September 1st 2003

IFR EXAM #2

1. (a) What is the validity period of a Graphical Area Forecast (GFA)?

(b) What is the validity period of the IFR Outlook?

(a) 12 hours
(b) 12 hours

2. GFA's typically show weather up to what altitude (excluding CB tops)?

24000'

3. In the IFR outlook what does VFR, MVFR and IFR represent in terms of
ceilings and visibility?

CATEGORY CEILING VISIBILTY

IFR less than 1000' AGL less than 3 SM
MVFR btwn 1000' & 3000' AGL 3-5 SM
VFR more than 3000' AGL more than 5 SM

4. (a) What is the purpose of an AIRMET?

(b) What is the validity period of an AIRMET?

(a) An AIRMET is a short-term weather advisory intended primarily for aircraft

in flight, to notify pilots of potentially hazardous weather conditions not
described in the current GFA.

(b) An AIRMET is valid upon receipt until it is updated or cancelled. It will also
be superceded by the next issue of the GFA.

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5. (a) What is the purpose of a SIGMET?
a) These messages are intended to provide short-term warnings or certain
potentially hazardous weather phenomena.

(b) Answer the following questions based on the SIGMET below:

WSCN32 CWEG 011634

SIGMET A1 VALID 011635/012035 CWEG-
WTN 30 NM OF LN /5811N11508W/60 NW JEAN LAKE - /
5810N10958W/50 SE
FORT CHIPEWYAN.
BKN LN TS OBSD ON LTNG DTCTR TOPS 260 MAX TOPS 300. LN
MOVG EWD 5KT
AND XPNDG. TS BECMG MORE FRQ.
END/AL/PAWC

1. When was the SIGMET issued?

1. 1st day of the month at 1634Z

2. What does A1 signify?

2. This is the first SIGMET issued for the area.

3. What is the validity period of the SIGMET?

3. 4 hours or the first day of the month from 1635Z until 2035Z

4. Describe where the hazardous weather is located?

4. Within 30NM either side of the line between 60NM NW of Jean Lake to
50NM SE Fort Chipewyan.

5. What is the weather phenomenon that is occurring?

5. A broken line of thunderstorms was observed on lighting detector equipment
showing tops at 26000' to 30000' max and moving eastward at 5NM/hr. The
line is expanding and becoming more frequent.

6. Decode the following FD:

(a) 832050 at FL340 330º True at 120 knots; temperature -50º C

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 (b) 749959 at FL390 240º True at 199 knots or greater; temperature -59º C

7. With regards to a METAR what constitutes a ceiling?

The lowest broken or overcast layer (5/8's or greater)

VV001 (Vertical Visibility 100' AGL) constitutes an obscured ceiling

8. Metar's and Taf's report and forecast weather within what distance from a
civilian aerodrome?

(a) Center of an airport

(b) Within 3NM of an aerodrome complex
(c) Within 5NM of an aerodrome complex
(d) Within 7NM of an aerodrome complex

9. On an ICAO flight plan form what does SDG/C represent?

S- Standard equipment (VHF, ADF, VOR, and ILS)

D- DME
G- GPS
C- Mode C transponder

10. Under the Wake Turbulence Cat. on an ICAO flight plan form; what
aircraft weight is considered to be a Light Aircraft?

12,500 lbs or under

11. What is the standard issued time for Search and Rescue?

1 hour.

12. What is the significance of the GP 2120 in the profile portion of the
approach plate?

(a) Minimum crossing altitude over the beacon during any approach.
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 (b) This is the altitude of the nominal Glide Path at the FAF.
(c) This is the go-around point for Category C & D aircraft.
(d) It is a reference altitude for Global Positioning units.

13. Runway Visual Range (RVR) are intended to provide an indication of how
far the pilot will be able to see:

(a) along the first two thirds on the active instrument runway.
(b) forward of the aircraft when visual conditions are encountered at the
FAF.
(c) ahead of the aircraft during the final approach segment.
(d) along the first 3000' or one third of the runway.

14. You are established inbound on the localizer for an ILS approach. RVR A
is unserviceable, RVR B indicates 1000' and the reported ground visibility
is one-half mile. Can you continue the approach?

(a) Yes, if it is a training flight and you intend to land.

(b) No, due to localized phenomenon.
(c) No, Because you are outside the FAF and the RVR is less than 1200.
(d) Yes.

