Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 2 Sec tio n -1

1. ICAO Annex 17 lays down the rules to establish security measures for passengers with regard to:
a) Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design.
b) Cabin baggage and checked baggage
c) Passenger baggage
d) Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods and access control

2. Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when:
a) Cloud base is lower than 1500 feet and less than 5 kms ground visibility
b) Cloud ceiling is lower than 1500 feet and less than 5 kms ground visibility
c) Cloud ceiling is lower than 1500 feet or less than 5 kms ground visibility
d) Cloud ceiling is1000 feet and less than 5 kms ground visibility

3. When requesting to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal :
a) Arms repeatedly crossed over the head
b) Arms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving horizontally
c) Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body, then clench fist.
d) Arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning downwards.

4. When doing a procedure turn (45°/180°) going outbound turned 45° off track, the time taken from the
start of the turn for Cat A and Cat B aircraft is
a. 1 minute 30 seconds b. 1 minute
c. 1 minute 15 seconds d. 2 minutes

5. Concerning the three entries to the hold, the entry has to be flown on:
a) Heading b) Track c) Course d) Bearing

6. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall:

a) Only use the word "wilco" b) Only read back the code
c) Only use the word "roger" d) Read back mode and code

7. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment, where the aircraft is lined up with the runway centre line
and when the decent is commenced is called:
a) Intermediate approach segment b) Initial approach segment
c) Arrival segment d) Final approach segment

8. What does DER mean?

a) Distance end of route b) Departure end of runway
c) Distance end of runway d) Departure end of route

9. What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure?
a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed
b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
c Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC
conditions
d) Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

10. Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft?
a) The State b) The Operator c) The Commander d) The owner
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

11. Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance?
a) The ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan
b) The Captain
c) The Operator of the aircraft
d) ATC

12. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:
a) 50 minutes before off-block time b) 60 minutes before departure
c) 45 minutes before departure d) 30 minutes before off-block time

13. An aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the aircraft
is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is within
a) The last 2 nms of the approach b) The last 5 nms of the approach
c) The last 4 nms of the approach d) The last 3 nms of the approach

14. Clocks and other timing equipment used by air traffic services must be checked in order to be able to
give the time within plus or minus:
a) 15 seconds of UTC b) 10 seconds of UTC
c) 30 seconds of UTC d) 1 minute of UTC

15. How many red lights have to be seen by the pilot, whose aircraft on final approach follows a normal
PAPI defined glide-path?
a) 2 b) None c) 3 d) 1

16. A Clearway is a squared area that is established to

a) Protect aircraft during take-off and landing
b) To enable the aircraft to stop in the case of an aborted take-off
c) To enable the aircraft to make a part of the initial climb to a specified altitude
d) To decrease the risk of damage to aircraft which run off the end of the runway

17. When someone's admittance to a country is refused and he/she is brought back to the operator for
transportation away from the territory of the state:
a) The operator won't take any transportation costs from the passenger which arise from his/her
inadmissibility
b) The operator is not responsible for that person, to whom the admittance to the host country is
refused
c) The operator and state of the operator are both responsible for the refused person
d) The operator will not be prevented from taking any transport costs from a person which arises
out of his/her inadmissibility

18. A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level
deviates or is expected to deviate compared to the given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus:
a) 10% b) 3% c) 2% d) 5%

19. Concerning aircraft registration markings, no combinations can be used if they can be mistaken for
a) Codes which are used for identification of ICAO documents
b) Letter combinations beginning with Q
c) 3 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals
d) 5 letter combinations which are used in the international code of signals
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

20. What is the rule concerning level or height that an aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside
controlled airspace unless otherwise directed?
a. 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the heading
b. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the estimated position of the aircraft
c. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the planned track
d. 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the planned track

21. The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the:
a) Pilot in command
b) Operator
c) ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace
d. Owner of the aircraft

22. Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless
a) They operate outside controlled airspace
b) If asked by ATC
c) With are within controlled airspace
d) They operate a transponder with mode C

23. It is permitted in a particular sector, if there is a conspicuous obstacle in the visual maneuvering area
outside the final and missed approach areas, to disregard that obstacle. When using this option, the
published procedure shall be:
a) Circling is only permitted in VMC
b) Recommended not to execute a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is
situated.
c) Prohibit a circling approach for the concerned runway
d) Forbid a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is located

24. If the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to:
a) Correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace
b) Ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind
c) Ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track
d) Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

