1. Mrs.

Diez in her first trimester of pregnancy asks about her nutritional

needs, if she needs to double her daily dietary servings. What is your best
response?

a. eat just enough

b. double your food intake to ensure proper nutrition
c. do not increase your calories in the first trimester but to add 300
calories during the 2nd and 3rd trimester
d. take some foods essential for the baby’s growth always.

2. During the antepartal stage, the nurse recognizes that the placenta is
formed from the:

a. decidua capsularis
b. decidua basalis and decidua vera
c. chorionic villi and decidua basalis
d. chorionic villi and decidua vera

3. During a mother’s class, a pregnant mother asks at what stage is sex of

offspring determined?

a. oogenesis
b. capacitation
c. miosis
d. fertilization

4. A nurse is doing assessment of a pregnant at risk client. She knows that

preterm birth least likely has a record of:

a. gestational age of 12 to 16 weeks

b. intact membranes with clinical effacement of 50% or more
c. gestational age of 20 to 37 weeks
d. uterine contractions of four in 20 min

5. The nurse assess the pregnant woman. She refers the client to the
hospital, and said she cannot give birth at home. She must be:

a. on her 5th pregnancy

b. full term
c. cephalic presentation
d. primigravida

6. It was one of the prenatal visits that Mrs. Maragas learned about subtle
signs of preterm labor. Aside from the sudden increase in hourly contractions
within the 24 hr period, which among these should she least expect:
a. rhythmic dull backache or pelvic ache with “heavy feeling”
b. uterine and intestinal cramping
c. recurrent stabbing abdominal pains
d. menstrual-like abdominal aches or thigh croup

7. Mrs. Osias is wheeled to the Delivery room at 10cms dilatation and the
head is fast emerging. Awaiting the arrival of the attending physician, what
is the initial action of the nurse?

a. support the head while the rest of the body is spontaneously

delivered
b. push down on the fundus it helps expel the infant
c. call the doctor STAT
d. deliver the shoulder by turning the presenting part to internal rotation

8. Mrs. Osias is kept informed of the progress of her delivery, after the
delivery of the baby, the nurse expects to deliver the placenta. Expected
time to deliver the placenta should be:

a. 10 -15 mins
b. 3 – 10 mins
c. 15 -20 mins
d. 1 -3 mins

9. Mrs. Pantaleon is experiencing true labor contractions. She describes the

discomforts as:

a. starting over the fundus, radiating downward to the cervix

b. radiating upward and downward from the umbilicus
c. localized over the fundus of the uterus
d. beginning at the lower back and abdomen radiating over entire
abdomen

10. The nurse is preparing the pregnant client for delivery. Care of the client
includes positioning the client. The client is expected to assume:

a. sims or semi- sitting position

b. lying on the side with head elevated
c. any position
d. lithotomy position

11. The nurse doing vaginal exam on a woman in labor records: 25% cm, -1.
The nurse understands it to be:

a. fetal presenting part is 1cm above the ischial spines

b. cervical dilation is 25% completed
c. progress of effacement is 5 cm completed
d. fetal presenting part is 1cm

12. Janice, a pregnant mother attends a nutrition class. Janice is placed on a

high protein diet. Janice should add to her meals:

a. rice and vegetables

b. fruits and vegetable
c. beans and rice
d. potato and carrots

13. Mrs. Rapas has just delivered a handsome baby boy. Mrs. Rapas asks
when she resume work? The nurse’s appropriate response is:

a. 6 weeks
b. 1 week
c. 3 weeks
d. 10 weeks

14. During the mother’s class, the nurse instructs women to submit regularly
for mammogram. Its important to schedule mammogram:

a. When they first become sexually active

b. once on a regular yearly basis
c. once a year for women older than 50 years
d. when lump is detected by self examination

15. Rica, is on her fifth monthly prenatal check-up. During the last three
visits, the nurse noted that Rica has slightly increased BP. The nurse expects
Rica’s brachial blood pressure reading is highest when is:

a. lying on the right side

b. supine
c. sitting
d. lying on the left side

Situation : Regular prenatal check-up is important to assess the progress of

pregnancy and to correct abnormalities.

