Operational Procedures (CAAB)
Operational Procedures (CAAB)
Operational Procedures (CAAB)
Operational Procedures
Chapter – 01
1. Decision Altitude (DA) or Decision Height (DH) is defined as a specified vertical
displacement in a approach procedure at which a must be initiated if the required visual
reference to continue the approach has not been established. Which of the following
combinations correctly completes the definition?
1. Non precision.
2. Precision.
3. Go around.
4. Missed Approach.
a. I and 3.
b. 2 and 4.
c. 2 and 3.
d. I and 4.
2. Minimum Descent Height (MDH) or Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) is defined as:
a. A specific height or altitude in a precision approach or circling approach below which
descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
b. The lowest height or altitude to which an approach may be flown using the autopilot.
c. A specific height or altitude in a non- precision approach or circling approach below
which descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
d. The lowest safe height or attitude for any type of approach including visual approaches.
6. Pilots and members of flight crews are to be familiar with the laws, regulations and
procedures applicable to:
a. The aerodromes they are using in the line of duty.
b. The airspace of all states.
c. Customs, health and Immigration of all ICAO Contracting States.
d. The national civil aviation authority of the State of Registration.
7. Commanders of aircraft are to have on board essential information for the route to be flown
which covers:
a. Landing and navigation fees applicable.
b. Customs and Excise regulations for all destinations and diversion aerodromes.
c. Search and Rescue.
d. Agreements (multi-lateral or bi-lateral) relating to International Air Transport.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
8. Who has the responsibility for the maintenance of Flight Safety and Accident Prevention
Programmes?
a. The Operator.
b. The Pilot-in-Command.
c. The Authority.
d. ICAO.
9. Which of the following statements correctly describes what an operator must demonstrate
before the issue of an Air Operators Certificate (AOC).
1. Organisation, method of control and supervision of flight operations.
2. Training programs.
3. Maintenance arrangements.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 3
10. The carriage of dangerous goods in airplanes is the subject of specific rules and regulations.
Operators are specifically required to:
a. Inspect the content of any consignment to ensure that the consignee has correctly
labeled the contents.
b. Ensure that the relevant regulations are complied with.
c. Specify what materials constitute dangerous goods.
d. Specify the manner in which dangerous goods are to be labeled.
12. A person qualified to taxi an airplane must have received instruction from a competent
person concerning which of the following:
1. Aerodrome layout.
2. Signs.
3. Markings.
4. ATC signals and instructions.
13. If an operator specifies a minimum flight altitude for a route, it must be:
a. Equal to or lower than that specified by the State over which the flight is being flown.
b. Not below FL 100.
c. Not less than the flight altitudes specified by the State for the same route.
d. A flight level.
14. Who is responsible for approving methods of calculating minimum flight altitudes?
a. CAAB.
b. The State of the Operator.
c. The Operator.
d. ICAO.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
15. Which combination of the following correctly details the factors that should be considered
by an Operator when determining MEA?
1. Possible inaccuracies in charts for the route.
2. Characteristics of the terrain to be over-flown.
3. The composition of the flight crew.
4. The likelihood of encountering unfavorable weather.
5. Altimeter inaccuracies.
6. Airspace restrictions.
7. Navigation inaccuracies.
17. Who is responsible for authorizing the method of calculation of aerodrome operating minima
(AOM)?
a. ATC at the aerodrome.
b. The Pilot-in-Command.
c. The State of the Operator.
d. The Operator.
18. Which of the following is not considered when establishing aerodrome operating minima
(AOM)?
a. The frequency of meteorological reports.
b. Adequacy and provision of ground aids.
c. Dimensions and characteristics of runways.
d. The competence and experience of flight crews.
19. In calculating AOM which of the following is/are taken into consideration?
a. The height of obstacles in the missed approach area.
b. Obstacles in the climb-out areas over 150m (495ft) AGL.
c. All obstacles within l5km of the threshold over 150m (495ft AMSL).
d. Obstacles 8km either side of track.
20. Who is responsible for ensuring that all passengers are briefed before take-of.
a. The Operator.
b. The Pilot-in-Command.
c. The State of the Operator.
d. The Senior Flight Attendant.
21. When are passengers required to be briefed about the location and use of life jackets?
a. When required by the Operator.
b. When the Pilot-in-Command authorizes the use of life jackets.
c. If the carriage of life Jackets in the airplane is required.
d. Where flight over water (including lakes and rivers) is likely.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
22. Passengers are to be secured in their seats by seat belts or harnesses during take-off and
landing, turbulence and an emergency. When also must they be secured?
a. During climb and descent.
b. During a practice emergency.
c. Whilst asleep with the seat fully reclined.
d. Whenever the precaution is considered necessary.
24. Before any flight is commenced, forms must be completed certifying, amongst other things,
that the aircraft is airworthy. Who must be satisfied that all the pre-flight requirements have
been complied with?
a. The Flight Dispatcher.
b. The Pilot-in-Command.
c. The Flight Operations Manager.
d. The Operator.
25. How long is the Operator to retain completed flight preparation forms for?
a. 48 hours.
b. I year.
c. 6 months.
d. 3 months.
27. If it is not possible to file a copy of the OFP with the Operator (or agent) it should be:
a. Posted to the Operator (a certificate of proof of posting is required).
b. Taken in a sealed envelope to the next aerodrome where the Operator or agent has a
representative.
c. Left with the aerodrome authorities.
d. Sent to the authority within 10 days.
29. An Operational Flight Plan (OFP) must specify the take-off alternate (diversion) aerodrome
for use in the event of a flight emergency shortly after take-off when:
a. The RVR and cloud ceiling at the departure aerodrome is below minima.
b. The length of runway at the departure aerodrome is not long enough to allow the aircraft
to roll to a standstill if the brakes fall.
c. The aircraft is carrying dangerous goods and a full fuel load.
d. There is insufficient time to jettison fuel to landing weight to use the departure
aerodrome.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
30. Which of the following are valid criteria for a take-off diversion aerodrome?
a. Not more than 2 hours flying distance for a twin-engined airplane.
b. Not less than 2 hours flying distance for 3-engined airplane with one engine out.
c. Not more than I hour flying distance for any airplane with one engine out.
d. 2 hours or less flying time at 'one engine out' cruise speed for a 4-engined airplane.
35. For any flight a quantity of fuel must be carried to ensure that:
a. The flight can be safely completed with a reserve for contingencies.
b. The flight can be safely completed taking into account the weather, load, aerodrome
criteria, and flight characteristics of the airplane.
c. The airplane is not over landing mass at the destination.
d. In the event of an emergency, fuel does not have to be Jettisoned over land.
36. For a propeller driven airplane, sufficient fuel must be carried to cater for flight to:
a. The nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and
then remain airborne for a further 15 minutes.
b. The nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and
then remain airborne for a further 30 minutes.
c. The nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and
then remain airborne for a further 45 minutes.
d. The nominated destination and then to the most fuel consumption critical alternate and
then remain airborne for a further 60 minutes.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
37. For a propeller driven airplane, sufficient fuel must be carried when a destination alternate
is not required (VMC situation), to allow flight to the destination and then remain airborne
for a minimum of:
a. 45 minutes.
b. hours.
C. 15% of the flight planned cruising time plus 45 minutes.
d. 15% of the flight planned cruising time plus 2 hours.
38. If a turbo-jet engined airplane has a nominated destination diversion aerodrome and the
Pilot-in-Command decides to attempt a landing at the nominated destination, the airplane
must carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination alternate after:
a. Carrying out an instrument approach to DH/A and then climbing to the nominated
cruising level en-route to the diversion aerodrome.
b. Flying an approach and a missed approach.
c. Making a straight in approach to MDH/A, then one circling approach before diverting.
d. Flying an approved instrument approach procedure.
39. The Pilot-in-Command of a turbo-jet engined airplane, in deciding how much fuel to include
for diversion to a destination alternate, must include a quantity of fuel necessary:
a. To fly to the flight planned destination alternate and thereafter for 30 minutes at holding
speed at 1,500ft.
b. To remain airborne above the nominated destination for 30 minutes at I 000ft above tile
aerodrome plus an amount for contingencies.
c. To fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at FL50 above the destination aerodrome.
d. To fly at holding speed at FL50 for 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising
altitude.
40. If passengers are on board an airplane, or are embarking or disembarking, which of the
following is correct?
a. Refueling is not permitted under any circumstances.
b. Refueling is permitted provided qualified ground crew are in attendance.
c. Refueling is only permitted providing no communications equipment is used in the
vicinity of the airplane.
d. Refueling is permitted only if qualified cabin staff (able to direct an immediate
evacuation) are in attendance.
41. What is the maximum cabin altitude at which an airplane can be flown without provision of
oxygen for crew and passengers?
a. 620hPa (13 000 ft).
b. 700hPa (10 000 ft).
c. 376hPa (25 000 ft).
d. 500hPa (18 000 ft).
42. "If a flight is to be conducted where the atmospheric pressure is less than ……….. (1) hPa
but the airplane cannot descend within …………(2) minutes to 13 000ft, then not less than
………..(3) minutes supply of oxygen is to be carried for all the occupants of the airplane."
From the following select the combination that correctly completes the statement.
(1) (2) (3)
a. 500 5 5
b. 500 5 10
c. 376 4 5
d. 376 4 10
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
44. If information indicates that at ETA a landing at the destination or one of the destination
alternates would not be possible within the established minima, then:
a. The flight may continue provided an en-route alternate (diversion) aerodrome will
remain open throughout the duration of the flight.
b. The flight may continue if the operator authorizes reduced minima.
c. The flight may not continue.
d. The flight may continue providing sufficient holding fuel (2 hours plus 15% of cruising
fuel) is carried as a contingency load.
45. When are all flight crew members required to be at their duty stations?
a. In an emergency.
b. In IMC.
c. During an instrument approach where the RVR is at minima.
d. For routine take-offs and landings.
46. During the en-route phase of a flight, all flight crew are to remain at their duty stations.
Which of the following are permitted exceptions from this rule?
