptide chain determined by the amino acids present.
The secondary structure of a protein refers to the irregular folding of a polypeptide chain (the overall three-dimensional conformation of the polypeptide).
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Proteins differ from each other because each has a distinctive number and sequence
of amino acid residues. The amino acids are the alphabet of protein structure. No
other property so clearly d istinguishes one protein from another.
The primary structure consists of a sequence of amino acids linked together by
cova lent peptide bonds.
The secondary structure refers to t he spatial arrangement of a portion of a
polypeptide chain determined by the amino acids present (pri mary structure). The
most common types of secondary structures are the a -helix (coiled conformation of
a peptide chain), j}-pleated sheets (an extended, zigzag arrangement of a polypeptide chain) and 13-hairpin turns (reverse turns).
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The tertiary structure refers to the irregular folding of a polypeptide chain (the
overall three-dimensional conformation of the polypeptide [e.g., globular, fibrous
and pleated sheet]). Note: The best method for determining the three-dimensional
structure of a protein is by x-ray diffraction.
The quaternary structure refers to the spatial arrangement of subunits in a protein
that consists of more than one polypeptide chain. Two examples of proteins w ith
quaternary structures are the hemoglobin and antibody molecules found in the
blood of a mammal.
proteins/amino acids
Patients with vitamin C deficiency (scurvy) form a collagen with insufficient:
isoleucine
hydroxylysine
valine
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hydroxyproline
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hydroxyproline
*** The hydroxylation of prolyl and lysyl side chains in procollagen req uires ascorbic acid
(vitamin C). As a result, patients with vitamin C deficiency (scurvy} form a collagen wit h
insufficient hydroxyproline t hat denatures spontaneously at room temperature.
Collagen accounts for approximately 25% of the body protein in adults and 15% to 20% in
children. It is most abundant in strong, tough connective tissues. Type I collagen is by far t he
most abundant collagen in the body. lt has a most unusual am ino acid composition, with 33%
glycine and 10% proline. It also contains hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine.
The basic structural unit of collagen fibrils, t he tropocollagen molecule, consists of t hree
intertwined polypeptides. In t he case of type I collagen, it has a very unusual am ino acid
seq uence, with glycine in every third position. Tropocollagen is the longest known protein and
is formed from procollagen, which is secreted by fibroblasts. The t hree helical polypeptides
of the tropocollagen molecule are wound around each other in a right-handed triple helix.
Note: The long, ropelike tropocollagen molecules form fibrils by aligning t hemselves in parallel. Once secreted outside the cell tropocollagen units are crosslinked through covalent
bonding between adjacent lysine residues to produce mature collagen.
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proteins/amino acids
Which of the following serves as a principal source of carbon for nonessential amino acids?
fats
water
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ca rbohydrates
urea
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carbohydrates
***Ten of the nonessential amino acids contain carbon skeletons that can be derived
from glucose. Note: Tyrosine, the 11th nonessential amino acid, is synthesized by the
hydroxylation of the essential amino acid phenylalanine.
Remember: The essential amino acids include: valine, threonine, leucine, methionine,
isoleucine, lysine, phenylalanine, histidine and tryptophan. The nonessential amino acids
include: alanine, asparagine, cysteine, glutamine, proline, tyrosine, arginine, as partate,
glutamate, glycine and serine. Note: Although cysteine's carbon skeleton can be formed
from carbohydrates, cysteine requires the essential amino acid methionine to supply the
sulfhydryl group.
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proteins/amino acids
A patient of yours suffers from phenylketonuria (PKU). Your dental assistant
offers her a bottle of soda. The patient, a relatively intelligent dental student, responds by saying:
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tyros ine
phenylalanine
both tyrosine and phenylalanine
neither, no supplement needed
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Tyrosine is formed from phenylalanine, wh ich is an essential amino acid that is needed for optimal growth in infants and for nitrogen equilibrium in adults.
Hydrophobic amino acids have side chains that conta in:
Aliphatic groups: val ine, leucine and isoleucine
Aromatic groups: phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan
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proteins/amino acids
All G proteins exist in two forms:
an inactive GTP-bound form that acts on the effector and an active GOP-bound form
that does not
an active GTP-bound form that acts on the effector and an inactive GOP-bound form
that does not
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an active ATP-bound form that acts on the effector and an inactive AOP-bound form
that does not
an inactive ATP-bound form that acts on the effector and an active AOP-bound form
that does not
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Once GTP is bound, the G protein leaves the receptor and breaks up into the a-GTP subunit and the
fly complex. Both the a-GTP subunit and the fly complex diffuse along the inner surface of the
plasma membrane, where they bind to target proteins known as effectors.
1. The GTP bound a subunit of the G protein activates adenylate cyclase.
2. Active adenylate cyclase converts ATP to cAMP. cAMP further binds and activates PKA.
3. Active protein kinase A (PKA) phosphorylates specific proteins which up or down-regulates cellular processes depending on the cell type.
4. The components of the activated G protein are membrane-bound messengers that
t ransmit a signal from t he receptor to the effector.
5. All G proteins exist in two forms: an active GTP-bound form that acts on the effector
and an inactive GOP-bound form that does not.
lipids
In saturated fatty acids, the carbons are linked exclusively by single bonds.
Monounsaturated fatty acids have one carbon-carbon double bond and
polyunsaturated fatty acids have more than one.
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Fats can be classified by the n umber of double bonds between carbon atoms in their fatty
acid molecules:
Saturated fat: conta ins no double bonds between carbon atoms
Monounsaturated fat: has one double bond between carbon atoms
Note: Most monounsaturated fatty acids are in the CIS (same -side) form.
Polyunsaturated fat: has multiple double bonds between carbon atoms
Essential fatty acids cannot be synthesized because humans lack the enzymes to p lace
double bonds at certa in positions (omega-3 and omega-6) and must therefore obtain
them fro m the diet. All fatty acids are building b locks of phospholipids and glycolipids
and are therefore needed for the synthesis of membranes. Note: Cell s derive energy
from fatty acids through beta-oxidation.
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Caprylic acid
Emcic acid
Arachidonic acid
Behenic acid
Lauric acid
OJeic acid
Linoleic acid
Butyric acid
Myristic acid
PahnitoJcic acid
Linolenic acid
Capric acid
Palmitic acid
Caproic acid
Stearic acid
Arachidic acid
Important: Some of the polyunsaturated fatty acids, notably linoleic acid and linolenic
acid, are nutritionally essential. Arachidonic acid can be synthesized from dietary linoleic
acid.
lipids
Dietary triglycerides are digested and broken down to free fatty acids and 2monoacylglycerol by pancreatic lipase which are absorbed with the help of:
elastase
pepsinogen
trypsinogen
bile salts
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bile salts
Unlike t he tri glycerides, t he products of fat d igestion are slightly soluble in water. The
efficient absorption of the fatty acids and 2-monoacylglycerol requ ires bile salts as
emulsifiers. Between 20 and sog of bile salts reach the intestine every day.
Like a detergent, bile salts contain hydrophobic and hydrophilic components. The
hydrophobic portions of the molecule associate with the fat and t he hydrophilic parts
associate w ith water, serving to solubilize (emulsify) the otherwise insoluble fat. The
micelles, wh ich are tiny m icrodroplets emulsified by bile salts, travel to the m icrovilli
of the intestinal epithelial cells, w hich absorb t he fatty acids. The bile salts are
resorbed in the distal ileum via Na/bile acid cotransporters, recycled by the liver and
are resecreted into the gut during subsequent digestive cycl es. ***Up to 95% of bile
salts are recycled.
Bile salts perform two important actions in t he intestinal tract:
1. Most important, bile salts help in the absorption of fatty acids, monoglycerides,
cholesterol, fat-soluble vitamins and other lipids from the intestinal tract (form watersoluble complexes, called micelles, w ith fatty acids and g lycerides).
2. Bile salts also have a detergent action on the fat particles in the food, w hich decreases the surface tension of the particles and allows agitation in the intestinal t ract
to break the fat globules into minute sizes.
In general, lipids with the lowest water solubility are most dependent on bile salts fo r
their absorption.
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Bile acids are usually conjugated in amide linkage w ith the amino acid glycine or
taurine, giving bile salts. The chol ic acid conjugates with glycine and tau rine are
ca lled glycocholate and taurocholate, respectively.
Note: Fat malabsorption can result from pancreatic fai lure, lack of bile salts, or extensive intestinal diseases. This condition is called steatorrhea.
lipids
A membrane phospholipid that does NOT contain glycerol is:
lecithin
sphingomyelin
cerebroside
cardiolipin
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sphingomyelin
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lipids
Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order of
most dense to least dense?
SAADDES
HDL-LDL-VLDL-chylom icrons
VLDL-chylomicrons-LDL-HDL
chylomicrons-HDL-LDL-VLDL
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HDL-LDL-vLDL-chylomicrons
Lipids (triglycerides and cholesterol) are not able to move in body fluids due to their
hydrophobic nature so they are packaged in micellar st ructu res called lipoproteins. The
various lipoproteins are class ified in terms of density. Note: Since lipids are much less
dense than proteins, there is an inverse relationship between the lipid content and
density (i.e., high lipid content means low density particle). The maj or component s of
lipoproteins are triacylglycerols (triglycerides), cho lesterol and cholesterol esters, which
are the components being transported, and phospholipids and proteins which make up
the micellar memb rane (the protein component alone is ca lled an apolipoprotein).
Types of lipoproteins:
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Chylomicrons: least dense lipoprotein; most trig lyceride and the least protein content. Transport dietary t riacylglycero ls f rom the Gl tract to muscle, adipose tissue and
liver.
VLDLs (very low-density lipoproteins): more dense than chylomicrons; high content
of trig lycerides. Transport endogenous triacylglycerols from the liver to various ti ssues
(primarily muscle and adipose tissue).
LDLs (low-density lipoproteins): denser than VLDLs; less triglyceride and more protein
content. Has h ighest content of cholesterol. They are the primary plasma carriers of
cholesterol for delivery to all tissues b ut especially to the liver.
HDLs (high-density lipoproteins): most dense lipoprotein; has the lowest t rig lyceride and highest protein content. Transfers cholesterol as an acyl ester derivative from
other t issues back to the liver.
Note: These lipoproteins are transported into the cells by way of receptor-mediated
endocytosis.
lipids
Which of the following statements about plasma lipoproteins are correct?
Select all that apply.