16. Nurse Lisa is doing an assessment of a woman who thinks she is

pregnant. Lisa is positive that the woman is pregnant if she notes:

a. bluish cervix
b. fetal heart tones
c. facial chloasma
d. tenderness of the breast
17. During assessment , the client claims she is pregnant because she feels
the baby “flattering around”. Nurse Annie immediately considers this sign as
a:

a. negative sign
b, presumptive sign
c. positive sign
d. probable sign

18. The nurse is aware that one of the complications of pregnancy is

maternal death due to postpartal hemorrhage. The nurse’s best judgment of
postpartal hemorrhage is bleeding of:

a. 500 ml
b. 20 ml
c. 400ml
d. 300ml

19. When assessing Sharon’s amniotic fluid, the nurse expects these
findings:

a. cloudy with particles

b. odorless
c. crystallized ferming pattern
d. dark yellow

20. After delivery, the nurse checks for retained placenta. What is the
nurse’s immediate response for retained placenta?

a. uterine contraction
b. vaginal packing
c. uterine massage
d. administer stimulants

21. When caring for a client during the 2nd stage of labor, which of the following actions would be
least appropriate?

a. assisting the client with pushing

b. ensuring the clients legs are positioned appropriately
c. allowing the client clear liquid
d. d. monitoring fetal heart rate

22. During one of the health center visits, a pregnant woman asks what to do
with complaints of morning sickness. The nurse’s initial response is for the
pregnant woman to take:
a. iced tea
b. buttered bread
c. ice milk
d. crackers

23. The nurse is doing an assessment on Josie, 2 months pregnant for

complaints of nocturia. The nurse advised her to slow down on fluids at
night. While in bed, it is also best for Josie to assume:

a. side-lying position
b. sitting position
c. supine position
d. fowler’s position

24. A nurse prepares a 24 hour old newborn for discharge. While doing
assessment, the nurse notes that the respiratory status and expects the
respiration to be;

a. shallow and regular

b. grunting
c. irregular in rate and depth
d. with crackles on auscultation

25. One day old mother is alarmed when she saw baby holding his breath for
a few seconds and seemingly has stopped breathing. What is the nurse’s
initial response?

a. reassure parents that this is an expected pattern of breathing for

a newborn
b. call the physician
c. bring the newborn to the client
d. inform the parents to ignore this observation as their baby is healthy

26. Which of the following should be the nurse initial action immediately following the birth of the
baby?

a. aspirating mucus from the infants nose and mouth

b. drying the infant to stabilize infant's temperature
c. promoting parenteral bonding
d. identifying the newborn

27.The first stage of labor begins with

a. true labor contractions
b. full dilatation of the cervix
c. rupture of membranes
d. delivery of the baby
28. The second stage of labor begins with

a. delivery of the baby

b. full dilatation
c. rupture of the membrane
d. true labor contractions

29. The nurse shows a mother how to change the diaper of her 18-hr old
newborn. The mother then expresses concern about the bowel movement
that is dark black-green in color. The nurse’s appropriate actions is to:

a. explain to the mother that the stool called meconium is

characteristic of newborn’s first bowel stools
b. inquire if she took iron during pregnancy
c. inform the mother that the stool may harbor parasites
d. submit the stool for occult blood test

30. Another nurse’s responsibility is prevention of disease. One of the

mothers attending a mother’s class asks why babies are prone to infection.
The nurse is correct when she says:

a. their immune system is still undeveloped

b. all babies have antibodies from their mothers
c. babies are less exposed to harmful microorganism
d. skin of babies are quite intact

Situation: Allan is a high school student who wants to know more about the
reproductive system. He seeks consultation at the school clinic.

