Air Law-33-49

Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)
Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 9
1. When, in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PIC of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in
accordance with VFR until destination:
1) He/she must inform the control unit of his intention using the expression "cancelling my IFR
flight"
2) He/she must request and obtain clearance
3) ATC will acknowledge with the time the IFR flight is cancelled
4) The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight Which of the following combinations is
correct?
a) 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4
2. When are you not required to make position reports on a controlled flight?
a) When advised by ATC to cease position report
b) If navigating by visual reporting points
c) Outside of controlled airspace
d) If flying under VFR
3. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?
a) Z b) Y c) I d) V
4. What is the delay for a controlled flight after which a flight plan has to be re-filed?
a) 30 minutes b) 45 minutes c) 60 minutes d) 25 minutes
5. In Bangladesh, the written incident report should be submitted as soon as possible. However in case the
initial report was not made on air/ground frequency or any other means, the written report should reach
Chairman CAAB:
a) Not later than 10 days from the date of accident occurred
b) Not later than 7days from the date of accident occurred
c) Not later than 3 days from the date of accident occurred
d) Not later than 15 days from the date of accident occurred
6. What is the standard ICAO position report?

a) Aircraft call sign, position, time, level, next position and time, ensuing significant point
b) Aircraft call sign, position, time, level, next position and time
c) Aircraft call sign, position, level, next position and time
d) Aircraft call sign, position, level, TAS, time
7. After a delay of how long must a flight plan be amended or re-submitted for an uncontrolled flight?
a) 15 mins b) 30 mins c) 45 mins d) 60 mins
8. How is speed entered in item 15 of a flight plan?

a) Ground speed b) True airspeed
c) Ground speed plus 10% d) Indicated airspeed
9. Routine AIREP includes following information?

a. Position information and operational information
b. Position information
c. Position information and Meteorological information
d. Position information, operational information and Meteorological information
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10. You have been given a clearance by ATC but you are forced to deviate from it for some reason. What do
you do?
a) Request deviation from the clearance after the fact
b) Tell ATC at any time after the deviation
c) Tell ATC as soon as possible after the deviation
d) Notify ATC in writing within 24 hours
11. You file a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (total EET)?
a) Time from brakes off to overhead the destination
b) Time from brakes released to landing time
c) Time from take off to overhead the destination
d) Time from take off to landing
12. In the case of a delay of a controlled flight, the filed flight plan must be amended or cancelled and a new
flight plan must be filed, when the delay is:
a) 30 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time
b) 60 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time
c) 30 minutes more than the estimated departure time
d) 60 minutes more than the estimated departure time
13. What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP?

a) Present position and ETA
b) Estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance
c) Estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance
d) ETA and endurance
14. In Bangladesh, the written incident report should be submitted as soon as possible. However in case the
initial report was made on air/ground frequency or any other means, the written report should reach
Chairman CAAB:
a) Not later than 10 days from the date of accident occurred
b) Not later than 7days from the date of accident occurred
c) Not later than 3 days from the date of accident occurred
d) Not later than 15 days from the date of accident occurred
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Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 1 0
1. What types of separation do ATC apply?

a) Horizontal, longitudinal and timing
b) Horizontal, vertical and longitudinal
c) Horizontal, vertical and composite
d) Horizontal, vertical and lateral
2. What is a strayed aircraft?

a) One that has gone significantly off-track
b) One that is lost and has reported so to ATC
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’.
d) One which its position has not been established by ATC
3. What are two types of horizontal separation?

a) Lateral and geographic
b) Vertical and longitudinal
c) Lateral and longitudinal
d) Vertical and lateral
4. If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation
is:
5. What is the longitudinal separation standard required for RNAV routes?

a) 80 nm b) 60 nm c) 50 nm d) 20 nm
6. When can one aircraft pass through the level of another aircraft which is flying along an ATS route, in
VMC maintaining own separation?
a) If the pilot requests and the state approves
b) If the pilot requests and it is day time
c) If the pilot requests during day or night
d) Irrelevant - the manoeuvre is not permitted
7. Minimum RNAV separation when RNP is specified is:

a) 80 nm
b) 50 nm
c) 80 or 50 dependant upon the RNP type
d) 20 nm
8. If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before one
of the two may commence a climb or descent?
a) 5 nm b) 10 nm c) 15 nm d) 20 nm
9. Whilst in IFR in VMC you decide to maintain your own separation to descend through the level of
another aircraft. What is required?
a) During day you must request clearance and with ATC authority approval
b) You must request clearance and the ATC authority must approve, during day or night
c) You only need to request approval for the manoeuvre
d) In CAS the manoeuvre is illegal
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10. How longitudinal separation is achieved?