25. Close to an aerodrome that will be used for landing by aircraft, the vertical position shall be expressed
as:
a) Altitude above sea level on or above transition altitude
b) Flight level on or under the transition altitude
c) Flight level on or under the transition level
d) Altitude above sea level at or below transition altitude

26. A manoeuvre where a turn is made from a "designated track" followed by a turn in the opposite direction
to enable the aircraft to fly the prescribed track is called:
a) Base turn b) Reverse track c) Race track d) Procedure turn

27. The transition of altitude to flight level and vice versa is made:
a) On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent
b) At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent
c) At the transition level only
d) At the transition altitude only

28. Continuous Radio communication is not a requirement for:

a) All traffic in F & G airspace b) VFR traffic in E, F & G airspace
c) VFR traffic in F & G airspace d) All traffic in E, F & G airspace
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

29. Air Traffic Service unit consists of

a) Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Information Centers
b) Flight Information Centers and Air Services Reporting offices
c) Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Information Centers and Air Traffic Services Rep orting offices
d) Air Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units

30. When the captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance:

a) The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan.
b) He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance.
c) He/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance
d) He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

31. The transition from IFR to VFR is done:

a) On the Captain's initiative
b) Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace
c) If told by ATC
d) At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

32. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction:
a) Before landing and taxi for take-off
b) In anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60 ° N and South of 60° S
c) When an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give a PIREP
d) When the local variation is greater than 10 °East or West

33. The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircraft at the same FL, where there is
enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceding aircraft has a higher true airspeed of 20 kts
minimum is
a) 3 minutes b) 15 minutes c) 5 minutes d) 10 minutes

34. What is the length of the approach lighting system of a Cat II precision landing runway?
a) 900m b) 600m c) 300m d) 150m

35. A PAPI must consist of:

a) A row of 4 multi-lamp units at equal distance from each other
b) Two rows of 4 multi-lamp units at equal distance from each other
c) A row of 2 multi-lamp units at equal distance from each other
d) Two rows of 6 multi-lamp units at equal distance from each other

36. Lights at the end of the runway shall be:

a) Steady unidirectional lights radiating white light in the direction of the runway
b) Steady white lights with controllable intensity
c) Steady omnidirectional red lights with controllable intensity
d) Steady unidirectional lights radiating red light in the direction of the runway
37. An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if:
a) The pilot follows the published approach procedures
b) The aircraft receives radar vectors
c) The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain
visual contact
d) All of the above
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

38. The VMC minima for a VFR flight within ATS airspace class B are:
a) 8 km visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud
b) 5 nms visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
c) 8 kms visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
d) 5 nms visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud
39. The minimum response time for the aerodrome rescue and fire fighting services to the end of each
runway as well as to any other part of the movement area is:
a. 3 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes
b. 2 minutes and not exceeding 3 minutes
c. 2 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes
d. 3 minutes and not exceeding 5 minutes

40. A pilot crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms outwards.
What does this signal indicate?
a) Clear to move forward b) Brakes off
c) Remove chocks d) Clear to close all engines

41. What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace?

a) No flight plan required
b) Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory
service or not
c) Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes
d) A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

42. A Type Rating is applicable to:

a) An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness
b) An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State
c) An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation
d) An aircraft that requires additional skills training
43. If an aircraft is radar vectored to intercept an ILS localizer, what is that maximum intercept angle?
a) 45° b) 30° c) 15° d) 20°

44. What are the objectives of ATC Services?

a) To prevent collisions between aircraft, to prevent collisions between aircraft on the
maneuvering area and obstructions on that area and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow
of air traffic.
b) To prevent collisions between controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow
of air traffic.
c) To provide separation of aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
d) To provide separation of controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of
air traffic.

45. A TODA consists of:

a) The take-off run available excluding the clearway
b) The take-off run available including the clearway
c) The take-off run available excluding the stopway
d) The take-off run available only
46. The continued validity of a C of A of an aircraft is subject to the laws of:
a) The State of Registration
b) The State of Registration ands the State of the Operator
c) The State of the Operator
d) The State of Registry and the State of Design
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

47. ATIS will not broadcast which of the information:

a) Cloud at 3 000 ft
b) Cloud at 5 000 ft
c) When Cb is present
d) When the cloud base is below the highest MSA
48. Voice ATIS:
1. Cannot be broadcasted on a voice ILS
2. Cannot be broadcasted on voice VOR
3. Is broadcasted only on a discreet VFH frequency
4. Is broadcasted on either a discreet VHF, VOR or an ILS frequency
a) 1 only is correct
b) 2 only is correct
c) 4 only is correct
d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