1. To use the toilet facilities.
2. To assist the cabin staff to serve the food.
3. In the performance of crew duty.
4. During required rest periods.
5. When properly relieved by a replacement crew member.
47. When flight crew members are at their duty stations they must:
a. Fully fasten the safety harness.
b. Wear a communications head set.
c. Fully raise the seat.
d. Keep the seat belts fastened.
48. During take off and landing, flight crew members occupying a pilot's seat Must have the seat
harness fully fastened. Other flight crew members may:
a. Dispense with the harness.
b. Dispense with the shoulder straps if they interfere with the performance of duty.
c. Sit on the floor if there are no spare seats.
d. Dispense with the harness in all cases except during an emergency.
49. Where the use of oxygen is prescribed, flight crew members are to:
a. Use oxygen continuously.
b. Use oxygen for 10% of the time.
c. Use oxygen at all times providing the equipment does not impair operational
performance.
d. Only use oxygen at night.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
50. If, during a flight, the Pilot-in-Command wishes to change the profile of a cleared night plan,
he must:
a. Inform the Operator.
b. Inform ATC.
c. Do nothing until ATC clears the change.
d. Inform the Authority within 10 days.
51. Who is responsible for completing the journey log or the general declaration?
a. The Operator.
b. The Pilot-in-Command.
c. The Purser.
d. The Flight Engineer.
52. Who is responsible for notifying the nearest appropriate authority by the quickest means
possible of any accident involving an airplane resulting in serious injury or death of any
person or substantial damage to the airplane or property?
a. The Operator.
b. The ATCC in the State in or over which the airplane was being flown.
c. The Pilot-in-Command.
d. A CAAB approved person or a Police Officer.
53. A Flight Operations Officer (or Flight Dispatcher) when on duty, is responsible for:
a. Filing the ATS flight plan.
b. Preparing the route flight plan.
c. Compiling the Operational Flight Plan.
d. Loading the airplane.
54. The Flight Operations Officer is responsible to the Operator for initiating the procedures
defined in the operations manual in the event of an emergency, providing such action does
not conflict with procedures established by which of the following:
1. ATC.
2. The meteorological service.
3. The communications service.
55. Which of the following factors do not affect the performance of airplanes:
1. The aircraft category.
2. The take-off mass.
3. Outside air temperature.
4. The gradient of the runway.
5. Visibility.
56. In order to comply with the mass limitations for take-off and en-route flying (including
'engine out' situations) the mass of the airplane at engine start must not exceed:
a. Maximum take-off mass.
b. Maximum take-off mass plus an allowance for taxiing to the runway in use.
c. Maximum take-off mass plus any contingency fuel required by the operator.
d. Maximum take-off mass plus an allowance for the difference in temperature between
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
57. The landing mass of an airplane must take which of the following into consideration:
a. Noise abatement procedures.
b. Aircraft wake turbulence category.
c. Maximum single wheel loading factor for the runway to be used.
d. Taxiing distance from the end of the duty runway to the unloading bay.
58. For an airplane with three engines or more, the take-off mass must be such that in the event
of two engines failing anywhere along the route:
a. The fuel jettison time to maximum landing mass must not exceed 10 minutes.
b. There must always be sufficient fuel remaining to continue to the planned destination.
c. There must be sufficient fuel to fly to the planned destination or an en-route alternate.
d. The fuel must allow the flight to continue to planned destination at the best 'two engine
out' height.
59. In order to comply with noise abatement requirements, the mass at take-off must not exceed
the stated relevant maximum unless:
a. The Operator has unauthorized non-compliance.
b. The use of a runway with no noise problem has been authorized.
c. In an emergency and the authority is informed within 10 days.
d. The Pilot-in-Command decides that compliance with noise abatement procedures will
endanger his aircraft and the passengers.
60. In the event of a critical power unit failing during the take-off run, the airplane shall be able
to:
a. Stop on the runway always.
b. Stop on the runway if the failure occurs before V, providing the runway length is greater
than the Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA).
c. Continue the flight without reduction in aircraft performance.
d. After V,, take-off and clear obstacles by an adequate margin until en-route flying
conditions can be maintained.
61. Which of the following is correct when calculating the length of the runway available?
a. The overall length less the slope factor (runway length x cos angle of slope).
b. The overall length plus the length of the overrun.
c. The overall length less any distance lost in lining tip.
d. The overall length plus the slope factor (runway length x cos angle of slope).
62. The Operator is responsible for the provision of an operating manual. It is to be relevant to:
a. Operations staff and flight crew, and specific to aircraft type.
b. All the operators' employees and all the operations conducted.
c. The type of general aviation operations undertaken under an AOC.
d. All aircraft types with a max take-off mass exceeding 5 700kg
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
64. Medical equipment is to be carried on aircraft usually in the form of first aid kits. On
airplanes certified to carry more than a specified number of passengers, a kit for use by
medically qualified personnel is to be carried. The specified number of passengers is:
a. 21
b. 51
c. 100
d. 250
65. Three first aid kits are required to be carried on an airplane which is:
a. Fitted with 180 passenger seats.
b. Authorized to carry 180 passengers.
c. Carrying 180 passengers.
d. Is carrying passengers.
67. Portable fire extinguishers fitted to airplanes must be of such a type that when discharged
within the confines of the airplane, the extinguishant:
a. Is not corrosive.
b. Is electrically inert.
c. Will not dangerously contaminate the air in the cabin.
d. Is not inflammable.
70. Which of the following is correct concerning the marking of 'break - in' areas?
a. Must be painted red on a white background with the comers more than I m apart.
b. Must be painted either red or white on a yellow background.
c. Must be painted either red or yellow, on a white background if necessary.
d. Intermediate lines are to be painted if the comer markings are more than 1m apart.
73. Which of the following correctly describes the construction and fitting of a FDR?
a. Painted red and fitted as far aft as possible.
b. Connected so as to record continuously powered from a battery busbar.
c. Painted a distinctive colour and powered from the essential busbar.
d. Fitted with a floatation device and an underwater location aid.
74. Which of the combinations of statements describes what a cockpit voice recorder records?
1. Radio communications transmitted from the aircraft.
2. Speech on the flight deck.
3. Interphone communications.
4. Navigation/Approach aid ident signals heard in headsets or speakers.
5. PA system communication in the aircraft.
75. Which of the following correctly describes the operation of a cockpit voice recorder?
a. It shall not be switched off whilst the engines are running.
b. Must be on at all times when crew are on board the airplane.
c. Shall be switched off after an accident and not reactivated until recordings have been
transcribed.
d. Must be switched on and checked for correct operation during the pre-flight checks, then
switched to stand-by until the airplane is ready to taxi so that the ATC clearance and
read-back are recorded.
78. For a land based aero plane, sea survival equipment is to be carried:
a. When flying over water more than 50 Km from the shore where the en-route 'engine out'
limitations apply.
b. When flying en-route over water beyond gliding distance from shore.
c. When taking off or landing at an aerodrome where, in the opinion of the Operator there
is a danger of the aero plane ditching due to the proximity of water.
d. In all aero planes.
79. If an aero plane is flying over water more than 120 minutes flying time or 400nm from land
suitable for a forced landing (whichever is the lesser) additional sea survival equipment is to
be carried. This must include:
a. Electronic locator beacons (ELBs).
b. Distress flares.
c. Multi seat life rafts with sufficient overload space for all the passengers and crew.
d. Immersion suits (quick don type).
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
81. Aero planes being operated over a specified altitude are required to carry equipment that
continuously monitors the dose rate of cosmic radiation. The specified altitude is:
a. 15 000 ft.
b. 36 090 ft.
c. 49 000 ft.
d. 66 000 ft.
84. For GPWS a specified number of warnings is to be given for hazardous conditions. The
specified number is:
a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8
86. The purpose of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is to enable the to determine
whether a flight may commence or continue from any intermediate stop, should
...................... become inoperative. Which of the following completes the statement:
a. Maintenance Supervisor any systems or equipment.
b. Chief Steward the galley equipment.
c. Operator any aircraft safety system.
d. Pilot-In-Command any instruments, systems or equipment.
87. The purpose of the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) is:
a. To permit the Authority to specify what equipment must be carried in an aircraft with
max take off mass greater than 5 700 kg.
b. To permit one MEL to exist for the operator's entire fleet of aero planes.
c. To pen-nit the operator to change the content of the MEL whilst keeping a master copy
in an un-amended state.
d. Provide information and instructions to enable an Operator to produce its own MEL.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
89. Aero planes are to be equipped with Radio equipment capable of-
a. Receiving ATC communications.
b. Receiving meteorological information at any time during the flight.
c. Communications on the Aeronautical Distress/Emergency frequency (121.50OKliz).
d. Being tuned to all the aeronautical mobile stations along the route being flown.
90. Aircraft are to be fitted with navigation equipment which will enable it to proceed:
a. In accordance with the Operational Flight Plan.
b. Along the prescribed RNP routes.
c. Between two reporting points on an airway.
d. In accordance with any ATC clearance received.
92. In an area where vertical separation minima (VSM) of 300m (1000 ft) Is applied for flight
above FL290, equipment has to be fitted to the aero plane capable of warning the crew when
deviation from the selected flight level occurs. The warning threshold for deviation from
selected level is:
a. 100ft.
b. 200ft.
c. 300ft.
d. 500ft.
93. The interaction of one electronic system with another (e.g. Doppler radar and inertial
system) requires that the installation of the system is such that:
a. The systems mutually fail-safe.
b. The failure of one system doesn't cause a failure of the other.
c. The systems mutually fall passive.
d. The systems mutually fall operational.
94. Before any flight is commenced, forms have to be completed certifying that the aero plane is
airworthy. Who has to be satisfied that the aero plane is airworthy?
a. The Pilot-in-Command.
b. The Operations Officer.
c. The Maintenance Supervisor.
d. A JAA authorized person.
