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Air Regulation
Note:
1. These questions are compiled using data gathered from various
forums and students.
2. The questions and their options may not be identical to those in the
DGCA exam.
3. ⁠Included Last 3 attempt Question

Q ADC is not required if flying in:

A) 5 nm and below 3000 Ft
B) 3 nm and below 1000 Ft
C) 5 nm and below 1000' AGL

Q Applicability of RVSM is between

a) FL150 and FL280.
b) FL290 and FL450.
c) FL290 and FL410

Q On an instrument approach, what is the maximum permissible descent

gradient in the final approach?
a. 3°.
b. 5%.
c. 6.5%

Q Hyperventilation is caused due to:

A) Decreased breathing rate
B) Emotional tension or anxiety
C) Excessive carbon mono-oxide in the blood

Q What is decompression sickness?

A) A rapid reduction in ambient pressure, may cause the nitrogen in our blood to
come out of solution as small bubbles.
B) A rapid increase in ambient pressure may cause the nitrogen in our blood to
come out of solution as small bubbles.
C) A rapid reduction in ambient pressure, may cause the oxygen in our blood to
come out of solution as small bubbles.

Q Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height
of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous
areas shall be for an IFR flight: A At least 2000ft within 8 km of the estimated
position
B At least 1000ft within 8 km of the estimated position
C At least 2000ft within 5 km of the estimated position

Q What is the minimum cruise altitude under IFR (over non-mountainous terrain)
allowed by ICAO a. 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 600 meters of
its position
b. 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 2000 meters of its position
c. 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 8 kms of its position

Q Movement area of an aerodrome constitutes the following:

A Area including runways / taxiways excluding apron
B Area excluding taxiways but including runways and apron
C Area including runways / taxiways / aprons

Q Why should a pilot turn his attention to the instruments when approaching on a
snowed up, foggy, or cloudy winter day? Because
a. the danger of a 'greying out' will make it impossible to determine the height of
the terrain
b. pressure differences can cause the altimeter to give wrong information
C. perception of distance and speed is difficult in an environment of low contrast

Q An aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 138000 kg is

a) heavy "H"
b) light "L"
c) medium "M"

Q ATC clears an aircraft for immediate take off. Actions by the pilot are?
A) Take off immediately after all mandatory checks.
B) Take off within 30 seconds of clearance.
C) Taxi immediately to the runway and commence take off without stopping.
Q The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following a
decompression are called:
A) Leans.
B) Creeps.
C) Chokes.

Q When radio contact is lost, an IFR flight in VMC should.

A) Continue in VMC and land at nearest suitable aerodrome
B) Continue as per current flight plan
C) Divert to alternate airfield

Q Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:

A) Aerodromes
B) Security
C) Facilitations

Q Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in

aircraft?
A) Annex 16
B) Annex 18
C) Annex 17

Q If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated

through
a) AIP
b) AIC
c) NOTAM

Q For a VFR flight making approach at night, the approach will be

(a) faster than normal approach
(b) steeper than normal
(c) shallower than normal

Q Instrument approach with decision height at or above 75 m (250 ft) is a:

A) Type B, CAT I Precision Approach.
B) Type A, CAT II Precision Approach.
C) Type A, CAT I Precision Approach.

Q How long should a pilot avoid flying after donating blood?

A) Minimum 24 hours
B) Minimum 14 hours
C) Minimum 6 hours

Q The radiotelephone distress signal to indicate grave and/or imminent danger

requiring Immediate assistance is
a) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
b) PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN
c) SECURITY, SECURITY, SECURITY

Q The radiotelephone urgency signal to indicate a condition concerning the

safety of an aircraft vehicle or of some person on board which does not require
immediate assistance is
a. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
b. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN
C. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY

Q The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace
classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m/10.000 ft AMLS is
a) 260 KT IAS
b) 250 KT IAS
c) not applicable

Q Rule pertaining to the detention of A/c is:-

(a) 8A
(b) 8B
(c) 8

Q An airborne flight plan must be submitted:

A 30 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or advisory area
B 10 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or advisory area
C 60 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or advisory area

Q If a climbing a/c is crossing the level of another a/c the separation required is
a) 15 NMs
b) 15 Mins
c) 20 NMs

Q Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?

a) Airplane A; pilot should after course to the right to pass.
b) Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
c) Airplane B; the pilot expects to be passed on the left.

