Annex 2

1) A pressure type altimeter when set to QFE altimeter setting will indicate
a) Altitude
b) Height above the QFE reference datum
c) Flight levels
2) A pressure altimeter when set to QNH altimeter setting will indicate
a) Flight levels
b) Height above the QFE reference datum
c) Altitude
3) A pressure type altimeter when set to a pressure of 1013.2 (HPS)may be used to indicate
a) Flight levels
b) Altitude
c) Height above the QFE reference datum
4) ATS airspaces are classified as
a) Class A to F
b) Class A to G
c) Class A,B,C,D
5) Advisory airspace, an airspace of defined dimensions or designated route, within which
a) Air traffic advisory service and air traffic control service are available
b) Air traffic advisory service is available
c) Flight information service is available
6) “Air traffic advisory service” is a service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation
between aircrafts which are operating on
a) VFR flight plans
b) VFR and IFR flight plans
c) IFR flight plans only
7) Which is the definition of the term “visual metrological conditions”?
a) Expressed in terms of visibility distance from cloud & ceiling equal to or better than specified
minima
b) Expressed in terms of visibility distance from cloud & ceiling equal to specified minima
c) Expressed in terms of visibility distance from cloud & ceiling equal to or less than the specified
minima
8) The technical term of the transition altitude is
a) The altitude at which the vertical position of the aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes
b) The altitude at or above which the vertical position of the aircraft is controlled by reference to
altitudes
c) The altitude at or below which the vertical position of the aircraft is controlled by reference to
altitudes
9) Which is the correct symbol for the “visual flight rules”
a) VMC
b) VFR
c) IMC
10) Traffic avoidance advice provided by
a) Air traffic services specifying maneuvers to assist avoid a collision
b) A flight dispatcher to assist the pilot to avoid a collision
c) Air traffic services unit specifying maneuvers to avoid a collision
11) Which statement is true regarding “maneuvering area”?
a) That part of an aerodrome to be used for take off, taxing and aprons
b) That part of an aerodrome to be used for take off, landing & taxing of A/C excluding aprons
c) That part of an aerodrome to be used for take off, landing
12) Which statement is true regarding “movement area”?
a) That part of an aerodrome to be used for take off, landing & taxing of A/C consisting of
maneuvering area & the aprons
b) That part of an aerodrome to be used for take off & landing of aircraft
c) The part of an aerodrome to be used for take off, landing & taxing of A/C, consisting of the
maneuvering area the aprons
13) Which statement is true regarding terminal control area (TCA)?
a) A control area normally established of the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or
more major aerodromes
b) A control area normally established of the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one
aerodrome
c) A control area normally established of the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of more major
aerodromes
14) Special VFR flight is a VFR cleared by air traffic control to operate within
a) A control area in metrological conditions below VMC
b) A control zone in visual metrological conditions
c) A control zone in metrological conditions below VMC
15) An airspace of defined dimensions above the land or territorial waters of a state within which the
flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions is known as
a) Prohibited area
b) Danger area
c) None of the above
16) An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous the flight of aircraft
a) Danger area
b) Restricted area
c) Prohibited area
17) Which stamen is true regarding “ceiling”?
a) The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 6000 ft
covering more than half the sky
b) The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 2000 ft
covering more than half the sky
c) The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20000 ft
covering more than half the sky
18) Which statement is true regarding “ceiling”?
a) The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 600 meters
covering more than half the sky
b) The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 6000
meters covering more than half the sky
c) The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 2000
meters covering more than half the sky
19) Which is the definition of a flight plan related to a series of frequently recurring, regularly operated
individual flights with identical basic features, submitted by an operator for retention and repetitive
use by ATS units?
a) Repetitive flight plan
b) Current flight plan
c) Filed flight plan
20) The flight plan including changes if any brought about by subsequent clearance is defined as
a) Repetitive flight plan
b) Current flight plan
c) Filed flight plan
21) The point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC is
a) An ATC clearance
b) A clearance limit
c) Change over point
22) The point at which an A/C navigating on an ATS route segment defined by reference to VOR is
expected to transfer its primer navigation reference from the facility behind the A/C to the facility
ahead the aircraft is defined as
a) A reporting point
b) Change over point
c) Way point
23) An “ATC clearance” shall be obtained prior to
a) A controlled flight
b) An IFR flight
c) A VFR flight
24) Airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial areas of a state within which the
flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions is known as
a) Restricted zone
b) Restricted area
c) Danger area
25) Alternate aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed should it become impossible or inadvisable
to land at the aerodrome of intended landing is defined as
a) Take off alternative
b) En-route alternative
c) Destination alternative
26) “Flight information center” is a unit established to provide
a) Flight information service
b) Flight information service & altering service
c) Flight information service & air traffic control service
27) Air traffic service reporting office is a unit established for the purpose of
a) Preventing collisions between aircrafts
b) Expediting & maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
c) Receiving reports concerning air traffic services &flight plans submitted before departure
28) “Air traffic control clearance” is issued by
a) Aerodrome control tower
b) Approach control office
c) Air traffic control unit
29) A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft for purpose of loading or
unloading passengers, mail or cargo or fuelling is
a) An apron
b) A maneuvering area
c) A movement area
30) “Advisory route” A designated route along which
a) “Air traffic advisory service” is available
b) “Air traffic advisory service” & “air traffic control service” are available
c) “Air traffic advisory service” & “altering service” are available
31) A defined area on land or water including any (building, installation an equipment) intended to be
used either wholly or in part of arrival, departure & surface movement of aircraft
a) An apron
b) Movement area
c) Aerodrome
32) Under what condition, may pilots fly through a “restricted area”?
a) When flying a controlled airspace
b) With permission of Appropriate Authority
c) Rules of the air do not allow this
33) The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from mean sea
level is
a) Height
b) Altitude
c) MSL
34) A service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding in proceed of search and rescue aid
and assist such organization as required is
a) Advisory service
b) Search & rescue
c) Alerting service
35) “An area control service” is provided for
a) Arriving and departing controlled flight
b) Controlled flights in controlled areas
c) Controlled flight in controlled zones
36) An approach control service is provided for
a) Arriving and departing controlled flights
b) Over flights
c) Controlled flights in control areas
37) An approach control office is a unit established to provide ATC(s) to controlled flights
a) In flight information region
b) In control area
c) Arriving at or departing from one or more A/D(s)
38) An “area control center” is a unit established to provide ATC(s) to controlled flights in
a) Control area
b) Flight information region
c) Control zone
39) “Change over points” are established to provide the optimum balance in respect of signal strength
and quality between facilities at all levels to be used and to ensure a common source of
a) Magnetic bearing guidance
b) Azimuth guidance
c) Non of the above
40) “Estimated time of arrival” for IFR flights, the time at which the estimated that the aircraft will arrive
over
a) The RWY threshold
b) The aerodrome (if there is no navigation aid associated with the aerodrome)
c) Touchdown point on the RWY of intended landing
41) Which is the definition of the term instrument met conditions?
a) Expressed in term of visibility, distance from cloud and ceiling equal to or better than specified
minima for VMC conditions
b) Expressed in term of visibility, distance from cloud and ceiling equal to VMC conditions
c) Expressed in term of visibility, distance from cloud and ceiling less than specified minima for
VMC conditions
42) If “VFR flight” wishes to change to IFR flight
a) Issue ATC clearance for the submitted VFR flight plan before IFR operation
b) Communicate the necessary change to the submitted flight plan & then operate IFR operation
c) None of the above
43) What is the definition of “A/D traffic”?
a) All the traffic operating on the vicinity of A/D
b) All the traffic operating in the vicinity of A/D
c) All the traffic operating in & on the vicinity of A/D
44) An airspace of defined dimensions established around an A/D from the protection of A/D traffic is
defined as
a) Control zone
b) A/D traffic zone
c) Terminal control area
45) Which statement is true regarding “control area”?
a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth
b) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth up to specified limit
c) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth up to unlimited
46) Which statement is true regarding “control zone”?
a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit up to unlimited
b) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth up to a specified limit
c) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth up to unlimited

47) Which statement is correct regarding “cruise climb”?