95. Which of the following is NOT required to be certified by the pilot before a flight
commences:
a. The load is distributed and secured property.
b. A full fuel load is on board.
c. The mass and C of G are within limits.
d. A maintenance release has been issued for the aero plane.
96. Where is the number and composition of the flight crew specified?
a. In FCOM.
b. In TM.
c. On the C of A.
d. In Annex 6 part 2.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
97. If a Flight Engineer's position is incorporated on the flight deck, is it mandatory for the
flight crew always to include a flight engineer'!
a. Yes.
b. No, providing the Flight Engineer's duty can be performed by another flight crew
member holding the appropriate licence without detriment to his/her primary duty.
c. No, if the planned flight duration (including flight time required to divert to the furthest
alternate) is less than 3 hours.
d. No, if the aero plane is certified to carry more than 31 passengers and less than 30 are on
board.
99. What requirements must be fulfilled before a pilot is appointed Pilot-in-Command by the
Operator'?
a. He/she must have flown a total of not less than 3 000 hours on type.
b. He/she must have made at least 3 take-offs and landings in the same type in the
preceding 90 days.
c. He/she must have held a First Officer's position on type for 13 months.
d. He/she must have flown a total of not less than 1000 hours on type and have held a First
Officer's position on type with the current Operator for 3 months.
100. One of the additional qualifications a pilot must have for the appointment as Pilot-in-
Command by an Operator is to be currently qualified to fly the route intended. Which
combination of the following correctly details the requirements that satisfy 'route
knowledge'?
I. Knowledge of the terrain and minimum safe altitudes.
2. Knowledge of the Search and Rescue procedures.
3. Knowledge of seasonal meteorological conditions and Met communications.
4. Knowledge of ATC procedures and facilities.
5. Knowledge of long range navigational procedures.
6. Knowledge of 'route' aerodromes and facilities and procedures.
101. In order for a pilot to be appointed co-pilot at the controls of an aero plane for take-off and
landing he/she must have:
a. Served as First Officer on any type of aero plane flown by the Operator.
b. Passed a 'safety pilot' assessment in a current type simulator and be current on type.
c. Demonstrated competence to act as a co-pilot.
d. Served as Pilot-M-Command of an aero plane in the last 90 days.
102. The Operator is required to carry out checks of the proficiency of pilots. Which of the
following is not a discipline requiring checking?
a. Piloting technique.
b. Air Traffic Control procedures.
c. Execution of emergency procedures.
d. Compliance with IFR (where IFR operations are part of the pilot's duty).
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
108. If an aero plane that is registered in State A is being operated by an Operator registered in
State B and flown over State C (all of which are ICAO contracting States), and is unlawfully
interfered with. the Pilot-in-Command is to report the occurrence:
a. Immediately to the Authority of State A.
b. As soon as possible to the Authority of State B.
c. Without delay to the Authority in State C.
d. Routinely to the ATCU currently controlling the flight.
Chapter – 02
01. Why are Operators required to establish a quality control system?
a. To give the travelling public reassurance that the operation is properly regulated.
b. So that they can display the EN ISO 9000 logo on their headed note paper.
c. To ensure safe operational practices and airworthy aeroplanes.
d. To ensure that CAAB requirements are complied with.
3. With regard to additional crew members, what are Operators required to ensure?
a. They are trained in all safety aspects of the aeroplane.
b. They are trained to help cabin crew members with their duties.
c. They are trained in. and proficient to perform, their assigned duties.
d. They are trained in all the emergency evacuation procedures.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
5. No persons other than flight crew are normally allowed on the flight deck. Which of the
following correctly identifies permitted exceptions?
a. Invited passengers; Cabin crew members; CAAB approved persons.
b. Cabin crew members; CAAB approved persons; Personnel permitted by the Operations
Manual.
c. Cabin crew members; Police Officers; Personnel permitted by the operations manual.
d. Operators employees; Cabin crew members; CAAB approved persons.
6. What must the commander ensure that all those on the flight deck are familiar with"
a. Check lists.
b. Standard operating procedures (SOPs).
c. Contents of the Operations Manual.
d. Safety procedures.
9. Which combination of the following list of documents correctly identifies those that must be
carried on each flight?
1. Certificate of Registration (C of R).
2. Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A).
3. Noise certificate.
4. Air Operators Certificate (AOC).
5. Aircraft radio licence.
6. Third party liability Insurance certificates.
7. Crew licences with appropriate ratings.
a. 1, 2, 5 and 7.
b. 1, 2 and 7.
C. 2, 5 and 7.
d. All of them.
11. Which of the following forms or information are required to be carried on all flights?
1. The Operational Flight Plan (OFP).
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
a. All except 1.
b. All except 3.
C. All except 6.
d. All except 4.
12. Certain documents are to be retained by the Operator on the ground. If it is not possible to
leave the documents in safe custody such that in the event of their being required in the
course of an accident investigation or for any reason given by the authority, they may be:
a. Kept in the personal possession of the Commander.
b. Carried on the aeroplane and stored in a document case in the cargo/luggage bay.
c. Carried on the aeroplane providing they are stowed in a fireproof container.
d. Posted by registered mail to the Operator, or taken by bonded courier.
13. The operator is required to ensure that certain persons are to be permitted access to the
flight deck providing the Commander is satisfied that his aeroplane is not endangered. Who
are the permitted personnel?
a. CAAB qualified engineers.
b. IATA Quality Assurance assessors.
c. Security Officers.
d. Persons authorlsed by the Authority.
14. The Operator and the Commander are required to produce documents and records relating
to a flight:
a. Within a reasonable period of time.
b. Within 10 days.
c. Within 7 days.
d. Within 48 hours.
15. Certain documents relating to the operation of aeroplanes are required by law to be kept for
a specified period of time. If an operator ceases to operate an aeroplane must he keep the
documents?
a. No, they can be disposed of with the aeroplane.
b. Yes, but only until the aeroplane is re-registered.
c. Yes, but only for the specified period.
d. Yes, until the aeroplane is finally dismantled or destroyed.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
2. An applicant for an AOC must permit the authority to examine which of the following?
a. All safety aspects of the operation.
b. The administration, financial stability and the maintenance schedules of the operation.
c. Any previous records of running an air transport operation.
d. The medical records of all employees of the company involved directly with the
operation of aeroplanes.
3. In order to qualify for the issue of an AOC the operator must comply with certain
requirements. Which combination of the following list of requirements satisfies what a
prospective operator must demonstrate to the authority?
1. The operator must not already hold an AOC issued by another authority unless
approved.
2. The operator must only operate from the State of Registry.
3. The operator must have a registered office in the State issuing the AOC.
4. The operator must satisfy the Authority that he is able to conduct safe operations.
5. The operator must only employ qualified personnel.
4. Any operator is required to grant the Authority access to the organisation and the
aeroplanes.What is the purpose of this?
a. To ensure that the taxable revenue of the operation is correctly disclosed.
b. To ensure continued compliance.
c. To ensure the restrictions of the AOC are being complied with.
d. To ensure that no unfair trading practices are being used against competitors.
6. The terms of an AOC require the operator to maintain an organisation capable of:
a. Exercising operational and administrative control.
b. Exercising financial and administrative control.
c. Exercising operational control and supervision.
d. Exercising operational and financial control.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
7. With regard to the organisation of the operation, the Authority is required to be satisf ied
that:
a. The organisation is financially well managed.
b. The organisation has a management structure approved by ISO 9001.
c. The organisation is staffed by CAAB personnel only.
d. The organisation details a progressive management structure for operations as well as
maintenance personnel.
8. The operator is required to nominate post holders in certain areas. These are:
a. Flight operations, maintenance, crew training, administration. administration
b. Flight operations, maintenance, crew training, ground operations.
c. Flight operations, maintenance, personnel training, ground operations.
d. Flight operations, crew training, , quality assurance.
9. The operator is to ensure that all flights are conducted in accordance with the operations
manual, and:
a. Aeroplanes are equipped and crews qualified.
b. Maintenance schedules are as detailed by CAAB.
c. Ground handling facilities ensure the safe handling of baggage.
d. Operational support facilities are maintained at all bases used in the operation.
11. In order to be satisfied that the operator is worthy to be granted an AOC, which of the
following may be required of the operator?
a. The applicant has enough cash available.
b. One or more demonstration flights are conducted.
c. The operation must be carried out for a period of six months without incident.
d. 10 000 passengers must be carried in a period of 6 months.
4. Who is responsible for ensuring that all flight and ground operations personnel are properly
trained?
a. The Commander.
b. The Authority.
c ICAO.
d. The Operator.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
7. Who is responsible for establishing normal and abnormal checklists for crew members?
a. The Operator.
b. The aeroplane manufacturer.
c. The Authority.
d. The Training Captain.
8. Which of the following is an operator to ensure is used for all flights where available?
a. Aerodrome facilities.
b. Search and Rescue facilities.
c. The full runway length.
d. Air Traffic Control.
9. Where an established instrument approach is used, the commander may accept an ATC
clearance to deviate from the procedure only when:
a. The Operator gives permission.
b. The precision aid is unserviceable.
c. The obstacle clearance minima are observed.
d. The revised procedure is approved by the Authority.
10. Is it essential for the final part of an instrument approach to be flown visually?
a. Yes, always.
b. Yes, but only when the visual criteria is obtained at DA/H.
c. No, if it is as per an established instrument procedure.
d. No, but only if CAT III operations are approved.
11. Who is responsible for ensuring that instrument approach or departure procedures are
flown?
a. The Operator.
b. The Authority of the State of the aerodrome.
c. The Authority of the State of the Operator.
d. The Authority of the State of the registration.
12. Persons with reduced mobility (PRMs) are to be permitted full and free access to aircraft
provided that:
a. Special seats are fitted.
b. Disabled toilet facilities are provided.
c. The Operator has established procedures for the carriage of PRMs.
d. The Purser or Chief Flight Attendant is aware of the presence of PRMs.
13. Where PRMs, inadmissible passengers, deportees and persons in custody are carried on
aeroplanes:
a. They must be seated at the rear of the aeroplane.
b. No passengers are to occupy adjacent seats.
c. The Operator is to ensure that all the other passengers are aware of the situation.
d. The Commander knows that they are on board.