a) By requiring aircraft to depart at a specified time
b) By requiring aircraft to arrive over a geographical location at a specified time
c) By requiring aircraft to hold over a geographical location until specified time
d) All of the above
11. An ATCO advises a pilot that "clearance expires at 0920 What does this mean?
a) The flight must end by 0920
b) The slot time cannot be later than 0920
c) The next clearance will be issued at 0920
d) Time at which the clearance is cancelled if the flight does not commenced
12. What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine
range from a beacon?
a) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
b) 10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
c) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
d) 20 nm where the first aircraft speed is 20 kts faster than the second
13. Two aircraft are using the Mach Number Technique (both at same Mach Number or first faster than
second) for same track separation. If using an RNAV track what would be the standard separation in lieu
of time?
a) 80 nm b) 60 nm c) 50 nm d) 25 nm
14. In case of DR, by what diverging angle must the aircraft be separated before one of the two may
commence a climb or descent?
a) 15º b) 45º c) 30º d) 20º
15. Two aircraft are flying the same route where the Mach number technique is applied. What is the
minimum RNAV distance based separation that may be applied in lieu of the normal 10 minutes
longitudinal separation?
a) 150nm b) 50nm c) 80nm d) 120nm
16. If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track and when navigation aids
do not permit frequent determination of position and speed, the minimum separation is:
17. For descent through the level of another aircraft on the crossing track, the maximum separation is:
18. A separation minimum based on "RNAV" distance can be used at the moment the level is being passed,
assuming that every aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on-track" waypoint. The minimum
is:
a) 60 nms b) 80 nms c) 50 nms d) 20 nms
19. What is essential traffic?

a) Special flights that do not require a clearance in CAS or under IFR
b) Controlled traffic to which separation is applicable but is or will not be applied from
Other controlled flight
c) Traffic that has priority by virtue of state of emergency, position or altitude
d) Commercial air transport
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20. In an area where longitudinal separation is based on RNAV information, what conditions are necessary
for the reduced separation standard of 50 nm applied?
a) RNP 20: direct controller/pilot communications, procedural position reports and distance update
every 60 minutes
b) RNP 10: direct controller/pilot communications, procedural position reports and distance update
every 60 minutes
c) RNP 10: direct controller/pilot communications, procedural position reports and distance update
every 30 minutes
d) RNP 20: direct controller/pilot communications, procedural position reports and distance update
every 30 minutes
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1. At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind component information, what
change in cross wind component change would be passed to the pilot?
a) 10 kts b) 8 kts c) 3 kts d) 5 kts
2. Where an aeroplane is making a straight in approach to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied
between that aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?
3. Approach control is provided for:

a) All arriving and departing controlled flights b) All arriving IFR traffic
c) Traffic within the CTA d) All VFR traffic
4. Where an arriving aeroplane is making a complete instrument approach to land, what is the maximum
spacing applied between that aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?
a) 3 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) Until the arriving aircraft has started its procedure or base turn leading to final approach
d) 2 minutes
5. A revised EAT shall be transmitted to an aircraft whenever it differs from that EAT previously
transmitted by:
a) More than 5 minutes b) 10 minutes or more
c) 5 minutes or more d) 15 minutes or more
6. If one aircraft wishes to occupy the level of another aircraft which has been cleared to descend, when can
the first aircraft start descending to that level?
a) When the second aircraft reports leaving the level
b) When the second aircraft reports 1,000 ft out of the level
c) When the second aircraft reports at the cleared level
d) When the second aircraft reports through 500 ft from the original level
7. On an approach by an IFR flight, when can this be converted to a visual approach:

a) After the FAF b) With visual reference to the terrain
c) When the visibility is greater than 5km d) After the MAP
8. A controlled flight reports `field in sight'. Under what conditions may the flight make a visual approach?
a) When the controller will provide separation from other traffic
b) The aircraft has passed the FAF
c) With a met visibility at least 8kms
d) The remainder of the approach is to be conducted under VMC.
9. Two aircraft are departing from the same runway, the first aircraft being 40kts or more faster. What
separation should be provided?
10. On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately
after take-off at least:
a) 45° b) 15° c) 30° d) 20°
11. When can normal separation be reduced?

a) When the controller has both aircraft in sight
b) When the following aircraft has the preceding in sight and can maintain it
c) When both pilots request it
d) When both aircraft are under radar control
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12. What would be considered a significant tail wind component?