a) An aero plane cruising technique resulting in a net decrease in altitude as the aero plane mass
decreases
b) An aero plane cruising technique resulting in a net increase in altitude as the aero plane mass
increase
c) An aero plane cruising technique resulting in a net increase in altitude as the aero plane mass
decreases
48) “Flight visibility” should be specified by
a) Met. Office
b) The pilot in command
c) An accredited observer
49) “Ground visibility” should be specified by
a) Met. Office
b) The pilot in command
c) An accredited observer
50) A controlled airspace extended upwards from the surface of the earth up to specified limit is known
as
a) A controlled zone
b) A controlled area
c) An A/D zone
51) The estimated time “at which the A/C will commence movement associated with departure is
known as
a) Expected approach time
b) Estimated time of departure
c) Estimated off block time
52) Which statement is true regarding “expected approach time”?
a) Expected approach time is the time at which ATC expects that an arriving A/C will arrive over the
holding point
b) The time at which ATC expects that an arriving A/C will leave the holding point to complete its
approach for landing
c) The time at which ATC expects that a departing A/C will leave the holding point
53) The actual time of leaving the holding point will depend upon
a) The approach clearance
b) The pilot in command
c) The weather condition
54) Pilot operating on a VFR flight shall comply with
a) General rules + either IFR or VFR
b) General rules +VFR
c) General rules
55) Pilot operating on IFR flight shall comply with
a) General rules
b) General rules + either IFR or VFR
c) General rules + IFR
56) VFR flight operating on the movement area of an aerodrome shall comply with
a) General rules
b) General rules + VFR
c) General rules + either VFR or IFR
57) IFR flight operating on the movement area of an aerodrome shall comply with
a) General rules
b) General rules + IFR
c) General rules + either IFR or VFR
58) Which statement is true regarding “flight level”?
a) For flights at the lowest usable flight level
b) For flights at or above the lowest usable flight level
c) For flights above the lowest usable flight level
59) Which statement is true regarding the applicable of flight levels?
a) For flights at transition level
b) For flights at or above transition altitude
c) For flights above the transition altitude
60) Which statement is true regarding “Altitude”?
a) For flights below the lowest usable flight level
b) For flights at or below the lowest usable flight level
c) For flights at the lowest usable flight level
61) Which statement is true regarding “flight level”?
a) For flights at the lowest usable flight level
b) For flights above the lowest usable flight level
c) All of the above
62) Unmanned free balloon shall be operated
a) In such manner as to minimize hazards to persons or other A/C
b) In accordance with conditions specified
c) All of the above
63) Nothing shall be dropped or sprayed from an aircraft in flight except under conditions prescribed by
a) Pilot in command
b) The appropriate authority
c) The operator
64) No aircraft shall be flown acrobatically except under conditions prescribed by
a) The appropriate authority
b) Clearance from the appropriate air traffic service unit
c) All of the above
65) When two aircrafts are approaching head on in flight
a) Each shall maintain its heading and speed
b) Each shall alter its heading to the left
c) Each shall alter its heading to the right
66) When two aircraft are converging at the same level in flight
a) The aircraft that has the other on its right has the right of way
b) The aircraft that has the other on its left shall give way
c) The aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way
67) What action is required when two aircrafts of the same category converging but not head-on?
a) Each aircraft shall give way to the right
b) The faster aircraft shall give way
c) The aircraft on the left shall give way
68) Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircrafts listed?
a) Airships
b) Gliders
c) Power driven aircraft
69) Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircrafts listed?
a) Gliders
b) Balloons
c) Airships
70) A power driven aircraft & airship are converging if the airship is on the left of the power driven
aircraft position, which aircraft has the right of way?
a) The airship
b) The power driven aircraft
c) Each pilot alter its heading to the right
71) What action should a pilot of a glider and a power driven A/C take if on head-on collision course?
a) Both pilots should give way to the right
b) The power driven aircraft pilot should give way to the right
c) The glider pilot should give way to the right
72) Which aircraft has the right of way?
a) Overtaken
b) Overtaking
c) None of the above
73) Which aircraft shall give way?
a) Overtaken
b) Overtaking
c) None of the above
74) An aircraft in flight or operating on the ground or water shall give way to aircraft?
a) Landing
b) In the final stages of an approach to land
c) All of the above
75) When two or more “heavier-than air” aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of
landing?
a) Aircraft at the higher level has the right of way
b) Aircraft at the lower level shall give way
c) None of the above
76) An overtaking aircraft is an aircraft that approaches another from the rear on a line forming an angel
of
a) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
b) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
c) None of the above
77) The aircraft that has the right of way shall
a) Maintain its heading and speed
b) Avoid passing over the other aircraft
c) Avoid passing in front of the other aircraft
78) What action should the pilots of a glider and an aircraft take if approaching head on collision
course?
a) The A/C pilot should give way to the left
b) The glider pilot should give way to the right
c) Both pilots should give way to the right
79) Which A/C has the right of way over the other aircrafts listed?
a) Glider
b) Airship
c) Aircraft towing an object
80) An aircraft & an airship are converging; if the airship is on the left of aircraft’s position which A/C has
the right of way?