SAADDES
HDL competes with LDL for binding to receptors on the surface of cells in
extrahepatic tissues
very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) particles are the precursors of LDL in the
circulation
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Remember: Lipoproteins are lipid-bind ing proteins, responsible for the transport in the
blood of triglycerides, phospholipids, cholesterol and cholesterol esters from the liver to
tissues or organs. Other lipoproteins include the foll owing:
Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL): these contain a high concentration of triglycerides and moderate concentrations of both phospholipids and cholesterol
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL): are ve ry rich in cholesterol. They are the major
cholesterol carrier in the blood and are derived from VLDL
High-density lipoproteins (HDL): are protein rich with relatively little free choleste rol; most of the cholesterol is present as acyl ester derivatives
1. HDL particles a re produced de novo in the liver.
2. HDL and LDL pa rticles each have their o wn s pecific binding sites on cell
membranes (HDL on the liver, and LDL on the liver and extrahepatic tissues).
3. Lovastatin ("statin" d rug) lowers blood cholestero l levels by inhibiting
HMG CoA reductase, a key regulatory enzyme in cholestero l biosynthesis.
lipids
Ketone bodies are formed only in the:
stomach
kidney
pancreas
li ver
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liver
liver mitochondria have the capacity to divert any excess acet yi-CoAderived from fatty acid or pyruvate
oxidation into ketone bodies. The compounds classified as ketone bod ies are acetoacetate, P hydroxy
butyrate and acetone (a non metabolizable side p rod uct). Ketone body prod uction is regulated p rima
rily by availabi lity of acetyi-CoA. Duri ng conditions of low glucose availability (a period of starvation or
fasting, or a case of d iabetes mell itus}, the mobi lization otfatt y acids from adipose tissue ishigh such that
hepatic beta-oxidation will occur at a high rate and so will synthesis of ketone bodi es from the resulting
acetyi-CoA. These ketone bod ies are then transported in the blood to peripheral ti ssues, where the ketone bod ies can be reconverted to acetyi-CoA and oxid ized by the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle). They are
important sources of energy for the peri pheral tissues.
Synthesis of ketone bodies by the liver is a three-step process:
The first st ep is formation of acetoacetyi CoA in a reversal of the thiolase step of beta-oxidation
In the second step, a thi rd molecule of acetyi-CoA condenses with the acetoacet yi-CoA, formi ng 3
hydroxy 3 methylglutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) in a reaction catalyzed by HMG-CoA synthase
Note: This enzyme, HMG-CoA synthase, is the rate-limiting step in the synthesis of ketone bodies
and is present in significant q uantities only in the liver.
In the third step, HMG-CoA is cleaved to yield acetoacetate (a ketone body) and acet yi-CoA in a reaction catalyzed by HMGCoA lyase (HMGCoA cleavage enzyme)
Note: Acetoacetate can be red uced to form f3hydroxybutyrate o r can be spontaneously decar
boxylated to form acetate (which cannot be metabolized by t he body). It is vol atil e and can be
blown out in the b reath.
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1. Ketone bodies are utilized exclusively by extrahepatic tissues (hea rt and skeletal muscle
use ketone bodi es parti cularly effectively). Unlike fatty acids, ketone bodies can be
oxid ized by the brain. Note: Fatty acids are unable to cross the blood-brain barrier, but
ketone bodies can.
2. When the rate of formation of ketone bodies is g reater than the rate of their use, their
levels begi n to rise in t he blood (ketonemia) and eventually in the u rine (ketonu ria). These
t wo cond itions are seen most often in cases of starvation o r severe d iabetes mell it us.
3. Extrahepatic ti ssues convert ketone bodies back to acetyl CoA by using succinyl CoA as a
CoA donor and the enzyme thiophorase. The liver itself lacks t hiophorase and thus cannot
use ketone bodies for its own energy needs.
lipids
All of the following are sources of acetyi -CoA for fatty acid synthesis EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
creatinine
pyruvate
glucose
citrate
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creatinin e
***Glucose is the major source of acetyi-CoA for fatty acid synthesis.
Acetyi-CoA for fatty acid synthesis comes mostly from the glycolytic breakdown of
glucose when high amounts of glucose are consumed (e.g., a high ca rbohydrate diet).
Fatty acid synthesis occurs primarily in the cytoplasm of the liver, lactating mammary
glands and to a lesser extent, in adipose tissue and kidney. The process incorporates
ca rbons from acetyl CoA into the growing fatty acid cha in, utilizing ATP and reduced
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH).
Important points to remember for fatty acid synthesis:
Glucose is first degraded to pyruvate by glycolysis in the cytoplasm.
Pyruvate is then t ransported into the mitochondria, where pyruvate
dehydrogenase oxidatively decarboxylates pyruvate, form ing acetyi-CoA and
other products.
Acetyi-CoA can then serve as a substrate for citrate synthesis.
Citrate is transported out of the m itochond ri a to the cytoplasm (where fatty
acid synthesis occurs) via the citrate -malate-pyruvate shuttle. Finally, citrate
splits to generate cytoplasmic acetyl-Co A for fatty acid synthesis.
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lipids
Which of the following is involved in both fatty acid catabolism and
synthesis?
carnitine
coenzyme A
SAADDES
malonyi-CoA
alcohol dehydrogenase
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coenzyme A
Fatty Acid Catabolism (summary):
The fat ty acid is transported to the mitochondria by employing carnitine as a carrier substance. Once
inside the mitochondria, the fatty acid is transferred from the carnitine to a CoA and is oxidized (via
beta oxidati on) to acetyi-CoA. The acetyi-CoA molecules enter into the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle)
to form carbon d ioxide and reducing equivalents (NADH, FADH 2). The reducing equivalents are then
reoxid ized by electron transport system and the energy released by that process is used by the
oxidative phosphorylation system to form ATP. Note: Fatty acids are the predominant source of ATP for
moderate levels (lasting longer than 1 hour) of activity.
Biosynthesis of Fatty Acids (summary):
This occurs in the cytosol. It involves two carbon additions from acet yi-CoA and an acyl protein (ACP).
A key intermed iate in the synthesis of fatty acids is malonyi-CoA, which is formed from acetyi-CoA,
bicarbonate and ATP. This irreversible reaction is the committi ng step in fatty acid synthesis.
SAADDES
< ompml\o n ol J<:tth
\nd
Synthesis
In star.atJon
Majortissucs.itc
Primarily liver
Muscle. liver
Subct'lluln location
Primnnly cytosol
Pn maril> mit<Khondna
ac-tive u rritrs
Coenzyme A
coenzyme A
NAOPH
NAn. P'A D
Acthator
lobibitor
C1tralc
Falty acyl CoA (inhibits acetyl
CoA carboxylase)
P1oduct nfpathway
Palnutalc
Acetyl Cot\
lipids
A patient of yours has uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. This causes ketosis, or
high levels of ketone bodies, in the body tissues and fluid. Which of the
following is NOT a symptom of this condition?
fruity breath
lowered pH of the blood
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Hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis are hallm arks of untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperglycemia is caused by increased hepatic production of glucose combined w ith diminished
peripheral utilization. Ketosis results from increased mobilization of fatty acids fro m adipose tissue combined with accelerated hepatic synthesis of 3-hydroxybutyrate and acetoacetate.
lipids
All of the following statements concerning fatty acid synthesis are true
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
fatty acid synthesis involves two ca rbon additions primarily from acetyi-CoA
the important step in fatty acid synthesis is the fi rst one in which acetyi-CoA, ATP
and bica rbonate form malonyi-CoA
SAADDES
fatty acid synthesis is not a simple reversal of j:l-oxidation used for the catabo lism of
fatty acids
fatty acid synthesis takes place in the mitochondria while fatty acid breakdown
(catabolism) occurs in the cytosol (cytoplasm)
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*** This is false; fatty acid synthesis ta kes place in t he cytosol w hile fatty acid
breakdown (catabolism) occurs in the mitochondria.
Remember: Fatty acids are oxidized by the pathway of j:l-oxidation, w hich is active in
the mitochondria of most cells. j:l-oxidation produces acetyi-CoA for the TCA cycle.
On a high-carbohydrate, low-fat d iet, ca rbohydrates are converted into fat by the
sequential action of glycolysis, pyruvate dehydrogenase and fatty acid biosynthesis.
This sequence is most active in the liver. The endogenously synthesized fat is
transported from the liver to adipose tissue in VLDL.
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A fat o r triglyceride, contains th ree molecules of fatty acid combined w ith one
molecule of glycerol. A fatty acid is a long-chain com pound with an even number of
ca rbon atoms and a terminal COOH group. Fatty acids can be saturated (no double
bonds), monounsaturated (has one double bond between ca rbon atoms) o r
polyunsaturated (has multiple double bonds between carbon atoms).
The "tail" of a fatty acid is a long hydroca rbon chain, making it hydrophobic. The
"head" of the molecule is a carboxyl group, w hich is hydrophilic. Fatty acids are the
main component of soap, where their ta ils are soluble in oily dirt and their heads are
soluble in water to emulsify and wash away t he oily d irt. However, w hen the head end
is attached to glycerol to form a fat, that w hole molecule is hydrophobi c.
Note: Lipids are organic compounds that do not d issolve in water but do dissolve in
alcohol and other organic solvents. The major lipids include triacylglycerols (the
most common lipids), phospholipids and steroids.
lipids
The molecule picture below plays a major role:
as an energy source
Fatty acid
as a membrane component
as a signal mechanism
Fatty acid
SAADDES
Fatty acid
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Note: The human body is a machine fueled by food. During their oxidation to carbon dioxide and water, carbohydrates yield about 4 kcal/g, trig lycerides - 9.3 kcal!g, proteins- between 4.0 and 4.5 kcal/ g, and alcohol - 7.0 kcal/g. Molecular oxygen is consumed during
oxidative metabolism and carbon dioxide is produced.
Remember: In the human body, high levels of triglycerides in the bloodstream have been
linked to atherosclerosis, and by extension, to the risk of heart disease and stroke.
1. In the triglycerides, all three hydroxyl groups of glycerol are esterified with a
fatty acid.
2. The long hydrocarbon chains of the fatty acid residues ensure that triglycerides
are insoluble in water. In the body, triglycerides minimize contact w ith water by
forming fat droplets.
3. The trig lycerides are used only as a storage form of metabolic energy, but other
lipids serve more specialized functions.
lipids
Choline is required for synthesis and release of acetylcholine.
Choline is also a precursor for synthesis of the phospholipids phosphatidylcholine (lecithin) and sphingomyelin.