16. Who is responsible for ensuring that all equipment and baggage in the passenger
compartment and the galley is property stowed, when required, during flight time?
a. The Operator.
b. The Authority.
c. The Chief Flight Attendant.
d. The Commander.
18. Who must be satisfied that the condition of the runway intended to be used should not
prevent a safe take-off and departure?
a. The Commander.
b. Air Traffic Control.
c. The Operator.
d. The Operations Officer.
2. Which of the combinations of the following list correctly describes what operations require
AOM to be prescribed?
1. Precision approaches.
2. Non Precision approaches.
3. Take off.
4. Circling approach.
5. Visual approach.
5. One of the criteria required to be taken into account by the operator in calculating AOM, is
the type, performance and handling characteristics of the aeroplane. In order to simplify
assessment of performance, aeroplanes are categorised in categories A - E. The performance
criteria relating to the category is:
a. VNE.
b. VSO.
c. VSIG.
d. VAT.
10. Operators are only permitted to conduct low visibility operations when aeroplanes are
certified for such operations. The criteria for low visibility operations specify that the
decision height permitted is to be below what height?
a. 100,
b. 150'
c. 200'
d. 300'
11. It is also a requirement that within low visibility operations, the procedures (approach
and/or automatic landing) are monitored. What is the purpose of the monitoring procedure?
a. To review safety.
b. To record pilot performance.
c. To provide data for Authority analysis to enhance (reduce) criteria.
d. For on going research and development.
12. There is a basic crew requirement for low visibility operations. This stipulates that:
a. One pilot must be qualified on type.
b. The flight crew must consist of at least two pilots.
c. The commander must be at the controls at all tunes.
d. At least one pilot must be 'low vis ops' qualified.
13. For low visibility operations, it is required that decision height (DH) is determined by:
a. Barometric altimeter with QNH set.
b. Barometric altimeter with QFE set.
c. Barometric altimeter with QNH or QFE set (where DH is defined as AMSL).
d. Radio Altimeter.
14. Unless special permission is obtained from the authority, operators are not permitted to
conduct low visibility take-offs when the RVR is less than defined values related to aircraft
category. The defined values are:
a. Category A, B and C - 150m; category D - 200m.
b. Category A, B and C - 200m; category D - 250m.
c. Category A, B and C 150m; category D – 250m.
d. Category A, B and C - 5 00m; category D - I 00m.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
15. Operators are to ensure that training in low visibility operations is carried out prior to
authorizing any such operations. Such training is to be:
a. Airborne practice of approaches in low visibility.
b. Simulated.
c. Specific to the type of aeroplane.
d. In accordance with the training manual.
16. Where low visibility operations are carried out, the operator is to:
a. Include the procedures in the operations manual.
b. Make sure that the commander is satisfied that conditions are favourable.
c. Make sure that ATC have implemented LV ops procedures.
d. Obtain authority approval for LV take-offs when the RVR is less than 200m.
17. Where LV cps are carried out the operations manual must specify:
a. The category of the aeroplane.
b. Aerodromes at which LV operations are permitted.
c. Minima for LV ops.
d. Minimum equipment requirements for LV ops.
18. Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) are based on several factors. Which combination of
the following are factors assessed in defining AOM:
1. Runway length.
2. Crew composition.
3. Communications for reporting weather.
4. Obstacles in the climb out and approach areas.
a. 1, 2 & 4.
b. 1, 3 & 4.
c. I & 4.
d. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
19. The minimum RVR requirement for CAT I ILS approach is:
a. 350 in.
b. 500 m.
c. 550 m.
d. 800 m.
20. The minimum meteorological visibility for a circling approach in a Cat A aircraft is:
a. 1500 in.
b. 1600 in.
c. 2400 in.
d. 3600 in.
21. The VFR visual minima for flight in Class B airspace above FL 100 is:
a. 5 km forward visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500m laterally clear of cloud.
b. 5 kin forward visibility and clear of cloud.
c. 8 kin forward visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500m laterally clear of cloud.
d. 8 km forward visibility and clear of cloud.
22. Special VFR flights are not to be commenced when the visibility is:
a. Less than 5km.
b. Greater than 3000m but less than 5000m.
c. Less than 3000m.
d. Equal to or less than 1500m.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
23. Special VFR flights are not to be continued when the visibility is:
a. 500m or less.
b. 1500m or less.
c. Less than 1500m.
d. Less than 1000m.
3. A windshield wiper is to be fitted to each pilot station of an aeroplane with a take-off mass:
a. Equal to or greater than 57001Kgs.
b. Greater than 360OKgs.
c. Equal to or greater than 15,000Kgs.
d. Greater than 570OKgs.
6. A new aeroplane has an approved passenger seating of 55 with a take-off mass not exceeding
13,700Kgs. Is it required to be fitted with a crew interphone system?
a. Yes, because the approved passenger seating is greater than 19.
b. No, because the max take-off mass is less than 15,00OKgs.
c. Yes, because it was not registered before 1 April 1995.
d. No, because the C of A was dated after 1 April 1965.
8. A door between the passenger compartment and the flight deck is required:
a. On all aeroplanes flying for public air transport.
b. On all aeroplanes flying for public air transport, with the capability of being locked from
the inside.
c. On all aeroplanes seating 20 or more passengers.
d. On all passenger carrying aeroplanes where the total passenger seating exceeds 19, and
which must be marked 'No entry'.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
10. Where a door is capable of being locked by passengers (e.g. toilet doors), they must be fitted
with:
a. Tamper proof locks for privacy.
b. A sign that states that smoking is not permitted in the toilets.
c. Pin hinges that can be removed from the outside to allow access in an emergency.
d. A means of unlocking from the outside by crew members.
1. When is each flight crew member required to have an audio selector panel?
a. If the take off mass is greater than 5700Kg.
b. If an IFR flight plan is filed.
c. Where two pilots are required to be carried.
d. Where an intercom system is required to be fitted.
6. Equipment fitted to aeroplanes for the purpose of navigation must comply with the stated
minimum RNP specification. RNP stands for:
a. Radio Navigation Performance.
b. Regulated/Normal Plotting.
c. Radio or Nominal Prediction.
d. Required Navigation Performance.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
1. An inspection that is carried out before flight to ensure that the aeroplane is fit for flight is
called:
a. Maintenance Review Inspection (MRI).
b. Aircrew walk-round.
c. Turnround servicing inspection.
d. Pre-flight Inspection.
9. Which statutory body is responsible for the approval of maintenance standards (Approved
Standards)?
a. CAAB.
b. The Operator.
c. The civil aviation authority of the State of manufacture.
d. ICAO.
2. Where aeroplanes with only two engines are used on routes, specific requirements must be
met with regard to contingencies following an engine failure. Which of the following applies'!
a. The aeroplane must not be flown further than 200nm from the nearest aerodrome.
b. All alternate aerodromes along the route must be within 30 minutes flying time.
c. There must be aerodromes available within the required time/distance limitations.
d. The MEL is to include a minimum of one serviceable engine.
3. Who is responsible for ensuring that operations are conducted in accordance with any route
restrictions imposed by the authority:
a. The Operator.
b. The Commander.
c. The Authority of the State of Registration.
d. The Authority of the State over which the route is being flown.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
4. Who is to be satisfied that maps and charts, sufficient to cover the route and any planned or
unplanned diversion, are available?
a. The Operator.
b. The Commander.
c. The Authority of the State of Registration.
d. The Authority of the State over which the route is being flown.
5. An operational flight plan is to be completed for each flight. Who is responsible for signing
it?
a. The Operations Officer.
b. The Flight Dispatcher.
c. The Pilot-in-Command.
d. The Flight Planning Office clerk.
8. Which combination of the following correctly describes the factors to be taken into
consideration when choosing a route"
I. Communications.
2. Navigation Aids.
3. Alternative Aerodromes.
4. Meteorological information.
5. SAR facilities.
9. What is the basic distance a twin-engined Class A (turbojet) aeroplane (without ETOPS
approval) with a take off mass of 45,360 Kg or more, or approved passenger seating of 20 or
more, may fly from an adequate aerodrome?
a. The distance flown in 60 minutes at the one engine out cruise speed but not exceeding
300nm.
b. The distance flown in 60 minutes at the one engine out cruise speed.
c. The distance flown in 120 minutes at the one engine out cruise speed.
d. The distance flown in 120 minutes at the one engine out cruise speed but not exceeding
400m.
10. Who is responsible for calculating the speed that shall be used to calculate the one engine out
speed?
a. The aeroplane manufacturer.
b. The ETOPS approval authority.
c. The Operator.
d. The Authority of the State of Registration.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
11. Which of the following combinations correctly identifies the conditions that must be taken
into account when calculating the TAS that a twin engined aeroplane can maintain with one
engine out?
1. Maximum operating speed
2. ISA.
3. Flight Level.
4. Max continuous power on the remaining engine.
5. Aeroplane mass.
12. An aeroplane with more than 30 passenger seats, that does not comply with the ditching
requirements of the airworthiness code shall not be flown more than a specified distance
from land suitable for an emergency landing. How far is this distance"
a. 400nm.
b. 300nm.
c. 60 minutes flying distance or 300nm (whichever is less).
d. 120 minutes flying distance or 400nm (whichever is less).
13. For Class A performance aeroplanes in the event of en-route engine(s) failure, all terrain
and obstacles within 9.3Km (5nm) of track are to be vertically cleared by (once established
at cruising altitude):
a. 1000ft.
b. 2000ft.
c. The height of the terrain or obstacle (amsl) plus 10% plus 1500ft.
d. 1000ft plus the obstacle clearance height for the nearest aerodrome.
14. A modem turbo-jet aeroplane can be flown to achieve different operational profiles. The
three profiles most usually considered are:
a. Max speed, max range, max height.
b. Max fuel consumption, max distance, endurance.
c. Endurance, max range, max pay-load.
d. Max range, shortest route time, endurance.