31. He asks the doctor, what body structure is responsible for the
production of Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) ? The nurse’s responses
will likely be;

a. testes
b. hypothalamus
c. anterior pituitary gland
d. kidney

32. Which of the function of vas deferens?

a. site of spermatogenesis
b. storage for spermatozoa
c. conduit for spermatozoa
 d. passage way for semen

33. The following are characteristics of normal sperms. Which one is not
included?

a. life span is 72 hrs

b. normal count is 60 – 120 million per ml
c. pH is acidic
d. volume per ejaculation in 3-5ml

34. A male gland located behind the bladder that is the source of about 60%
of seminal fluid?

a. cowper’s gland
b. prostate gland
c. seminal vesicles
d. testes

35. The normal volume and sperm content of seminal fluid per ejaculation
to be considered fertile is;

a. 1ml/100 million sperm cells

b. 3ml/300 million sperm cells
c. 3ml/30 million sperm cells
d. 1ml/ 20 million sperm cells

36. The male hormone testosterone, which maintains spermatogenesis, is

synthesized and released by;

a. semeniferous tubules
b. sertoli’s cells
c. seminal vesicles
d. leydig’s cells

37. The vas deferens is a;

a. storage for spermatozoa

b. conduit for spermatozoa
c. site of spermatozoa production
d. passageway for semen

38. Which part of the testes is responsible in the production of

spermatozoa?

a. seminiferous tubules
b. sertoli cells
 c. cortex
d. leydig cells

Situation : Ms. Emma Castillo is giving a lecture on Maternity nursing to a

group of graduating nursing students. She is currently discussing the
menstrual cycle.

39. The maturation and release of ovum is called;

a. fertilization
b. ovulation
c. conception
d. none of these

40. Which of the following follicles are actively producing hormones?

a. Primordial follicles and Graafian follicles

b. Corpus Luteum and corpus albicans
c. Corpus luteum and Graafian follicles
d. Primordial follicle and corpus albicans

41. Which of the following organs is not involved in hormone secretion?

a. ovaries
b. hypothalamus
c. uterus
d. pituitary gland

41. An adolescent girl asked how much blood is usually lost every
menstruation. The correct response to this question is:

a. from 2 to 4 tbsp of blood

b. from 2 to 4 tsp of blood
c. from 20 – 40 tbsp of blood
d. from 20 to 40 tsp of blood.

42. In the menstrual cycle, the proliferative phase which is characterized

by the growth of endometrium is under the influence of;

a. progesterone
b. estrogen
c. human chorionic gonadotropin
d. corpus luteum

43. In counting the days of menstrual cycle, day is the;

 a. first day of menstruation
b. last day of menstruation
c. day of ovulation
d. a day before ovulation

44. The sign of ovulation where the cervical mucus can be stretched 10 to
12 cm is known as:

a. mittelschmerz
b. spinnbarkheit
c. both of these
d. none of these

45. The temperature elevation seen just before or during ovulation is

caused by the:

a. thermogenic effect of progesterone

b. intraperitoneal irritation of the released ovum
c. thermogenic effect of estrogen and FSH
d. can be due to infection

46. Production of progesterone in a nonpregnant woman is a function of:

a. all of these
b. corpus luteum
c. ovum
d. graafian

47. Menstruation is ultimately due to:

a. progesterone withdrawal
b. progestin stimulation
c. estrogen withdrawal
d. estrogen stimulation

48. Which of the following regarding menarche is correct?

a. it occurs between ages 11 to 14

b. it is a sign of puberty
c. all of these
d. it is indicative of sexual maturity

49. The follicular phase of the ovarian cycle may be said to be synonymous
with:

a. proliferative phase of the endometrial cycle

 b. postovulatory phase of the ovarian cycle
c. secretory phase of the endometrial cycle
d. shedding of blood during the menstrual cycle.

