1) How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in

final approach, is following a normal glide path defined

by a PAPI?
A 1.
B 2.
C 3.
D None.
2) A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR
flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified
as:
A B and C.
B B, C and D.
C B, C, D and E.
D B.
3) Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall,
upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft
in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will
be entitled to compensation as provided by :
A the Montreal Convention
B the Rome Convention
C the Chicago Convention
D the Warsaw Convention
4) When letters are used for registration mark
combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example
A TTT
B FFF
C RCC
D LLL
5) The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a
continuing structural integrity program to ensure the
airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific
information concerning corrosion prevention and
control, in respect of aeroplanes :
A over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
B over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
C up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
D up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing
mass
6) Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding
level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside
controlled airspace?
A 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of
course
B 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles
of course
C 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles
of course
D 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of
the estimated position of the aircraft
7) High intensity obstacle lights should be:
A Flashing white.
B Flashing red.
C Fixed red.
D Fixed orange.
8) In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values
are based among other standard conditions, on a
vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels
and glide path antenna, not greater than:
A 9m.
B 12m.
C 6m.
D 3m.
9) The first freedom of the air is:
A The right to board passengers from the state where the
aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.
B The right to overfly without landing.
C The right to land for a technical stop.
D The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with
passengers on board
between two states.
10) If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in
command of an aircraft:
A The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC
concerned.
B He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended
clearance.
C He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned
has to accept the pilot request.
D The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has
been based on the flight plan filed with ATC.
11) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller
possesses wind information in the form of components,
significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tailwind
component significant change is :
A 3 KT
B 2 KT
C 4 KT
D 5 KT
12) In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a
flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be
amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one
cancelled, when:
A The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time offblocks.
B The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time offblocks.
C The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of
departure.
D The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off
departure.
13) Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
AArrival, intermediate and final.
B Initial and final.
C Initial, intermediate and final.
D Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
14) The longitudinal separation minima based on distance
using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME
stations, is:
A 10 NM.
B 5 NM.
C 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of
20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
D 20 NM.

15) In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid

passport and no visa is required of him, contracting
states
A none of the answers are applicable
B shall not require him to obtain any other identity document
from their consultates or operators prior to initiate the flight
C may require him to obtain any other identity document prior
to the commencement of his flight
D in certain cases any other identity may be required
16) If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be
followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is
expected:
A To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
B To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the
track.
C To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind
correction.
D To correct for known wind to remain within the protected
airspace.
17) The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace
classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft)
AMSL, is :
A 250 KT TAS
B Not applicable
C 240 KT IAS
D 250 KT IAS
18) The convention which deals with offences against penal
law, is
A the convention of Rome
B the convention of Madrid
C the convention of Tokyo
D the convention of Warsaw
19) The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a
distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as
determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the
accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be
continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the
touchdown. In this case distance and level information
shall be given at each
A half NM
B 1 NM
C 1.5 NM
D half mile
20) A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :
A Good
B Medium/poor
C Medium
D Poor
21) An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned
level as long as the SSR mode C derived level
information indicated that it is within:
A +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
B +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
C +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
D +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
22) ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and
arrival information should include cloud cover, when the
clouds are :
A below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector
altitude, whichever is the greater
B below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector
altitude, whichever is the greater
C cumulonimbus
D below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum
sector altitude, whichever is the greater

