AIR REGULATIONS

TEST PAPER-3
Candidate name:

Total time: 40 mins

Total marks: 40
Marks obtained:

1. Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect of terrain avoidance?

a. ATC.
b. The ATSU when accepting the FP.
c. The PIC.
d. The Operator.

2. Flight information provided to flights shall include provision of information concerning

collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
a. F and G only.
b. C to G inclusive.
c. A to G inclusive.
d. A to E inclusive.

3. The phases of the Alerting Service to an aircraft in emergency or believed to be in

emergency are:
a. uncertainty phase; urgency phase; distress phase.
b. uncertainty phase; urgency phase; emergency phase.
c. uncertainty phase; alert phase; urgency and distress phase.
d. uncertainty phase; alert phase; distress phase.

4. In what class of airspace is an advisory service provided for participating IFR traffic and an
FIS for all other traffic?
a. A
b. D
c. C
d. F

5. When must QNH be passed to an aircraft prior to take-off?

a. In the taxi clearance.
b. On engine start-up request.
 c. On first contact with ATC.
d. Just prior to take-off.

6. At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind component

information, what change in crosswind component change would be passed to the pilot?
a. 10 kt.
b. 8 kt.
c. 3 kt.
d. 5 kt.

7. For IFR departures, 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks
immediately after take-off of at least:
a. 45°.
b. 15°.
c. 30°.
d. 2°.

8. For parallel runway operations, the missed approach tracks must diverge by:
a. 15°.
b. 30°.
c. 45°.
d. 20°.

9. When the air traffic controller has wind information as components at the start of final
approach, significant changes in the average surface wind direction and speed must be given
to the pilot. The significant change of the average tailwind is:
a. 5 kt.
b. 2 kt.
c. 4 kt.
d. 3 kt.

10. What defines a controlled aerodrome?

a. It must be located within a CTR.
b. It must have a control tower giving an ATC service.
c. It must have a control tower and be in a CTR.
d. It must be in controlled airspace.

11. What is the primary use for radar in ATC?

a. Separation.
b. Helping when aircraft communications have failed.
c. To assist pilots with technical problems.
d. To assist pilots of aircraft that are lost.

12. Aerodrome traffic is considered to be:

 a. aircraft on the movement area and flying in the vicinity.
b. aircraft on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity.
c. aircraft on the movement area only.
d. aircraft on the manoeuvring area only.

13. Voice ATIS is transmitted on a:

a. discrete VHF frequency only.
b. discrete VHF frequency or on voice on VOR.
c. VHF frequency or on ILS frequency.
d. ILS only.

14. How often is an ATIS updated?

a. Every 30 minutes for VFR, every 60 minutes for IFR.
b. When there is a change in information, irrespective of content or intensity.
c. When the minimum ceiling and visibility are below VFR minimum.
d. When there is a significant change in information.

15. ATIS broadcasts for departing and arriving aircraft are to contain cloud cover information
when:
a. the cloud base is below 5000 ft or the highest MSA whichever is higher.
b. the cloud base is below 3000 ft or the highest MSA whichever is higher, or there is
cumulonimbus reported.
c. the cloud base is below 5000 ft or the highest MSA whichever is higher, or there is
cumulonimbus reported.
d. the cloud base is below 10 000 ft or the highest MSA whichever is higher, or there is
cumulonimbus reported.

16. Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message is the
responsibility of:
a. the Met office serving the aerodrome.
b. both ATC and the Met office.
c. whichever office is prescribed by the state.
d. ATS.

17. The ATIS broadcast should not exceed:

a. 3 minutes.
b. 30 seconds.
c. 1 minute.
d. 2 minutes.