50. . In a nutrition class, Amy a pregnant mother from a sectarian group

claims to be on strict vegetarian diet. The nurse should advise intake of:

a. Vit. C
b. Vit. B12
c. Vit D
d. Vit A

51. A pregnant woman was advised by the doctor to take folic acid. The
nurse explains that it is especially needed primarily because it:

a. assists in growth of heart and lungs

b. helps in coagulation of RBC
c. is essential for cell and RBC formation
d. helps in maternal circulation

52. . The nurse discovers a loop of the umbilical cord protruding through the
vagina when preparing to perform vaginal examination. The most
appropriate intervention is to:

a. call the physician immediately

b. place a moist clean towel over the cord to prevent drying
c. immediately turn the client on her side and listen to FHR
d. perform vaginal examination and apply upward digital pressure
to the presenting part while having the mother assume a knee-chest
position

53. . During augmentation of labor with IV oxytoxin, a multiparous client

becomes pale and diaphoretic and complains of severe lower abdominal pain
with a tearing sensation. Fetal distress is noted on the monitor. The nurse
should suspect?

a. precipitate labor
b. amniotic fluid embolus
c. rupture of the uterus
d. uterine prolapse

54. . A mother with mastitis is concerned about breast feeding while she has
an active infection. The nurse should explain that:

a. the infant is protected by immunoglobulin in the breast milk

b. the infant is not susceptible to the organism that cause mastitis
c. the organisms that cause mastitis is not passed in the milk
d. the organisms will be inactivated by gastric acid

55. Which of the following signs of thrombophlebitis must the nurse educate
the postpartal client to assess at home after discharge from the hospital?

a. muscle soreness in her legs after exercise

b. varicose veins in her legs
c. local tenderness , heat and swelling
d. bruising

56. Which of the following instruction should be included in the discharge

teaching plan to assist the postpartal client early signs of complications?

a. the passage of clots as large as an orange is expected

b. report any decrease in the amount of brownish red lochia
c. palpate the fundus daily to make sure it is soft
d. notify the health care provider for any increase in the amount of
lochia or a return to a bright red bleeding

57. Which of the following interventions is appropriate to help a lactating

client prevent mastitis?

a. apply vitamin E cream to soften nipple

b. wear a tight supportive bra
c. when the client’s nipple is sore, offer the infant a bottle
d. encourage the client to breastfed her infant frequently

58. Upon assessment of postpartal client the nurse observes symptoms of

infection. Which of the following symptoms indicate infection?

a. pinkish lochia
b. bradycardia
c. abdominal tenderness
d. oral temp of 99.2 F

59. After the delivery of a large for gestational age infant, a client is noted to
have bright red blood continuously tricking from the vagina. Her fundus is
firm and located in the midline. What is the most likely cause of the
bleeding?

a. lacerations
b. hematoma
c. uterine atony
d. retained fragments of conception
60. A client who is in the 1st trimester, is scheduled for an abdominal
ultrasound. When explaining the reason for early pregnancy ultrasound, the
nurse should tell the client which of the following?

a. the test will help to determine if your baby is in good position for delivery
b. the test will help to determine how many weeks you have been
pregnant
c. the test will help to determine if you have an intrauterine growth
restriction
d. the test will help to determine if you have enough amniotic fluid

61. The client’s prenatal education includes danger signs to report. Which of
the following, if reported would indicate that the client understood the
teaching?

a. dizziness and blurred vision

b. occasional nausea and vomiting
c. no BM for 3 days
d. ankle edema

Questions 62 – 64

A 35 year old woman, gravida 3 para 2 is first seen in the antepartal clinic at
16 weeks gestation. At 24 weeks the doctor notes that her uterus is enlarged
to size consistent with her at 24 weeks the doctor notes that her uterus is
enlarged to size inconsistent with her estimated twins. Polyhydramnious is
also noted.