a) 3 kts b) 5 kts c) 2 kts d) Any tail wind is significant
13. What is a visual approach?

a) Any approach carried out with the use of visual aids only
b) An instrument approach in VMC
c) Part or all of an instrument approach carried out with regard to visual reference
d) Part of an instrument approach below MDH where visual contact with ground is maintained
14. An EAT shall be determined when an arriving aircraft will be subjected to a delay of:
a) More than 5 minutes b) 10 minutes or more
c) More than 10 minutes d) 5 minutes or more
15. What separation is applied where vertical separation does not exist if a departing aircraft will be flown
through the level of preceding departing aircraft and both are to follow the same track?
16. The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of
inbound aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to:
a) Make a step-down descent in approaching sequence
b) Pass the specified inbound fix at a given time
c) Conduct the approach procedure with specified speeds
d) Pass a specific point
17. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction:
a) Before landing and taxi for take-off
b) In anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60° N and South of 60° S
c) When an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office to give an AIREP
d) When the local variation is greater than 10° East or West
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1. What is the maximum distance from touchdown that a radar controller can request a change of speed to
an aircraft on final approach?
a) 5nm b) 3nm c) 2nm d) 4nm
2. What is the criterion for an aerodrome to be controlled?

a) It must be located within a CTR
b) It must have a control tower giving an ATC service
c) It must have a control tower and be in a CTR
d) It must be in controlled airspace
3. What is the separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using
the same runway for wake turbulence?
a) 5 min b) 3 min c) 1 min d) 2 min
4. What is the primary reason for Radar in ATC?

a) Separation
b) Helping when aircraft communications have failed
c) To assist pilots with technical problems
d) To assist pilots of aircraft that are lost
5. When must you operate your SSR transponder?

a) Always
b) At all times unless otherwise instructed by ATC
c) At your discretion regardless of ATC instructions
d) Mode ‘A’ always; Mode C at pilots discretion
6. A light on the aerodrome is unserviceable. Is aerodrome Control required to pass this information to Pilots?
a) Yes b) No c) Yes, but only at night
d) Yes, but only if that light is used for the guidance of aircraft
7. Between two aircraft on the same track, what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided
for wake turbulence?
a) 4 nms b) 2.5 nms c) 2 nms d) 3 nms
8. The maximum speed change that may be required during a radar approach is:
a) ± 40 kts b) ± 5 kts c) ± 10 kts d) ± 20 kts
9. To whom is the alerting service provided?

a) All IFR traffic
b) All flight-planned aircraft
c) All hijacked aircraft
d) All traffic known to ATC
10. An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to "resume own navigation". This means:
a) The pilot is responsible for own navigation
b) Radar vectoring is terminated
c) The pilot should contact next ATC unit
d) The pilot should contact the current ATC unit
11. What is standard radar separation?

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12. In Bangladesh, what is the minimum radar separation within the coverage of primary radar?
13. A radar controller wants to identify an aircraft on radar. By how much will the aircraft be turned?
a) 45° b) 15° c) 30° or more d) More than 30°
14. In Bangladesh, what is the minimum radar separation outside the coverage of primary radar within the
coverage of secondary radar?
15. What is the tolerance factor of Mode C derived height information in RVSM airspace?
± 200ft b) ± 250ft c) ± 300ft d) ± 500ft
16. When may the pilot operate the `ident’ switch on the transponder?
a) In controlled airspace
b) When requested by ATC
c) In uncontrolled airspace
d) When under radar control
17. If you are given an instruction by ATC, steer heading 030, is the heading:
a) Degrees true, to be corrected for wind
b) Degrees magnetic to be corrected for wind
c) Degrees true
d) Degrees magnetic
18. When should you use a SSR mode C transponder?

a) Only when directed by ATC
b) Always
c) Always in controlled airspace
d) Only in controlled airspace
19. What is the tolerance factor of Mode C derived height information outside RVSM airspace?
a) ± 200ft b) ± 250ft c) ± 300ft d) ± 500ft
20. What separation is required between a medium taking off behind a heavy for wake turbulence?
21. In Bangladesh, what is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localizer?
a) 5 nm
b) 5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kts faster than the second
c) 10 nm
d) 20 nm
22. The maximum radar separation between 2 aircraft on the same approach with wake turbulence separation
applied as required is:
a) 6 nms b) 2.5 runs c) 4 nms d) 2 nms
23. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?
a) A/2000 + C
b) A/7500 + C
c) A/7600 + C
d) A/7700 + C
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24. During radar vectoring procedures, turns are to be:

a) At pilots discretion
b) Dependant on weather conditions
c) At a standard rate unless instructed by ATC
d) Not less than 30°
25. Aerodrome traffic is considered to be:

a) Aircraft on the movement area and flying in the vicinity
b) Aircraft on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity
c) Aircraft on the movement area only
d) Aircraft on the manoeuvring area only
26. On final approach, what is the minimum radar separation standard, notwithstanding wake turbulence
separation?
a) 5 nm b) 2.5 nm c) 2 run d) 1 nm
27. What is the minimum radar separation when a heavy category aircraft is preceding a light category
aircraft on final approach?
a) 2.5 nm b) 3 nm c) 5 nm d) 6 nm
28. A light or medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy from an intermediate part of the same runway.
What wake turbulence separation will be applied?
a) 3 minutes b) 2 minutes c) 5 minutes d) 1 minute
29. The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is:
a) Light aircraft behind medium aircraft; 4 minutes
b) Medium aircraft behind medium aircraft; 2 minutes
c) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 3 minutes
d) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 2 minutes
30. Which separation minimum must be used for wake turbulence when a medium aircraft departs behind a
heavy aircraft and both use the same runway?
a) 2 minutes b) 1 minute c) 3 minutes d) 4 minutes
31. What does the ATC term "radar contact" mean?

a) The aircraft is identified and will receive separation from all aircraft while you are
communicating with this radar facility
b) ATC is receiving your transponder and will provide you with vectors and advice concerning
traffic until you are notified that contact is lost
c) Your aircraft is identified on the radar screen
d) You receive radar advisory concerning traffic until you are notified that the contact is lost or
radar service is terminated
32. The letter “L" is used in the wake turbulence section of the flight plan when the maximum certified take -
off mass of an aircraft is:
a) 5,700 kg for fixed-wing aircraft and 2700 kg for helicopters
b) 7,000 kg
c) 20,000 kg
d) 7,000 kg or less
33. If an aircraft is vectored to intercept the localizer during parallel runway operations, the final vector must
be such that the aircraft is enabled to intercept the localizer course with an angle not greater than:
a) 20° b) 30° c) 15° d) 25°
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34. Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):

a) Facilitates ATC services but is not an official organization
b) Only gives ATC information to an aircraft in flight and on the ground
c) Has the same authority and privileges as an ATC organization, but the activities are neither
continuous or regular
d) Can only give limited service to its users but, in any case, cannot give ATC services
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1. Which of the following did not have a significant role on the development of Aeronautical Information
Service?
a) Introduction of RNP b) Airborne computer based navigation systems
c) Implementation of RNAV d) Classification of airspace
2. Is each contracting state required to set up AIS?
a) Yes, it is a contractual requirement
b) No, if the responsibility is assumed (on a bilateral basis) by another state
c) Yes, but only if the state has more than one FIR
d) Yes, but only if the airspace of the state contains regional ATS routes
3. If the AIS for an FIR is not available on a 24 hour basis, when is it to be available?
a) 0000 to 1700 UTC
b) During the hours of operation of the Air Traffic Unit
c) 2 hours before until 2 hours after a flight is in progress in the FIR
d) From sunrise to sunset
4. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of:

a) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins
(PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries.
b) AIP and amendment service, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs,
checklists and summaries.
c) AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and
summaries.
d) AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins
5. With effect from 1 January 98, with reference to what system is position to be determined for use in the
AIP?
a) WGS-84 b) Lat and Long c) Georef d) National Grid
6. In which section of the AIP would you find information on holding, approach and departing procedures?
a) GEN b) ENR c) AD d) None
7. In what section of the AIP are details of SIGMET found?

a) GEN b) ENR c) AD d) COMMS
8. Where in the AIP is a list of Location Indicators to be found?

a) GEN b) COMMS c) AD d) AGA
9. Where in the AIP is information concerning re-fuelling facilities and services found?
a) ENR b) SUPP c) AD d) GEN
10. Where in the AIP would you find information concerning prohibited, restricted or danger areas?
a) ENR b) SUPP c) AD d) GEN
11. What is the preferable colour of AIP supplements?

a) Red b) White c) Yellow d) Orange
12. What information is contained in a NOTAM?