23) According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type

rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of
three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the
aeroplane has :
A Handling characteristics that require the use of more than
one crew member
B A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
C A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
D Handling characteristics that require additional flying or
simulator training
24) The assigment of the common mark to a common mark
registering authority will be made by :
A the International Civil Aviation Organisation
B the state of registry and accepted by the International
Telecommunication Union
C the International Telecommunication Union
D the state of registry
25) The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after
completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft
into position for landing on runway which is not suitably
located for straight-in approach, is:
A Contact approach.
B Aerodrome traffic pattern.
C Visual manoeuvring (circling).
D Visual approach.
26) The MSA, which must be established around a
navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :
A 15 NM
B 30 NM
C 25 NM
D 10 NM
27) In which section of AIP are contained information
elements relating to prohibited, restricted and
dangerous areas?
AAGA.
B ENR.
C MAP.
D GEN.
28) In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing
bar?
A 4.
B 5.
C 3.
D 2.
29) Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced
threshold shall be:
A Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
B Flashing white.
C Fixed lights showing variable white.
D Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.
30) Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS
authority, a radar controller may request radar controlled
aircraft to adjust their speed when
established on intermediate and final approach. This
speed adjustment should not be more than:
A +/- 8 kt.
B +/- 20 kt.
C +/- 10 kt.
D +/- 15 kt.
31) In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach
segment begins at the:
AIF.
B FAP.
C FAF.
D MAP.
32) Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate
locally within a control zone when the ground visibility
is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is
not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within
class :
A D and E airspaces
B D airspace
C C, D and E airspaces
D E airspace

33) When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the

pilot shall operate the transponder:
AOnly when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is
used for ATS purposes.
B Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
C Only when directed by ATC.
D At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is
within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS
purposes.
34) Temporary changes on specifications for AIP
supplements of long duration and information of short
duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics
shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered
a long duration.
A Three months or longer
B Six months or longer
C One year or longer
D Two months or longer
35) In which section of AIP are contained information
elements relating to areas and/or routes for which
meteorological service is provided?
A RAC.
B COM.
C MET.
D GEN.
36) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by
the following signals:
A Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from
extended position inwards.
B Crossing arms extended above his head
C Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms
toward ground
D Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in
front of body , then clench fist
37) In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of
the alignment of the runway centre line within:
A 45°.
B 12.5°.
C 15°.
D 30°.
38) During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you
experience a two-way radio communication failure. You
will :
A Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC
and inform ATC ;
B Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to
destination ;
C Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
D Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
39) The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be
below:
A 2500 ft.
B 1500 ft.
C 1000 ft.
D 3000 ft.
40) Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the
state of occurrence for participation, the state of design
and the state of manufacture shall in the case of an
accident or serious incident inform the state of
occurence of the name of its representative to be
present at the investigation when the aircraft :
A Has a maximum mass over 27.000 kg
B Has a maximum mass over 5 700 kg
C Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg
D Has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg
41) One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :
A develop principles and technique for international aviation
B approve the ticket prices set by international airline
companies
C approve new international airlines with jet aircraft
D approve new international airlines

42) "Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to

expedite the approach of a number of arriving aircraft.
This will be obtained requesting aircraft:
A To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified
time.
B To pass a specified point.
C To apply a step down descent between aircraft in the
approach sequence.
D To maintain a specified speed during the approach
procedure.
43) A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal
area means:
A Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
B The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider
flights are being performed.
C An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
D Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of
the taxiways.
44) In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation
number shall be supplemented:
A By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and
the central has no letter.
B By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for
3 "L", "C" and "R".
C By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways.
D By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
45) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to
FL 140?
A 2 minutes
B 1,5 minutes
C 30 seconds
D 1 minute
46) Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final
approach may be requested to make minor speed
adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be
more than :
A 15 knots at any stage
B 25 knots at any stage
C 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
D 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold
47) The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a
combination of letters and numbers and shall be that
assigned by :
A the state of registry or common mark registering authority
B the state of registry only
C the International Civil Aviation Organisation
D the International Telecommunication Union
48) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by
the following signals:
A Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers
extended then clenching fist.
B Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from
extended position inwards.
C Crossing arms extended above his head.
D Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward
ground.
49) A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until
aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer
course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum
is, when independent parallel approaches are being
conducted :
A 100 m (330 ft)
B 300 m (1000 ft)
C 200 m (660 ft)
D 150 m (500 ft)
50) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed
to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land
has been received from the non-radar controller by the
time the aircraft reaches a distance of :
A 4 NM from the touchdown
B 5 NM from the touchdown
C 1.5 NM from the touchdown
D 2 NM from the touchdown
51) According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class
ratings are valid for :
A One year
B Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
C Five years after licence issuie.
D Two years
52) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.)
was established by the international convention of :
A Chicago
B The Hague
C Warsaw
D Montreal
53) Where does the initial approach segment in an
instrument approach procedure commence?
A At the FAF.
B At the final en-route fix.
C At the IAF.
D At the IF.
54) The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as
possible, in case the expected delay is :
A 20 minutes
B 5 minutes or more.
C 15 minutes or more
D 10 minutes
55) An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot
licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating,
shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight
time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories
acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less
than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours,
are respectively
A 50 hours and 10 hours
B 40 hours and 10 hours
C 40 hours and 15 hours
D 50 hours and 15 hours
56) An integrated aeronautical information package consists
of the following elements
AAIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP;
NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC;
checklists and summeries
B AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP,
NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries
C AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and
checklist summaries
D AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP;
NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
57) Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate
authority within its administration to be responsible for
the development, implementation and maintenance of
the national civil aviation security programme. The said
appropriate authority :
A Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
B Shall be specified to ICAO
C Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
D Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting
states
58) The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and
each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:
A 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true
airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
B 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true
airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
C 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true
airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
D 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true
airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
59) The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
A Precision Approach Power Indicator.
B Precision Approach Power Index.
C Precision Approach Path Indicator.
D Precision Approach Path Index.
60) Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the
flight commences in accordance with VFR and
subsequently changes to IFR?
AI
BV
CY
DZ

61) Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR

shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
A At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
from the facility.
B At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the facility.
C At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the facility.
D At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the facility.
62) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the
intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
A 120 m (384 ft)
B 30 m (98 ft)
C 50 m (164 ft)
D 90 m (295 ft)
63) What is meant when departure control instruct you to
"resume own navigation" after you have been vectored
to an airway?
A Radar Service is terminated.
B Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
C You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
DYou should maintain that airway by use of your navigation
equipment.
64) Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently
on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously
damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the
departure.
A This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform
the operator of the delay caused by necessary repair.
B This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it
to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.
C This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure
relevant to this case.
D Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is
over, the actions to be taken are related only to insurance, to
the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of
the runway and taxiways.
65) Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of
the initial approach segment in an instrument approach
procedure?
A At least 300m (984 ft).
B 150m (492 ft).
C 300m (984 ft).
D At least 150m (492 ft).
66) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane
shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
A 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command
including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
(300NM)
B 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command
including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
(300NM)
C 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command
including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
(300NM)
D 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command
including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
(300NM)
67) ATIS broadcast
A Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR
B Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency
C shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
D Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a
discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR
68) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed
to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft
is not visible on the radar display for any significant
interval during the :
A Last 3 NM of the approach
B Last 5 NM of the approach
C Last 2 NM of the approach
D Last 4 NM of the approach

69) The person who has final authority as to the disposition

of an aircraft during flight time is:
A The aircraft owner
B The airliner operator
C The commander
D The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled
airspace
70) Select the acronym corresponding to the following
definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by means
of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft
operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption
or a volcanic ash cloud.
A NAVTAM
B VULTAM
C ASHTAM
D GVATAM
71) To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E /
A two way radio communication is not required.
B a clearance is required.
C a clearance and two-way radio communication is required.
D a clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required.
72) Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome
control service is correct?
AATC permission is required for entering the apron with a
vehicle
B An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of
ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ;
C The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the
purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the
movement area;
D Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the
aerodrome controller;
73) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to
parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone
(NTZ) of at least :
A 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines
and as is depicted on the radar display
B 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines
and as is depicted on the radar display
C 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines
and as is depicted on the radar display
D 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines
and as is depicted on the radar display
74) The system notifying in advance the circumstances
requiring important changes in the methods of
operation, based on common effective dates, is
identified by the acronym:
A NOTAM
B EATCHIP
C AIRAC
D IFPS
75) When letters are used for the registration mark
combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with the
A three letters combinations used in the international code of
signals
B letters used for ICAO identification documents
C five letter combinations used in the international code of
signals
D four letter combinations beginning with Q
76) Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and
dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the
responsibility of
A the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)
B both air traffic services and the meteorological office
C the unit as prescribed the states
D the air traffic services