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Functions of choline:
Choline is required for synthesis and release of acetylchol ine, an important
neurotransmitter involved in memory storage, muscle contro l and other functions
It is also a precursor for synthesis of the phospholipids phosphatidylcholine (lecithin)
and sp hingomyelin, which are important for membrane function, intracellular
signaling and hepatic export of very-l ow-density lipoproteins
Phosphatidylcho line is also important in removal of cholestero l from t issues because
it is a substrate for lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase in reverse cholesterol transport
Choline is a precursor for the methyl donor betaine
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Carnitine is required for transport of fatty acids across the mitochondrial membrane, so it
is essential for normal fatty acid metabolism. Because carn it ine can be synthesized de novo,
it is nonessential for normal healthy adults. However, it is considered cond itionally essential because h um an genetic disorders of carnitine metaboli sm have been described and
some of them respond to carn it ine supplementation.
lipids
The binding of glucagon to its receptor:
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The secretion of glucagon from the pancreatic alpha cells is increased two to threefold
by hypoglycemia and reduced to half of the basal release by hyperglycem ia. Acting
through its second messenger, cyclic AMP (cAMP), g lucagon up-regulates the blood
glucose level when dietary ca rbohydrate is in short supply. Its actions on the pathways
of g lucose metabolism are opposite to those of insulin, but unlike insulin, glucagon
acts almost exclusively on the liver; it has negligible effects on adipose tissue, muscle
and other extrahepatic tissues.
When hormones signal the need for metabolic energy, t ri glycerides stored in adipose
tissue are brought out of storage and transported to those tissues (skeletal muscle,
heart and renal cortex) in which fatty acids can be oxidized for energy production.
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Important: The hormones glucagon and epinephrine activate adenyl ate cyclase in
the adipocyte plasma membrane, raising the intracellular concentration of cAMP. A
cAMP-dependent protein kinase in turn, phosphorylates and thereby activates hormone-sensitive triacylglycerollipase, which then ini tia lizes the hydrolysis of the ester
linkages of triglycerides- fo rmi ng free fatty acids and glycerol. The fatty acids that are
released bind to serum albumin and travel to the tissues, where the fatty acids dissociate from albumin and diffuse into the cells in which the fatty acids will serve as fuel.
Note: The glycerol released by t ri acylglycerol lipase action is phosphorylated by
glycerol kinase and the resu lting glycerol-3-phosphate is oxidized to dihydroxyacetone phosphate. This compound is then converted to glycera ldehyde-3-phosphate by the enzyme triose phosphate isomerase. Glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate is
then oxidized via glycolysis.
Remember: Insulin causes activation of a phosphorylase that dephosphorylates the
hormone sensitive lipase and thereby diminishes lipolysis.
metabolism
The electron transport or respiratory chain gets its name from the fact that
electrons are transported to meet up with oxygen from respiration at the
end of the chain. The overall electron chain transport reaction is:
2 H++ 2 e+ + 1/ 2 0 2
Hp +energy
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3 W + 3 e + 1 0 2
HP + energy
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The majority of the energy conserved during cataboli sm reactions occurs near the end of the
metabolic series of reactions in the electron transport chain (also called the respiratory chain).
Notice that 2 hydrogen ions, 2 electrons and an oxygen molecule react to form as a product
water with energy released in an exothermic reaction.Thi s relatively straight forward reaction
actually requires eight or more steps. The energy released is coupled with the formation of three
ATP molecules per every use of t he electron transport chain.
Four reactions of the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle (aka citric acid cycle or t he Krebs cycle)
transfer electrons to either NAD'" or FAD. The resulting NADH or FADH 2 is then oxidized by t he
mitochondrial electron transport chain to generate energy that is used to form ATP by
oxidative phosphorylation. Important: The enzymes of the electron transport chain and
those involved in ATP synthesis are exclusively localized in mitochondria.
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In summary, the substrate of the TCA cycle is t he two-carbon unit acetyl Co A and the products
of a complete t urn of the cycle are two C0 2, one high-energy phosphate bond (as GTP) and
t hree NADH and one FADH 2. The NADH and FADH 2 are subsequently oxidized by the electron
transport chain with t he production of 10 ATPs.
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(4)
10 ATP
metabolism
Which complex contains cytochromes b and c 1 and an Fe-S center?
complex I
complex II
complex Ill
complex IV
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complex Ill
The electron carriers in the respiratory assemb ly of the inner mitochondrial membrane are
quinones, flavins, iron -sulfur co mplexes, hem e groups of cytochrom es and copper ions.
Electrons fro m NADH are transferred to the FMN prosthetic group of NADH-Q oxidoreductase (Complex 1), the first of four complexes. This oxidoreductase also contains Fe-5 centers.
The electrons emerge in QH 2, the reduced form of ubiquinone (Q). The citric acid cycle enzyme succinate dehydrogenase is a component of the succinate-Q reductase complex
(Complex II), which donates electrons from FADH 2 to Q to form QH 2. This highly mobile hydrophobic carrier transfers its electrons to Q-cytochrome c oxidoreductase (Complex Ill ),
a complex that contains cytochromes b and c1 and an Fe -5 center. This com plex reduces
cytochro me c, a water-soluble peripheral membrane protein. Cytochrom e c, like Q is a mobile carrier of electrons, which it then transfers to cytochrome c oxidase (Complex IV). This
complex contains cytochromes a and a 3 and three copper ions. A heme iron ion and a
copper ion in this oxidase transfer electrons to 0 2, the ultimate acceptor, to form H20.
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The flow of electrons through Complex I, Ill and IV leads to transfer of protons fro m the matrix side to the cytoplasm side of the inner mitochondrial membrane. A proton-motive force
consisting of a pH gradient (m atrix side basic) and a m embrane potential (matrix side negative) is generated. The flow of protons back to the matrix side th rough ATP synth ase
drives ATP synthesis.
Important: The flow of two electrons through NADH-Q oxidoreductase, Q-cytochrom e c
oxidoreductase and cytochrome c oxidase generates a gradient sufficient to synthes ize 1,
0.5 and 1 m olecule of ATP, respectively. Hence, 2 .5 molecules of ATP are formed per molecu le of NADH oxidized in the mitochondrial matrix, whereas on ly 1.5 molecules of ATP
are made per molecule of FADH 2 oxidized, because its electrons enter the chain at QH 2,
after the first proton -pumping site.
metabolism
All of the following statements concerning the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle)
are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
the cycle starts w ith the 4-carbon compound oxaloacetate, adds 2 carbons from
acetyi-CoA, loses 2 carbons as C0 2 and regenerates the 4-carbon compound oxaloacetate
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the pyruvate that enters this cycl e is generated by the glycolysis of glucose or protein catabolism
this cycle is controlled by regulation of several enzyme activities. The most important of these regulated enzymes are citrate synthase, isocitrate dehydrogenase and
a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
the enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle are found in the cytoso l
aspartic acid and oxaloacetic acid are interconvertible
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the enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle are found in the cytosol
This is false; the enzymes involved in this cycle are found in the mitochondria.
Acotyt CoA
Oxaloacotate
Malate
dehydrogenase
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NAO
Malate
HzO
lsocltrate
Citric Acid
Cycle
Fumarase
/soc/Irate
dehydrogenase
NAO'
NAOH
co,
Fumarate
NAO
FADH,
Succlnyl CoA
synthetase
FAD
PI
Succinate
CoASH
Succlnyl CoA
+ CoASH
metabolism
1. Which of the following is the pace-setting enzyme of glycolysis?
2. Which of the following is the first step to use energy rather than produce it?
3. Which of the following is the enzyme that produces two distinct carbon-based
molecules?
hexokinase
phosphog lucose isomerase
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phosphofructokinase
aldolase
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
phosphog lycerate kinase
phosphog lyceromutase
enolase
pyruvate kinase
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1. phosphofructokinase
2. hexokinase (traps glucose into the cell)
3. aldolase
mcs ot
Enzyme
sis
Function
Hexokinase
Phosphoglucose isomerase
Phosphofruc tokinase
Aldolase
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Phosphoglyccromutasc
Enolase
Pyruvate kinase
Nine reactions, each catalyzed by a specific enzyme, make up the process we call glycolysis. All organisms have glycolysis occurring in t heir cytoplasm .
At steps 1 and 3, ATP is converted into ADP, inputting energy into the reaction as well as attaching
a phosphate to the glucose. At steps 6 and 9, ADP is converted into the higher energy ATP. At step
5, NAD is converted into NADH + W.
The end of the glycolysis process yields two pyruvic acid molecules with a net gain of 2 ATP and two
NADH per glucose.
metabolism
Which of the following is the metabolic pathway in which there is a shuttling
of glucose and lactate between muscle and liver during physical exercise?
hydrologic cycle
cori cycle
ca rbon cycle
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glucose cycle
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In Liver
In Muscle
The Cori cycle. Lactate formed by active muscle is converted into glucose by t he liver.
Thi s cycle shifts part of t he metabolic burden of active muscle to the liver.
metabolism
Lactic acid fermentation is a reaction which occurs in cells without
in cells when
is limited.
or
nucleoli; C0 2
mitochond ri a; 0 2
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cytoplasmic granules; W
mitochond ri a; C0 2
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mitochondria; 0 2
Lactic Acid Fermentat ion:
Reaction occurs in cells w ithout mitochondria (RBC) or in cells when 02 is limited (m uscle
cells during exercise). The entire purpose of th is reaction is to convert the NADH produced
in step 6 of g lycolysis back to NAD so that glycolysis can continue. This is simp ly a redox
reaction in which pyruvate is reduced to lactate by the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase.
Lactate
Pyruvate
NADH + H
NAD
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Lactate can then enter the bloodstream and travel to the liver where it is converted back
to g lucose through the g luconeogenesis pathway.
Conversion of Pyruvate to Acetyi-CoA:
Much more energy can be obtained from glucose if it is oxid ized com pletely to C02 and H20
through the TCA cycle and electron transport system (requires 0 2 and mitochondria). The
entry to the TCA cycle is through acetyi-CoA. Pyruvate is converted into acetyi-CoA by the
enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase (multi-enzyme complex) which is located inside the mitochondria.