49. What is the meaning of the symbol LLL to search parties?

a) We have only found some personnel
b) We have found all personnel
c) Operation completed
d) Nothing found

50. A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a Cargo Manifest shall, apart from the
information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the
following items:
a) Airway bill number and the number of packages only
b) Total weight and the number of packages only
c) Total weight and the nature of the goods only
d) Airway bill number, the number of packages and the nature of goods

51. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure applicable to:
a) Accompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure distinct and different from that
normally applicable to other cargo
b) Cargo
c) Dangerous Goods
d) Mail
52. An area symmetrical about the extended runway centreline and adjacent to the end of the strip, primarily
intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft undershooting or overrunning the runway is defined
as a:
a) Clearway
b) Runway Strip Extension
c) Runway end safety area
d) Altimeter Operating Area Extension
53. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a "runway vacated" sign
positioned?
a) To a distance of the nearest Pattern `A' holding position
b) At the end of the ILS/MLS Sensitive Area
c) It depends on the Aerodrome Category
d) 85 metres
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

54. What is required if a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and runway is to be used with RVR of
less than 550m:
a) Both a Pattern `A' and `B' holding position
b) High intensity taxiway centerline lights only
c) Runway guard lights
d) Both high intensity taxiway centerline lights and high intensity taxiway edge lights:
55. ATIS broadcasts shall contain cloud details, when:
a) They are below 2,500m
b) They are below 1,500m or highest MSA, whichever is the greater
c) They are above 1,500m
d) They are at or below 1, 500m or highest MSA, whichever is the greater

56. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach ?
a) Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach
b) Land on the instrument runway
c) Initiate a missed approach
d) Return to the FAF

57. When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by
the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in
addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to:
a) Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detaine d
as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO.
b) ICAO only
c) Each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
d) ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

58. When a State renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of
its own license, the validity shall:
a) Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license.
b) Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license
c) Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid
d) Be at the discretion of ICAO

59. Where in the AIP would you find details on instrument holding procedures?
a) GEN b) ENR c) AD d) AGA

60. The loading limitations shall include:

a) All limiting mass and centres of gravity
b) All limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading
c) All limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading
d) All limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity

61. The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes:

a) Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
b) Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
c) Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
d) Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the
Chicago convention.

62. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language
is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted
aircraft to descend for landing?
a) Let down b) Descend c) Descend for landing d) You land
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

63. An aircraft manoeuvrings in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower.
This signifies that the aircraft must:
a) Do not land because the airport is not available for landing.
b) Give way to another aircraft.
c) Return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
d) Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

64. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio
failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights
b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

65. The main factors that dictate in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is:
a) The terrain surrounding the aerodrome.
b) ATC availability and requirements.
c) Availability of navigation aids.
d) Airspace restrictions applicable and in force.

66. One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
a) The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight.
b) The required visual references have been established and can be maintained.
c) The Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
d) The horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.

67. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any
particular holding pattern, he should:
a) Advise ATC as early as possible
b) Execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his aeroplane
C) Remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding
d) Follow the radio communication failure procedure

68. The Transition Level:

a) Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
b) Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.
c) Is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIR
d) Is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.

69. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode :
a) Only when directed by ATC
b) Unless otherwise directed by ATC.
c) Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace
d) Regardless of ATC instructions

70. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
a) Achieving separation between IFR flights
b) Achieving separation between controlled flights
c) Providing advisory service
d) Providing flight Information Service

71. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled
airspace below FL 290 is:
a) 500 feet (150 m) b) 2500 feet (750 m)
c) 1000 feet (300 m) d) 2000 feet (600 m)
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

72. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be
reduced:
a) If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests
b) Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
c) When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able
to maintain own separation
d) At the discretion of the air traffic controller
73. In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a
medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway?
a) 3 minutes b) 2 minutes c) 1 minute d) 4 minutes

74. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, then:
a) You must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavor to provide for
continuation of the flight;
b) Departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
c) You are not allowed to commence the flight
d) The flight can only continue in the most direct manner;

75. In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre
line have a length of:
a) 250 m b) 200 m c) 150 m d) 300 m

76. When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory
of the state, the operator:
a) Shall not be precluded from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from
his (her) inadmissibility
b) Shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her)
inadmissibility
c) Is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
d) The state of the operator is responsible for the person inadmissible

77. Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?

a) The Authority of the State in which the accident took place
b) The Operators of the same aircraft type
c) The aircraft manufacturer
d) The State of design and manufacturer

78. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the
responsibility of the:
a) Operational air traffic control centres
b) Flight information or control organizations
c) Air traffic co-ordination services
d) Search and rescue co-ordination centres

79. An aircraft intercepted by a military aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication
with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
a) 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 243.0 MHz
b) 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 406.0 MHz
c) 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 282.0 MHz
d) 243.0 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 121.5 MHz

80. Except in special cases, the establishment of change-over points shall be limited to route segments of:
a) 1 00 nms or more b) more than 60 nm
c) 60 nms or more d) 50 nms or more
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

81. The body, which governs licensing of pilot licenses or the equivalent documents, must decide if the
experience of the pilot in training done on a simulator is acceptable as part of the total flying time of
1500 hours. Exemption from such experience shall be limited to a maximum of:
a) 100 hours, of which not more than 15 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a
synthetic flight trainer
b) 75 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a
synthetic flight trainer
c) 100 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a synthetic flight trainer
d) 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a basic
instrument flight trainer

82. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall:

a) Only use the word "wilco"
b) Only read back the code
c) Only use the word "roger"
d) Read back mode and code

83. Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance?
a) The ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan
b) The Captain
c) The Operator of the aircraft
d) ATC

84. The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the:
a) Pilot in command
b) Operator
c) ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace
d) Owner of the aircraft

85. Contracting States shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply
with the documentary procedures as proscribed by:
a) The Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union
b) The Acts in force of the General Postal Union
c) The Acts in force of the Warsaw Convention
d) The Acts in force of the International Postal Union

86. Speed restriction is applicable for:

a) IFR traffic in D, E, F & G airspace below FL 100
b) VFR traffic in C, D, E, F & G airspace below FL 100
c) IFR traffic in D, E, F & G airspace & VFR traffic in C, D, E, F & G airspace
d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 2 2 Sec tio n -2

1. The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered:
a) Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
b) Binding for all member states
c) Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
d) Binding for all airline companies with international traffic

2. It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardize the safety of
the aircraft; the PIC may:
a) Request the crew to detain the passenger
b) Ask the passenger to disembark
c) Order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question
d) Hand him her over to the authorities

3. Which of the following is not permitted in the registration mark of an aircraft?

a) Four letter Q codes
b) Five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
c) Three letter international identification signals
d) Any number identifying an ICAO document

4. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the
functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:
a) With 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
b) In full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time require for a higher grade of licence.
c) The flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
d) The flight in full toward the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to
the requirements of the licensing authority.

5. For an ATPL (A), how many night hours are required?

a) 30 b) 75 c) 100 d) 150

6. When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying
instructor. When will supervision cease?
a) Once you have passed a competency check
b) When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo
c) When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 100 students solo
d) When you have completed 100 hours solo

7. What is the period of validity of a PPL class 2 medical in according to JAR FCL 3?
a) 24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months
thereafter
b) 24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65
c) 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months
thereafter
d) 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65

8. A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall be completed :

a) 150 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time
b) 150 hours flight time
c) 200 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time
d) 200 hours flight time
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

9. As per ICAO, what minimum ground visibility is required to enable a S VFR flight to take off from an
aerodrome in a CTR?
a) 1000m b) 1500m c) 2000m d) 3000m

10. In a holding pattern, turns are to be made at:

a) Rate of turn of 3°/sec
b) Rate of turn of 3°/sec or 20° bank whichever is lesser
c) Rate of turn of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 25° whichever is lesser
d) Bank angle of 25°

11. What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
a) 5.5% b) 2.5% c) 0.8% d) 3.3%

12. In general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than:
a) OCH/A b) 200ft c) 350ft d) 400ft

13. What is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal
conditions at 4,250 metres (14,000 ft)?
a) 0.83 Mach b) 490 km/hr (265 kts)
c) 315 km/hr (170 kts) d) 520 km/hr (280 kts)

14. For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance?
a) 30m b) 100m c) 50m d) 120m

15. At what distance does an SRA normally terminate:

a) 2nm b) 1 nm c) 2km d.) ½ nm

16. What is the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways?

a) RVR not less than 350 m DH not below 100ft
b) RVR 200 m DH not below 100ft
c) RVR 200 m DH not below 200ft
d) RVR 300 m DH not below 200ft

17. The aiming point marking shall commence no closer to a threshold by specifics distance depending upon
runway LDA. What is the distance for a runway having an LDA of 2400 m or more?
a) 300 m b) 500 m c) 400 m d) 250 m

18. The 45° leg of a 45/180° procedure turn for a CAT C aircraft is:
a) 1 min b) 1 min 15 seconds
c) 1 min 30 seconds d) Continued until interception of the glide slope