a) The airship
b) The aircraft
c) Each pilot should alter its course to the right
81) When an A/C is operating in the vicinity of an A/D , the pilot in command shall take off and land in
the direction of
a) Into wind direction all the times
b) Into the wind direction unless safety & if an obstruction is arising, the other direction is
preferable
c) All of the above
82) An aircraft operating on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome shall whether or not within an aerodrome
traffic zone
a) Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision
b) Make all turns to the right, when approaching for landing and after taking off, unless other wise
instructed
c) All of the above
83) Take off and landing into wind unless
a) Runway configuration
b) Air traffic consideration
c) All of the above
84) When an A/C operating on or in the vicinity of an A/D the pilot in command
a) Must not exceed 119 knots in the vicinity of an A/D
b) Must make all turns to the left unless instructed
c) Must operate in accordance with VFR procedures regardless of the weather condition
85) When an A/C operating on or in the vicinity of an A/D, the pilot in command
a) Must extend the down wind of traffic pattern for 2 minutes
b) Minimize landing speed
c) Make takeoff & landing into wind unless safety
86) A flight plan shall be submitted prior to operating
a) Any flight of portion there of to be provided with air traffic control service
b) Any flight across international boundary (borders)
c) All of the above
87) Any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes When so require by the
appropriate ATS authority to facilitate the provision of
a) Alerting & search & rescue
b) Flight information, Alerting & search & rescue service
c) None of the above
88) Unless other wise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority a flight plan to be provided with air
traffic control service shall be submitted
a) At least 45 minutes before departure
b) At least 60 minutes before departure
c) At least 30 minutes before departure
89) Unless other wise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority a flight plan for a flight to be
provided with air traffic control service shall be submitted during flight
a) At least 15 minutes before the A/C is estimated to reach
b) At least 20 minutes before the A/C is estimated to reach
c) At least 10 minutes before the A/C is estimated to reach
90) When shall “arrival reports” include destination aerodrome?
a) Only in the case of a diversionary landing
b) When the flight plan has two alternates
c) All of the above
91) What are the elements of “arrival reports” made by aircraft?
a) Aircraft identification, time of departure, arrival aerodrome and time of arrival
b) Aircraft identification, departure aerodrome, arrival aerodrome & time of arrival
c) Aircraft identification, arrival aerodrome & time of arrival
92) If the aircraft is off track during flight, what action shall be taken by the pilot in command?
a) If the deviation is more than 10 NM notify the ATC
b) Notify the appropriate ATC unit
c) Adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as
93) A flight plan shall be submitted before departure to
a) An ATS reporting office
b) An ATC unit
c) An aerodrome control tower
94) “A report of arrival” shall be made by any flight for which a flight plan has been submitted to
a) Appropriate ATS unit at the destination aerodrome
b) Appropriate ATS unit at the arrival aerodrome
c) Appropriate ATS unit at the departure aerodrome
95) An A/C shall adhere to the current flight plan unless
a) A request for a change has been made and clearance obtained from the appropriate ATC unit
b) An emergency situation arises which takes immediate action by aircraft
c) All of the above
96) What action should be taken if the time estimate for the next applicable reporting point is found to
be in error of three minutes from that notified?
a) Inform ATC of the speed that will be used
b) Notify ATC immediately
c) No action to be taken
97) When shall the pilot report change in time estimate for the next applicable flight information region
boundary?
a) If the error is in excess of five minutes from that notified to ATC
b) If the error is in excess of ten minutes from that notified to ATC
c) None of the above
98) When shall a revised estimate time be notified as soon as possible to the appropriate air traffic
service unit?
a) If the error is three minutes or more from that notified
b) If the error is five minutes or more from that notified
c) If the error is more than three minutes from that notified
99) Which of the following is considered to be “inadvertent changes”?
a) Deviation from track, variation in true airspeed, change of cruising level
b) Variation true airspeed, deviation from track, change in time estimate
c) Changing of cruising level, change of route, destination changed
100) Which of the following is considered to be “inadvertent changes”?
a) Change of cruise level, change of route & destination changed
b) Deviation from track, variation in true airspeed & change of route
c) None of the above
101) Which of the following is considered to be “intended changes”?
a) Change of cruise level, change of route & destination changed
b) Change of route, change in true airspeed & change in time estimate
c) None of the above
102) What action should be taken by pilot when it becomes evident that flight in VMC in accordance
with its current flight plan will not be practicable? VFR flight which is operated as a controlled flight
shall
a) Request to leave the airway immediately
b) Land at suitable aerodrome
c) Request clearance to operate as IFR
103) A controlled flight cruising speed TAS is 300 KTS when shall the pilot report a variation in TAS to
ATC?
a) If the speed becomes 305 KTS
b) If the speed becomes 310 KTS
c) If the speed becomes 285 KTS
104) A controlled flight cruising speed TAS is 200 KTS when shall the pilot report a variation in TAS to
ATC?
a) If the speed becomes 210 KTS
b) If the speed becomes 215 KTS
c) Both (A)&(B)
105) A controlled flight cruising speed TAS is 200 KTS when shall the pilot report a variation in TAS to
ATC?
a) If the speed becomes 190 KTS
b) If the speed becomes 210 KTS
c) All of the above
106) What is the minimum true airspeed for an aircraft to be operated in use of inadvertent changes
from its current flight plan of 480 KTS with no need to notify appropriate air traffic service unit?
a) 461 KTS
b) 456 KTS
c) 451 KTS
107) What is the maximum permissible change in time estimate for the next applicable reporting
point when it is found to be in error from that given in the current flight plan at 0730, without
notification of the appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 0729
b) 0731
c) 0737
108) What is the maximum permissible change in time estimate for the next flight information region
boundary when it is found to be in error from the given in the current flight plan at 0830, and
necessitate notification of appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 0829
b) 0831
c) 0835
109) What is the maximum permissible change in time estimate for the next applicable reporting
point when it is found to be in error from that given in the current flight plan at 0905, without
notification of the appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 0904
b) 0907
c) 0909
110) What is the maximum permissible change in time estimate for the next flight information region
boundary when it is found to be in error from the given in the current flight plan at 2359, and
necessitate notification of appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 2358
b) 2360
c) 0003
111) What is the maximum permissible change in time estimate for the next applicable reporting
point when it is found to be in error from that given in the current flight plan at 0808, without
notification of the appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 0807
b) 0810
c) 0812
112) What is the maximum permissible change in time estimate for the next flight information region
boundary when it is found to be in error from the given in the current flight plan at 2330, and
necessitate notification of appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 2329
b) 2331
c) 2334
113) What is the maximum permissible change in time estimate for the next applicable reporting
point when it is found to be in error from that given in the current flight plan at 0712, without
notification of the appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 0714
b) 0717
c) 0720
114) A controlled flight cruising speed (TAS) is 300 KTS when shall the pilot report a variation in TAS
to ATC?
a) If the TAS becomes 310 KTS
b) If the TAS becomes 290 KTS
c) None of the above
115) What is the maximum true airspeed for an aircraft to operate in case of inadvertent changes
from its current flight plan of 240 Knots without notification to the appropriate air traffic services
unit?
a) 254 Knots
b) 249 Knots
c) 252 Knots
116) What is the minimum true airspeed for an aircraft to operate in case of inadvertent changes
from its current flight plan of 440 Knots with no need to notify appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 418 Knots
b) 423 Knots
c) 413 Knots
117) What is the maximum true airspeed for an aircraft to operate in case of inadvertent changes
from its current flight plan of 200 Knots without notification to the appropriate air traffic services
unit?
a) 208 Knots
b) 210 Knots
c) 212 Knots
118) What is the minimum true airspeed for an aircraft to operate in case of inadvertent changes
from its current flight plan of 540 Knots with no need to notify appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 518 Knots
b) 513 Knots
c) 508 Knots
119) What is the maximum true airspeed for an aircraft to operate in case of inadvertent changes
from its current flight plan of 280 Knots without notification to the appropriate air traffic services
unit?