15. When flying to achieve the lowest fuel flow, consideration should be given to:
a. Flying at the optimum level and minimum drag speed.
b. Shutting down unnecessary power plants.
c. Cruise climb technique at Vmd plus 10kts.
d. Planning the descent point to be as far from the destination as possible.
16. For a given gross mass, pressure altitude and temperature, the shortest route time is
achieved by:
a. Operating all engines at max thrust.
b. Achieving the desired level as soon as possible after take-off.
c. Selecting a level above the tropopause.
d. Setting max cruise thrust to achieve the highest Mach No.
17. One method of reducing fuel consumption is to use a procedure known as stepping. This
involves:
a. Progressively reducing power settings as total mass reduces due to fuel being used.
b. Progressively increasing power settings to achieve higher speeds thus less flying time.
c. Progressively increasing height as mass reduces.
d. Sectoring the route by allocation of increasing Mach No and flight level.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
18. If a stepped cruise technique is adopted, the step procedure is usually repeated:
a. When the mass has reduced by 5000Kg.
b. Approximately every 2 hours.
c. When an increase in Mach No of 0.2 is achievable.
d. When the next flight level above becomes available.
19. For a four-engined aeroplane, the take-off alternate must be located within:
a. I hour flying time of the departure aerodrome.
b. 2 hours flying time from the departure aerodrome at the one engine out cruise speed.
c. 40 km if flying IFR.
d. The maximum distance that can be safely achieved with the remaining engines operating
at max continuous thrust.
20. A destination alternate must be selected for most IFR flights. In certain situations two
destination alternates must be selected. These are:
a. Met reports/forecasts indicate that from 1 hour before ETA until I hour after ETA the
weather will be below minima, or no met reports are available.
b. The overall route Is more than 2000nm long.
c. There is only one suitable alternate aerodrome within 250nm of the destination.
d. The nominated alternate does not have two separate runways.
21. If it is required that at the destination alternate a circling approach would be necessary, that
aerodrome would be considered suitable as an alternate providing:
a. The OCH is not greater than the observed cloud base.
b. The RVR is more than 1500rn.
c. The MDH is less than the cloud ceiling.
d. One runway has a serviceable ILS.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
6. Who is responsible for ensuring that the equipment specified in the MEL for the type of
operation to be undertaken, is complied with?
a. The Operator.
b. The Authority of the State of the Operator.
c. The Authority of the State of Registration.
d. The Commander.
7. The law requires that an Aeroplane Flight Manual (AFM) is made available. Which of the
following is not required to be included in the AFM?
a. Loading limitations and Information.
b. Performance Information.
c. Least-risk bomb information.
d. Operating crew requirements.
8. Will ice form on an aeroplane if the ambient temperature (air temperature) is above zero but
the airframe temperature is below zero?
a. Always.
b. Never.
c. Yes, but only if there is moisture present in the air and the airframe temperature is below
the dew point of the surrounding atmosphere.
d. No, because precipitation will only freeze if the ambient air temperature is below zero
(the freezing point of water).
11. Which of the following is not a hazard that may result from ice on an airframe'!
a. Instrument errors caused by reduced skin friction.
b. Lumps of ice failing off aeroplanes and damaging property.
c. Increased stalling speed.
d. Interference (static) caused by ice on aerials.
30
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
12. By law, Operators are required to establish procedures for de-icing and anti-icing of
aeroplanes. Additionally, operators are to ensure that:
a. Aeroplanes do not fly in conditions where icing is expected.
b. Aeroplanes are to be heated internally to ensure that passengers do not suffer from the
cold.
c. All areas outside the pressure hull are suitably heated.
d. If flying at night, a light is provided to see if ice is building up.
15. Which of the following is not an approved method of removing ice from an airframe?
a. Scraping the ice off the airframe.
b. Using 'taxi-through' systems that apply de-icing fluids.
c. Warning the airframe with hot air blowers.
d. A gang of men on the wings with brooms.
17. Holdover times are quoted for anti-icing fluids. Holdover time is defined as:
a. The maximum shelf storage life of the fluid.
b. The time it takes the fluid to effectively de-ice an airframe at an ambient temperature
of -10'C.
c. The time period during which the de-icing/anti-icing process is active.
d. The time period during which the mixture may be applied, after which it has to be
discarded and a new batch of fluid mixed.
18. The holdover time for a fluid anti-icing process is dependant upon:
a. The temperature of the fluid when it is applied.
b. The concentration and consistency of the fluid.
c. The outside air temperature and type of the precipitation expected.
d. All of the above.
19. In order to increase the awareness of pilots concerning the possibility of bird strike hazards,
information is disseminated by:
a. IBIS (ICAO Bird-strike Information Systems).
b. DUCK (Data Underpinning Concentration Knowledge).
c. CROW (Comprehensive Regional Ornithological Warning).
d. WREN (Warnings Regarding Excessive Nuisance).
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
21. Birds present a continual aviation hazard especially at low altitude (approach and climb-out)
where the aeroplane is most vulnerable. Areas where the problem is most acute are:
a. Near known bird migration routes and rubbish tips.
b. At aerodromes where the grass is not cut and there are plenty of trees nearby.
c. At aerodromes near centres of population where birds have become scavengers.
d. At aerodromes near the coast or near areas of natural habitat for birds.
23. For a runway to be designated as a noise preferential runway it must be equipped with:
a. Equipment to determine glide-path guidance (eg. ILS for IFR; PAPIs for VFR).
b. Noise assessment sensors at pre-set intervals.
c. Radio navigation aids to provide centre line fixes for take off and landing.
d, Accurate systems for determining the centre line of the runway for approaches and
climb-out in both VMC and IMC.
24. The choice of which runway to use (assuming that a choice exists) should not be influenced
by noise abatement requirements under certain runway conditions. Which combination of
the following correctly reflects the runway conditions that would override noise abatement
in the choice of runway?
1. Runway contaminated ( not dry)
2. Cloud ceiling below 500'for take-off or horizontal visibility less than 1.9Kmfortake-off
and landing.
3. Crosswind component greater than 15kts.
4. Tail wind component greater than 5kts.
5. When wind shear reported or when thunderstorms are expected to affect the approach
or departure.
a. All the above.
b. 1, 2, 3 and 5.
c. 2, 3, 4 and 5.
d. 2, 3 and 5.
25. What is the minimum height for turns and obstacle clearance on noise preferential routes?
a. 300ft AGL for turns; 250ft AGL OCH.
b. 300ft AGL for turns; 500ft above the highest obstacle under the flight path.
c. 500ft AGL for turns; with turns limited to 15° bank angle.
d. 1000ft AGL before turning.
27. Noise Abatement procedures include safety limitations. The minimum steady climb speed is
to be not less than:
a. V2
b. VMD.
c. V2 + 10kts.
d. VMD + 10kts.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
28. For some aeroplanes, mass and configuration considerations may result in a further
limitation being placed upon minimum steady climb speed. In such a case, minimum steady
climb speed is not to be observed where:
a. The rate of climb would cause distress to the passengers.
b. The maximum acceptable body angle would be exceeded.
c. The rate of acceleration in the climb would lead to V2, being exceeded.
d. To achieve the speed required, the power settings of the engines would be such that the
total engine thrust would be so low that in the event of a critical power unit failing,
insufficient thrust would be provided by the remaining engines and the aeroplane would
stall.
29. During the noise abatement climb-out, power reductions shall not be required unless:
a. The acroplane has reached 800ft, a climb gradient is maintained and all obstacles under
the flight path are cleared by an adequate margin.
b. The aeroplane continues to accelerate above the minimum steady climb speed.
c. There is a temperature inversion of more than 10°C during the first 1000ft of climb and
such a power reduction is required to counter the subsequent increase in performance.
d. The aeroplane is so light that the minimum steady climb speed is less than V 2.
30. During a noise abatement approach, the aeroplane is to be in the final landing configuration:
a. At or before passing over the middle marker beacon on an ILS approach.
b. Prior to passing over the initial approach fix.
c. Not closer to the runway threshold than 5nm.
d. Not closer to the runway threshold than 5nm or at any point after passing the ILS outer
marker, whichever is the earlier.
31. During noise abatement approaches, additional limitations are imposed to limit the
procedures. These include:
a. A requirement that excessive rates of descent are to be avoided, and separation between
aeroplanes is applied to prevent aggregated noise nuisance.
b. No turns are permitted during a VFR approach, if such a turn would not permit a period
of stabilisation prior to crossing the threshold.
c. Glide-path angles to be restricted to a minimum of 3.5° (350ft/nm).
d. Max noise output to be limited to 125dB M-2.
32. It has been found that reduced power/reduced drag approach configurations have proved
effective and acceptable methods of noise abatement during the approach to land. This
technique involves:
`a. Reducing power and lowering the nose to increase the speed to VAT +50kts, and
stabilising the rate of descent to the glide path by selection of varying degrees of
flap/spoilers/air brakes/under carriage all the way down to the runway.
b. Setting a constant power below the recommended noise output dB level and delaying
lowering the undercarriage until below 300ft AGL.
c. Delaying the selection of flaps and undercarriage until the final stages of the approach.
d. Throttling back two or three engines to flight idle at the outer marker and adjusting
speed by aeroplane attitude.
33. Is the use of reverse thrust prohibited under noise abatement procedures?
a. Yes.
b. Sometimes.
c. Only for non-propeller driven aeroplanes.
d. No.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
34. A convenient way of achieving noise abatement for approaching traffic is to displace
threshold further down the runway. This is permitted providing:
a. Sufficient runway remains available for stopping the aeroplane.
b. That apparent noise nuisance reduction is achieved overall.
c. That the displaced threshold can be properly identified and that all the approach aids are
set up for the displaced threshold.
d. That sufficient noise reduction is achieved and the remaining runway is adequate for
operational requirements.
2. The initial actions to be taken in the event of an engine fire depend upon:
a. The type of engine.
b. Whether the aeroplane is in the air or on the ground.
c. How many passengers are on board.
d. The availability of Crash, Fire-axes.