NADH
NU
Pyruvate
coenzymeA
___
C02
Acetyl CoA
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Catabolism of Glucose
2261
metabolism
The most common pathway of glycolysis is:
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The pentose phosphate pathway (also called the pentose shunt, the hexose
monophosphate pathway or the phosphogluconate pathway) is a pathway of hexose
oxidation whereby glucose-6-phosphate generates five-carbon sugars. This pathway
plays a major role in generating reducing equivalents, in the form of NADPH, fo r
reductive biosynthesis reactions w ithin cells (e.g., fatty acid synthesis, steroid
synthesis).
metabolism
All of the follow ing are characteristic of the pentose phosphate pathway
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
it produces C02
it is controlled by inhib ition of glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase by NADPH
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1. The oxidative branch of this pathway is concerned with the synthesis of NADPH.
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase catalyzes the committed and rate-limiting step.
This enzyme is regulated by availability of the substrate NADP. This reaction sequence is
irreversible.
2. The nonoxidative branch of this pathway links ribulose-5-phosphate, the product of
the oxidative branch, to the glycolytic and gluconeogenic pathways. The most important
enzymes in this reversible reaction sequence are transketolase and transaldolase.
3. Pentose phosphate pathway activity is minimal in muscle and the brain in which
almost all the glucose is degraded by glycolysis. It is particularly important in liver and
mammary glands, which are active in the biosynthesis of fatty acid s, and in the adrenal
cortex, which is active in the NADPH-dependent synthesis of steroid s.
4. Th is pathway is also important in cells that are exposed to a high oxygen partial
pressure. In the cornea of the eye for example, it accounts for 60% of the total glucose
consu mption.
5. Increased consumption of NADPH results in an increased act ivity of the oxidative
branch.
NAOP
NADPH + w
Glucose 6-phosphate
dehydrogenase
i '""""'
Phosphopentose /
tsomerase
Glyceraldehyde
3-phosphate
(G3P)
xylulose
5-phosphat
Transketolase
Sedo7-P
lase
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6-Phosphogluconate
NAD::::.
' eptmerase
Ribose s-phosphate x
6-Phosphogluconolactone
H,o
'-
Transketolase
6-Phosphog/uconate
dehydrogenase
glycolysis
C02
Ribulose 5-phosphate
22111
This pentose phosphate pathway may function as an alternate form of glycolysis or may be the
route for the complete oxidation of glucose (it begins with glucose 6-phosphate).
metabolism
Oxidative phosphorylation is the major source of ATP in aerobic organisms.
The generation of GTP from succinyl CoA is an example of substrate levelphosphorylation in which the production of high-energy phosphate is
coupled to the conversion of substrate to product, rather than resulting
from oxidative phosphorylation.
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in glyco lysis and the Krebs cycle are reoxidized; the electrons these processes release
are transported through a series of membrane bound carriers (flavoproteins, iron-sulfur
proteins, coenzyme Q and cytochromes) to establish a proton gradient across a membrane, a terminal acceptor such as ox ygen is reduced, and ATP is synthesized by
chemiosmosis.
Note: Oxidative phosphorylation is the major source of ATP in aerobic organism s.
Photophosphorylation: occurs as a result of photosynthesis (which also involves an
electron trans port chain)
Note: Oxygen u ptake, which is dependent on the presence of ADP, phosphate and an
electron donor, is termed coupled respiration.
metabolism
Theoretically, in most human cells, one glucose molecule produces enough
usable chemical energy to synthesize:
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2 lactate+ 2 ATP + H 20
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Conversion
2 Pyruvate
2 Pyruvate 2 acetyi-CoA
2 acetyi-CoA into TCA cycle
Products
2ATP
2NADH
2NADH
2GTP
6NADH
2 FADH2
ATPformed
2ATP
4 ATP (a-GP shuttle) or 6 ATP (M-A shuttle)
6ATP
2ATP
18ATP
i.AIL
36 or 38ATP
Important: A Na gradient across the luminal m embrane provides the imm ediate energy
sou rce for the transport of glucose into intestinal epithelial cells.
Note: Theoretically, 36-38 ATP per g lucose m olecul e is possible. In reality, cell s only p roduce 30 -32 ATP per g lucose because each NADH produces 2.5 ATP (not the theoretical3
ATP) and FADH 2 produces 1.5 ATP (not the theoretical 2 ATP).
metabolism
Gluconeogenesis is the reverse of glycolysis.
Gluconeogenesis produces glucose from amino acids, lactate and glycerol.
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metabolism
Which of the following cells in the body metabolize glucose only through
anaerobic pathways?
muscle cells
red blood cells
hepatocytes
neural cells
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Pyruvate is the end product o f glycolysis in cells with mitochondria and an adeq uate supply
of oxygen. This series of 10 reactions is called aerobic glycolysis because oxygen is required
to reoxidize the NADH formed during the oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. Aerobic
glycolysis sets the stage for the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to acetyi-CoA, a major
fuel of the citric acid cycle.
Alternatively, glucose can be converted to pyruvate, which is red uced by NADH to form lactate.
This conversion is called anaerobic glycolysis because there is no net formation of NADH and
t herefore, this conversion can occur in the absence of oxygen. Anaerobic glycolysis allows the
production of ATP in tissues that lack mitochondria (for example, red blood cells) or in cells
deprived of sufficient oxygen.
substances
The common precursor of all three aromatic amino acids is:
chorismate
phosphoenolpyruvate
shikimate
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ribose 5-phosphate
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chorismate
Among the essential amino acids, t he aromatic amino acids (phenylalanine, tyrosine
and tryptophan) form by a pathway in which chorismate occupies a key branch point.
Tyrosine is not essential to t he human d iet, since this amino acid can be synthesized
in the body from phenylalanine. Tyrosine is a precursor of t he adrenal hormones
epinephrine and norepinephrine as wel l as of the thyroid hormones, including
thyroxine. Tyrosine is also the precursor to the neurotransmitter dopamine. Melanin,
the skin and hair pigment, is also derived from th is amino acid.
Chorismate
_...Tryptophan
"'-
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Prephenate
Tyrosine -
Dopa -
substances
A patient of yours fails to tell you about his or her allergy to latex. You walk
into the room and begin treatment. The allergic reaction presenting causes
histamine release. All of the following are responses to this EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
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secretion of HC L
bronchoconstriction
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Histamine has powerful pharmacologic action s, wh ich are mediated by two specific
receptor types:
1. H1 receptors mediate the typical allergic and anaphylactic responses to histamine (e.g., bronchoconstriction, vasodilation and increased capillary permeability).
2. H2 receptors mediate other responses to histamine, such as the increased secretion
of gastric acid and pepsin.
Import ant: The actions of bradykinin (a vasodi lating kinin) are simi lar to h istamine.
Bradykinin increases vascu lar permeability, dilates b lood vessels and causes the t issue
swelling associated with inflamm ation.
substances
All of the following statements concerning heparin are true EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
SAADDES
it is used in the treatment of certa in types of lung, blood vessel and heart disorders,
and during or after certain types of surgery (open heart or bypass surgeries)
small quantities are produced by basophil cells of the blood
it is usually found in large quantities in the blood
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1. Heparin prevents the activation of factor IX (Christmas factor) and interferes w ith thrombin action.
2. Heparin can also enhance t he removal of lipoproteins from the blood by
binding apolipoprotein E (protein found on some liposomes) and by activating lipoprotein lipase.
substances
An apprehensive dental patient comes in and states that he already took
ibuprofen for the pain he anticipates from the appointment today. As you
know, this inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins. All of the following
statements are true about prostaglandins EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
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they generally act locally on or near the tissue that produced them
they are synthesized only in the liver and the adrenal cortex
BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
they are synthesized only in the liver and the adrenal cortex
***This is false; prostaglandins are synthesized by a broad variety of tissues.
Prostaglandins are any of a group of components derived from unsaturated 20-carbon fatty
acids, primarily arachidonic acid, via the cyclooxygenase pathway; prostaglandins are potent
mediators of numerous d ifferent physiologic processes. Prostaglandins belong to a subcl ass of
lipids known as the eicosanoids (along with t hromboxanes and leukotrienes) because of t heir
structural similarities to the C-20 polyunsaturated fatty acids, the eicosanoic acids. In general,
prostagland ins act in a manner similar to that of hormones, by stimulating target cells into
action. However, prostaglandins differ from hormones in that they act locally, near their site
of synthesis and they are metabolized very rapidly. Also the same prostaglandins act
d ifferently in different t issues. Prostaglandins are 20-carbon fatty acids that contain a fivecarbon ri ng.
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Prostaglandins are synthesized in the cell from arachidonic acid mobilized by phospholipase
A2. The intermediate is then passed into one of either the cyclooxygenase or lipoxygenase
pathways to form either prostaglandins and thromboxanes or leukotrienes. The cyclooxygenase pathway produces thromboxanes, prostacycl ins and prostaglandins D, E and F. The lipoxygenase pathway is active in leukocytes and in macrophages and prod uces leukotrienes.
Prostaglandins are released through the prostaglandin transporter on t he cell's plasma
membrane.
1. Prostaglandins seem to modulate the action of hormones rather than act as hormones themselves.
2. Aspi rin, indomethacin, ibuprofen and phenylbutazone, which are NSAIDs, inhibit
the biosynthesis of prostaglandins by interfering with the enzyme cyclooxygenase,
the enzyme that initiates the formation of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid.
3. Prostaglandins enhance inflammatory effects, whereas aspiri n diminishes them.
substances
All of the following are formed via the cyclooxygenase pathway EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
prostaglandins
prostacyclin
leukotrienes
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thromboxanes
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leukotrienes
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liver
The liver synthesizes all of the so-called nonessential amino acids.
The liver plays an important role in glucose metabolism by engaging in
gluconeogenesis.
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Note: The nonessential amino acids ca n all be synthesized in the liver. To do this for most amino
acids, an a -keto acid having the same chemical composition (except at the keto oxygen) as that of
the amino acid is first synthesized. Then the amino radica l is transferred through transamination
from an available amino acid to the keto acid to take the place of the keto oxygen.
liver
In a cotton-candy-eating competition, you consume 14 moderately sized
and overpriced bags of threaded sugar. This causes your portal vein to
drop tremendous loads of glucose to your hepatocytes soon after. Which of
the following enzymes functions only when this happens?
pyruvate kinase
glucokinase
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phosphofructokinase
hexokinase
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glucokinase
Glucokinase is the liver isoenzyme of hexokinase. Like hexokinase, glucokinase catalyzes
the ATP-dependent phosphorylation of glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate (G6P) and
ADP. This is the first step of glycolysis. The enzyme w ill act on a variety of 6-carbon sugars,
producing moieties phosphorylated at position six.