a) 297 Knots
b) 294 Knots
c) 291 Knots
120) What is the minimum true airspeed for an aircraft to operate in case of inadvertent changes
from its current flight plan of 400 Knots with no need to notify appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 380 Knots
b) 384 Knots
c) 376 Knots
121) What is the maximum permissible change in time estimate for the next applicable reporting
point when it is found to be in error from that given in the current flight plan at 0931, without
notification of the appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 0930
b) 0933
c) 0935
122) What is the minimum permissible change in time estimate for the next flight information region
boundary when it is found to be in error from that given in the current flight plan at 1010 &
necessitate notification of the appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 1009
b) 1011
c) 1014
123) What is the maximum true airspeed for an aircraft to operate in case of inadvertent changes
from its current flight plan of 180 Knots without notification to the appropriate air traffic services
unit?
a) 191 Knots
b) 189 Knots
c) 187 Knots
124) What is the maximum true airspeed for an aircraft to operate in case of inadvertent changes
from its current flight plan of 460 Knots with no need to notify appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 432 Knots
b) 442 Knots
c) 437 Knots
125) What is the maximum true airspeed for an aircraft to operate in case of inadvertent changes
from its current flight plan of 180 knots without notification to the appropriate air traffic service
unit?
a) 189 Knots
b) 187 Knots
c) 191 Knots
126) What is the minimum true airspeed for an aircraft to operate in case of inadvertent changes
from its current flight plan of 480 knots with no need to notify appropriate air traffic services unit?
a) 461 Knots
b) 456 Knots
c) 451 Knots
127) VFR flights shall not takeoff or land or enter the aerodrome traffic zone
a) When the ceiling is less than 450 M or when the ground visibility is less than 8 KM
b) When the ceiling is less than 1500ft or when the ground visibility is less than 5 KM
c) When the ground visibility is less than 8 KM or when the ceiling is less than 1500ft
128) VFR flight shall takeoff and land at an aerodrome within a control zone when
a) The ceiling is not less than 1500ft and when the ground visibility is more than 5 KM
b) The ceiling is not less than 1500ft or the ground visibility is 5 SM or more
c) The ceiling is not less than 450 M and the ground visibility is 5 KM or more
129) A/C shall not be flown over “congested areas” unless at such height to enable it in case of an
emergency arising, a landing to be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the
surface except
a) When necessary for takeoff & landing
b) When required by ATC
c) All of the above
130) VFR flight shall not takeoff or land or enter the aerodrome traffic zone when
a) The ceiling is less than 540 m
b) The ground visibility is less than 8 km
c) None of the above
131) VFR flight shall not takeoff or land or enter the aerodrome traffic zone when
a) The ceiling is less than 540 m
b) The ground visibility is less than 5 km
c) None of the above
132) VFR flights between sunset and sunrise shall be operated
a) In accordance with conditions prescribed by appropriate ATS authority
b) In accordance with ATC clearance
c) When it is requested by the pilot in command
133) VFR flights shall not be operated above FL 200 unless
a) When it is cleared by ATC unit
b) When special permission is obtained
c) When authorized by the appropriate ATS authority
134) VFR flights shall not be flown at “transonic and supersonic speed” unless
a) When it is cleared by ATC unit
b) When special permission is obtained
c) When authorized by the appropriate ATS authority
135) In which MET conditions VFR flight can takeoff & land at an aerodrome within controlled zone?
a) Ceiling is 500 M and ground visibility is 4 KM
b) Ceiling is 1400 FT and ground visibility is 6 KM
c) Ground visibility is 5 KM and ceiling is 450 M
136) In which MET conditions VFR flight can takeoff & land at an aerodrome within controlled zone?
a) Ceiling is 500 M and ground visibility is 5 KM
b) Ceiling is 400 M and ground visibility is 10 KM
c) All of the above
137) In which MET conditions VFR flight can takeoff & land at an aerodrome within controlled zone?
a) Ceiling is 500 M and ground visibility is 4 KM
b) Ceiling is 450 M and ground visibility is 8 KM
c) None of the above
138) In which MET conditions VFR flight can takeoff & land at an aerodrome within controlled zone?
a) Ceiling is 200 M and ground visibility is 5 KM
b) Ceiling is 300 M and ground visibility is 10 KM
c) None of the above
139) In which MET conditions VFR flight can takeoff & land at an aerodrome within controlled zone?
a) Ceiling is 550 M and ground visibility is 3 KM
b) Ceiling is 540 M and ground visibility is 6 KM
c) None of the above
140) VFR flight shall be conducted in class “B” airspace above 10,000ft MSL so that
a) Clear of clouds & flight visibility is 8 KM
b) Clear of clouds & flight visibility is 5 KM
c) Clear of clouds & flight visibility is 4 KM
141) VFR flight shall be conducted in class “B” airspace below 10,000ft MSL so that
a) Clear of cloud & 8 KM flight visibility
b) Clear of cloud & 5 KM flight visibility
c) None of the above
142) VFR flight at FL 115 MSL shall be conducted in class “C” airspace so that
a) Distance from cloud 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically & flight visibility 8KM
b) Distance from cloud 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically & flight visibility 5KM
c) Clear of cloud & flight visibility 8KM
143) VFR flight at FL 095 MSL shall be conducted in class “D” airspace so that
a) Distance from cloud 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically & flight visibility 5KM
b) Distance from cloud 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically & flight visibility 8KM
c) Clear of cloud & flight visibility 8KM
144) VFR flights are subject to ATC clearance when
a) Operated within advisory airspace
b) Operated within airspace class A,B & C
c) Operated as special VFR
145) VFR flight at 2500 ft MSL shall be conducted in class “G” airspace so that
a) Flight visibility 5KM clear of cloud in sight of the surface
b) Clear of clouds & flight visibility 5KM
c) Flight visibility 8 KM & clear of cloud
146) VFR flight at 4500 ft MSL shall be conducted in class “F” airspace so that
a) Clear of cloud & in sight of the surface
b) Distance from cloud 1500 M horizontally, 1000 ft vertically & flight visibility 8 KM
c) Distance from cloud 1500 M horizontally, 1000 ft vertically & flight visibility 5 KM
147) VFR flight at FL 085 MSL shall be conducted in class “C” airspace so that
a) Distance from cloud 1500 M horizontally, 1000 ft vertically & flight visibility 8 KM
b) Distance from cloud 1500 M horizontally, 1000 ft vertically & flight visibility 5 KM
c) Flight visibility 8 KM & clear of cloud
148) VFR flight at FL 115 MSL shall be conducted in class “D” airspace so that
a) Distance from cloud 1500 M horizontally, 1000 ft vertically & flight visibility 5 KM
b) Distance from cloud 1500 M horizontally, 1000 ft vertically & flight visibility 8 KM
c) None of the above
149) Clear of cloud & 5 KM flight visibility, these VMC minima can be applied for VFR flight operating
in
a) Class A airspace
b) Class F & G airspace
c) Class B airspace below 10,000 ft MSL
150) Distance from cloud 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically and 5 KM flight visibility “These VMC
minima can be applied for VFR flight
a) Operating in class “B” & “C” airspace above 10,000 ft MSL
b) Operating in class “C”, “D” & “E” airspace below 10,000 ft MSL
c) Operating in class “E”, “F” & “G” airspace above 3000 ft MSL
151) Except during takeoff & landing a VFR flight shall not be flown
a) Over the congested area at height less than 1000ft above the highest obstacle
b) Over the congested area at height less than 300 M above the highest obstacle, with a radius of
600 M from the ACFT
c) Over the congested area at height less than 1000ft above the highest obstacle, with a radius of
600ft from the ACFT
152) VFR flight shall be flown over congested areas of cities at a height
a) More than 1000ft above the highest obstacle
b) 1000ft or more above the highest obstacle
c) Less than 1000ft above the highest obstacle
153) VFR flights shall be flown over land or water at a height
a) Less than 5000ft above ground or water
b) More than 500ft above ground or water
c) 500ft or more above ground or water
154) VFR flights shall not be flown over land or water at a height
a) At or less than 500ft above ground or water
b) Less than 500ft above ground or water
c) More than 500ft above ground or water
155) VFR flights shall comply with the provision of ATC service when
a) Forming part of aerodrome traffic
b) Forming part of aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodrome
c) Requested by pilot in command
156) Special VFR shall operate in MET conditions
a) Below VMC
b) At or below VMC
c) At VMC
157) The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight in class “A” is
a) 8 KM
b) 5 KM
c) None of the above
158) Unless authorized by the appropriate ATS authority VFR flights shall be operated
a) Above FL 200
b) At transonic and super sonic speed
c) None of the above
159) In which type of airspace are VFR flights not cleared?