3. What equipment is required to be carried to combat the effects of smoke in the flight deck
area?
a. Fire extinguishers.
b. A drop out oxygen system.
c. Smoke hoods with emergency 100% oxygen suply.
d. Battery operated torches.
34
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
8. If an aeroplane is certificated for 6 passengers, how many hand-held fire extinguishers are
required to be carried in the aeroplane?
a. 1 .
b. Nil.
c. 2.
d. It depends upon the max take off mass permitted.
9. If an aeroplane is certificated for 10 passengers, how many hand-held fire extinguishers are
required to be carried in the passenger compartment?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
11. A crash axe and/or crow bar is/are required to be carried on the flight deck of aeroplanes:
a. In the public transport (passenger) role.
b. With a max take-off mass exceeding 5 700Kg and 10 or more passenger seats.
c With a max take-off mass of 5700Kg and 9 passenger seats.
d. That are carrying more than 200 passengers.
12. Which combination of the following statements correctly identifies the problems associated
with overheated brakes after a heavyweight landing or an aborted take-off'?
1. Reduced braking efficiency.
2. Inadvertent operation of fire extinguishers.
3. Extended brake cooling time.
4. Inadvertent operation of brake overheat sensors.
5. Problems with heat dispersal.
6. Risk of tyre explosion.
a. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6.
b. All.
c 1, 3, 5 and 6.
d. 2, 3, 4 and 5.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
6. In the event of a cabin depressurisation, the actions of the pilot will be to:
a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate.
b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurisation systems.
c. Maintain the aeroplane attitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over
loading of the structure.
d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is
sufficient for all crew and passengers.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
4. What would you expect to happen in an 'up and down draught' wind shear?
a. The wind velocity to vary with both altitude and horizontal displacement from a datum.
b. Initially an up draught causing the aeroplane to rise uncontrollably, and subsequently
a down draught causing uncontrolled descent.
c. Encountering alternately rising and descending air currents in the vicinity of large cloud
formations.
d. Vertical excursions in horizontal flight.
7. If, during an approach to land you encounter an abrupt decrease in wind speed or a shift to
a tail wind the aircraft will _________and you should __________.
a. suffer a loss of lift; apply power
b. increase speed due to reduced drag; lift the nose
c. yaw to starboard; apply right rudder
d. suffer an energy gain; reduce power and lower the nose
8. Shortly after take-off the attitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS
rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal.
You should suspect what, and what should you do?
a. Marked temperature drop-, apply full power.
b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tall wind; apply full power.
c. Incipient engine failure (ignore instruments); lower the nose to gain airspeed.
d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VR, and ride it out.
9. On an ILS final approach, you notice that the sky is darkening, visibility is reducing and
turbulence is increasing. At the same time you encounter an energy gain situation causing
you to 'balloon' above the glide path. What should you do?
a. Suspect wind shear and correct power and attitude to regain the glide path.
b. Suspect that you have passed through the top of the turbulence layer and that the wind
is no longer geostrophic, so corrections to power and attitude are required.
c. Suspect microburst activity and pre-empt the inevitable energy loss situation by leaving
power and attitude settings as before and then correct once clear of the microburst.
d. Suspect microburst activity, apply full power, climb as per the missed approach
procedure and go around for a further approach after the microburst has cleared the
approach area.
10. With which of the following should you be aware of the possibility of microburst activity?
1. Thunderstorms.
2. Cumulonimbus clouds.
3. Sudden rain squalls.
4. Gust front activity (rising dust clouds).
5. Unexpected wind shear.
6. Virga.
c. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
d. 2, 5 and 6.
7. Which of the following conditions is worst with regard to wake vortex turbulence?
a. Light winds near the surface.
b. Strong winds near the surface.
c. Marked vertical wind shear.
d. Marked atmospheric turbulence near the ground.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
9. ICAO categorises aeroplanes with a max gross take off mass of 138 000kg as:
a. Upper medium.
b. Medium.
c. Heavy.
d. Cat D.
10. Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the
minimum separation distance in NM is:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
11. Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the
minimum separation distance in NM is:
a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6
12. Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, the
minimum separation distance in NM is:
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3
13. Where a light or medium category aeroplane is taking off behind a heavy category aeroplane
on the same runway and from the same point, the minimum separation spacing in minutes
is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
14. Where a light category aeroplane is taking off behind a medium category aeroplane on the
same runway but the following aeroplane is departing from an intermediate point, the
minimum separation spacing in minutes is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
15. Where parallel runway operations are being conducted and the runways are separated by
750m:
a. The same wake turbulence separation criteria as single runway operations apply.
b. The separation is reduced to 2 minutes.
c. There is no need to apply separation.
d. Separation is only applied if the net flight paths from the parallel runways cross at a
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
distance of not more than 5nm from the departure end of either runway.
16. Where parallel runway operations are in use and the projected flight path of the following
aeroplane crosses that of the leading aeroplane at the same level or within 1000ft lower:
a. The same wake turbulence separation criteria as single runway operations apply.
b. The separation is reduced to 2 minutes.
c. There is no need to apply separation.
d. Separation is only applied if the net flight paths from the parallel runways cross at a
distance of not more than 5nm from the departure end of either runway.
17. What is the minimum separation to be applied where a medium category aeroplane is about
to take off after a heavy category aeroplane has made a missed approach in the opposite
direction?
a. 1 minute.
b. 2 minutes.
c. 3 minutes.
d. 4 minutes.
Chapter – 17 Security
1. Who is responsible for instigating training programmes, the aim of which is to minimise the
opportunities for unlawful interference with flights?
a. The Authority of the State of Registration.
b. The Authority of the State of the Operator.
c. The Operator.
d. The law enforcement agency with responsibility under the law of the state of registration
of the aeroplane.
5. In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct
procedure to be taken by the pilot in command?
a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance
received if possible.
b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC and other traffic on 121.50OMHz or the
frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces
deviation from the cleared flight plan.
d. If forced to deviate from flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the
nonnal cruising altitudes by 1000ft.
6. When an unlawful interference occurs, the State over which the event occurs is required by
international law to take adequate measures to protect passengers and crew. Such measures
will include:
a. The provision of a fully functioning ATC system and a landing clearance if required.
b. If the aeroplane lands, it Is to be disabled to prevent subsequent take-off.
c. Facilities for the armed forces of the State of Registry (if not the same as the state in
which the aeroplane has landed) to storm the aeroplane by force.
d. Notification to ICAO that the event has occurred.
7. As of March 2000, the construction of the flight deck door connecting to the passenger
compartment is to be:
a. Impenetrable to gunfire.
b. Bombproof.
c. Lockable.
d. Designed to minimise penetration by grenade shrapnel.
8. ICAO requires that states establish procedures to prevent the carriage of weapons that can
be used in unlawful interference. Circumstances do exist where weapons may be carried.
These are:
a. In accordance with the regulations by law enforcement personnel in the discharge of
their duty.
b. By passengers if special permission has been obtained and the weapons are unloaded.
c. By members of the crew over areas of known terrorist activity.
d. For sporting purposes but must be stowed in the personal belongings of passengers.
9. If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane the measures that should be taken are
designed to:
a. Disable the device.
b. Find out what will trigger the device.
c. Prevent knowledge of the device on board getting to the passengers.
d. Locate and move the device to the 'least risk' location and apply as much padding as
possible.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
4. What is the purpose of the passenger briefing given in the event of a precautionary landing
being necessary?
a. To find out if there are any other pilots on board who may have experienced the
situation and can help.
b. To prepare the passengers for the worst outcome.
c. To stop the passengers pestering the cabin staff so that they can get on with their
preparations for crash-landing or ditching.
d. By involving the passengers and sharing information, fear may be overcome and greater
survivability achieved.
5. In the event of a successful crash landing or ditching, rapid and controlled evacuation
from the aeroplane is essential. In order to achieve this:
a. All doors and windows should be opened as soon as the aeroplane comes to rest.
b. Women and children should be evacuated first.
c. The use of slides/chutes is preferred.
d. The cabin staff have to impress their authority and frequently carry out drills and
practices.
7. Briefing the passengers about the emergency prior to the crash landing /ditching must
include:
a. Comprehensive brief concerning evacuation.
b. How to tackle any fires that may result, including the use of extinguishers.
c. A short brief concerning survival in the environment to be encountered.
d. Departing passengers to take over from the crew if they are all killed.
8. If a ditching is inevitable:
a. Non swimmers are to be evacuated first.
b. Life jackets are to be inflated before leaving the aeroplane.
c. The use of life jackets is to be reiterated before the ditching.
d. Passengers should be briefed that even if they successfully evacuate the aeroplane it is
inevitable that some of them will die from drowning.
9. Where are details of drills and crew training requirements for evacuation of an aeroplane in
an emergency published?
a. In the Training Manual (Part B).
b. In the Aeroplane Manual.
c. In the aircrew training notes.
d. In the Operations Manual (Part B).
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
11. The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to:
a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all
speeds plus 10kts.
b. Reduce the approach angle to 1.5deg (150 ft per mile), add 15kts to all speeds, keep the
aeroplane clean (no flaps or gear) and fly it onto the surface.
c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at the lowest possible speed with
the nose raised for the tail to strike first.
d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the
water.
14. In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency
services?
a. ATC.
b. The Commander.
c. The local constabulary.
d. The Operations Despatcher.
2. Which of the following correctly describes the requirement of a fuel jettison system?
a. Free from fire hazards; discharges are clear of the aeroplane; fuel or fumes do not enter
the aeroplane; control of the aeroplane is not affected by the Jettison operation.
b. Free from fire hazards; discharges are clear of the aeroplane; fuel or fumes do not enter
the aeroplane; normal radio operation can continue.
c. Free from fire hazards; discharges are clear of the aeroplane; fuel or fumes do not enter
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
3. Fuel jettison:
a. Is a procedure to reduce mass in an emergency only.
b. Is a procedure that may be employed to reduce aeroplane mass where an overweight
landing may result in damage to the aeroplane.
c. May be authorised by ATC to reduce delays by protracted holding procedures.
d. May be ordered by ATC to reduce aeroplane mass in an emergency situation.
