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You have received holding instructions for a radio fix.
The pu
holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, in
MC 052°. You are approaching the fix an inbound Magnetic Trac
Select the available entry procedure.
a Either "off set" or "parallel".
b Off set.
c Parallel.
d Direct.
1. On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the airc
return inbound from outbound with tracks flown being reciprocal. T
called:
a. base turn.
b. procedure turn.
c. reverse procedure.
d. racetrack.
2. In which stage of an instrument approach do you align with the ru

a. Initial segment.
b. Final segment.
c. Arrival segment.
d. Intermediate segment.
4. What are ICAO defined instrument approaches?

a. Non-precision and CAT I/II/III precision.
b. Precision in general.
c. Precision CAT I/II/III.
d. Instrument precision and CAT II/III.
5. The Vat for a Category B aircraft is:

a. up to 91 kts.
b. 90 to 121 kts inclusive.
c. 141 to 165 kts inclusive.
d. 91 to 120 kts inclusive.
6. In a holding pattern turns are to be made at:

a. rate of turn = 3°/sec.
b. rate of turn = 3°/sec or 20° bank angle whichever is less.
c. rate of turn = 3°/sec or 25° bank angle whichever is less.
d. 25° bank angle.
7. Where in the AIP would you find information concerning

prohibited, restricted or danger
areas?
a. ENR.
b. SUPP.
c. AD.
d. GEN.
8. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitu

be reported as:
a. flight level.
b. whatever the pilot chooses.
c. altitude.
d. height.
9. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the
altimeter setting from QNH to SPS when passing:
a. transition level.
b. when specified by ATC.
c. transition altitude.
d. transition layer.
10.During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of t
aircraft should be reported as:
a. altitude above mean sea level during the climb.
b. flight level during descent.
c. either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during the climb.
d. altitude above mean sea level during descent.
11. When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:

a. read back only the code to be set.
b. read back the mode and the code to be set.
c. use only the word ROGER.
d. use only the word WILCO.
12.You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The pu

holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, in
MC 052°. You are approaching the fix an inbound Magnetic Trac
Select the available entry procedure.
a Either "off set" or "parallel".
b Off set.
c Parallel.
d Direct.
14. Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk?

a. A5555
b. A5678
c. A2345
d. A7777
15. Where in the AIP is information concerning re-fuelling facilities

services found?
a. ENR.
b. SUPP.
c. AD.
d. GEN.
18. If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departi

aircraft may take off in any direction
a until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the
instrument runway
b until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over th
instrument runway
c until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the
instrument runway
d until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the
instrument runway
19. To meet wake turbulence separation criteria for aircraft using tim
approaches, what is the
minimum applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or medium airc
a. Medium behind heavy = 2 minutes.
b. Medium behind medium = 2 minutes.
c. Light behind medium = 4 minutes.
d. Medium behind heavy = 3 minutes.
20. What is the closest point to the threshold that a radar controller m
request a speed change?
a. 1 nm.
b. 2 nms.
c. 3 nms.
d. 4 nms.
21. By how much will a radar controller turn an aircraft to identify t
aircraft on the radar?
a. 45°
b. 15°
c. 30°or more.
d. a minimum of 25
22. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the

following elements
a AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and p
flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summuries
b AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC
checklist summaries
c AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summa
d AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC
AIRAC
23. According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code num
4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of:
a 1 200 m.
b 1 600 m.
c 1 500 m.
d 1 800 m and over.
24. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensio
aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum
of a runway with runway code 4?
a 35 metres
b 45 metres
c 40 metres
d 50 metres
25. What is the colour of threshold lighting?

a. Omni directional green.
b. Uni-directional green, showing in the direction of the approach.
c. Uni-directional white, showing in the direction of the approach.
d. Red uni-directional.
26. Taxiway edge lights are:

a. fixed showing blue.
b. fixed showing green.
c. fixed showing yellow.
d. flashing showing blue.
27. The Rome convention and its later amendments deals with:
a. offences and other acts committed on board an aeroplane.
b. damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the ground.
c. regulation of the transportation of dangerous goods.
d. damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the ground.
28. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relat

areas and/or routes for which is provided?
a MET.
b RAC.
c COM.
d GEN.
29.If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the
transponder?
a. A/2000 + C.
b. A/7500 + C.
c. A/7600 + C.
d. A/7700 + C.
30.An aircraft has flight visibility of 3km, and is heading 355° T in a

where the variation is 6° west. There is no appreciable wind. Which
following is the appropriate flight level?
a. FL60.
b. FL65.
c. FL70.
d. FL75.
31. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting und
then changing to VFR?
a. Z
b. Y
c. I
d. V
32.What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVF

flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR?
a. 1000m
b. 1500m
c. 2000m
d. 3000m
33. For a controlled flight, a flight plan must be filed before departur
least:
a. 60 minutes before off-block time.
b. 60 minutes before departure.
c. 30 minutes before departure.
d. 30 minutes before off-block time.
34. If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti collision

a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed.
b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed.
c. Only at night with engines running.
d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running.
35. What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR flights fly
the same direction below FL 290?
a. 500 ft
b. 1,000 ft
c. 2,000 ft
d. 4,000 ft
36. 220 knot is N220 in flight plan
39. cross wind 20kts for field length >1500

cross wind 13kts for field length 1200-1500
cross wind 10kts for field length <1200
40. During Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) what is the maximum airs

for a Cat C aircraft?
a. 120 kt.
b. 135 kt.
c. 180 kt.
d. 205 kt.
41. When following a SID, the pilot must:

a. calculate the track required and request ATC clearance to follow it.
b. fly the heading without wind correction.
c. adjust the track specified to allow for the wind.
d. fly the heading to make good the required track allowing for the wind
42. For a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not

than:
a. OCH/A.
b. 200 ft.
c. 350 ft.
d. 400 ft.
43. An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. Ho

many of them are there?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 6
44. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment

a. DH
b. FAF
c. FAP
d. MAPT

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You have received holding instructions for a radio fix.

2. In which stage of an instrument approach do you align with the ru

4. What are ICAO defined instrument approaches?

5. The Vat for a Category B aircraft is:

6. In a holding pattern turns are to be made at:

7. Where in the AIP would you find information concerning

8. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitu

11. When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:

12.You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The pu

14. Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk?

15. Where in the AIP is information concerning re-fuelling facilities

18. If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departi

22. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the

25. What is the colour of threshold lighting?

26. Taxiway edge lights are:

28. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relat

30.An aircraft has flight visibility of 3km, and is heading 355° T in a

32.What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVF

34. If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti collision

36. 220 knot is N220 in flight plan

39. cross wind 20kts for field length >1500

40. During Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) what is the maximum airs

41. When following a SID, the pilot must:

42. For a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not

43. An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. Ho

44. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment

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