1) An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised

to consider executing a missed approach, if the position

or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any
portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not
visible on the radar display for significant interval
during the last:
A 3 NM.
B 1 NM.
C 4 NM.
D 2 NM.
2) Alerting service shall be provided:
A In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan
or otherwise known by the ATS.
B For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to
be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as
practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or
otherwise known to the ATS.
C For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only.
D To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful
interference, only.
3) What is a "barrette"?
A a CAT II or III holding position.
B a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
C three or more groundlights closely spaced together to
appear as a bar of lights.
D a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
4) Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten
minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft
accident.
-aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the
Search and Rescue Centre
-aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue
Centre
-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter
The command of the situation is the responsibility of;
A (1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of
operations.
B (1), and then by mutual consent to (3).
C (1) until the completion of operations.
D (1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3).
5) In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack
procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
A 2 minutes.
B 3 minutes.
C 1 minute 30 seconds.
D 1 minute.
6) Where does the initial phase of a missed approach
procedure end?
A At the missed approach point.
B At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is
obtained and can be maintained.
C At the point where a new approach, holding or return to enroute
flight is initiated.
D At the point where the climb is established.
7) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to
parallel runways provided that :
A the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at
least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
B the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at
least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
C the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at
least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
D the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at
least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach

8) During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a

missed-approach instruction, in case the "tower controller"
has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the
moment the aircraft is :
A 3 NM from touch-down;
B 4 NM from touch-down;
C 2 NM from touch-down;
D 1NM from touch-down;
9) When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved,
ATC unit shall:
A Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice
based on the use of radar.
B Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.
C not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.
D Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been
achieved without availability of SSR.
10) The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is
based on:
A The over-all length of the longest aeroplane.
B The longest aeroplane maximum width only
C The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using
the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.
D The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using
the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight.
11) Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the
inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are
established for a distance from the IAF of:
A 20 NM
B 10 NM
C 5 NM
D 25 NM
12) Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in
order to avoid collision hazards when operating in
airspace classes :
A C, D, E, F, and G
B F and G only
C A, B, C, D, E, F and G
D F only
13) In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what
minimum separation should be applied when a medium
aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are
using the same runway ?
A 2 minutes
B 3 minutes
C 4 minutes
D 1 minute
14) What action should be taken if contact is lost with the
aerodrome on the down windleg ?
A Request an amended clearance
B Initiate a missed approach
C Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is
better at a lower altitude
D Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the
aerodrome
15) On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-inapproach"
is considered acceptable, if the angle
between the final approach track and the runway
centreline is :
A 30 degrees or less
B 40 degrees or less
C 20 degrees or less
D 10 degrees or less
16) The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust
the speed where the aircraft has passed:
A 2 NM from the threshold on final approach.
B 3 NM from the threshold on final approach.
C 5 NM from the threshold on final approach.
D 4 NM from the threshold on final approach.
17) In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the
holding pattern shall be according to:
A Heading.
B Course.
C Bearing.
D Track.

18) "Instrument runways" are the following runways

intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument
approach procedures.
A Precision approach runways in general.
B Non precision approach runways, precision approach
runways category I, II and III.
C Precision approach runways category I, II and III.
D Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways
category I, II and III.
19) The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres
obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from
the navigation facility upon which the instrument
approach procedure is predicated:
A 20 NM (37 km).
B 30 NM (55 km).
C 25 NM (46 km).
D 15 NM (28 km).
20) (For this question use annex 010-9803A)
What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the
ground air visual signal code for use by survivors ?
A Drop emergency supplies at this point
B Require medical assistance
C Require assistance
D Landing here impossible
21) According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise
the privileges of their licences, related ratings or
authorisations at any time when they are aware of any
decrease in their medical fitness which might render
them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They
shall without undue delay seek the advice of the
authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or
clinic admissions for:
A More than 12 days
B More than one week
C Any period
D More than 12 hours
22) Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of
a controlled flight deviates from the track?
A Inform the ATC unit immediately
B If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC
instructions
C Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with
instructions
D Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as
practicable
23) Which statement is correct?
A The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of
at least 700ft AGL;
B The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of
at least 1500ft AGL;
C The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of
at least 3000ft AMSL;
D The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising
level
24) Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes,
the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest
obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall
be for an IFR flight :
A at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
B at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
C at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
D at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
25) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above
FL 140?
A 2 minutes 30 seconds.
B 1 minute 30 seconds.
C 1 minute.
D 2 minutes.
26) The following minimum radar separation shall be
provided between aircraft on the same localizer with
additional longitudinal separation as required for wake
turbulence:
A 5 NM.
B 2.5 NM.
C 3 NM.
D 2 NM.