a) Class “A”
b) Class “B”
c) Class “C”
160) When operating an aircraft within class “B” airspace under special VFR, the flight visibility is
required to be at least
a) 6 KM at or above 10,000ft MSL
b) 5 KM below 10,000ft MSL
c) Less than 5 KM, below 10,000ft MSL
161) What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in class “B”
airspace above 10,000ft MSL
a) 300 M vertically, 8 KM
b) 450 M horizontally, 8 KM
c) None of the above
162) What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight below 10,000ft MSL in
class “C”, “D” & “E” airspace with VFR flight during day light hours?
a) 8 KM, 1500 M horizontally, 300 M vertical distance from cloud
b) 5 KM, 1500 M horizontally, 1000ft vertical distance from cloud
c) None of the above
163) What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in class “B”
airspace at 10,000ft MSL with VFR flight during day light hours?
a) 1500 M horizontally,5 KM
b) 1500 M horizontally,8 KM
c) 8 KM, clear of clouds
164) What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight above 3050 M MSL in
class “C”, “D” & “E” airspace with VFR flight during day light hours?
a) Clear of cloud,8 KM
b) 8 KM at 10,000ft MSL, 1500 horizontally, 300 M vertically
c) None of the above
165) What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for an aero plane operating at and
above 3050 M MSL in class “F” airspace with VFR flight during hours between sunrise & sunset?
a) 8 SM, 300 M vertical,1500 M horizontal distance from cloud
b) 8 KM, 300 M vertical,1500 M horizontal distance from cloud
c) None of the above
166) What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in class “B”
airspace at and above 10,000ft MSL with VFR during day light hours?
a) 1500ft horizontally,5 KM, clear of clouds
b) 300M vertical, 8 KM, clear of clouds
c) None of the above
167) What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,000ft MSL in class
“C”, “D” & “E” airspace with VFR flight during day light hours?
a) 8 SM, 1500 M horizontally, 300 M vertical, distance from cloud
b) 5 SM, 1500 M horizontally, 1000ft vertical, distance from cloud
c) 8 KM, 1500 M horizontally, 300 M vertical, distance from cloud
168) What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for an aero plane operating less
than 3000ft MSL in class “G” airspace with VFR flight during hours between sunrise & sunset?
a) 5 KM, clear of cloud
b) 5 KM, 1500 M horizontal, 1000ft vertical, distance from cloud
c) 5 KM, clear of cloud & in sight of the surface
169) What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in class “B”
airspace below 10,000ft MSL with VFR during day light hours?
a) 5 KM below 3050 M MSL, clear of clouds
b) 8 KM below 10,000ft MSL, clear of clouds
c) 8 KM above 10,000ft MSL, clear of clouds
170) What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,000ft MSL in class
“C”, “D” & “E” airspace with VFR flight during day light hours?
a) 8 KM above 10,000ft MSL, 1500 M horizontally, 300 M vertically
b) 5 KM below 3050 M MSL, 1500 M horizontally, 300 M vertically
c) Clear of cloud, 5 KM
171) What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for an aero plane operating above
10,000ft MSL in class “F” airspace with VFR flight during hours between sunrise & sunset?
a) 8 KM, 1500 M horizontally, 300 M vertical, distance from cloud
b) 8 KM, 1500ft horizontally , 1000ft vertical, distance from cloud
c) None of the above
172) Under which condition may an ATC man not clear a VFR flight from taking off or landing at an
aerodrome?
a) When the aircraft encounters a head wind of 40 Knots
b) When the ground visibility is less than 1500 meters
c) When the ceiling is less than 450 meters
173) Under which condition may air traffic control tower clear an aircraft operate under lower flight
visibility to 1500M?
a) When so prescribed by ATS authority in areas of low volume traffic
b) When it is know that visibility will be at least 5 KM during the next 2 hours
c) None of the above
174) Helicopters may be permitted to operate in less than 1500 M flight
a) When so prescribed by ATS authority if maneuvered at a speed that will give opportunity to
avoid collision
b) When so prescribed by ATS authority if maneuvered at a speed that will not result in any delay
c) None of the above
175) What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in class “B”
airspace above 10,000ft MSL with VFR during day light hours?
a) 8 KM below 10,000ft MSL, clear of clouds
b) 8 KM above 3050M MSL, clear of clouds
c) 5 KM above 10,000ft MSL, clear of clouds
176) What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight above 10,000ft MSL in
class “C”, “D” & “E” airspace with VFR flight during day light hours?
a) 8 KM at 3050 M, 1500 M horizontally, 300 M vertically, distance from cloud
b) 8 KM below 3050 M , 1500 M horizontally, 1000ft vertically, distance from cloud
c) 5 KM below3050 M, 1500 M horizontally, 300ft vertical, distance from cloud
177) What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for an aero plane operating less
than 900 M MSL in class “G” airspace with VFR flight during hours between sunrise & sunset?
a) 5 KM, clear of clouds and in sight of the surface
b) 5 KM, clear of clouds
c) 5 SM, clear of clouds, and in sight of the surface
178) Under what condition, may VFR not be permitted to operate?
a) If Mach number reaching unity on Mach meter dial
b) If ground visibility reaches 5 KM
c) If the cruising flight level having an Even Track
179) The permissible flight level for VFR flight operation are
a) On top of FL 200 All times
b) On top of FL 200 during daylight only
c) Odd + 500ft between 000 to 179 Magnetic
180) Minimum condition for VFR flight operating above the highest obstacle located over congested
areas is
a) 300 M over highest obstacle located within 8 KM of A/C
b) 1000ft over highest obstacle located within 8 KM of A/C
c) None of the above
181) What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in class “B”
airspace below 10,000ft MSL with VFR during day light hours?