62. Because of the presence of twins, the nurse would expect the patient to
have a greater than the usual likelihood of which discomfort of pregnancy?

a. breast tenderness
b. leucorrhea
c. varicose veins
d. urinary tract infections

63. The doctor tells the patient that her delivery will probably be slightly
premature because this is very common with twins. Her chances of having a
premature delivery are further increased by:

a. an excessive weight gain

b.vulvar varicosities
c. recurrent vaginal infections
d. polyhydramnios
64. The pastient goes into premature labor at 35 weeks. Which of the
following complications of labor would the nurse anticipate because of her
polyhydramnios?

a. vaginal bleeding
b. ineffective uterine contractions
c. decrease in fetal heart rate
d. cephalopelvic disproportion

Questions 65 – 56

A 28 year old woman is 8 months pregnant. When she awakened this

morning, she found herself lying in a pool of blood. She states that she was
hospitalized in her seventh month for a bleeding episode. She does not have
any pain associated with the bleeding.

65. Upon the patient’s admission to the labor room, the nurse should plan
the interventions on the assumptions that the patient’s diagnosis is most:

a. abruption placenta
b. Placenta previa
c. dystocia
d.ruptured uterus

66. A client in the 13th week of pregnancy develops hyperemesis gravidarum.

Which laboratory finding indicates the need for intervention?

a. urine specific gravity of 1,010

b. serum potassium level of 4Eq/dl
c. serum sodium 140 mEq/dl
d. ketones in the urine

67. The nurse is reviewing the client’s prenatal history. Which finding
indicates a genetic risk factor?

a. the client is 25 yr old

b. the client has a child with cystic fibrosis
c. the client was exposed to rubella at 25 weeks gestation
d. the client has a history of preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation

68. While bottle feeding her neonate, a post partum client asks the nurse
when she can expect her menstrual period to return. How should the midwife
respond?

a. in 1 – 2 weeks
b. in 3 – 4 weeks
c. in 7 – 9 weeks
d. in 10 – 12 weeks

69. An early detection of ectopic pregnancy is paramount to preventing a life

threatening-rupture. Which symptoms should the nurse to the possibility of
an ectopic pregnancy?

a. abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding. And a positive pregnancy

b. hyperemesis and weight loss
c. amenorrhea and negative pregnancy test
d. copious discharge of clear mucous and prolonged epigastric pain

70. A client who is being admitted to labor and delivery room has the
following assessment findins:

gravida 2 para 1, estimated 40 weeks gestation, contractions 2 minutes

apart, lasting 45 seconds, vertex +4 station. Which of the following would be
the priority at this time?

a. placing the client in bed to begin in fetal monitoring

b. preparing for immediate delivery
c. checking for ruptured membranes
d. providing comfort measures

71. In the maternal attachment process, which of the following best

describes an anticipated actions in the taking hold phase?

a. mother’s needs being met first

b. looking at the infant
c. kissing embracing and caring for the child
d. talking about the baby

72. For a client who is fully dilated, which of the following actions would be
inappropriate during the second stage of labor?

a. positioning the mother for effective pushing

b, preparing for the delivery of the baby
c. assessing vital signs every 15 mins
d. assessing for rupture of membrane

73. A client is 8 weeks pregnant. Which teaching topic is most appropriate at

this time?

a. breathing techniques during labor

b. common discomforts of pregnancy
c. infant care responsibilities
d. neonatal nutrition

74. A client who is moving into active phase of labor, the nurse should
include which of the following as priority care?

a. offer support by reviewing the short pant form of breathing

b. administer a narcotic analgesia per doctor’s order
c. allow the mother to walk around the unit
d. watch for the rupture of the membrane

75. During an annual check-up a client tells the nurse that she and her
husband have decided to start a family . Ideally when should the nurse plan
for childbirth education to begin and end?

a. begin early in the 3rd trimester and end 1 month after delivery
b. begin before conception and end 3 months after delivery
c. begin when the client learns that she is pregnant and end after delivery
d. begin at 5 months gestation and end at facility discharge

76. During the 4th stage of labor the client should be carefully assessed for:

a. uterine atony
b. complete cervical dilatation
c. placental expulsion
d. umbilical cord prolapse

77. Weng complains of constipation. The nurse should explain that

constipation frequently occurs during pregnancy because of:

a. pressure of the growing uterus on the anus

b. increased intake of milk as recommended during pregnancy
c. the slowing of peristalsis in the GIT
d. changes in the metabolic rate