27) The protection areas associated with instrument

approach procedures are determined with the
assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
A The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with
airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories.
B 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is
lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures,
25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15°
for missed approach procedures.
C 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is
lower, for departure, approach or missed approach
instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or
without prescribed flight tracks).
D 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is
lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures,
as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach
procedures.
28) The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control
service
A An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and
departing controlled flights.
B An air traffic control service for IFR flights arriving and
departing.
C An air traffic control service provided for IFR and VFR
flights within a Control Zone.
D An air traffic control service provided for IFR traffic within a
Control Zone.
29) Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within
which the following services are provided:
A Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory
Service.
B Flight Information Service only.
C Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
D Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
30) When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued
by another contracting state the validity of the
authorization
A the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend
the date of the validity at its own discretion
B shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
other than for use in private flights
C shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
D shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the
licence
31) You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight
instruction for the issue of a PPL
A With an ATPL
B With a PPL plus flight instructor rating
C With a CPL
D With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating
32) What does the abbreviation DER mean?
A Distance end of route.
B Departure end of route.
C Distance end of runway.
D Departure end of runway.
33) If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew
functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the
authority must be informed :
A if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate
expires
B After 21 days of consecutive "illness"
C as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more
than 21days
D after one calendar month of consecutive illness
34) Taxiway edge lights shall be:
A Fixed showing blue.
B Fixed showing green.
C Fixed showing yellow.
D Flashing showing blue.
35) Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position
indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
A They operate within non controlled airspace.
B Requested by ATC.
C They operate within controlled airspace.
D They operate a transponder with Mode C.

36) What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?

A 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100
B 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195
C 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
D 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
37) While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport
controller the following light signal : a series of green
flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :
A must return to its point of departure.
B is cleared for take-off.
C may continue to taxi towards the take-off area.
D must stop.
38) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall
have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
A 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30
hours of instrument ground time
B 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75
hours of instrument ground time.
C 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20
hours of instrument ground time.
D 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30
hours may be instrument ground time.
39) (For this question use annex 010-9806A)
What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the
ground-air visual signal code for use by rescue units ?
A we have found all personnel
B we have found only some personnel
C we are returning to base
D operation completed
40) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that
all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP
tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
segments defined with a radius of :
A 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260
B 20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above
FL200
C 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
D 25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL
250
41) If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach
track, a descend shall be made so as to :
A leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until
reaching the MAPt.
B pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
C follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.
D pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is
obligatory.
42) The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall
have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of
cross-country flight time, of which not less than ......
hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot
performing, under the supervision of the pilot in
command, the duties and functions of a pilot in
command, provided that the method of supervision
employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The
state above hours are respectively :
A 150 hours and 75 hours
B 200 hours and 75 hours
C 200 hours and 100 hours
D 250 hours and 10 hours
43) When letters are used for registration mark
combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example
ALLL
B DDD
C PAN
D RCC
44) The common mark shall be selected from the series of
symbols included in the radio call signs allocated :
A to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the
International Telecommunication Union
B to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation
Organisation
C to the State of registry by the International
Telecommunication Union
D to state of the operator