a) Information of a temporary nature
b) Information concerning runway markings
c) Information concerning temporary obstructions
d) Information concerning parachuting in notified danger areas
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13. A check list for NOTAMs is issued:

a) Every 5 days b) Every 28 days
c) Every 18 days d) At intervals of not more than one month.
14. AIP supplements with extensive text and graphics cover a short period. What is a long period in this
respect?
a) 1 yr b) 2 months c) 3 months d) 6 months
15. AIRAC is:

a) A breakdown service
b) Notification of operationally significant changes to the AIP
c) A medical evacuation flight
d) An Army Air Corps publication
16. What is the co-efficient of braking, if the braking action is reported as medium?
a) Between. 1.0 and 0.25 b) Between 0.25 and 0.3
c) Between 0.30 and 0.35 d) Between 0.35 and 0.4
17. How long advance of an event is AIRAC information to be published?

a) 14 days b) 28 days c) 42 days d) 7 days
18. On an ASHTAM the alert colour code is stated to be RED. What does it mean?
a) Volcanic eruption is in progress with plume/cloud reported above FL 250
b) Volcanic eruption expected within 12 hours
c) Volcanic eruption is in progress with plume/cloud reported not above FL 250
d) Global alert for volcanic activity
45
1. Where pavements are used by aircraft with maximum take off mass greater than------, the strength of
pavement is reported by the A CN-PCN system:
a) 7000 kg b) 5700 kg c) 7000 lb d) 5700 lb
2. What is the purpose of aiming point marking?

a) To show where the visual and instrument glide path coincide
b) To define a safe landing area
c) It is an alternative method of indicating a displace threshold
d) To provide additional conspicuity of the aiming area
3. A signal square shall be of at least ----- square:

a) 10 m b) 9m c) 9 ft d) 40 m
4. How many wind indicators (wind- socks) are required at a code 4 aerodrome?
a) One b) Two
c) One at each end of the longest runway
d) One at the threshold of each runway
5. A radio altimeter operating area must extend before the threshold of a precision approach runway for a
distance of at least:
a) 100 metres b) 200 metres c) 300 metres d) 500 metres
6. What must the radius of curvature of a taxiway cater for?

a) All aircraft are likely to use the aerodrome
b) Aircraft for which the taxiway is intended
c) The largest aeroplane reference field length code number
d) All aircraft and widening strips to be provided for insufficient width
7. How are the runways marked at an airfield where there are three parallel runways?
a) 02.03.04
b) The QDM for the third runway will be increased by 10°
c) The L and R runways will have differing QDM's
d) `L' `C' `R'
8. What is a stopway for?

a) Stopping after landing distance
b) Extending the Landing Distance Available
c) Stopping after an aborted take-off
d) A runway extension for big aircraft
9. A transverse white stripe on a runway is associated with a:

a) Closed runway
b) Runway which is 2400 meters or longer
c) Displaced runway
d) Runway available for circling to land approaches
10. The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available which is
prepared as a suitable area:
a) To stop an aircraft after a rejected take-off
b) To stop a landing aircraft in case of an emergency
c) To stop a starting or landing aircraft
d) To stop a landing aircraft if it overshoots the runway
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11. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Taxiway markings are white and runway markings are yellow
b) Numerals on aerodrome signs are reserved for runways
c) A clearway has the same function as a RESA
d) The pairs of touchdown zone markings are separated from each other by 120 meters
12. For a rapid exit taxiway the intersecting angle with the runway should be:
a) Not more than 45º nor less than 25º and preferably 30º
b) Not more than 90º nor less than 45º and preferably 30º
c) Not more than 75º nor less than 45º and preferably 30º
d) Not more than 45º nor less than 30º and preferably 25º
47
1. How many bars are there on a full Calvert approach light system?
a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2
2. Lead in lights are:

a) Green at threshold across the runway
b) White flashing in direction pointing towards the runway
c) Yellow
d) Steady white across the runway
3. What colour of lights are cautionary areas of runway edge lights?

a) Red or White b) White c) Yellow d) Blue
4. What colour are runway end lights?

a) Unidirectional red b) Unidirectional white
c) Omni directional red d) Omni directional white
5. What is the colour of threshold lighting?

a) Omni directional green
b) Uni-directional green, showing in the direction of the approach
c) Uni-directional white, showing in the direction of the approach
d) Omni directional white
6. On a Cat I lighting system, what is the distance between the single, double and triple lights on the
extended centre-line of a runway?
a) 150 metres b) 200 metres c) 250 metres d) 300 metres
7. What colour lights are runway edge lights, not including cautionary areas or pre-displaced thresholds`?
a) Red or yellow b) White c) Yellow d) Blue
8. An aerodrome identification beacon at water aerodrome is:

a) Flashing yellow b) Flashing white c) Flashing green d) Yellow
9. What colour is an aerodrome identification beacon light on a land based aerodrome?

