FC SESSION-4 2022

AIR REGULATION

1. ADC is not required for

A) Defence flights

B) Domestic flights

C) Flights not exceeding 5nms and 1000 feet from the AIRPORT REFERENCE POINT

2. Hail is most likely in

A) Altocumulus

49
B) Cumulonimbus

81
C) Cumulus

84
3. Records of radiation are kept for flights above

A) 42000 feet
07
79
B) 49000 feet

C) 45000 feet

4. What are the main limits of short-term memory? It is :-

1 : very sensitive to interruptions and interference-
2 : difficult to access-
3 : limited in size-
4 : subject to a biochemical burn-in of information

A) 2,4

B) 1,3,4

C) 1,2,3

5. You have exceeded FDTL due to unforeseen circumstances. What document will you refer ?

A) CAR/J/section-III

B) Operations manual

C) FDTL is at discretion of pilot

6. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for
persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is

A) Paris convention

B) Rome convention

C) Warsaw convention

7. What separation should be maintained by a medium a/c following a heavy a/c which is departing.

A) 2 NMs

B) 3 NMs

C) 5 NMs

49
81
8. What does part II of a/c rules 1937 contain?

84
A) Personnel

B) Prohibited areas

C)
07
79

9The primary factor to control the rate and depth of breathing is the:

A) total air pressure in the blood

B) partial pressure of oxygen in the blood

C) pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood

10. White/yellow crosses on RUNWAYS and TAXIWAYS

A) Landing is prohibited.

B) Area unfit for a/c movement.

C) Special precautions to be observed in approaching to land or in landing

11. Under which of the following conditions will an aircraft be reported to the area control centre or
FIS?

A) When a/c does not land within 1 hour

B) (Another incorrect statement)

C) None of the above

12 The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:

A) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.

B) Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position and time over
and ensuing significant point

C) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over
and ensuing significant point

13. An aircraft is flying under IFR in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free
of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:

A) Descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR
operations

B) Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing

49
C) Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances in the filed flight
plan

81
14. Distance from building while refueling

84
A) 15m

B) 10m
07
79
C) 25m

15. You experience slight erratic changes in altitude or attitude. What is it reported as?

A) Light chop

B) Light turbulence

C) Moderate turbulence

16. ICAO establishes:

a. aeronautical standards adopted by all states

c. standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states which are
signatory to the Chicago Convention

c. standards and recommended practices for contracting states

17. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?

A) The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft

B) The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas over flown

C) The rules established under the Convention of intemational civil aviation

18. An aircraft which Is being subject to unlawful interference ("hijacked") and is forced to divert
from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:

A) Fly the emergency triangle

B) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000ft when

above FL 290 and 500ft when lower than FL 290

C) Declare emergency

19. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast Information shall be updated

A) As prescribed by the meteorological office

B) Immediately a significant change occurs

C) As prescribed by the state

49
81
20. When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

84
A) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values

B) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR; otherwise hourly
07
C) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value
79

21. Runway designation markings shall be with respect to

A) True north

B) Magnetic North

C) Compass North

22. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction
with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?

A) Distress 7600, Hijacking 7500, Communication failure 7700

B) Distress 7500, Hijacking 7700, Communication failure 7600

C) Distress 7700, Hijacking 7500, Communication failure 7600

23. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?

A) the operator

B) the pilot in command

C) the state
24. Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles) (>10 m depth)

A) are forbidden

B) can be performed without any danger

C) are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded

25. Type ratings shall be established

A) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority

B) only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots

C) only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and
each type of helicopter

49
26. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

81
A) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.

84
B) Initial, intermediate and final.

C) Arrival, intermediate and final.

07
79
27. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance
altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:

A) Only for categories A and B aircraft.

B) For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.