45) The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals

with:
A the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
B operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation
C the security system at airports
D limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-á-vis
passenger and goods transported
46) Which of the following alternatives describes the
complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light
system?
A 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
B 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit
C 3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
D 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit
47) Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be
achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain
distance from the end of the runway.
Identification has to be achieved within :
A 5NM
B 1NM
C 2NM
D 3NM
48) The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away
from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate
from the moment such person has been definitely
admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
A The operator has no obligation.
B The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator.
C The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the
person leaves the aeroplane.
D The stated above is correct.
49) Each contracting state shall establish measures to
ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when
passengers are obliged to travel because they have
been the subject of judicial or administrative
proceedings in order that appropriate security measures
can be taken
A These measures are of the discretion of the contracting
state.
B The state above question in incomplete. The pilot in
command and the aircraft operator are to be informed.
C Correct.
D The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be
informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial
proceedings.
50) Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance
Altitude/Height) for an approavh procedure?
A the operator
B the pilot-in-command ;
C the "flight-operations" of the company
D the state
51) The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the
cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the
speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
A true air speed (TAS).
B estimated ground speed (G/S).
C indicated air speed (IAS).
D true air speed at 65% power.
52) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful
interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the
cleared track or cruising level without being able to
communicate with ATS shall try to:
A Declare an emergency
B As soon as possible commence emergency descent in
order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and
outside pressure
C Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule
with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower
than FL 290
D Fly the emergency triangle

53) What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

A Obstacle identification surface.
B Obstacle in surface.
C Obstacle identification slope.
D Obstruction in surface.
54) The convention of Tokyo applies to damage :
Aonly caused in the territory of a contracting state by an
aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state
B caused in the territory of a contracting state by any aircraft
regardless the registration
C the above convention does not deal with this item
D caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or
aircraft registered there in , by an aircraft registered in the
territory of another contraction state
55) Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all
turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be
made into which direction?
A To the right.
B To the left.
C First right and then to the left.
D Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
56) According to JAR-FCL, a professionnal flight crew
licence license issued by a non JAA State may be
rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA
Member State
A At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State
concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of
basic licence
B At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State
concerned for a period not exceeding one year
C At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State
concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided
that the basic licence remains valid.
D At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State
concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that
the basic licence remains valid.
57) The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the
ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a
suitable area where:
A An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
B An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned takeoff.
C A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of
runway.
D A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
58) In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance
surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally
deviate from the centreline, after being established on
track, more than:
A Half a scale deflection.
B One scale deflection.
C A quarter of scale deflection.
D One and a half of scale deflection.
59) A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections.
In section I the pilot fills in :
A weather noted ;
B flight identification and weather noted ;
C urgent messages
D a position report, including aircraft identification, height,
position and time ;
60) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane
shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross
country flight time as pilot in command including a
cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-
NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two
different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and
distance referred are :
A 20 hours and 270 km (150NM)
B 20 hours and 540 km (300NM)
C 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
D 15 hours and 540 km (300NM)

61) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for

the provision of approach control service is:
A To conduct surveillance radar approaches.
B To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between
IFR flights and VFR flights.
C To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
D To provide instructions in order to reduce separations
minima, if accepted by the pilots.
62) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a
specified limit above the earth is:
A Advisory airspace.
B Flight Information Region.
C Control area.
D Control zone.
63) Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is
established, the procedures applicable there in :
A have to be as indicated by ICAO council
B have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings
C need not to be identical with those applicable in the
underlying flight information region
D has to be the same as the underlying flight information region
64) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of
Montreal by written notification to the depositary
governments. The denounciation shall take effect :
A 2 months following the date ICAO is informed
B 4 months following the date on which notification is received
by the Depositary Governments
C 6 months following the date on which notification is received
by the Depositary Governments
D 3 months following the date on which notification is received
by the Depositary Governments
65) Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar
controller have to be executed as:
A the weather permits.
B Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
C Decided on pilot's discretion.
D Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
66) (For this question use annex 010-9805A)
Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter
similar to the symbol meanning "REQUIRE MEDICAL
ASSISTANCE" is :
A3
B4
C1
D2
67) A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air
Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and
distributed in advance of its effective date is:
A A NOTAM RAC.
B An ATS NOTAM.
C An Advisory NOTAM.
D An AIRAC.
68) Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic
pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to
indicate difficulties which compel it to land without
requiring immediate assistance?
A The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
B Switching on and off three times the landing lights
C Switching on and off four times the landing lights
D Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
69) A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a
height above the ground level or water of not less than:
A 150 metres.
B 500 metres.
C 200 metres.
D 300 metres.
70) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for
aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids
permit frequent determination of position and speed
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true
air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft will be
A 5 minutes
B 10 minutes
C 2 minutes
D 3 minutes