4. Fuel is to be jettisoned:
a. Over the sea and then only above 10 000ft.
b. Over the sea, or over land above 10 000ft agl.
c. Anywhere and at any height if unavoidable in an emergency.
d. Over the sea, or over land above 4000ft in summer or 7000ft in winter.
6. When jettisoning fuel, safety is an overriding consideration. Which of the following lists
correctly identifies items to be considered when planning to jettison fuel?
a. Smoking; HF Radio; operation of flaps/gear/slats; weather conditions.
b. Height; speed; ATC clearance; weather; area.
c. Time required; position; other aeroplanes; proximity of cloud; aeroplane attitude.
d. OAT; wind direction; altitude; time of day; airspace restrictions; any other emergencies.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
6. Which of the following correctly Identifies 'the operation by which articles or substances are
enveloped in wrappings and/or enclosed in packaging or otherwise secured'?
a. Boxing.
b. Packaging.
c. Packing.
d. Wrapping.
7. The document that identifies the technical instructions for the classification and safe
transport of dangerous goods by air is called:
a. The Operations Manual.
b. The Technical Instructions.
c. The Loading Manual.
d. ICAO Annex 19.
8. Certain items, which by their nature are dangerous goods, may be carried in aeroplanes
excluded from the provisions. Which of the following lists correctly identifies such items?
a. Veterinary aids orhumane killers, ammunition, gas cylinders, catering supplies, personal
items.
b. Veterinary aids or humane killers, ammunition, equipment with wet cell batteries,
catering supplies, personal items.
c. Veterinary aids or humane killers, drugs, equipment with batteries, gas cylinders,
catering supplies, personal items.
d. Veterinary aids or humane killers, items required for operational reasons, medical aids
for a patient, catering supplies, personal items.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
10. Who is responsible for ensuring that dangerous goods are packed, labelled and carried in
accordance with the regulations?
a. The Commander.
b. The Operator.
c. The Shipping Agent.
d. The Consignee.
11. Who is responsible for ensuring that dangerous goods offered for carriage by air are
properly classified, packed and labelled correctly and that the correct documentation has
been completed?
a. The Commander.
b. The Operator.
c. The Shipper.
d. The Authority of the State of Departure.
12. The requirements for packaging and labelling are to be found in:
a. The Technical Instructions.
b. The Operations Manual.
c. ICAO Annex 18.
d. ICAO Annex 19.
14. Can dangerous goods be carried in the passenger cabin or on the flight deck?
a. Yes; but only goods specified in the technical instructions.
b. No.
c. Yes, if authorised by the authority.
d. Yes, provided they are non toxic.
15. If dangerous goods are to be carried, the commander is to be given information as specified
in the technical instructions. Who is responsible for the provision of this information?
a. The Authority.
b. The Operator.
c. The Loading Supervisor.
d. The Shipper.
16. Certain items and goods are prohibited from carriage by air. For instance, non safety
matches. clearreservoir lighters, aerosol containers and certain chemical/medical
preparations are widely available. Where is information concerning such items to be pub]
ished/di splayed for the benefit of passengers?
a. In the aeroplane.
b. On the packaging of the item.
c. At the point of purchase of such items within the aerodrome complex.
d. On tickets/ticket jackets, where tickets are sold, at the check-in desk, in the departure
lounge, at luggage check-in areas.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
17. Where an aeroplane is carrying dangerous goods and suffers an in-flight emergency:
a. The Commander is to contact the Operator by whatever means and request instructions.
b. The Operator is to inform the Authority of the State in which the emergency has
occurred that the aeroplane is carrying dangerous goods.
c. The Commander is to inform the crash/rescue services on the Fire Frequency and advise
what special handling is required.
d. The Commander is to ask ATC to arrange for a landing at a remote aerodrome or
parking on a remote site, where the effects of contarnination/pollution may be limited.
18. Operators are to establish Dangerous Goods training programmes. Where are details of the
training required, published?
a. In the Operations Manual.
b. In the Training Manual.
c. In ICAO Annex 18.
d. In the Technical Instructions.
2. If the surface of a runway is not dry, but the moisture on it does not give a shiny appearance,
the runway is:
a. Wet.
b. Wet but not contaminated.
c. Dry.
d. Damp.
3. If a runway is covered with water which is less than 3mm deep, or where the surface appears
reflective but without standing water patches, it is said to be:
a. Wet.
b. Wet but not contaminated.
c. Dry.
d. Damp.
5. If a runway is contaminated with dry snow, the depth that will preclude operations is:
a. 60mm.
b. 15mm.
c. 10mm.
d. 3mm.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
6. If a runway is contaminated with wet snow, slush or water, the depth that will preclude
operations is:
a. 60mm.
b. 15mm.
c. lomm.
d. 3mm.
7. The effect whereby a tyre is lifted from the runway due to aeroplane speed along the runway
is known as:
a. Surface water effect.
b. Hydroplaning.
v. Aqua-skimming.
d. Surface tension.
8. For any given contaminant by (specific gravity), the aquaplaning speed is given by:
a. Nine times the square of the tyre pressure (lbs/sq in).
b. The tyre pressure (Bars) divided by nine.
c. Nine times the square root of the tyre pressure (lbs/sq in).
d. The square root of the tyre pressure (Bars) multiplied by nine.
12. Where operations from contaminated runways have been approved, required
performance calculations to be enhanced to cater for the reduced braking efficiency. The
factor to be applied is:
a. Landing distance available is at least 115% of landing distance required.
b. Landing distance available is at least 1.5 x landing distance required.
c. Landing distance required must be at least 115% of landing distance available.
d. Runway length must be a minimum of 115% of the landing distance required.
13. Apart from aquaplaning and reduced braking efficiency, what other hazards are associated
with heavy rain contamination of runways:
a. Wet aeroplanes do not perform as well as dry ones.
b. The efficiency of jet engines is reduced by the ingress of water diluting the fuel.
c. The refraction of light from landing lights causes visual impairment.
d. Water ingress into engines can cause flame-out.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
2. FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:
a. 30 hours of operation.
b. 48 hours of operation.
c. 25 hours of operation.
d. The whole flight.
7. Aeroplanes with a take-off mass greater than 5700kg shall be fitted with an independent
automatically operated emergency power supply to operate and illuminate the artificial
horizon for:
a. 15mins.
b. 30mins.
c. 60-mins.
d. 2hrs.
8. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the
available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination
or, at an aerodrome of alternate destination, are, at the predicted time of'.
a. Take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
b. Arrival, and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time, equal to or
better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
c. Arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
d. Arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
12. Where is the general information about the carriage of dangerous goods to be found?
a. Operations Manual.
b. AIC.
c. . Aircraft flight notes.
d. Journey logbook.
15. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The
reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is the:
a. Operation manual's chapter 'Abnormal and Emergency procedures'.
b. Flight manual.
c. FCOM.
d. Minimum equipment list.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
25. Destination alternate for a turbojet - what is the required fuel overhead?
a. 30 Minutes at cruise speed.
b. 30 minutes at 1500' in standard conditions.
c. 2 hours at 1500' in standard conditions.
d. 30 minutes at endurance speed.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
26. Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?
a. Operator.
b. State of Registration.
c. Captain.
d. State of the operator.
27. Following an indication of an unserviceability whilst taxying to the holding point, what do
you consult first?
a. Flight manual.
b. Operator.
c. State of registration.
d. MEL.
30. What is the requirement regarding the carriage of a CVR for aircraft registered before
April 1989
a. Record last 30 mins. of flight.
b. Record for the duration of the flight.
c Record the last 25 hours of operation.
d. Record the last 48 hours of flight.
32. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
a. Only during take-off and landing.
b. While at their station.
c. From take-off to landing.
d. Only during take-off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the
interest of safety.
34. On an ILS you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When must
you abort the approach"
a. Start of the glide-slope descent.
b. FAF.
c. Inner Marker.
d. Outer Marker.
36. On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided
with an oxygen reserve enabling all crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied
with oxygen in the event of cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during
which the pressure altitude is greater than:
a. 9,000ft.
b. 1 0,000ft.
c. 12,000ft.
d. 13,000ft.
37. A modem aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off
gross weight is greater than:
a. 27,000kg.
b. 5,700kg.
c. 20,000kg.
d. 14,000kg.
38. Who provides the operations personnel with the operations manual and the amendments to
keep it up to date?
a. Aircraft manufacturer.
b. ATS authority of the state of registry.
c. Aircraft operator.
d. Owner of aircraft.
42. Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods given
a. Certificate of Airworthiness.
b. Aircraft registration.
c. Air Operator's Certificate.
d. Insurance certificate.
43. How far away can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?
a. 60mins. at one engine cruise speed.
b. 60mins. at normal cruise speed.
c. 120mins. at one engine cruise speed.
d. 120mins. at normal cruise speed.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
a. 1, 2, 4 & 5.
b. 1, 2 & 3.
c. 2,3, 4 & 5.
d. All of the above.
48. A list to be carried in the aeroplane detailing minimum equipment required must be
approved by:
a. Country of operations.
b. Country of operator.
c. Country of manufacturer.
d. No such book is required to be approved by an authority.
a. 1, 3, 4 & 5.
b. 3 & 5.
c. 3, 4 & 5.
d. All of the above.
50. If there is unauthorised use of equipment that affects the aeroplane's system, the
commander:
a. May authorise its use for take-off and landing.
b. Must not authorise its use.
c. May authorise its use for the whole flight.
d. May authorise its use at his discretion.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
52. Following an electrical failure, the emergency lighting unit must provide illumination for:
a. 90 sec.
b. 5 min.
c. 10 min.
d. 30 in.
53 From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite
parallel track. What Nav light will be observed:
a. Green.
b. Red.
c. White.
d. All of the above.