a) 5 KM, 1500 M horizontally, 300 M vertically
b) 5 KM, clear of cloud
c) None of the above
182) What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight below 3050 M MSL in
class “C”, “D” & “E” airspace with VFR flight during day light hours?
a) 8 SM, 1500 M horizontally, 1000ft vertically, distance from cloud
b) 5 SM, 1500 M horizontally, 300ft vertically, distance from cloud
c) 5 KM, 1500 M horizontally, 1000ft vertically, distance from cloud
183) What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for an aero plane operating less
than 10,000 ft MSL in class “G” airspace with VFR flight during hours between sunrise & sunset?
a) 5 SM, 1500 ft horizontally, 300 M vertically, distance from cloud
b) 5 KM, 1500 M horizontally, 300 M vertically, distance from cloud
c) None of the above
184) Minimum flight height for VFR flight to be flown over water or above ground
a) 500ft
b) 150 meter
c) Either “A” or “B”
185) When should VFR fly in cruising flight level correlated to its track?
a) When operated above 900 M from ground or water
b) When operated above 900ft from ground or water
c) When less than 3000ft from ground or water
186) What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in class “B”
airspace at 10,000ft MSL with VFR during day light hours?
a) Clear of clouds, 8 KM at 3050 M MSL
b) 1500 M horizontally, 5 KM at 10,000 MSL
c) 1000ft vertically, 8 KM
187) What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight below 10’000ft MSL in
class “C”, “D” & “E” airspace with VFR flight during day light hours?
a) 5 KM, 1500 M horizontally, 1000ft vertically, distance from cloud
b) 8 KM, 1500 M horizontally, 1000ft vertically, distance from cloud
c) None of the above
188) What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for an aero plane operating less
than 10,000 ft MSL in class “F” airspace with VFR flight during hours between sunrise & sunset?
a) 8 KM, 1500 M horizontally, 300 M vertically, distance from cloud
b) 8 KM below 3050 M, 1500 M horizontally, 1000ft vertically, distance from cloud
c) None of the above
189) ATC unit shall issue ATC clearance for VFR when
a) Operated within class B,C & G airspace
b) Operated within uncontrolled airspace as special VFR flights
c) None of the above
190) An ATC authorization for VFR operated shall be under
a) Operation of special VFR outside control zone
b) Operation of special VFR outside control area
c) Operation within class “B” airspace
191) A signal sent by radiotelephone consisting of spoken word MAY DAY means
a) A grave & imminent danger threatens & immediate assistance is required
b) An aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which complete it to land
c) An aircraft is subject to unlawful interference
192) A signal made by radiotelegraphy consisting of the group SOS means
a) A grave & imminent danger threatens & immediate assistance is required
b) An aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which complete it to land
c) An aircraft is subject to unlawful interference
193) The repeated switching ON & OFF of the landing lights means that
a) A grave & imminent danger threatens & immediate assistance is required
b) An aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which complete it to land
c) An aircraft is subject to unlawful interference
194) A signal sent by the repeated switching ON & OFF of the navigation lights mean that
a) A grave & imminent danger threatens & immediate assistance is required
b) An aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which complete it to land
c) An aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of an aircraft or some
person on board
195) By which of the following “closed runway” is identified?
a) An “X” is painted on each side of the runway
b) The letter “C” is painted on the runway beyond the threshold
c) An “X” is painted on each end of the runway
196) By which of the following an aircraft is required to land, takeoff & taxi on runways & taxi ways
only is identified?
a) A horizontal yellow dumbbell
b) A horizontal white dumbbell
c) A horizontal white dumbbell with black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each
circular portion of the dumbbell
197) A prohibition of landing is identified by which of the following
a) An “X” is painted on each side of runway, yellow or white
b) A horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals
c) A horizontal yellow square panel with red diagonals
198) A horizontal white dumbbell, when displayed in a signal area indicates that
a) An area is unfit for movement of aircraft
b) Landings are prohibited
c) Aircraft are required to land, takeoff & taxi on runways and taxi ways only
199) A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal, when displayed in a signal area
indicates that
a) Need for special precautions while approaching or landing
b) Landings are prohibited
c) Special precautions must be observed in landing
200) The location of air traffic services reporting office is identified by which of the following
a) The letter “S” displayed vertically in black against yellow background
b) The letter “C” displayed horizontally in black against yellow background
c) The letter “C” displayed vertically in black against yellow background
201) An aircraft in flight is cleared to land by which of the following signals from aerodrome control?
a) Steady Green
b) Steady Yellow
c) Series of Green flashes
202) An aircraft on the ground is cleared to taxi from A/D control by which of the following signals?
a) Series of Green flashes
b) Series of White flashes
c) Steady Green
203) An aircraft on the ground is cleared for takeoff from A/D control TWR by which of the following
signals?
a) Steady Green
b) Series of Green flashes
c) Series of White flashes
204) An aircraft on the ground is cleared to stop from A/D control TWR by which of the following
signals?
a) Series of Red flashes
b) Series of Yellow flashes
c) Steady Red
205) An aircraft in flight is not cleared to land “unsafe A/D” from A/D control by which of the
following signals?
a) Steady Red
b) Series of Red flashes
c) Steady Yellow
206) An aircraft in flight is cleared to return for landing from A/D control by which of the following
signals?
a) Steady Green
b) Series of White flashes
c) Series of Green flashes
207) An aircraft in flight is cleared to give way to other aircraft & continue circling from A/D control
by which of the following signals?
a) Series of Red flashes
b) Series of Yellow flashes
c) Steady Red
208) An aircraft on the ground is cleared to return to starting point on the A/D by which of the
following signals?
a) Series of White flashes
b) Steady White
c) Series of Red flashes
209) What is the urgency signal to be sent by radiotelephony?
a) MAY DAY
b) XXX
c) PANPAN
210) What is the urgency signal to be sent by radiotelegraphy?
a) MAY DAY
b) XXX
c) PANPAN
211) What is the distress signal to be sent by radiotelephony?
a) MAY DAY
b) XXX
c) PANPAN
212) Regarding emergency signals “SOS” means that an ACFT has
a) A distress signal
b) A very urgent message
c) An urgent signal
213) An AFCT wishes to give notice of difficulties which complete it to land without requiring
immediate assistance by which of the following signals?
a) The spoken words MAY DAY
b) The spoken words PANPAN
c) The repeated switching ON & OFF of the landing lights
214) By which of the following signals an ACFT indicate that grave and imminent danger threatens &
immediate assistance is requested?
a) Spoken words PANPAN
b) The group XXX
c) Rockets or shell throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals
215) An AFCT has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety, by which of the following
signals?
a) Spoken words PANPAN
b) A parachute flare showing a red light
c) Spoken words MAY DAY
216) A series of Green flashes when directed from A/D control toward an aircraft in flight means
a) Cleared to taxi
b) Return for landing
c) Cleared to land
217) A series of Red flashes when directed from A/D control toward an aircraft in flight means
a) Taxi clear of landing area in use
b) Do not land
c) Give way to another ACFT and continue circling
218) What is the minimum height to be flown by VFR flight on Magnetic TR 184°& return back over
an obstacle of 3400ft height?