71) Runway-lead-in lighting should consist :

Aalways of a straight row of lights towards the runway
B of flashing lights only;
C of an arbitrary amount of green lights;
D of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence
towards the runway ;
72) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR
flights are subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are
separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive
traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
AAirspace D
B Airspace B
C Airspace A
D Airspace E
73) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the
final phase of this missed approach is :
A 90 m (295 ft)
B 120 m (384 ft)
C 50 m (164 ft)
D 30 m (98 ft)
74) The rule governing flight over water for a single engined
aeroplane engaged in the public transport of
passengers:
A limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the
engine fails.
B does not permit such flight in any circumstances.
C limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest
shore.
D limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore.
75) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold
A a current class III medical assessment
B a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the
state issuing the licence
C a current class I medical assessment
D a current class II medical assessment
76) Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you
receive and acknowledge the following instruction from
the radar controller:
"Turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further
advised".
Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that
radio communication cannot be established again and
you have to return to your current flight plan route:
A With an intercept of at least 45°.
B With an intercept of at least 30°.
C On the nearest way.
D With an intercept of 20° or more.
77) Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to
parallel runways provided that : the missed approach
track for one approach diverges by :
A at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
B at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
C at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
D at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
78) A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an
airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing.
The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours
away.
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield
are:
A VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for
landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for
landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
B ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal
visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an
available instrument approach procedure
C VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for
landing on the runway to be used
D ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal
visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an
available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged
with one engine out
79) In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used
by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall
be expressed in:
A flight level on or below the transition level
B flight level on or below the transition altitude
C altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
D altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude

80) In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will

see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two
units farthest from the runway as white when:
AOnly on the approach slope.
B On or close to the approach slope.
C Above the approach slope.
D Below the approach slope.
81) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that
all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP
tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
segments with a radius of :
A 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL
200
B 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL
250
C 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190
D 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL
190
82) Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not
available, radar identification may be achieved by one of
the following procedures:
A To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30°
or more.
B To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20°
or more.
C To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
D To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.
83) The position reports shall contain the following
elements of information in the order listed:
AAircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight
level or altitude, next position and time over.
B Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude,
next position and time over.
C Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude,
next position and time over and ensuing significant point.
D Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time,
next position and time over and ensuing significant point.
84) Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the
assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the
centre line more than :
A full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
B half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal
35 ° off the centerline.
C full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale
deflection of the glidepath indicator.
D half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
85) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the
surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
AAdvisory airspace.
B Control zone.
C Control area.
D Air traffic zone.
86) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies
dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different
runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with
runway code 4?
A 45 metres
B 35 metres
C 40 metres
D 50 metres
87) Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the
purpose of:
A Providing alerting services
B Achieving separation between controlled flights
C Providing flight Information Service
D Providing advisory services
88) Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide
recognition of an emergency aircraft?
A Code 7500.
B Code 7600.
C Code 7000.
D Code 7700.
89) Normally missed approach procedures are based on a
nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
A 0.8%.
B 3.3%.
C 5%.
D 2.5%.