The most important kinetic difference between glucokinase and the other isoenzymes of
hexokinase is the Michaelis Menten constant (I<,) for glucose. Whereas the other forms
of hexokinase have Km values near 0.1 mmol/ liter (2 mg/dl), glucokinase has a Km near 10
mmol/liter (200 mg/dl). Note: Th is difference is very important in the liver, which is a major
source of glucose from gluconeogenesis.
SAADDES
By phosphorylating glucose, glucokinase creates glucose -6-phosp hate. Glucose6-phosphate can then be used by the l iver through the glycolytic p athway. Along
with th is process in the liver, glucokinase also facilitates glycogen synthesis. Through
th is, the majority of the body's glucose is stored.
1. Glucokinase is inhibited by the CoA-th ioesters of long -chain fatty acids. These
products are most abundant during fasting, when the liver metabolizes large
amounts of fatty acids from adipose tissue.
2. Glucokinase is not involved in the process of gluconeogenesis. Instead, the
enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase catalyzes the hydrolysis of glucose-6-phosphate to glucose and phosphate.
3. Glucokinase is also the predominant enzyme for the phosphorylation of glucose in beta cells of the pancreas.
4. Other tissues use hexokinase to do the same thing as glucokinase.
5. Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase are the three regula-
liver
The liver releases glucose back into the circulating blood during exercise.
Which organs take up this extra glucose?
Select all that apply.
kidneys
muscle
heart
brain
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lungs
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muscle
brain
Glucose Facts:
Main fuel source of brain. The brain uses about 120 g of glucose per day.
Only fuel source for red blood cells, cornea, lens (because these cells have no mitochondria).
Kidney, medulla, testes, leukocytes, white muscle fibers use a lot of glucose because these cells
have very few mitochondria.
Starch is the storage form of glucose in plants, and glycogen is the storage form of glucose in animals. The liver and the muscles are the main storage sites for glycogen. We only store enough
glycogen to survive on for about 1 day.
The body maintains a constant level of glucose in the blood.
1) Ingest glucose
2) Glucose passes through cells of intestinal tract and enters portal blood
3) Pancreas monitors the level of glucose in the bloodstream and produces hormone regulators
of blood glucose levels
levels too low, produces glucagon which signals the liver to put more glucose into the blood
stream
levels too high, produces insulin which signals cells to increase uptake of glucose and signals liver to take in glucose and store it as glycogen
SAADDES
The liver releases glucose into the blood during muscular activity and in the interval between
meals. The released glucose is derived from two sources:
(1) The breakdown of stored glycogen
(2) The formation of new glucose by the process of gluconeogenesis
1.1n skeletal muscle, the glucose is phosphorylated and then degraded by glycolysis to
pyruvate, which is converted to acetyi-CoA and oxidized via the citric acid cycle.
2. Glucose is the major end product of carbohydrate ingestion.
3. The presence of glucose in the urine proves a person has exceeded his or her renal
threshold for glucose.
4. Fasting leads to decreased liver glycogen.
liver
One of the two nitrogen atoms in urea comes from ammonia via carbamoyl
phosphate; and the other from:
valine
glycine
aspartate
isoleucine
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aspartate
..,.* The aspartate nitrogen is derived either from ammonia, through the glutamate dehydrogenase
reaction followed by transamination with oxaloacetate, or directly from transa mination reactions.
Most amino acid catabolism takes place in the liver. The liver is also the only import ant site for
ammonia detoxification in the urea cycle. One of the substrates of the urea cycle is carbamoyl
phosphate, which is synthesized from ammonia, carbon dioxide and ATP.
The use of two ATP molecules makes this reaction irreversible. The carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
catalyzi ng this reaction requires N-acetylglutamate as an activator. This regulatory metabolite is
formed by a separate enzyme from glutamate and acetyiCoA. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase is
abundant in liver mitochondria and its Michaelis Menten constant (Kml for ammonia (250 mmol/liter)
is much higher than the physiological ammonia concentration (30 to 60 mmol/liter). Therefore, it can
maintain ammonia at th is low level.
SAADDES
1. The synthesis of one urea molecule requires four high-energy phosphate bonds. Two
ATP molecules are converted to ADP in the ca rbamoyl phosphate synthetase reaction and
another t wo phosphate bonds are consumed for the formation of argininosuccinate when
one ATP molecule is hydrolyzed to AMP and inorganic pyrophosphate.
2. The two nitrogens enter the urea cycle as ammonia and aspartate.
3. Urea is produced by the hydrolysis of arginine.
4. The urea cycle occurs partly in the mitochondria.
5. A complete block of any step in t he urea cycle is fatal since there is no known alternative
pathway for the synthesis of urea.
6.1nherited disorders from defective enzymes may cause a partia l block in some of thereactions and results in hyperammonemia, which can lead to mental retardation.
7. Extensive ammonia accumulation leads to extensive liver damage and death.
8. Liver cirrhosiscaused by alcoholism creates an interference in the enzymes that produce
carbamoyl phosphate in the first step in the cycle.
9. The level of nonprotein nitrogen in the blood is due primarily to the level of urea.
10. Death from advanced liver disease is primari ly due to the inhibition of urea synthesis.
NH; + C02
2 ATP
Arglnlnosucc/nate
synthetase
(cytosol)
Carbomoy/
phosphate
synthase/
(mitochondria)
2 AOP
+Pi
Carbamoyl
phosphate
ATP
Aspartate
AMP+ PPi
Citrulline
Pi1
. Vorntth/ne transcarbamoytase
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Arglnlnosucclnate
lyase
(cytosol)
Ornithine
Arginase
cytosol)
Fumarate
H20
Arginine
Urea
Degrades amino acids into a mino groups. Accounts for 90% of nitrogen in urine.Urea
cycle occurs in the liver, carbamoyl phosphate incorporation occurs in the mitochondria;
the remaining steps occur in the cytosol.
241-1
liver
The major regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is:
thiolase
HMG-CoA reductase
HMG-CoA synthase
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HMG-CoA kinase
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HMG-CoA reductase
Although cholesterol is synthesized in most tissues of the body, where cholesterol
serves as a component of cell membranes, it is produced mainly in the liver.
Cholesterol is synthesized from acetyi-CoA; key intermediates in cholesterol
biosynthesis are HMG-CoA, mevalonic acid, isopentenyl pyrophosphate and
squalene.
In the liver, bile salts are fo rmed from cholesterol; in certain endocrine tissues,
cholesterol is converted to steroid hormones (e.g., testosterone, cortisol, progesterone, and estradiol [which is the most potent naturally occurring human estrogen]).
Vitamin D is also formed from cholesterol by a series of reactions requiring the skin,
liver, and kidney.
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8
minerals/vitamins
Which of the following is a cofactor required for the hydroxylation of lysine
and proline?
riboflavin
vitamin E
vitamin C
folacin
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vitamin C
Dietary Sources
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Deficiency
minerals/vitamins
Which of the following is a part of active cytochrome oxidase?
zinc
vitamin C
copper
vitamin K
magnesium
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copper
Cytochrome oxidase is one of a superfamily of proteins that act as the terminal enzymes of respiratory chains. Copper is also important in the maturation of col lagen
and elastin as copper is a cofactor for the enzyme lysyl oxidase. The oxidized lysine
residues formed in collagen and elastin by this enzyme form the cross-links that
stabilize these molecules.
Minerals are inorganic elements that are essential to life. They serve both structural
and regulatory functions. Minerals may be classified as:
Major minerals (more than 0.005% of body weight) include calcium, ch loride,
magnesium, phosphorus, potassium, sodium, and sulfu r
Trace minerals (less than 0.005% of body weight) include ch romium, cobalt, copper, fluoride, iodine, iron, manganese, molybdenum, selenium and zinc
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minerals/vitamins
A patient of yours with a PhD in nutrition tries to trip you up by saying that he
supplements every morning with tocopherol. What is he talking about?
ri boflavin
vitamin E
vitamin C
fo lacin
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vitamin E
of\ ita min E
Dietary Sources
Deficiency
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minerals/vitamins
Which of the following is a severe thiamine-deficiency syndrome found in
areas where polished rice is the major component of the diet?
pellagra
megaloblastic anemia
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pernicious anemia
beri-beri
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beri-beri
ot T hiamine( \ itamin 8 1 )
Dietary Sources
Deficiency
Thiamine pyrophosph ate (TPP) is the biologically active form of the vitamin, formed by the
t ransfer of a pyroph osphate group from ATP to thiam ine. Thiamine pyrophosphate serves as a
coenzyme in t he oxidative decarboxylation of a-keto acids, and in the formation or degradation of a-ketols by t ransketolase.
SAADDES
Thiamine, also called vitamin B1, is used in many d ifferent body functions and deficiencies may
have far-reaching effects on the body. Very li ttle of th is vitamin is stored in the body and
depletion of this vitamin can happen within 14 days.
Today, t hiamine deficiency is most common in alcoholics who have poor intestinal absorption
in addi tion to an inadeq uate dietary in take. In this context, thiamine deficiency causes not
beriberi but Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. In the acute stage, kn own as Wernicke encephalopathy, the patient presents with mental derangement and delirium, ataxia and paralysis of t h eye muscles. The chronic stage, known as Korsakoff psychosis, is a severely
debilitating anterograde amnesia.
Note: The oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate and a -ketog lutarate plays a key role in energy
metabolism of most cells, but is particularly important in t issues of the nervous system. In thiamine deficiency t he act ivity of these two dehydrogenase reactions is decreased, resulting in a
decreased production of ATP, and t hus impaired cellular function.
minerals/vitamins
Which of the following statements concerning niacin are correct?
Select all that apply.
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pork, whole grains, and legumes are the richest sources of niacin
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ot
Dietary Sources
Deficiency
1. Pellagra is seen only with a d iet low in both niacin and tryptophan.lt is most often
associated with corn based diets. Early deficiency signs include weakness, lassitude,
anorexia, indigestion and g lossitis similar to that in riboflavin deficiency. The signs of
severe deficiency are dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia, and, if untreated, death.
2. High supplemental doses are effective in treati ng hyperlipidemia.
minerals/vitamins
Pernicious anemia is caused by the malabsorption of:
vitam in A
vitam in B12
vitam in C
vitamin E
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vitamin 8 12
Vitamin B12, or cobalamin, is chemically the most complex of all vitamins. The absorption of dietary
B12 requires intrinsic factor, a glycoprotein secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach. Vitamin B12
binds tightly to intrinsic factor and in this form, it is absorbed from the ileum. In t he blood it binds
t ightly to transcobalamin II and other plasma proteins. The cobalamin-transcoba lamin II complex
is taken up into the cells by receptor-mediated endocytosis. Transcoba lamin II directs the vitamin to
t he tissues in which it is needed and prevents its renal excretion.