a) FL 65 and 75
b) FL 65 and 55
c) FL 45 and 55
219) What is the minimum height to be flown by VFR flight on Magnetic TR 230°& return back over
an obstacle of 3200ft height?
a) FL 45 and 55
b) FL 55 and 65
c) FL 65 and 55
220) What is the minimum height to be flown by a VFR flight on Magnetic TR 320° & return back over
an obstacle of 2300ft height?
a) FL 45 and 55
b) FL 55 and 45
c) FL 45 and 35
221) What is the minimum height to be flown by a VFR flight on Magnetic TR 179° & return back over
an obstacle of 3700ft height?
a) FL 55 and 65
b) FL 45 and 55
c) FL 65 and 55
222) What is the minimum height to be flown by a VFR flight on Magnetic TR 359° & return back over
an obstacle of 3700ft height?
a) FL 65 and 45
b) FL 65 and 55
c) FL 55 and 65
223) What is the minimum height to be flown by a VFR flight on Magnetic TR 314° & return back over
an obstacle of 5000ft height?
a) FL 65 and 75
b) FL 75 and 65
c) FL 55 and 65
224) A VFR flight on Magnetic track 161° will maintain flight levels
a) 170,195,155 or 135
b) 115,135,155 or 175
c) 090,105,110 or 135
225) A VFR flight on Magnetic track 080° will maintain flight levels
a) 095,115,135 or 145
b) 085,095,115 or 135
c) 155,135,115 or 095
226) A VFR flight on Magnetic track 310° will maintain flight levels
a) 065,085,115 or 125
b) 085,105,125 or 145
c) 075,105,135 or 145
227) A VFR flight on Magnetic track 310° will maintain flight levels
a) 105,125,145,165,185
b) 105,145,175 or 185
c) 080,105,125 or 145
228) What is the minimum height to be flown by a VFR flight on Magnetic TR 184° & return back over
an obstacle of 3400ft height?
a) FL 65 and 75
b) FL 65 and 55
c) FL 45 and 55
229) What is the minimum height to be flown by a VFR flight on Magnetic TR 230° & return back over
an obstacle of 3200ft height?
a) FL 45 and 55
b) FL 55 and 65
c) FL 65 and 55
230) What is the minimum height to be flown by a VFR flight on Magnetic TR 320° & return back over
an obstacle of 2300ft height?
a) FL 45 and 55
b) FL 55 and 45
c) FL 45 and 35
231) What is the minimum height to be flown by a VFR flight on Magnetic TR 179° & return back over
an obstacle of 3700ft height?
a) FL 55 and 65
b) FL 45 and 55
c) FL 65 and 55
232) What is the minimum height to be flown by a VFR flight on Magnetic TR 359° & return back over
an obstacle of 3700ft height?
a) FL 65 and 45
b) FL 65 and 55
c) FL 55 and 65
233) What is the minimum height to be flown by a VFR flight on Magnetic TR 314° & return back over
an obstacle of 5000ft height?
a) FL 65 and 75
b) FL 75 and 65
c) FL 55 and 65
234) A VFR flight on Magnetic track 161° will maintain flight levels
a) 170,195,155 or 135
b) 115,135,155 or 175
c) 090,105,110 or 135
235) A VFR flight on Magnetic track 080° will maintain flight levels
a) 095,115,135 or 145
b) 085,095,115 or 135
c) 155,135,115 or 095
236) A VFR flight on Magnetic track 310° will maintain flight levels
a) 065,085,115 or 125
b) 085,105,125 or 145
c) 075,105,135 or 145
237) A VFR flight on Magnetic track 310° will maintain flight levels
a) 105,125,145,165,185
b) 105,145,175 or 185
c) 080,105,125 or 145
238) Flight is going to operate within an area where the lowest usable flight level is FL 85, the aircraft
may be cleared to maintain
a) FL 10,000ft
b) FL 080
c) Flight level 085
239) Any flight along designated route within or into designated areas when so required by
appropriate ATS authority shall submit a flight plan to facilitate
a) The coordination with appropriate military units or with ATS units in adjacent states
b) The provision of the flight information, alerting & search & rescue services
c) All of the above
240) In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from track that given in its current
flight plan
a) If A/C is off track pilot in command shall adjust the heading of the A/C to be abeam of that track
b) If A/C is off track pilot in command shall adjust the heading of the A/C to regain that track as
soon as practicable
c) All of the above
241) In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan by
variation in true airspeed, the pilot in command shall notify the appropriate air traffic services unit if
a) TAS at cruising level between reporting points varies or is expected to vary by plus or minus 5
percent
b) TAS at cruising level between reporting points varies or is expected to vary by plus or minus 10
knots
c) All of the above
242) A pilot is holding at the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination
aerodrome after having experienced two way radio communication failure when should that pilot
start normal instrument approach?
a) At ETA as amended by ATC
b) After thirty minuets of ETA
c) Within thirty minutes of ETA
243) After experiencing two way radio communication failure en route, when should a pilot begin the
descent for the instrument approach?
a) Upon arrival at holding fix depicted an instrument approach procedures at ETA from the current
flight plan
b) Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted an instrument approach procedures at ETA from the
current flight plan plus 3 minutes
c) As close to the EAT as amended by ATC
244) If the A/C experiencing a radio communication failure when forming a part of the A/D traffic at
controlled A/D, the pilot in command shall
a) Shall keep a watch for such instructions as may be issued by visual signals
b) Shall keep a watch for such instructions as may be issued by radiotelephony
c) Shall keep a watch for such instructions as may be issued by administrator
245) If the A/C experiencing a radio communication failure when in visual metrological conditions the
A/C shall
a) Land at the arrival A/D although it is not first suitable A/D
b) Land at the nearest suitable A/D
c) Land at the alternate A/D
246) When the aircraft is being overtaken while taxing on “the movement area” of an aerodrome, the
following shall apply
a) Each shall stop
b) Overtaking aircraft shall keep well clear of the other aircraft
c) Overtaken aircraft shall stop & the other aircraft shall alter its heading to the right
247) When an aircraft is being overtaken by another aircraft while taxing on “the movement area” of
an aerodrome the following shall apply
a) Each shall stop
b) Overtaking aircraft shall keep well clear of the other aircraft
c) Overtaken aircraft shall stop & the other aircraft shall alter its heading to the right
248) What action should the pilot of an A/C take during taxing on “the maneuvering area” on an
aerodrome?
a) Shall stop at some taxi holding position
b) Shall stop & hold at all taxi-holding position
c) None of the above
249) What action should the pilot of an A/C take during taxing on maneuvering area of an A/D?