Q Aircraft that has right of way shall

a. maintain heading and speed.
b. Turn right
c. Turn left

Q Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?

A) Emergency aircraft
B) Military aircraft
C) VIP (Head of state) aircraft

Q Decompression symptoms are:

A Bends, chokes, skin manifestations, neurological symptoms and circulatory
shock
B Bends, chokes, Personality change, Impaired memory and circulatory shock.
C Bends, chokes, Personality change, Impaired memory and Impaired vision.

Q Number of Rescue Coordination Centres (RCC):

a) 8
b) 5
c) 3

Q How many consecutive nights a pilot can fly?

a) Three consecutive nights.
b) Two consecutive nights.
c) No limitations.

Q The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the

transponder to Mode A Code:
a) 7700.
b) 2000.
c) 7600.

Q The OCA in Initial Approach Segment A Reduces from 300 to150 m B 300 m
C 150 m “Cabotage” refers to:
A) domestic air services
B) a national air carrier
C) crop spraying

Q What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness at 30,000 ft?

A) About 12 seconds.
B) More than 1 minute.
C) About 30-40 seconds

Q How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your
aircraft
A The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.
B The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.
C There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other
aircraft

Q Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in -VOR approach

continue its descent below the OCA?
A When it seems possible to land.
B When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight
C When the aircraft is in visual contact with the runway and with the runway
lights in sight.

Q Which forces are usually felt in flight?

A Linear acceleration.
B Radial acceleration.
C Combined linear and transverse.

Q Mathura Refinery is a:
A Danger Area
B Restricted area
C Prohibited area.

Q Who is responsible for the issue of a certificate of airworthiness?

A ICAO
B The DGCA
C The authority of the State of Registration.

Q On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered

acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway
centreline is:
A) 30 degrees or less
B) 40 degrees or less
C) 20 degrees or less

Q Two or more white crosses, displayed on runways and taxiways, indicate that:
A The threshold has been displaced
B The section of the runway or taxiway is unfit for aircraft movement
C The runway or taxiway should be used with caution

Q If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication

on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by
the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the
instructions received?
A) Unable to comply.
B) Can not.
C) Can not comply.

Q For safety reasons, an aircraft should remain behind a jet engine by at least:
A) 100’.
B) 200’.
C) 300’.

Q The Air Traffic Control Service: do not prevent collisions with terrain.
A Wrong, they do prevent collisions with terrain
B Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC
C Correct, except when an IFR flight is vectored by radar
Q The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the alveoli can be described
by: A) Boyles Law.
B) Dalton's Law.
C) The law of diffusion.

CTA extends from

Q A Ground level to a specified upper limit
B Atleast 700' from the surface of the earth to unlimited
C Atleast 5000' from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit

Q The audible range to human hearing is

a) Between 2 KHz and 20 KHz
b) Between 20 MHz and 20 000MHz
c) Between 20 Hz and 20 KHz

Q. Notam valid for more than 2H - series A

Q Readability scale 3?

Q Urgency message? PAN PAN PAN

Q. Deviation from SARPS will be published in?

A. AIP
B. AIC
C. CARS

Q. The white dumbbell with black perpendicular bar ?

Q. State has to notify in 60 days difference in national AIP ?
A. To assembly of ICAO
B. to the council of ICAO Q.
ICAO was established in 1944 by the convention of ?
A. Chicago
B. Montreal
C. geneva

Q. Aircraft maneuvering in airport circuit receives red flashes from control tower
A not land for moment regardless of previous instruction
B return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated during course
C not to land because airport is unavailable

Q. An aircraft flying under IFR in an area in IMC conditions, when it totally looses
radio communication.
A land on closed aerodrome
B continues flight plan, transmit blind by requesting information needed twice

Q. Aircrafts standing at threshold seeing from cockpit..

A RVR
B runway holding point.

Q. The commander of public transport aircraft must ensure that passengers

seatbelt are secured?
A take off, landing, turbulence
B take off, landing, taxing, turbulence
C take off, landing, taxing, turbulence, emergencies

Q. No aircraft shall be flown over congested cities, in event of emergency landing

to be made safely, exceptions
A. Take off, landing permission from appropriate authority
B permission from appropriate authority
C take off and land

Q. concerning to RNP, RNP4 indicates represents navigation accuracy of

A -/+ 4 NM on 95% containment basis
B -/+ 4 NM on 90% containment basis
C -/+ 4 NM on 98% containment basis

Q. aircraft did land for 30 mins from ETA and was unable to contact?
A distressfa
B alertfa
C incerfa

Q RNAV Distance based distance based separation minimum maybe used at the
time the level is crossed provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from
the same “on track” way point the minimum is :
A 20NM
B 80NM
C 60NM

Q the MSA, which must be established around area navigation facility, is in

general valid within a sector of
A 25 NM
B 30 NM
C 10 NM

Q which of the following is an international distress frequency?