Only two reactions are known to require cobalamin coenzymes in human tissues. The cytoplasmic
methylation of homocysteine to methionine requires methylcobalamin and the mitochondrial
methylmalonyi-CoA mutase reaction requires deoxyadenosylcobalami n.
SAADDES
ofYitamin 8 12
Dietary Sources
Deficiency
1. Pernicious anemia is an autoimmune disease that destroys the parietal cells in the
stomach. This deprives the patient of intrinsic factor and neither dietary nor biliary vitamin
B12 can be absorbed.
2.1t is the only vitamin that contains essential mineral element sand is the first substance
containing cobalt that is found to be vital to life.
3. It may be present in inadequate quantities in a strictly vegetarian diet.
minerals/vitamins
Which vitamin plays a key role in amino acid metabolism?
vitamin A
vitamin B6
vitamin K
vitamin B12
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vitamin 8 6
Vitamin B6 is a generic name for the d ietary precursors of the active coenzyme form,
pyridoxal phosphate (PLP). They include pyridoxine, pyridoxal and pyridoxamine, as
well as their phosphorylated derivatives. Note: The phosphate is removed by
intestinal alkaline phosphatase and the dephosphorylated forms are absorbed.
Several dozen enzymes of amino acid metabolism contain PLP as a tightly bound
prosthetic group. In these reactions, the aldehyde group of PLP forms an aldimine
derivative with the amino group of the amino acid. The aid imine is stabilized by an
intramolecular hydrogen bond w ith the phenolic hydroxyl group.
SAADDES
Vitam in B6 assists in the balancing of sodium and potassium as well promotes red
blood cel l production. Vitamin B6 is further involved in the nucleic acids RNA as
well as DNA. It has been linked to cancer immunity and fights the formation of the
toxic chem ica l homocysteine, wh ich is detri mental to the heart muscle.
Dietary sources of vitamin B6 include liver, fish, nuts, whole grains, legumes, egg
yolk and yeast.
Serious deficiency is rare, but when it occurs, it is characterized by peripheral neuropathy, stomatitis, glossitis, irritability, psychiatric symptoms and especially in children,
epileptic seizures.
Note: Vitamin B6 deficiency is most common in alcoholics, in whom it contributes to
sideroblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy and seizures.
minerals/vitamins
Which of the following plays a key role in one-carbon metabolism, and is
essential for the biosynthesis of the purines and the pyrimidine, thymine?
biotin
riboflavin
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pantothenic acid
folic acid
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folic acid
Folic acid consists of pteroic acid (pteridine +para-am inobenzoic acid (PABA)) and one to seven
y-linked glutamate residues. Dietary polyglutamate forms of folic acid are hydrolyzed to pteroyl
monoglutamate in the intestinal lumen. The monog lutamate is absorbed and reduced to the
active coenzyme form tetrahydrofolate (THF) by dihydrofolate reductase in the intestinal mucosa. The monoglutamate conjugate of methyi-THF is the major circulating form ofTHF, but
intracellularTHF is present in the form of polyglutamate conjugates.
Important: The clinical signs of folate deficiency are caused by impairment of DNA replication
in dividing cells, resulting from reduced synthesis of purine nucleotides and thymine.
of Folic \cid
SAADDES
..
Dietary Sources
Deticiency
Megaloblastic anemia
Diarrhea
Glossitis
1. Folic acid is stored in the liver and may be synthesized by the bacterial flora of the
Gl tract. Their growth can be inhibited by sulfonam ides and trimethoprim.
2. Folic acid deficiency is probably t he most common vitamin deficiency in the
U.S., particularly among pregnant women and alcoholics.
3. Because of folic acid's importance in the synthesis of purines and thymine, the
metabolism of folic acid is the target of a number of antimetabolite drugs such as
methotrexate.
4. Folate supplements are recommended for t he prevention of neural tube defe.cts
(spina bifida and anencephaly).
minerals/vitamins
The determination of the prothrombin time is the most important
laboratory test for the evaluation of the vitamin Kstatus.
Vitamin K deficiency is most common in the elderly.
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Dietary Sources
..
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Deficiency
1. Humans get some of their vitamin K as phylloquinone and some as menaquinone produced by intestinal bacteria.
2. Vitamin K has no specific binding protein in the plasma, but is transported
from the intestine to the liver in chylomicrons.
3. Unlike the other fat-soluble vitamins, vitamin k is not stored to any great extent.
4. Vitamin K deficiency is most common in newborn s. This is known as hemorrhagic disease of the newborn. It is the most common nutritional deficiency in
newborns.
5. Vitamin K deficiency in adults is usually caused by fat malabsorption.
6. Vitamin K decreases coagulation time and is present in low concentrations in
milk.
minerals/vitamins
Pantothenic acid is a component of which of the following?
Select all that apply.
pyridoxal phosphate
coenzyme A
retinoic acid
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coenzyme A
fatty acid synthase
Pantothenic acid is a component of coenzyme A, which functions in the t ransfer of
acyl g roups. Coenzyme A conta ins a thiol group that carri es acyl compounds as activated thiol esters. Examples of such stru ctures are succinyl CoA, fatty acyl CoA, and
acetyl CoA. Pantothenic acid is also a component of fatty acid synthase (which catalyzes reactions of fatty acid synthesis).
of Pantothenic Acid
Dietary Sources
SAADDES
Deficiency
***Very rare
Fatigue
Sleep d isturbance
Impaired coordination
Diarrhea
G l, rena l problems
minerals/vitamins
Biotin is a prosthetic group of:
pyruvate carboxylase
acetyi-CoA carboxylase
propionyi-CoA carboxylase
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Dietary Sources
Major Body Functions
.
.
..
..
..
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Deficiency
Fatigue
Depression
Nausea
Dermatitis
Muscular pains
Loss of hair
1. The proteolytic degradation of biotin-containing enzymes both in the intestinal lumen and in the tissues, produces the biotin-lysine conjugate biocytin. Biotin is released from biocytin by biotinidase. Biotinidase deficiency
causes non dietary biotin deficiency.
2. A large percentage of the biotin (sometimes ca lled vitamin H) requirement
in humans is supplied by intestinal bacteria.
3. Egg white contains the protein avidin, so called because it binds biotin
avidly, preventing its intestinal absorption.
minerals/vitamins
The biologically active forms of vitamin A are the flavoproteins.
In vitamin A deficiency, columnar epithelia are transformed into heavily
keratinized squamous epithelia, a process known as squamous metaplasia.
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Dietary Source$
Major Body Functions
Dcfidency
Live r, mea t, eggs, dairy products and cod Jivcr oil provide vita min A in the fonn
of retinol e sters and vegetables (yellow, orange and leafy green) supply carotenes
..
.
SAADDES
.
..
..
bone growth
rcmodeJing
1. Vitamin A, along with vitamins C and D, is req uired for the normal production of
sound dentin and enamel; however, a deficiency of vitamin A will most likely affect
the enamel more than the dentin. Whereas, a deficiency in vitamin C will affect the
dentin more, due to the role of vitamin C in collagen synthesis.
2.
the orange pigment of carrots and many other vegetables, is t he
major vitamin A precursor in plants.
3. In vitam in A deficiency, columnar epithelia are transformed into heavily keratinized squamous epithelia, a process known as squamous metaplasia. Follicular
hyperkeratosis (goosefl esh) is an early sign, together wit h night blindness. This often
leads to xerophthalmia ("dry eyes").
4. Both vitamin A deficiency and vitam in A excess are teratogenic.
minerals/vitamins
All of the following vitamins have little to no risk of overdose EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
niacin
biotin
vitamin C
vitamin K
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vitamin K
***The others are water soluble and thus have little, if any, risk of overdose.
The water-soluble vitam ins, excluding vitamin C, popularly are termed the B-complex
B-complex vitamins. There are eight of them, namely: B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin),
B3 (niacin), B5 (pantothenic acid), B6 (pyri doxine), B7 (biotin/vitamin H), B9 (folic acid/
folacin) and B12 (cobalamin). The water-soluble vitamins, inactive in their so-called
free states, must be activated to their coenzyme forms. B complex vitamins and vitamin C are water-soluble vitamins that are not stored in the body and must be
replaced each day, preferably through a high-quality liquid multivitam in.
SAADDES
Remember: The water-soluble vitamins are absorbed in our intestine, pass d irectly
to the blood and are carried to the t issues in which the vitam ins will be utilized.
Vitamin B12 requires a substance known as "intrinsic factor" for absorption.
minerals/vitamins
Vitamin Dis required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight.
Cholecalciferol is not the active form of vitamin D and needs to be converted
to active 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol) by successive hydroxylations in the liver and kidney.
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Vitamin D deficiency is called rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. The immediate
effect is reduced intestinal calcium absorption, which tends to red uce the plasma calcium
concentration. The maintenance of the blood calcium level has top priority and therefore, PTH
is released. Even in long-standing vitamin D deficiency, plasma calcium can be maintained at
a near-normal level by PTH (at t he expense of t he bones, which are gradually drained of t heir
mineral content). As a result, affected child ren have soft, cartilaginous bones that bend easily
and affected adults have brittle bones that break easily.
of\ it:unin
Dietary Sources
Major Body Functions
Deficiency
J)
Liver, egg yolk and saltwater fish (cod liver oil), as well as fortified foods
..
..
minerals/vitamins
Riboflavin is a precursor of:
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Vitamin B2, commonly ca lled riboflavin, consists of a d imethyl isoalloxazine ring t hat
is covalently bound to a sugar alcohol ri bitol. Its only biological function is as a precursor of flavin adenine d inucl eotide (FAD) and flavin mononucleotide (FMN), the
prosthetic groups of t he flavoproteins.
Dietary riboflavin is absorbed by an energy-dependent transporter in the upper small
intestine and transported to the tissues, in wh ich it is converted to the coenzyme forms
FMN and FAD. The excess is excreted in the uri ne o r metabolized by m icrosoma l
enzymes in the li ver.
SAADDES
Riboflavin deficiency usually occurs along w ith other vitamin deficiencies and is most
common in alcoholics. The symptoms incl ude glossitis, angular stomatitis, sore th roat
and a moist (seborrheic) dermatitis of the scrotum and nose. This deficiency may be accompan ied by a normochromic normocytic anemia.