a) Shall stop & hold at some lighted stop bars
b) Shall stop & hold at some lighted stop bars, when switched off
c) Shall stop & hold at all lighted stop bars
250) When two aircraft are approaching head on while taxing on the movement area of an
aerodrome, the following shall be applied
a) Each shall request push back procedure
b) Each shall stop
c) Each shall comply with ground control instructions
251) All changes to a flight plan submitted to controlled IFR flight shall be reported to
a) The appropriate ATS unit
b) The air traffic services reporting office
c) The appropriate ATS authority
252) A/C operating on the movement area of an A/D shall display anti collision lights to attract
attention to the A/C and navigation light which indicate engines are running, such lights shall be
displayed during
a) Periods from sunset to sunrise
b) Periods from sunset to sunrise and other periods
c) None of the above
253) All aircrafts in flight and fitted with anti collision light to attract attention to aircraft, such light
shall be displayed during the period of
a) From sunset to sunrise only
b) From sunset to sunrise & also outside these periods
c) Period outside sunset & sunrise only
254) The pilot may select to fly in accordance with IFR in
a) IMC only
b) VMC only
c) VMC & IMC
255) What action shall be taken by the pilot in command of an aircraft when the ATC clearance is not
satisfactory?
a) Do not accept the clearance
b) May request and if practicable will be issued an amended clearance
c) Read the clearance back
256) No aircraft shall not be flown in a “prohibited area” except
a) In accordance with the conditions of the restrictions
b) By permission from appropriate ATC unit
c) All of the above
257) All aircraft in flight during night shall display
a) Landing lights & airframe flood light
b) Anti collision & navigation lights only
c) Anti collision, navigation, landing lights & flood lights
258) A pilot shall be permitted to switch off or reduce the intensity of flashing lights in case of
a) They are adversely affecting the satisfactory performance of duties or ….
b) They are subject an outside observer to harmful dazzle
c) All of the above
259) All A/C from sunset to sunrise or such other period prescribed by ATC shall display red anti
collision lights in case of
a) Intended to attract attention to A/C in flight
b) Intended to attract attention to A/C in flight & also in movement area of A/D
c) None of the above
260) All A/C when flying during night shall display
a) Anti collision lights to indicate the relative path of the A/C
b) Navigation lights intended to attract attention to the A/C
c) All of the above
261) All A/C on movement area of an A/D shall display navigation lights intended to indicate relative
path of the A/C to an observer & also display lights to attract attention to the A/C in the event of
a) Being in flight during sunset to sunrise
b) Being in state of loading, unloading or refueling
c) Being towed & taxing
262) IFR flight conducted in accordance with
a) VMC
b) IFR
c) IMC
263) Any flight within a prohibited area must follow one of the following
a) Such flight may be cleared to operate within a prohibited area only by permission from ATC
authority
b) Such flight is prohibited to operate
c) None of the above
264) Which statement is true regarding aircraft equipment when operated
a) Aircraft shall be equipped with suitable instrument & navigation equipment appropriate to
the route to be flown
b) Aircraft shall be equipped with fully functioning dual control
c) Aircraft shall be equipped with equipment appropriate to the aircraft wake turbulence category
265) Controlled flight shall, in so far as practicable when on an established ATS route will
a) Operate along the defined center line of that route
b) Operate above the minimum flight altitude along that route
c) All of the above
266) Controlled flight shall, in so far as practicable when on any other route other than ATS route will
a) Operate directly between the navigation facilities and/or
b) Operate directly between the points defining that route
c) All of the above
267) Where no minimum flight altitude is established an IFR flight shall be flown
a) Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 200ft above the highest
obstacle located within 8 NM of the estimate position of the aircraft
b) Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 2000ft above the highest
obstacle located within 8 KM of the estimate position of the aircraft
c) Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 1000ft above the highest
obstacle located within 8 NM of the estimate position of the aircraft
268) Where no minimum flight altitude is established, an IFR flight shall be flown
a) Else where than over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is 1000ft above the
highest obstacle located within 8 KM of the estimated position of the aircraft
b) Else where than over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 2000ft
above the highest obstacle located within 8 KM of the estimated position of the aircraft
c) Else where than over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 1000ft
above the highest obstacle located within 8 KM of the estimated position of the aircraft
269) An aircraft electing to change the conduct of its flight from IFR to VFR; what action shall be
taken by the pilot?
a) If a flight plan was submitted, notify the ATC that the IFR flight is cancelled and communicate
the changes to be made to its current flight plan
b) If a flight plan was submitted, the changes to be made to its current flight plan without notifying
to ATC
c) If a flight plan was submitted, notify the ATC specifically that the IFR flight is cancelled and don’t
communicate the changes to be made to its current flight plan
270) When an IFR flight is flown in VMC it shall not cancel its IFR flight to VFR flight unless
a) It is anticipated & intended that the flight will be continued for at least 2 hours in uninterrupted
VMC
b) It is anticipated & intended that the flight will be continued for a reasonable period of time in
uninterrupted VMC
c) It is anticipated & intended that the flight will be continued to the destination in uninterrupted
VMC
271) IFR flights shall comply with air traffic control clearance when operated in
a) Control zone
b) Controlled airspace
c) Advisory airspace
272) Estimated time of arrival for IFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will
arrive over that designated point defined by reference to navigation aids from which it is intended
that
a) Visual circling approach procedure will be commenced
b) An instrument approach procedure will be commenced
c) None of the above
273) Who is responsible for the operation of an aircraft in accordance with Rules of the AIR?
a) The certificate holder
b) 2nd in command
c) Pilot in command
274) Pilot in command may depart from responsibility for the operation of aircraft in case of
a) Dangerous person on board the aircraft
b) 2nd in command manipulating the control
c) In circumstances absolutely necessary in the interests or safety
275) Pilot of IFR flight shall familiarize himself before beginning his flight with
a) Runway length, strength, weight & balance report, fuel & oil supply & emergency equipments
b) Current weather reports & forecasts, fuel requirements & alternate of aerodromes
c) All of the above
276) Pilot in command or the crew member of an aircraft shall not be under the influence of
intoxicating liquor or narcotic or drug by reason of
a) His capacity to act is impaired
b) To avoid headache
c) His health maybe impaired
277) A pilot of an aircraft may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft while under the influence
of alcoholic beverage unless
a) By permission from aircraft owner
b) By permission from the appropriate ATC authority
c) To act as a crew member provided that he is not still under the influence of the intoxicating
liquor
278) Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight
a) Check the A/C technical logbook
b) Review an emergency procedures
c) Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight
279) In addition to other preflight action the pilot in command shall
a) Review A/C flight manual
b) Check the accuracy of the navigation equipment
c) Determine fuel requirement
280) Preflight action as required for all flight shall include
a) Study of arrival procedure at arrival
b) An alternative course of action if the flight can not be completed as planned
c) None of the above
281) The preflight action required by the rules of the air relative to alternatives available if the
planned flight cannot be completed is applicable to
a) Special VFR only
b) Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport
c) None of the above
282) Regarding “flight over the high seas” the relevant authority of the state of registry is defined as
a) Appropriate ATS authority
b) Appropriate authority
c) Air traffic control service
283) A pilot fly over the congested areas of cities, towns or settlements, or over an open air assembly
of persons at such a height
a) Will permit in the event of an emergency arising, a landing to be made without undue hazard
to persons or property on the surface
b) Will permit optimum performance of an aircraft
c) All of the above