19. The vat for a Category B aircraft is:

a) 90 to 120 kts inclusive b) 90 to 121 kts inclusive
c) 91 to 120 kph inclusive d) 91 to 120 kts inclusive

20. When using a DR segment to take up an ILS instrument approach, what is the length of the track that
may be used to intercept the localizer?
a) Not more than 10 nm b) 5 nm c) 10 nm d) 6 nm

21. The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance of 300 metres within a certain radius from the
navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is:
a) 15 nms b) 10 nms c) 25 nms d) 20 nms
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

22. What is the speed limit below 10,000 ft in Class E airspace?

a) 250 kts TAS b) 250 kts IAS c) Not applicable d) 200 kts IAS

23. What is the definition of the Emergency Phase?

a) The Distress Phase
b) The Alarm Phase
c) The Alert Phase
d) A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the
Distress Phase

24. Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by:

a) Country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier
b) Country identifier followed by P/D/R
c) P/D/R followed by the identifier
d) Country identifier followed by numbers

25. What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP?

a) Present position and ETA
b) Estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance
c) Estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance
d) ETA and endurance

26. If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the Maximum separation
is:
a) 20 minutes b) 15 minutes c) 10 minutes d) 5 minutes

27. If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before one
of the two may commence a climb or descent?
a) 5 nm b) 10 nm c) 15 nm d) 20 nm

28. What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine
range from a beacon?
a) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
b) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
c) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
d) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second

29. The longitudinal separation minimum, based on time between two aircraft at the same altit ude, for which
navigation aids can give a frequent determination of position and speed and when the proceeding aircraft
has a true airspeed of at least 40 kts higher than the following aircraft, is:
a) 5 minutes b) 6 minutes c) 10 minutes d) 3 minutes

30. Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that
aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?
a) 3 minutes b) 5 minutes c) 10 minutes d) 2 minutes

31. On departure, a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately
after take-off at least:
a) 45° b) 15° c) 30° d) 20°

32. What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the
same runway?
a) 5 min b) 3 min c) 1 min d) 2 min
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

33. Between two aircraft on the same track what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided
for wake turbulence is:
a) 4 nms b) 2.5 nms c) 2 nms d) 3 nms

34. A heavy aircraft has made a missed approach to a runway in the opposite direction to normal take-off.
What is the separation required for a light aircraft taking off?
a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 1 minute c) 5 minutes

35. Radar separation may be applied before an aircraft taking off and a preceding departing aircraft
providing the departing aircraft can be identified from the end of the runway within:
a) 5nm b) 3nm c) 2nm d) 1 nm

36. In Bangladesh, what is the minimum radar separation provided for two aircraft established on the same
localizer?
a) 5 nm b) 5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kits faster than the second
c) 10 nm d) 20 nm

37. A radar controller can request an aircraft to change speed when it is on the intermediate and final
approach phase, except in certain conditions specified by the proper ATS authority. The speed change
must not be more than:
a) ± 20 kph b) ± 8 kts c) ± 10 kts d) ± 20 kts

38. The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is
a) Light aircraft behind medium aircraft; 4 minutes
b) Medium aircraft behind medium aircraft; 2 minutes
c) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 3 minutes
d) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 2 minutes
39. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of:
a) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins
(PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries.
b) AIP and amendment service„ NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs,
checklists and summaries.
c) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and
summaries.
d) AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins

40. An object of limited mobility (an aerobridge for example) is lit by:
a) Low intensity steady red lights
b) Low intensity flashing red lights
c) Medium intensity steady red lights
d) Medium intensity flashing red lights

41. Who is responsible for the efficient organization of an efficient SAR service?
a) FIC and RCC
b) RCC and rescue sub-centres
c) FIC, RCC and ACC
d) ICAO through regional navigation plans

42. Using the visual SAR signals the symbol for "we have found all personnel" is :
a) ++ b) LLL c) LL d) Y
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

43. According to Annex 17, security is defined as "a combination of measures and human resources
intended to safeguard:
a) Civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
b) International civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
c) International aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
d) Aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference

44. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume its flight provided that :
a) The state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and the state
where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraft is still
airworthy
b) The state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage is of such
a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy
c) The state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is
declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where there aircraft is registere d which
says that the aircraft is still airworthy
d) The state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed the state
where the aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is
still airworthy

45. As per ICAO what is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localizer?
a) 5 nm b) 3 nm c) 10 nm d) 15 nm