A 243.0 Khz
B 121.5 Mhz
C 2480 Mhz

Q. signal lights located where ?

A place where it can be seen from all maneuvers area
B top of the atc tower

Q Area between transition altitude and transition level ?

A Transition Layer

Q in straight approach, lowest height above elevation of threshold, at which

missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with obstacles
clearance criteria
A OCH
B 350ft
C 400ft

Q Incubation period of Relapsing fever ?

A8
B7
C6

Q minimum age for PPL ?

A 17
B 18
C 19

Q when an aircraft sustained damage, aircraft shall be allowed to resume its

flight, if
A state of registry, state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the
aircraft is still airworthy
B the State manufacture inform the state of registry that the damage is such of
nature such that the aircraft still airworthy
C the state of registry consider that damage sustained is of a nature such that
aircraft still airworthy

Q technical standards dealing with certification of airplane are at present limited

to big aircraft of
A upto 5700kg maximum take off landing mass
B over 5700kg maximum takeoff landing mass
C upto 5700kg maximum take off mass

Q the rate of depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of:

A water vapour in the alveoli
B oxygen in the cells
C carbon dioxide in the blood.

Q some of the symptoms of hypoxia ?

A breathlessness and reduced night vision
B euphoria and impairment of judgment
C hyperventilation
Q cold clammy skin is indicative of:
A hypoxia
B hyperventilation
C decompression sickness
1) What does rocking wing indicate by an intercepting a/c
-will comply
-Yes
-No
2) Spatial orientation
-vision
-sense of balance
-vestibular system
3) Turn made away from the track followed by a turn on opposite direction
to permit aircraft to intercept reciprocal track
-Procedure turn
-Base turn
-Reversal turn
4) Annex 6
5) 2 freedom of the air
6) Pilot can go under hypoxia if
-at higher alt and 100% oxygen
-cabin decompression at higher alt and oxygen intake not in time
7) Flight crew cannot operate more than
-1200 hr in 12 months
-1500 hr in 12 months
-1000 hr in 12 month
8) Marshaller is appointed by
-AAI
-DGCA
9) In SHEL what does S means
10) most accidents are caused by
-poor judgment
-aircraft maintenance
11) Dangerous Goods documents are in
-Flight manual
-Operational manual
12) in RT 3500 is tx as
13) ac in north atlantic airspace which cannot comply with ATC should
-land at the nearest alternate aerodrome
-wait for ATC something
-return to dep aerodrome
14) Below transaction alt how it's said
-height
-FL
-Altitude
15) ac on glide path on a PAR on final approach should expect
-Glide path
-3 greens
-approaching decision height
16) Certificate of Registration
-can be registered in more than 1 state
-can only be in 1
-cannot change from one to another
17) Aerobatic flight
18) runway designator is from (magnetic north)
19) FSTD name
20) how far beyond holding area is extend from buffer
-3nm
-5km
-5nm
21) localizer course angle ( 20 25 30)
22) ear px change
23) ICAO council name (Air nav commission)
24) low temp at the core of body (hypothermia)
25) min fuel req if traveling from A to B + alternate C
26) Light behind medium ac time
27) VHF freq
28) Cloud ceiling covering more than half of the sky below (6000m)
29) Max age a pilot can fly
30) landing behind large jet ac
-beyond its touchdown point
-land before
31) Acrobatic planes cannot fly
-below 2500 AGL
-above congested towns
32) Transport of dangerous goods is given in
-Operation manual
-Flight manual
-Technical Instructions
33) What is ICAO Commission name
-Air Navigation Commission
-Air transport Commission
-Legal Commission
34)ac passing from left to right uh will see (green)
35) yellow dash and solid yellow
36) medium to good rw (0.39-0.36)
37) position report
38) TUC
39) heart rate output (5 liters/min)
40) in sever turbulence you should maintain
41) PPL age
42) OCA/H
43) white dumbbell with black bar spaced
44) final authority over flight in flight time (commander)

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