Air Regs - Test 3:

Chapters 1 – 10

Name:

1. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?

A) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
B) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
C) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the
Annexes to the convention.

2. The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in
the radio call signs allocated:
A) To state of the operator
B) To the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International
Telecommunication Union
C) To the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation

3. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC Instructions. You should:
A) Select code 7500 on your transponder
B) Follow ATC instructions
C) Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft

4. To perform a VFR fight in airspace classification E

A) a clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required
B) a clearance is required
C) two-way radio communication is not required
5. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same
track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
A) 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed
B) 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed
C) 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed

6. A notice providing Information on Rules of the Air, Traffic Services and Air
Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:
A) An AIRAC
B) An ATS NOTAM
C) An Advisory NOTAM

7. AVFR flight when flying Inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to

maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
A) 5km at or above 3050m (10000ft) AMSL 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical from
clouds
B) 8km at or above 3050m (10000) AMSL, and clear of clouds
C) 8km at or above 3050m (10000ft) AMSL 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical from
clouds

8. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted are subject to Air
Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights
receive traffic Information as far as practical, is classified as
A) Airspace D
B) Airspace A
C) Airspace E

9. A situation in which apprehension exists as to an aircraft. To which

emergency phase does this situation correspond?
A) ALERFA
B) INCERFA
C) DETRESFA
10. Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances
from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each
other. Specify the shortest distance in DME-distance to make it possible for
one aircraft to climb or descend
A) 10NM
B) 12NM
C) 15NM

11. Who shall have the final authority over the disposition of the aircraft?
A) The Authority
B) The Owner
C) The Commander

12. When a pilot raises his arms extended palms facing outwards and moves
his hands inwards to cross in front of the face this means:
A) Remove chocks
B) Insert chocks
C) Brakes released

13. Which statement regarding aerodrome control service is correct?

A) An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to
land if this is desirable
B) Suspension of VFR operations cannot be initiated by the aerodrome controller
C) ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle

14. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
A) Achieving separation between controlled fights
B) Providing alerting services
C) Providing advisory services
15. Having led a flight plan to a particular destination and having landed
another destination, you should notify ATC:
A) within 60 minutes after landing at the alternate destination
B) within 30 minutes after landing at the alternate destination
C) within 30 minutes of your intended ETA at your original destination.

16. Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft

in flight and destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable?
A) The Tokyo convention
B) The Montreal convention
C) The Warsaw convention

17. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:

A) Dangerous airfield.
B) Do not land
C) Not withstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being C)
Come back and land

18. Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a
control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at
approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which is the
right of way?
A) Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is approaching
B) Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left
C) Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right

19. An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when

the SSR mode C derived level Information indicates that it has passed this
level in the required direction by:
A) +/-300ft
B) More than 300m
C) 300ft
20. The temporary, long-term modification (3 months or more) and the short-
term extensive or graphical information are published as follows:
A) AIP Supplements
B) Trigger NOTAM
C) NOTAM

21. ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC is that controlled fight to which the provision of

separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular
controlled fight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation
minima. Whenever separation minima are not applied. The following fights are
considered essential traffic one to each other.
A) AS IFR fights in controlled airspace and controlled VFR
B) Only controlled IFR fights
C) Controlled VFR fights and IFR flights

22. The speed limitation for IFR nights Inside ATS airspace classified as E.
when flying below 3050m (1000ft) AMSL, is:
A) 250k TAS
B) 250kt IAS
C) Not applicable

23. Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS
message shall be the responsibility of
A) Both air traffic services and the meteorological office
B) The meteorological office serving the aerodromes
C) The air traffic services

24. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other

aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
A) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
B) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
C) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
25. What is the meaning of AGL?
A) Altitude of ground level 8
B) Aerodrome ground level
C) Above ground level

26. On the ground, when two aircraft are approaching head on:
A) Both airplanes must stop or where practicable alter course to the right to keep
well clear
B) Both should declare an urgency
C) Traffic patrol has to be informed

27. On a VFR flight, your magnetic track is 005, the magnetic heading 355".
Which of the following flight level is correct?
A) FL 70
B) FL 55
C) FL 60

28. The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS
airspace classified as B, when flying below 3050m (10000) AMLS, is:
A) 260kt IAS
B) Not applicable
C) 250kt IAS

29. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed
A) 30 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 2 minutes
30. ‘Cabotage' refers to:
A) domestic air services
B) a national air carrier
C) crop spraying

31. When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan,
ATC has to be informed in case:
A) Of an emergency
B) The estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes
C) The TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan

32. The speed limitation for IFR flights Inside ATS airspace classified as C,
when flying below 3050m (1000ft) AMSL, is:
A) 250kt IAS
B) Not applicable
C) 250kt TAS

33. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated

A) As prescribed by the meteorological office
B) Immediately a significant change occurs
C) As prescribed by the state

34. During an arrival procedure under an IFR fight plan in VMC conditions,
traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
A) The radar controller
B) The pilot in command
C) The approach controller
35. The air traffic control unit has reported "radar contact". What does that
mean to the pilot?
A) The aircraft is subject to positive control
B) Position reports may be omitted
C) The radar identity of the aircraft has been established

36. In which section of AIP are contained information elements to refuelling

facilities and limitations on refuelling services?
A) AD
B) GEN
C) SAR

37. Minimum vertical distance from cloud for VFR flight within controlled
space is.
A) 1000
B) 500 ft
C) 1000 m

38. The commander of a public transport aircraft must ensure that passenger
seat belts are secure for:
A) Take-off landing and turbulence
B) Take-off, landing, taxing and turbulence
C) Take-off, landing, taxing, turbulence and during emergencies

39. Aircraft taxiing in the manoeuvring area must give way to:
A) Follow-me vehicles
B) Landing traffic
C) Departing and landing traffic
40. Two a/c of same category converging...
A) Both will tum to right
B) Aircraft on right will turn right
C) Aircraft on the left will give way

41. Aircraft shall not be flown in formation except:

A) Formation flying is not permitted in India for civil aircraft.
B) By pre-arrangement among the pilots taking part
C) By pre-arrangement among the PICs taking part

42. The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger areas shall be
composed by:
A) The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory,
followed the letters P, R and D and figures
B) The letters P. (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the concerned
and figures
C) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures

43. Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft
subjected to unlawful Interference?
A) Code 7700
B) Code 7600
C) Code 7500

44. Aircraft shall not be held closer to a rum way-in-use:

A) Than at a runway-holding position.
B) Than at runway edge.
C) Than at 40m from the runway edge
45. A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed:
A) During VFR flight, there should be a visibility of 5km or more
B) During IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000ft more than the appropriate DA or
MDA for that procedure
C) During IFR flights, if there is permanent site on the movement area and the
underlying ground

46. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and
each aircraft on track uses DME stations, is:
A) 10NM
B) 20NM
C) 5 NM

47. The Alerting Service is provided by

A) The Area Control Centers
B) The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment
C) Only by ATC units

48. PIC of an aeroplane shall

A) Be responsible for safe conduct of navigation
B) Be responsible for safe conduct of flight at all times
C) All above is correct

49. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used
which might be confused with urgent signals for example
A) LLL
B) PAN
C) RCC
50. The second freedom of the air is the:
A) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between
two states
B) right to land for a technical stop
C) right to “cabotage traffic, (trans-border traffic)