77) The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than
air aircraft shall be
A at least 60 centimetres
B at least 75 centimetres
C at least 50 centimetres
D at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres
78) The documents for entry and departure of aircraft :
A are accepted at the contracting state discretion
B are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink
C has to be typewritten
D has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data
processing techniques
79) A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial
approach between the end of the outbound track and
the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track
is a:
A Procedure turn
B Reversal procedure
C Race track
D Base turn
80) The color identification of the contents of droppable
containers and packages containing survival equipment
should take the form of coloured streamers according to
the following code:
A Black for food and water.
B Red for miscellaneous equipment.
C Blue for food and water.
D Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
81) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have
completed in aeroplanes not less than :
A 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more
than 5 hours may be instrument ground time
B 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more
than 5 hours may be instrument ground time.
C 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more
than 10 hours may be instrument ground time
D 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours
as pilot in command
82) You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence
expires at 0920. What does it mean ?
A After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
B If not airborne until 0920, a new clearance has to be issued
C Do not take off before 0920
D The take offclearence is expected at 0920
83) Which of the following is NOT an international distress
frequency ?
A 2.182 KHz
B 2430 KHz
C 121.5 MHz
D 243.0 MHz
84) According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the
"Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of:
A 24 m up to but not including 36 m.
B 15 m up to but not including 24 m.
C 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
D 36 m up to but not including 52 m.
85) VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above
3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are :
A 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical
distance from clouds ;
B 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical
distance from clouds ;
C No minima, VFR flights are not permitted
D 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds ;
86) When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer
course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to
enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an
angle not greater than:
A 20 degrees.
B 30 degrees.
C 25 degrees.
D 15 degrees.

87) At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal

requesting help. To indicate that he has received these
ground signals, the pilot must :
A make at least one complete turn over the group of people in
difficulty.
B transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R"
using his
navigational lights.
C fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
D switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so
equipped, his navigation lights twice.
88) In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path
intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation
from:
A 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
B 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
C 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
D 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).
89) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence
aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less
than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up
by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the
additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the
supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and
functions of a pilot in command provided that the
method of supervision employed is acceptable to the
licensing authority. The stated above hours are
respectively :
A 200 hours and 100 hours
B 150 hours and 75 hours
C 250 hours and 100 hours
D 200 hours and 75 hours
90) When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft
shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
A the state of registry, the state of design and the state of
manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy
B the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that
the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is
still airworthy
C the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the
state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy
D the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is
of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
91) The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by
ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
A 500 feet (150 m).
B 4000 feet (1200 m).
C 2000 feet (600 m).
D 1000 feet (300 m).
92) The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the
Chicago convention are to be considered:
A binding for all air line companies with international traffic
B binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO
about a national difference
C advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the
member states
D binding for all member states
93) Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
A If instructed by ATCso long as VMC is forecasted during the
next 60 minutes
B Only when leaving controlled airspace
C If the commander so requests
D If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during
the next 30 minutes
94) What will be the transponder mode and code for radio
communication failure?
A Mode A code 7500.
B Mode B code 7600.
C Mode A code 7700.
D Mode A code 7600.
95) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are
permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air
traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight
information service if requested, is classified
AAirspace G
B Airspace E
C Airspace D
D Airspace F

96) Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received

from the non-radar controller should normally be
passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of :
A 4 NM from touchdown
B 5 NM from touchdown
C 2 NM from touchdown
D 3 NM from touchdown
97) The loading limitations shall include :
A all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass
distributions and floor loadings
B all limiting mass and centres of gravity
C all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
D all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor
loadings
98) Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by
DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed
that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the
shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible
for one aircraft to climb or descend
A 20 NM
B 10 NM
C 12 NM
D 15 NM
99) When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued
to the threshold of the runway transmission should not