78. Weng begins labor close to her expected date of delivery and is admitted
to the hospital. The nurse notices a gush of fluid from the client’s vagina.
After checking the FHR the nurse should:

a. notify the physician immediately about the gush of fluid from the vagina
b. place the client in modified lithotomy position and inspect the
perineum
c. keep the client flat in bed and elevate the legs
d. place the client on her side and obtain her BP
79. After several hours of labor the physician orders oxytocin. When a client
in labor is being infused with oxytocin, it is the nurse’s role:

a. obtain a physician order to slow the IV in the presence of hypertonic

contractions
b. flush the IV tubing if the flow slows with the staff nurse permission
c. shut off the IV in the presence of hypertonic contractions and
report to the nurse
d. monitor fetal heart tones every 2 hours

Questions 80- 84
Jane 2 ½ months pregnant comes to the prenatal clinic for the first time.

80. Jane asks the clinic nurse how smoking will affect the baby. The nurse’s
answer reflects the following knowledge:

a. fetal and maternal circulation are separated by the placental barrier

b. the placenta is permeable to specific substances
c. smoking relieves tension and the fetus responds accordingly
d. vasoconstriction will affect both fetal and maternal blood vessels

81. Jane is concerned about the mask of pregnancy. The dark nipples and the
dark line from her navel to her pubis. The nurse explains that these
adaptations are caused by the hyperactivity of the:

a. adrenal gland
b. thyroid gland
c. ovaries
d. pituitary gland

82. Jane complains of morning sickness. The nurse realizes that a

predisposing factor that causes morning sickness during the 1 st trimester of
pregnancy is the adaptation to increased level of:

a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. luteinizing hormone
d. chorionic gonadotropin

83. The nurse can help Jane overcome morning sickness by suggesting she:

a. eat morning until the nausea subsides

b. take an antacid before bedtime
c. request her physician to prescribe her anti-emetic
d. eat dry toasted bread before arising
84. Jane delivers a healthy baby boy. Two days postpartum, after receiving a
phone call from her babysitter informing her that her 2 yr old has been very
upset since her admission to the hospital and not eating. Jane decided to ask
for discharge out of the hospital. Staff members have been unable to contact
her physician. Jane is ready to leave and asks that her infant to be given to
her to dress and take home. Appropriate action would be:

a. explain to Jane that her infant must remain in the hospital until discharged
by the physician.
b. allow Jane time with the baby to cuddle him before she leaves but
emphasize that the baby is a minor and legally must remain until orders for
discharge are received.
c. tell Jane that under the circumstances hospital policy prevents the staff
from releasing the infant into her care, but she will be informed when he is
discharged
d. give the baby to Jane to take home making sure she receives
information regarding care and feeding of a 2 day old infant and any
potential problem that may develop.

85. During her 4th clinic visit, a client who is 5 months pregnant tells the
nurse that she was exposed rubella during the past week and asks whether
she can be immunized now. How would the nurse respond?

a. yes, but immunization against rubella requires a physician order

b. No, because the live viral vaccine is contraindicated during
pregnancy.
c. yes, and you should consider pregnancy termination because rubella has a
teratogenic effect
d. no because the vaccine can be given only during 1st trimester of
pregnancy

86. When caring for a client during the 2nd stage of labor, which of the
following actions would be least appropriate?

a. assisting the client with pushing

b. ensuring the clients legs are positioned appropriately
c. allowing the client clear liquid
d. monitoring fetal heart rate

87. Which of the following should be the nurse initial action immediately
following the birth of the baby?

a. aspirating mucus from the infants nose and mouth

b. drying the infant to stabilize infants temperature
c. promoting parenteral bonding
d. identifying the newborn

Question 88 - 90

Cathy, age 21 is 37 weeks pregnant. She is admitted to the hospital with

preeclampsia and sudden abdominal pain.