a) Flashing Green b) Flashing Green and White
c) Steady Green d) Flashing White
10. What is the colour of threshold wing bar lights?

a) Steady white b) Flashing white
c) Steady green d) Flashing green
11. What is the length of the approach lighting for a CAT I system?
a) 300 m b) 600 m c) 900 m d) 1200 m
12. The lateral spacing of runway edge lights for an instrument runway is:
a) 60 m b) Not more than 60 m c) 100 m d) 50 m
13. The lateral spacing of runway edge lights for a non- instrument runway is:
a) Not more than 60 m b) Not more than 100 m c) 100 m d) 90 m
14. Aerodrome information signs are:

a) Black on red, or red on black b) Yellow on red, or black on yellow
c) Yellow on black, or black on yellow d) Orange on black, or black on orange
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15. Taxiway edge lights are:

a) Fixed showing blue b) Fixed showing green
c) Fixed showing yellow d) Flashing showing blue
16. Taxiway centre lights are:
a) Fixed showing blue b) Fixed showing green
c) Fixed showing yellow d) Flashing showing blue
17. Runway lead-in lights must consist of.

a) Only flashing lights
b) A group of at least 3 white lights which are flashing in sequence in the direction of the runway
c) Arbitrary number of green lights
d) Always a straight row of lights in the direction of the runway
18. The abbreviation "PAPI" stands for:
a) Precision Approach Path Index b) Precision Approach Power Indicator
c) Precision Approach Path Indicator d) Precision Approach Power Index
19. A PAPI system consists of

a) 2 wing bars of 4 lights uniformly spaced b) 1 wing bar of 4 lights uniformly spaced
c) 2 wing bars of 6 lights uniformly spaced d) 2 wing bars of 2 lights uniformly spaced
20. On the PAPI system the pilot can see, during the approach, two white lights furthest from the runway
and two red lights closest to the runway. Is the aircraft:
a) Under the approach glide path b) Above the approach glide path
c) Precisely on the glide path d) On or close to the approach glide path
21. What is the light indication of a land-based aerodrome beacon?
a) Green alternating with white flashes or white flashes only b) White flashes only
c) Green flashes only d) Same as an Aerodrome Identity Beacon
49

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Air Law-33-49

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

6. What is the standard ICAO position report?

8. How is speed entered in item 15 of a flight plan?

9. Routine AIREP includes following information?

13. What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP?

1. What types of separation do ATC apply?

2. What is a strayed aircraft?

3. What are two types of horizontal separation?

5. What is the longitudinal separation standard required for RNAV routes?

7. Minimum RNAV separation when RNP is specified is:

10. How longitudinal separation is achieved?

19. What is essential traffic?

3. Approach control is provided for:

7. On an approach by an IFR flight, when can this be converted to a visual approach:

11. When can normal separation be reduced?

12. What would be considered a significant tail wind component?

13. What is a visual approach?

2. What is the criterion for an aerodrome to be controlled?

4. What is the primary reason for Radar in ATC?

5. When must you operate your SSR transponder?

9. To whom is the alerting service provided?

11. What is standard radar separation?

18. When should you use a SSR mode C transponder?

24. During radar vectoring procedures, turns are to be:

25. Aerodrome traffic is considered to be:

31. What does the ATC term "radar contact" mean?

34. Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):

4. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of:

7. In what section of the AIP are details of SIGMET found?

8. Where in the AIP is a list of Location Indicators to be found?

11. What is the preferable colour of AIP supplements?

12. What information is contained in a NOTAM?

13. A check list for NOTAMs is issued:

15. AIRAC is:

17. How long advance of an event is AIRAC information to be published?

2. What is the purpose of aiming point marking?

3. A signal square shall be of at least ----- square:

6. What must the radius of curvature of a taxiway cater for?

8. What is a stopway for?

9. A transverse white stripe on a runway is associated with a:

11. Which of the following statements is correct?

2. Lead in lights are:

3. What colour of lights are cautionary areas of runway edge lights?

4. What colour are runway end lights?

5. What is the colour of threshold lighting?

8. An aerodrome identification beacon at water aerodrome is:

9. What colour is an aerodrome identification beacon light on a land based aerodrome?

10. What is the colour of threshold wing bar lights?

14. Aerodrome information signs are:

15. Taxiway edge lights are:

17. Runway lead-in lights must consist of.

19. A PAPI system consists of

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