Liver, yeast, eggs, meat, em iched bread and cereals and milk
Maj or Body Functions Precursor of FAD and FMN, the prosthetic groups of the tlavoproteins
De ficiency
..
.
Angular stomatitis
Moist (seborrheic) dermatitis o f the scrotum and nose
Glossitis
minerals/vitamins
All of the following statements concerning fluoride are true EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
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minerals/vitamins
Your dental assistant comes in one day all smiles. At lunch, she announces
that she is pregnant. You recommend that she makes sure to keep her intake
of this mineral high because it helps her immune system, as well as the
growth and development of her and her unborn child. She often comes in
with loads of perfume on and you are hoping that this change in diet might
also improve her sense of smell, so she tones it down a notch. Which mineral
are we talking about?
phosphorus
cobalt
SAADDES
copper
zinc
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zinc
Zinc is the most abundant trace mineral in the body after iron. lt is a constituent of the zinc
metalloenzymes, which include carbonic anhydrase, the cytoplasmic (copper-zinc) superoxide dismutase, alcohol dehydrogenase, carboxypeptidase A and B, DNA and RNA polymerases and in many others.
Zinc is absorbed incompletely in the small intestine. It is also present in pancreatic juice
and excess zinc is excreted in the stools. Transport in the blood is in association with seru m
albumin.
Zinc supports a healthy immune system, is needed for wound healing, helps maintain
your sense of taste and smell and is needed for DNA synthesis. Zinc also supports normal
growth and development during pregnancy, childhood, and adolescence.
SAADDES
Nutrient/Mineral
Iron
Functions
Jodinc
Calcium
Bone and tooth fonnation, blood clotting , nerve trans mission, muscle contraction
Phosphoms
Bone and tooth fom1ation, acid-base balance, release o f energy (ADP, ATP)
Sulfur
Potassium
Sodium
Magnesium
CobaJt
Constituent of vitamin 8 12
Copper
minerals/vitamins
Summary of fat-soluble vitamins
Vitamin
A
Major Function
Deficiency Symptoms
Night b lindness
Abnormal drynt\'is of the skin, eyes or mucous
membranes
Keratomalacia
Perifollicular hyperkeratosis
Anorexia
Bone changes
Osteomalacia in adults
Rickets in children
Deformity of bone and pathologic fractures
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minerals/vitamins
Summary of water-soluble vitamins
Vitamin
Major Function
Thiamine
Riboflavin
Niacin
Deficiency Symptoms
Bleeding gums
Failed wound healing
Bruise easily
Dry. rough skin
Scurvy
SAADDES
He-lps relea.o;e ene-rgy from foods
Promote.s nol'lllal appetite
Important in function of[he nervou..<; sys[em
Beriberi
Ede-ma. heart tililure
Wernickes enc.ephalopathy
Peripheral neuropathy
Pellagra
Diarrhea
Photosensitive dematiris
Mucosal inflammation
Dememia
Beefy red tongue
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BIOCHEMISTRY/PHYSIOLOGY
B,
Pantothenic
acid
Biotin
B.
..
..
..
.
..
..
Major Function
Aids in protein metabolism
Promotes red blood cell fonnation
Prevents birth defects o f the spine and brain
wwers homocysteine levels and thus
coronary heart disease risk
Aids in building of genetic material
Aids in development o f normal red blood
cells
Maintenance of nervous system
..
..
..
..
.
..
..
..
..
.
..
..
.
Deficiency Symptoms
Megaloblastic anemia
Glossitis
Diarrhea
Neural tube defects
Mega loblastic anemia
Glossitis
Anorexia
Sensory neuropathy
Dementia
SAADDES
..
.
Scaly dermatitis
Alopecia
Muscle pain
Depression
Anemia
Seborrheic dennatitis
Glossitis
Cheilosis
Angular stomatitis
Peripheral neuropathy
respiratory system
Which of the following terms means air in the chest?
hemothorax
pyothorax
pneumothorax
SAADDES
pulmothorax
pulmonary inflation
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pneumothorax
A penetration wound of the chest wall can lead to a pneumothorax (air in the pleural cavity) or a
hemothorax (blood in the pleural cavity).ln both of these situations, the surface tension that binds
t he lungs to the chest wall is eliminated, and the lung will instantly shrink to the size of a tennis ball.
The lungs fill the pleural divisions of the thoracic cavity; they extend from the root of the neck to
the diaphragm. The lungs are the main component of the respiratory system; they distribute air and
exchange gases. The right and left lungs are separated by the mediastinum, which contains t he
heart, blood vessels, and other midline structures; fissures divide each lung into Jobes. Each
primary bronchus enters its respective lung at the hilus, an indentation on the mediastinal surface.
The bronchi and pu lmonary blood vessels are bound together by connective tissue to form the root
of the lung. The base, the inferior surface of the lung, rests on the diaphragm. The apex, the most
superior portion of the lung, projects above the clavicle.
SAADDES
Right lung:
Has three Jobes (superior, middle, and inferior) and three secondary (lobar) bronchi
Contains ten bronchial segments (corresponding to the t ertiary bronchi)
Usually receives one bronchial artery
Has a slightly larger ca pacity than the left lung
The azygos vein leaves an impression on the right lung as the vein arches over the root
Left lung:
Has two Jobes (superior and inferior) and two secondary (lobar) bronchi
Contains eight bronchial segments (corresponding to the tertiary bronchi)
Contains a cardiac notch (on its superior lobe), which is an indentation providing room for
the heart
Usually receives two bronchial arteries
Contains a lingula, which is a tongue-shaped portion of its superior lobe that corresponds to
the middle lobe of the right lung
Each lung is enclosed in a double-layered pleural sac. One layer is called the visceral pleura; t he
other is called the parietal pleura. Between t he two layers is the pleural cavity, which is filled with
serous fluid.
fissure
Inferior
lobe
Cardiac
notch
..._ __
notch
lobe
Inferior
lobe
Right lung
(B)
views
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Costal surfaces of lungs. The lungs arc shown in isolation in antcrior(A) and lateral views (B), demonstrating lobes and fissures. C. The heart and lungs are s hown in situ.
Reproduced with permission from 1\>loorc KL. Dalley AF. and Agur AMR. Clinit<llfy Oriftu('({An(llonty. 00 6. Wolters Kluwer. Baltimore. 2010.
respiratory system
The ridge that marks the bifurcation of the trachea into the right and left primary bronchi is the:
carina
lingula
SAADDES
mediastinum
bronchial t ree
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carina
The trachea connects the upper respiratory tract to the lower respiratory tract. It is about 9-1 5 em in length.
It is located in front of the esophagus and behi nd the thyroid g land in the neck. It is considered to be in the
superior and middle mediastinum. It is made up of 16-20 incomplete hyaline cartilaginous rings that are
open posteriorly. The trachea bifurcates into the right and left main stem bronchi at a location called the
carina, which is located at the level ofthe sternal angle (T4-T5). A series of ( -shaped rings of hyaline cartilage strengthen the trachea and prevent it from collapsing during inspiration. The trachea is lined with
ciliated pseudostr atified columnar epithelium and mucous-secreting goblet cells, which trap inhaled
debris. Ciliary action moves debris toward the oropharynx for removal by coughing.
The trachea branches off into t wo main bronchi, the left and right p rimary bronchi, which lead to the left
and right lung respectively. The right lung is larger and heavier than the left, but it is shorter and wider
because the right dome of the d iaph ragm is higher and the heart and pericardi um bulge more to the left .
The right and left mainstem bronchi branch from the trachea at different angles, the right more vertical
and more di rectly in line with the trachea, thus the right b ronchus is more likely to receive aspi rated
material. At this point in breathing, the air has been moistened, purified and warmed . Each bronchi enters
its lung and begins on a series of branches, called the bronchial or respiratory tree. The first of these
b ranches is the lobar (secondary) b ranch. On the left, there are t wo lo bar branches, while on the right,
there are three. Each lobar branches into one lobe. The next branch is called the segmental (tertiary)
b ranch. Each b ranch conti nues to branch into smaller and smaller b ronchioles. The final branch is called
the terminal bronchioles. These bronchio les are smaller than 0.5 mm in diameter. Each of these terminal
b ronchioles gives rise to several respiratory bronchioles. Note: The first few levels of bronchi are
supported by rings of cartilage. Branches after that are supported by irregularly shaped d iscs of cartilage,
while the latest levels of the tree have no support whatsoever.
SAADDES
Note: The right main bronchus divides into three lobar bronchi, and the left main bronchus divides
into two lobar bronchi. Each secondary or lobar bronchus serves one of the five lobes of the t wo lungs.
Each respiratory bronchiole subd ivides into several alveolar ducts, which end in clusters of small, thinwalled air spaces called alveoli. These cl usters of alveoli are called alveolar sacs and form the functional
unit of the lung.
primary bronchus
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Bronchi in situ -Anterior view
29 1
respiratory system
Which of the following components of the respiratory system does NOT have
cilia?
tertiary bronchioles
primary bronchioles
SAADDES
respiratory bronchioles
terminal bronchioles
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alveolar ducts
Conducting bronchioles are smaller extensions of bronchi (little bronchi). Those devoid
of alveoli in their walls are nearer the hilum of the lung. These conducting passageways
deliver air to passageways that have alveoli. The last generations of conducting
bronchio les are called terminal bronchioles.
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ynx, t rachea, bronchi, bronch ioles, and termina l bronchioles; their functi on is to filter,
warm, and moisten air and conduct it into the lungs. It's also called the dead zone be cause there is no 0 2 exchange happens here.
The respiratory zone is the site of oxygen and carbon dioxide gas exchange, and is
composed of t he respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli.
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(A)
(B)
respiratory system
Which of the following vessels supply blood to the bronchi?
pulmonary arteries
pulmonary veins
subclavian arteries
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none of the above- the bronchial arteries supply blood to the bronchi
Each lung is shaped like a cone. It has a blunt apex, a concave base (that sits on the diaphragm), a
convex costal surface, and a concave mediastinal surface. At the middle of the mediastinal surface, the
hilum is located, which is a depression in which the bronchi, vessels, and nerves that form the root enter
and leave the lung.
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Innervation of the lung: The lung is innervated by parasympathetic nerves via the vagus and sympathetic
nerves derived from the second to fourth thoracic sympathetic ganglia. These nerves form plexuses around
the hilus of the lung and give rise to intrapulmonary nerves accompanying the bronchial tree and blood
vessels. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves to the lung contain efferent and afferent fibers.