88. On Cathy’s admission to the unit the nurse should observe for:

a. decrease in size of uterus, cessation of contractions, visible or concealed

hemorrhage
b. firm and tender uterus, concealed or external hemorrhage, shock
c. increase in size uterus, visible bleeding, no associated pain
d. shock, decrease in size uterus, absence of external bleeding

89. The nurse realizes that the abdominal pain associated with abruption
placenta is caused by:

a. hemorrhagic shock
b. inflammatory reactions
c. blood in the uterine muscle
d. concealed hemorrhage

90. Cathy delivers a stillborn babygirl. To foster a healthy grieving response

to the birth of stillborn child, the nurse best response to an expression of
anger from Cathy would be:

a. it is God’s will we have to have faith that it was for the best
b. you are wrong you will have other children
c. this is often happens when something is wrong with the baby
d. you maybe wondering if something you did caused this

Questions 91 - 93

Christine , 9 months pregnant is admitted to the hospital with bleeding

caused by possible placenta previa. The laboratory technician takes blood
samples and IV fluids are begun.

91. The nurse is attending with a client with oxygen by mask. The client’s
apprehension is increasing and she asked the nurse what is happening. The
nurse tells her not to worry that she is going to be all right and everything is
under control. The nurse statements are:

a. correct, since only the physician should explain why treatment are being
done
b. proper, since the client’s anxieties would be increased if she knew the
dangers
c. adequate, since all preparations are routine and need no explanation.
d. questionable, since the client has the right to know what
treatment is being given and why

92.. Care for Christine includes:

a. withholding foods and fluids

b. encouraging ambulation and supervision
c. inspecting the hemorrhage
d. avoiding all extraneous stimuli

93. If a vaginal examination is to be performed on Christine, the nurse should

be prepared for an immediate:

a. induction of labor
b. cesarean section
c. forceps delivery
d. x-ray examination

Questions 94 - 95

Audril is 27 yr old, gravida 1 para o with a childhood history of rheumatic

fever. She has been admitted to the hospital at 35 weeks gestation because
of shortness of breath.

94. Normal hemodynamics of pregnancy that affect the pregnant cardiac

client include the:

a. decrease in the number of RBC

b. rise in cardiac output after the 34th week
c. gradually increasing size of the uterus
d. cardiac acceleration in the last half of pregnancy

95. Shortly after admission. Audril goes into labor. To prevent cardiac
decompensation during labor the nurse should:

a. position Audril on her side with shoulders elevated

b. maintain an IV infusion of potassium chloride
c. administer sodium IV infusion with the IV nurse
d. administer oxytocin to strengthen contractions with doctor’s order

96. Intervention of a women in premature labor includes:

a. reassuring that the situation is under control

b. explaining why pain medication is kept at a minimum
c. encouraging her not to bear down
d. keeping her NPO to prevent abdominal distention

97. During the post partal period it is not uncommon for a new mother to
have an increased cardiac output with tachycardia. The nurse should
observe the client carefully for signs of:

a. irregular pulse
b. respiratory distress
c. increased vaginal bleeding
d. hypovolemic shock

98. The nurse is caring for a woman who is in labor. She is 8cm dilated. To
support her during this phase of labor the nurse should:

a. leave her alone most of the time

b. offer her back rub during contraction
c. offer her sips of oral fluid
d. provide her with warm blanket

99. A woman who is gravida 1 is in the active phase of labor. The fetal
position is LOA. When the membranes rupture , the nurse should expect to
see:

a. a large amount of bloody fluid

b. a moderate amount of clear to straw colored fluid
c. a small amount of greenish fluid
d. a small segment of the umbilical cord

100. A woman’s cervix is completely dilated with the head at -2 station. The
head has not descended in the past hour. What is the most appropriate initial
assessment for the nurse to make?

a. assess to determine if the client’s bladder is distended

b. send the client for x-ray to determine fetal size
c. notify the surgical team so that an operative delivery can be planned
d. assess fetal status, including fetal heart tones , and scalp ph