C) Only for categories C, D and E aircraft

28. Upto what flight visibility will helicopters be allowed to operate if maneuvered at a speed that
will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time

A) 1500m

B) 800m

C) 1000m

29. The general concept of NAT in flight contingencies is that

A) offset from the assigned route by 15nm and to climb or descend to an altitude that differs
(by 500' when below FL410 and 1000' when above that altitude)

B) allow a/c to divert quickly

C) allow a/c to descend quickly

30. The headquarters of ICAO is in

A) London

B) Montreal

C) Washnington

31. RVR at the runway threshold is controlling. The RVR at mid point and runway end is

A) Controlling if deemed by the ATC

B) controlling at the discretion of the PIC

C) controlling

32. In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning.

49
Please mark those indicating hypoxia:

81
A) Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria

84
B) Nausea and barotitis

C) Dizziness, hypothermia
07
79
33. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?

A) the pilot-in-command

B) the operator

C) the state

34. Minimum descent height for VFR shall not be less than

A) OCA/H

B) 200 ft

C) 350 ft

35. The fuel required for a piston engine ac when no alternate is available

A) Destination fuel + 45 mins + 15% of destination fuel or for 2 hours (which is less)

B) Destination fuel + 45 mins

C) Destination fuel + 30 mins + + 15% of destination fuel or for 2 hours (which is less)
36. As a cause of accidents, the human factor

A) has increased considerably since 1980 - the percentage of accident in which this factor
has been involved has more than tripled since this date

B) plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is much more important in

general aviation

C) Human factors is responsible for 70% of the accidents

37. In readability scale, Level 3 is

A) Readable but with difficulty

B) Readable now and then

49
C) Perfectly readable

38. Time check must be done

81
A)

84
B) Before startup

C) Before taxi and takeoff

07
79

39. Which of the following combinations is not allowed for nationality marks

A) TTT

B) YYY

C) BBB

40. Which of the following statements is true

A) Oxygen diffusion from blood into the cells depends on the partial oxygen pressure
gradient

B) Plasma carries oxygen

C) Oxygen diffusion from lungs into blood is dependent on the partial pressure of oxygen in
the air

NOT EXACTLY THIS

QUESTION BUT WAS VERY
41. Which of the following drawbacks are associated with automation
SIMILAR
1. Reduced in manually controlling the a/c
2. Increased likelihood of slips while programming automatic systems
3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a sidestick
 4. General decrease in technical ability

A) 2, 3, 4

B) 1, 3

C) 1, 2

42. Adherence to rules of the air is the responsibility of

A) ATC

B) PIC

C) FIC

43. Oxygen is carried by what component of blood

A) Hemoglobin

49
B) Plasma

81
C) White blood cells

84
07
44. What callout is expected of the pilot at the end of a PAR APPROACH?

A) Three greens
79

B) Approaching DH

C)

45. What is the volume percentage of gases in the atmosphere

A) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen …

B) 78% nitrogen, 28% oxygen…

C) 71% nitrogen, 28% oxygen…..

46. Which component in the blood has an affinity to oxygen

A) Hemoglobin

B) Plasma

C) WBC

47. By how much should a pilot avoid the beam of an AWR while in cruise

A) 2nm
 B) 20 nm

C) 5nm

48. Which Category of ILS is DH < 100ft and RVR not less than 700ft

A) ILS CAT II
NOT EXACTLY THIS
B) ILS CAT III A QUESTION BUT WAS VERY
SIMILAR
C) ILS CAT III B

49. Alert phase is declared when

A) A situation where apprehension exists as to the safety of an a/c and its occupants

49
B) An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be

81
threatened by a danger

84
C) A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of
emergency
07
79
50. A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because:

A) there is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

B) the situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight.

C) the aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome

NOT EXACTLY THIS

QUESTION BUT WAS VERY
SIMILAR
 ANSWER KEY

 Please verify the correctness of all answers via independent sources

 Answers marked in RED are in doubt. PLEASE CHECK THE ANSWERS ON YOUR OWN

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C B B B B B C B C B

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

C C B A B C C B B A

49
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

81
84
B A C A A B B A A B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37
07
38 39 40
79
A A C A A C A C A A

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

C B A B A A B B A A