Important: When foreign objects are aspirated into the trachea, they usually pass into the right primary
bronchus because it is larger, straighter, and shorter than the left. It is also in a more di rect li ne w i th the trachea (important in a dental cha ir because if a patient swallows an object it tends to lodge in the right
bronchus).
Tuberculosis seems to be more common in the right lung than the left due to the shorter right bronchus.
The reason that the disease is usually restricted to the apex of the lungs is due to the fact that venti lation/ perfusion ratio is high as the blood flow is reduced leading to higher alveolar P0 2 this provides a better environment for the obligate aerobes to g row.
respiratory system
Which of the following is NOT a part of the lower respiratory tract?
laryngopharynx
trachea
primary bronchus
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alveolar duct
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laryngopharynx
The mediastinum lies between the rig ht and left pleura in and near the median sagittal plane of the
chest. It extends from the stern um in front to the vertebral column behind, and contains all the thoracic viscera except the lungs. It may be divided for purposes of description into two parts:
An upper portion, above the upper level of the pericardium, which isnamed the superior mediastinum
A lower portion (inferior mediastinum) which is subdivided into three parts:
- that in front of the pericardium, the anterior mediastinum
-that containing the pericardium and its contents, the middle mediastinum
-a nd that behind the pericard ium, the posterior mediastinum
The respiratory system consists of the upper and lower respiratory tracts, the lungs, and the thoracic
cage. The respiratory system is designed to exchange the ca rbon dioxide accumulated in the blood
for oxygen in the airways, which enters the lungs as air from the surrounding atmosphere.
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Blood travels continuously through t wo different circulations: the pulmonary and the systemic circu lations. The heart pumps deoxygenated blood from the veins of the systemic circulation into the
arteries of the pulmonary circulation. This blood is oxygenated by the lungs, and then flows back to
the heart to be pumped into the arteries of the systemic circu lation.
The structures of the upper respiratory tract include the nose, mouth, nasopharynx, oropharynx,
laryngopharynx, and larynx. Besides warming and humidifying inhaled air, these structures provide
for taste, smell, and the chewing and swallowing of food.
The lower respiratory tract structures are the trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Bronchi branch into bronchioles, which in turn branch into lobules. The lobule includes the terminal bronchioles and alveoli.
A mucous membrane containing hair-like cilia lines the lower tract. Functionally, the lower tract is
subdivided into conducting airways (the trachea and the primary, lobar, and segmental bronchi)
and alveoli, the sites of gas excha nge.
primary bronchus
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Diaphragm
Respiratory System
Reproduced with perm1ssion from BaJTons Ant11omy fo1 :bh Card.;;:. Australia. 2009. Global Book l'ublshing.
32 1
respiratory system
All of the paranasal sinuses drain into one of the three meatuses (superior,
middle, and inferior) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
maxillary sinus
frontal sinus
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ethmoidal sinus
sphenoidal sinus
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Nasal
vestibule
Inferior
nasal
meatus
Reproduced with pcnmssion from Atlll.1 ojH11man AlllJtiJmy: Springhouse:. 2001. Springhouse.
respiratory system
While ascending to 30,000 feet, the passengers on a commercial flight experience the sensation of their ears "popping:' The swallowing or yawning that
triggers this equalizes the pressure of the middle ear with the surrounding
atmosphere via the eustachian (auditory) tube. The pharyngeal opening for
this tube, along with the salpingopharyngeal fold, pharyngeal recess, and
pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids) are all located in the:
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laryngopharynx
oropharynx
nasopharynx
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nasoph arynx
The ph arynx (the throat) is a t ube that serves as a passageway for the respiratory and digestive tracts. It extends from the mouth and nasal cavities to the larynx and esophagus.
The pharynx is divided into three regions:
1. Nasopharynx- is the most superior division of the pharynx. It is inferior to the sphe noid bone and li es at the level of the soft palate. The pharynx is lined with ciliated pseudostratified epithelium (respiratory epithelium). The nasopharynx has four open ings:
two auditory (eustachian) tubes: each opening out of a lateral wall and connecting
with the mi ddle ear (tympanic cavity)
two openings of the posterior nares (choanae)
Note: nasopharynx -location of the pharyngeal tonsils
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The soft palate and uvula form the anterior wall of the nasopharynx. Note: The tensor veli
palatini and the levator veli palatini muscles prevent food from entering the nasopharynx.
2. Oropharynx - the middle division of the pharynx; is continuous w ith the posterior
oral cavity and is lined with stratified squamous epithelium. The oropharynx extends inferiorly from the soft pa late to the hyoid bone. The opening into the oropharynx from the
mouth is called the fauces. The lingual tonsils protrude into the oropharynx from the
oral cavity at the base of the tongue. The anterolateral walls of the oropharynx support
the palatine tonsils. It is a food and air pa ssageway.
3. La ryngopharynx- is the most inferior division of the pharynx; the laryngopharynx extends from the hyoid bone to the opening of the esophagus. The laryngopharynx is lined
w ith stratified squamous epitheliu m. extends from the oro pharynx above to the larynx
and esophagus. The laryngopharynx also serves as a passageway for food and air. Air
entering the laryngopharynx goes to the larynx while food goes to the esophagus.
Middle turbinate
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Inferior turbinate
Vestibule
34-1
Pharynx
respiratory system
A women in Ethiopia who has a human papillomavirus infection, starts to
grow warts on her larynx and respiratory tract. In order to allow her to breathe
an emergency airway maybe established by opening into the trachea:
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respiratory system
Which of the following describes the function of the surfactant?
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increases the cohesive force of air molecules and raises surface tension
none of the above
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reproductive system
Ovulation occurs as a result of:
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Gonadotropin
cycle
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Menstrual Postmenstrual
Postmenstrual
phase
(proliferative Ovulation
(secretory
phase)
phase)
Menstru8.1
phase
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reproductive system
GnRH is produced by the:
pituitary g land
adrenal gland
hypothalamus
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thyroid gland
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hypothalamus
The reproductive systems are composed of gonads, an internal reproductive tract with associated
gland s and external genitalia. Mammary glands are accessory reproductive glands in women. Gonads have two main functions: production of gametes and production of hormones. Hormones (primarily sex steroid s) are absolutely necessary for normal function of the reproductive system and t heir
production is regulated by a hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.
Seminiferous tubules in the testiscontain Sertoli cells and developing sperm cells. Spermatogenesis refers to the progression of sperm cells from spermatogonia through the processes of meiosisand
spermiogenesis to form mature spermatozoa.
Testosterone and pituitary FSH are required for normal sperm production. Only Sertoli cells express
the androgen receptor and the FSH receptor, so these hormones regulate spermatogenesis indirectly
through their actions on Sertoli cells. Sertoli cells produce the hormone inhibin, which negatively
feeds back on pituitary FSH production. Note: Sertoli cells have many functions, including the production of androgen-binding protein (ABP) and fluid and creat ion of the blood-testis barrier. Leydig
cells are stromal cells that reside outside the seminiferous tubu les. They respond to LH by producing
testosterone.
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Leydig cells are regulated within a hypothalamic-pituitary-test icular axis. The hypothalamus
produces GnRH, which sti mulates pituitary gonadotropes to secrete LH and FSH. Testosterone,
DHT and estradiol negatively feedback at the pituitary and hypothalamus and inhibit LH more than
FSH secretion. Important: lnhibin from the Sertoli cells selectively inhibits FSH.
Testosterone, DHT and estradiol have numerous actions on the male reproductive tract, external genitalia and male secondary sex characteristics, as well as on other organ systems (e.g., blood cell production, lipoprotein production, bone maturat ion).
The male tract includ es tubal structures (epididymis, ductus deferensand male urethra), accessory
sex glands (seminal vesicles, prostate) and the penis. The seminal vesicles and the prostate produce
most of the ejaculate, which nourishes, buffersand protects sperm.
Remember: A male chil d is considered to have reached his full adult sexual capabilities at the end
of puberty. This meansthat after puberty the male child is capable of reproduction .
Spermatogenesis
tubule
Type A
spermatogonia
Type A
spermatogonium
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11
Meiosis I
spermatocytes
Melo51511
\, t t
n
Spermiogenesis
, "' 7
u u/
(
( . (
++
Spermatids
(2stagesof
differentiation)
LLLL
lumen
Spermatozoa
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reproductive system
Initiation of the onset of puberty has long been a mystery. But now it has
been determined that during childhood the hypothalamus simply does not
secrete significant amounts of GnRH.
For reasons still not understood, at the time of puberty, the secretion of
hypothalamic GnRH breaks through the childhood inhibition and adult
sexual life begins.
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1. The events of puberty in the female (such as enlargement of the vagina, uterus and
uterine tubes; deposition of fat in the breasts and hips) are largely a result of increased
production of estrogens by the ovaries.
2. Estrogen is effective at very low concentrations and generates a slowly developing
long-term response in target tissues by binding to an intracellular receptor.
3. Menopause results from exhaustion of the ovarian reserve and is characterized by low
ovarian hormone and elevated gonadotropin levels.
4. The follicle is the functional unit of the ovary. Follicles contain epithelial cells (granulosa
and cumulus) and outer stromal cells(thecal). All these cells surround the primary oocyte
that remains arrested in the first meiotic prophase until just before ovulation.
5. Follicles develop from the smallest (primordial) to a large antral follicle over a period of
months. The latter part of the follicular development requires gonadotropins.
reproductive system
The first half of the monthly menstrual cycle is referred to as the luteal
phase.
The second half of the monthly menstrual cycle is referred to as the follicular
phase.
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*** Decreasing estrogen and progesterone levels sti mulate the hypothalamus to produce
GnRH and the cycle begins again.
The cervix is the lower portion of the uterus. Cervica l mucus is hormonally regulated so t hat
at midcycle in response to estrogen, cervical mucus promotes entry of sperm into t he uterus
from the vagina. During t he lutea l phase in response to progesterone, cervical mucus becomes thick and poses a barrier to entry of sperm and microbes into the uterus.
Fertilization is a complex series of events t hat occur in the oviduct and lead to penetration of
t he oocyte by sperm .
Ovarian Cycle
.. t
Prim.,ry
$t(()nd,sory
r(l(l;d.-
Vtsiw Mr
CO'l)u$ luttum
RttrtSSiO<n
Cwpu'
room
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Ovulation chart showing ovar ian cycle and uterine cycle
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