18. What defines a Control Area?

a. A portion of airspace (between defined altitudes) where it has been determined that an ATC
service will be provided to all IFR traffic and some VFR traffic
b. The confluence of airways adjacent to one or more aerodromes where ATC is provided to all
air traffic
c. A defined area of airspace in which all controlled flights are provided with an Air Traffic Service
d. Airspace of defined limits in which IFR traffic is separated from other IFR traffic; IFR from VFR
and controlled VFR from other VFR traffic

19. What class of airspace permits VFR controlled flights which are separated from all IFR
traffic, and the controlled VFR traffic receives flight information about other (non controlled)
VFR traffic?
a. A
b. B
c. c
d. D

20. What is the main difference between class D and class E airspace?
a. You do not need to file a flight plan to fly in class E airspace
b. Class E airspace is not controlled airspace
c. Non radio VFR traffic is permitted in class E airspace and not in class D
d. In class E airspace, a Flight Information Service is not available

21. Why is Class F airspace called 'advisory airspace'?

a. Because advisory control is provided for both IFR and VFR traffic
b. Advisory control is provided to participating IFR traffic
c. Because there is no legal requirement to observe the existence of class F airspace, you are just
'advised' to call the controller
d. Class F airspace only exists where normal procedural ATC cannot be applied due to
remoteness or sparse traffic density

22. What does RNP 10 mean?

a. Air Traffic Route Number Papa 10
b. Required Notice Period is 10 minutes before the aerodrome boundary
c. Routine/Normal Position accuracy suffix is 10 nm
d. Required Navigation Performance standard is 10 nm

23. What are Air Traffic Control Units (ATCUs) required to provide?
a. ATC within CTAs, CTRs and at controlled aerodromes
b. Area Control to IFR traffic flying on airways
c. FIS and Area Control in a controlled FIR
d. Area, Approach and Aerodrome control

24. Can you fly under a Special VFR clearance in Class F airspace?
a. No, because Class F is advisory control only
b. Yes, providing adequate terrain clearance can be maintained
c. No, SVFR is only applicable to Classes A, Band C airspace
d. No, because there are no class F CTRs

25. How is separation achieved?

a. Vertically, longitudinally and compositely
b. Vertically, laterally and compositely
c. Vertically, horizontally and compositely
d. Vertically, laterally and longitudinally

26. What type of separation is being applied when two aircraft are at the same flight level
and are required to report over specific reporting points along the route?
a. Longitudinal
b. Time related
c. Distance related
d. Lateral

26. Why is an ATIS system used at an aerodrome?

a. To cut down VHF chatter
b. To ensure that essential information is available at all times to pilots
c. To allow FISOs to give repetitive information on a broadcast basis
d. To reduce the workload on Air Traffic Controllers

27. On the frequencies of what radio navigation facilities can ATIS be transmitted?
a. VOR; NDB, ILS (localiser not glide path)
b. VOR/DVORTAC; NDB
c. VOR; ILS localiser
d. VOR only

28. You are overdue arrival at Oxford on a VFR flight from Carlisle. It is now 1525 and your ETA
(passed via Birmingham ATC at 1430) was 1500. What phase of emergency should have been
declared by Oxford ATC?
a. None
b. INCERFA (uncertainty phase)
c. ALERFA (alert phase)
d. DETRESFA (distress phase)

29. The units providing Air Traffic Services are:

a. Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
b. Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control
Office and Tower.
c. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
d. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome
Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
30. An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140
is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the
earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected ?
a. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
b. When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130
c. When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70
d. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120

31. The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent collisions with terrain.
a. Correct, except when an IFR flight is vectored by radar.
b. Prevent collisions with terrain
c. Do not prevent collisions with terrain
d. Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.

32. The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by :
a. The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and
figures
b. The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and
D
c. The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the
letters P. R and D and figures
d. The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures

33. In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area,
restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
a. At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
b. At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer
c. At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
d. At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer

34. What does the abbreviation ""HJ"" mean?

a.
a) Sunrise to sunset.
b. Sunset to sunrise.
c. No specific working hours.
d. Continuous day and night service.

35. What
f. does the term ""Expected Approach Time"" mean:
e.
a. The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination
aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing
b. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the
holding point to complete its approach for a landing
c. The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate
designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome
d.
 d. The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure
for a landing will be initiated

36. The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public
transport of passengers:
a. does not permit such flight in any circumstances.
b. limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest shore.
c. limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore.
d. limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails.

37. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
a. 60 minutes prior to departure.
b. 10 minutes prior to departure.
c. 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
d. 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks.

38. The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order
listed:
a. Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, time, next position and time
over and ensuing significant point.
b. Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next
position and time over.
c. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time
over.
d. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time
over and ensuing significant point

39. Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way
communication failure?
a. Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
b. Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA.
c. Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has
VMC conditions.
d. Return to the aerodrome of departure.