56. All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January
1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off
mass is greater than:
a. 20,000kg.
b. 27,000kg.
c. 5,700kg.
d. 14,000kg.
57. The operator shall include in the operations manual a minimum equipment list which shall
be approved by the authority of
a. None, no approval is required.
b. The country where the aeroplane is operated.
c. The country where the aeroplane was manufactured.
d. The country of the operator.
58. At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a
fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft.
b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1.500 ft.
C. 30 minutes at cruising speed.
d. 45 minutes at cruising speed.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
59. The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when
undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is
prepared by:
a. the operator, and it is inserted In the operations manual.
b. the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual.
c. the operator, and it is appended in the flight manual.
d. the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual.
60. After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep
the original recordings for a period of:
a. 30 days.
b. 90 days.
c. 45 days.
d. 60 days.
61. During a flight, the captain is informed that a passenger is using a portable electronic device,
which is adversely affecting the aircraft's electrical avionics. The captain must:
a. Stop the passenger from using the device.
b. Allow the device to be used at take-off and landing.
c. Allow the device to be used from take-off to landing.
d. Allow the device to be used for certain exceptions.
62. A copy of which of the following documents must be kept on the ground by an operator for
the duration of each flight?
a. The Journey I log
b. he ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.
c. The operational flight plan.
d. The meteorological forecast.
66. Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The
operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It particularly contains:
1. The weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination.
2. One copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet.
3. Copies of the relevant aircraft's technical log.
4. The en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator.
5. Special loads notification.
6. charts.
a. 1, 3 & 5.
b. 2,3, 4 & 5.
c. 2 & 4.
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6.
69. Coverage of permanently illuminated white light's at the rear of the aircraft is:
a. 140°.
b. 70°.
c. 110°.
d. 220°.
75. A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect (circling) approach followed by a visual
manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
a. 1600m.
b. 2400m.
c. 1500m.
d. 3600m.
76, What are the circling minimum visibility and MDH for a Cat B aeroplane'
a. 1600m. 400ft.
b. 1600m. 500ft.
c. 1500m. 450ft.
d. 1500m. 600ft.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
a. 2, 3 & 4.
b. 1, 3 & 4.
c I & 3.
d. 2 & 4.
80. What is the minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB operations?
a. loom.
b. 75m.
c 150m.
d. 200m.
81. What is the minimum visibility for a CAT A aircraft during a circling approach?
a. 500m.
b. 1600m.
c. 2400m.
d. 3600m.
86. What is the take-off RVR limit for a Cat A aeroplane, when high centreline lights
and edge lights are on and the crew is IFR qualified and approved?
a. 150m if threshold RVR is available.
b. 150m
c 200m.
d. 250rn.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
87. When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?
a. The threshold is more than 2m above the ARP.
b. The threshold is less than 2m above the ARP.
c The threshold is less than 2m below the ARP.
d. The threshold is more than 2m below the ARP.
89. What is the minimum horizontal visibility for a CAT D. aircraft on a circling approach?
a. 1500m.
b. . 1600m.
c. . 2400m.
d. 3600m.
91. A category I precision approach (CAT 1) is an approach which may be carried out with a
runway visual range of at least:
a. 550m.
b. 350m.
c. 800m.
d. 500m.
96. The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach is:
a. 2400m.
b. 2500m.
c. 2600m.
d. 2700m.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
97. Aircraft are categorised according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What
aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts - 165kts?
a. B.
b. F.
c. D.
d. C.
98. An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum
visibility of 800 metres. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs When may
the approach be started?
a. When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 800m.
b. When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m.
c. When the met viz is greater than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only.
d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m.
a. 1,2&4.
b. 1 & 3.
c. 1 & 4.
d. 1,2&3.
101. A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the
meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
a. 1,500m.
b. 1,600m
c. 2,400m.
d. 3,600m.
Chapter – 22
1. Through what angle can the regulatory green navigation light of an aircraft be seen?
a. 110 deg.
b. 70 deg.
c. 90 deg.
d. 140 deg.
2. Who must ensure that any given aircraft malfunction complies with the MEL and
therefore allows the aircraft to fly?
a. The pilot in command.
b. A representative of the company that owns the aircraft.
c. The flight engineer, or the on board mechanic if present.
d. The operator.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
4. Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) are based on several factors, which combination
of the following are factors assessed in defining AOM:
1. Runway length.
2. Crew composition.
3. Means used to report meteorological conditions.
4. Obstacles in the go around and approach areas.
a. 1,2&4.
b. 1,3&4.
c. 1 & 4.
d. 1,2,3&4.
6. The VFR minima for flight in Class B airspace above FL 100 are?
a. 5 km forward visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500m laterally clear of cloud.
b. 5 km forward visibility and clear of cloud.
c. 8 km forward visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500m laterally clear of cloud.
d. 8 km forward visibility and clear of cloud.
a. 1,2&4.
b. 2, 3 & 4.
c. 1,3&4.
d. All of the above.
10. How many first aid kits and medical kits should be carried on an aircraft authorised to
carry 250 passengers'?
a. 4 first aid kits and 1 medical kit.
b. 4 first aid kits and no medical kit.
c. 3 first aid kits and 1 medical kit
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
11. An operator has to ensure that instrument procedures are used. When may a
commander deviate from those procedures?
a. When cleared by ATC.
b. When cleared by the Authority.
c. When cleared by the Operator.
d. None of the above.
Of the following people, who specifically may have access to the flight deck?
1. A pilot positioning for a flight.
2. A person permitted according to the Operations Manual.
3. Wives of flight crew
4. Cabin crew members.
5. Representatives of the Authority.
a. 1,2&5
b. 2,3 & 5.
c. 1,2&4.
d. 2,4 & 5.
15. What equipment must be fitted to an aeroplane for flight under VFR when not navigating
by visual reference points`?
a. One radio system, reply to SSR interrogation and sufficient navigation equipment.
b. Two radio systems, reply to SSR interrogation and sufficient navigation equipment.
c. One radio system, SSR transponder and one each of VOR, ADF and DME.
d. Two radio systems, SSR transponder and one each of VOR, ADF and DME.
17. The minimum meteorological visibility for a circling approach in a Cat B aircraft is:
a. 1500m.
b. 1600m.
c. 2400m.
d. 3600m.
18. The aeroplane's V so is reported to be lll kts at maximum landing mass, to which approach
category does it belong?
a. B.
b. C.
c. D.
d. E.
19. The MDH and minimum RVR for a Cat D aeroplane making an approach on an ILS with
no glide path is:
a. 200ft & 550m.
b. 200ft & 800m.
c. 250ft & 800m.
d. 250ft & 1200m.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
20. If the meteorological visibility is reported to be below the minimum required for a non-
precision approach, by which criterion must the approach be aborted?
a. Final Approach Fix.
b. Inner marker.
c. 1000ft above the ARP.
d. Outer marker.
21. What is the minimum RVR for a CAT III approach when the aeroplane is flying with a
failoperational Roll-out Control/Guidance System?
a. 75m.
b. 125m.
c. 150m.
d. 200m.
22. A CAT I ILS may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
a. 400m.
b. 500m.
c. 550m.
d. 800m.
23. An aeroplane with just one pilot may carry out the same approach with a runway visual
range of:
a. 400m.
b. 500m.
c. 550m.
d. 800m.
39. The worst airframe icing conditions occur on the ground in:
a. Frost.
b. Snow.
c. Freezing fog.
d. Freezing rain.
40. When carrying out de-icing/anti-icing as a one step procedure, the holdover time is
deemed to have started from:
a. The start of the de-icing procedure.
b. The end of the de-icing procedure.
c. When all ice deposits have been removed from the airframe.
d. When the icing conditions have stopped affecting the aeroplane.
45. After using all the fire extinguishers, which of the following would you use to fight the
fire?
a. All beverages.
b. Blankets.
c. Axes and crow-bars.
d. Tool-kits.
46. With which fire extinguisher would you normally fight a wheel fire?
a. Co 2.
b. Foam.
c. Dry powder.
d. Water.
47. In the event of an uncontrolled depressurisation at FL310, the first action of the flight
crew is to:
a. Declare a MAYDAY.
b. Initiate a descent to safety altitude.
c. Inform the passengers.
d. Don oxygen masks.
50. What period of time must elapse before a light category aircraft can take off from the
same position on a runway following a heavy category aircraft?
a. 1 min.
b. 2 mins.
c. 3 mins.
d. 4 mins.
51. What is the mass range of light aeroplanes vis-a-vis wake turbulence categories?
a. Below 5400kg.
b. 7000kg or less.
c. Between 5400kg and 7000kg.
d. Between 7000kg and 136000kg.
52. What transponder codes should be selected if the aeroplane is subjected to an act of
unlawful interference?
a. 7500.
b. 7600.
c. 7700.
d. 0000.
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Operational Procedures( CPL/IR )
53. What would be the most appropriate action should an unidentified package, suspected to
be an IED (improvised explosive device), be found on the aeroplane?
a. Open the package and attempt to identify the owner.
b. Move the package to the least-risk bomb location and make an expeditious landing.
c. Cover the package with blankets and ask the passengers to pray.
d. Squawk 7600 and make an emergency descent.
57. In which document is it stated, in detail, what dangerous goods cannot be carried by air`?
a. The Operations Manual.
b. The Technical Instructions.
c. ICAO Annex 6.
d. ICAO Annex 18.
58. If an aircraft has tyres inflated to 10.8 bar, what is the speed at which aquaplaning would
begin?
a. 85kts.
b. 97kts.
c. 103 kts.
d. 1 12kts.
59. A runway is said to be contaminated if:
a. More than 25% of the manoeuvring area is covered with a contaminant.
b. More than 25% of the surface area has a shiny appearance.
c. The snow on the runway isn't good enough to make snowballs.
d. More than 25% of the surface area has surface water greater than 3mm in depth.
60. If the breaking action was described as Code 4, it would be the equivalent of:
a. Good.
b. Medium to good.
c. Medium.
d. Medium to poor.
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