15. In the event you do not get the required visual reference at the missed
approach point while conducting the NDB RWY 29 at CYWL. What is the
most appropriate course of action if you have not received any missed
approach instructions?
PHOTOCOPY APPROACH PLATE
(a) Climb straight ahead to 4600', return direct to the YWL NDB and
execute another approach.
(b) Climb and initiate a right turn to 4600' and hold NW of the NDB and
request further clearance.
(c) Climb and initiate a right turn to 4600' proceed direct to the NDB and
then continue to your alternate aerodrome.
(d) Climb with a right turn direct to the WL NDB, maintain 4600' and hold
inbound 292º all turns left until you have obtained further clearance.

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16. Can GPS be your only type of navigation instrument on board your
aircraft for IFR flight?

(a) Yes, no other VOR or ADF is required.

(b) Yes, no other VOR or ADF is required as long as the GPS meets the
TSO C -129.
(c) No, you must have another means of navigation.
(d) No you must have 2 VOR's and at least 1 ADF.

17. You have established that you have had a two-way communication failure
while on an IFR flight plan. What would be your course of action?

(a) If in visual conditions land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

(b) Maintain a listening watch on the appropriate frequencies for control
messages or further clearances.
(c) Squawk mode C code 7600.
(d) All of the above.

18. ATC clears an aircraft to an airport for an approach. The pilot requests the
Contact Approach. ATC may not authorize this type of approach unless:

(a) The aircraft operates clear of cloud, the flight visibility is at least 1NM
and traffic permits.
(b) The reported ceiling is at least 500 feet above the minimum radar
vectoring altitudes and the ground visibility is 5SM or better.
(c) The pilot reports sighting the airport, or any preceding traffic and
assumes responsibility for obstruction clearance.
(d) Traffic permits and the flight visibility is at least 1SM.

19. Which of the following is true with respect to a Visual Approach?

(a) This approach requires a minimum ground visibility of 1SM.

(b) ATC may release the pilot of the responsibility of complying with any
restrictions that may apply to Class F Airspace when clearance for the
visual approach has been controller initiated.
(c) The ground visibility must be at least 3SM and the pilot must provide
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 his own wake turbulence separation during a visual approach.
(d) Aircraft conducting a visual approach will continue to be ensured IFR
separation from other IFR aircraft and will also be issued specific
missed approach instructions.

20. A pilot is flying IFR within controlled airspace. The aircraft is equipped
with two VOR receiver's, two DME's and one ADF. The ADF malfunctions
and is rendered unserviceable. The pilot should:

(a) depart controlled airspace.

(b) advise ATS of the failure immediately.
(c) request a change of flight plan to VFR.
(d) squawk 7600 on the transponder.

21. What is the lowest legal altitude you could descend to on an airway in case
of an emergency?

(a) MEA
(b) MOCA
(c) AMA
(D) MRA

22. Flying Westbound at 7000 feet due to icing conditions, in uncontrolled

airspace and have not been radar identified:

(a) You are required to give a position report over all "compulsory" and
"on request" reporting points.
(b) You will be advised when to resume position reports.
(c) Flying westbound at 7000 feet… are you crazy?!
(d) None of the above.

23. Which of the following minimum IFR altitudes would provide 2000 feet of
obstacle clearance above the highest obstacle:

(1) Minimum sector altitudes

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 (2) Airways and airoutes outside of Designated Mountainous Regions
(3) Instrument approach transitions
(4) Area minimum altitudes with the Designated Mountainous Regions
(5) Safe altitudes 100 NM outside of the Designated Mountainous
Regions
(6) Certain radar vectoring areas in Designated Mountainous Regions
(7) Safe altitudes 100 NM within the Designated Mountainous Regions

(a) 2,4,5,7
(b) 4,6,7
(c) 2,4,6,7
(d) 3,4,5,7

24. If you were cleared for the ILS RWY 15 approach via the Prince George
beacon, how would you transition to the final approach fix?

(a) Go direct to the Prince George VOR at 7000 feet and then track the
275º radial to the Xray beacon.
(b) Go direct to the Xray beacon at 7000 feet.
(c) Track from the XS beacon to the X beacon on a track of 327º at 4500
feet.
(d) You are unable to transition to the final approach fix from the Prince
George beacon.
PHOTOCOPY ILS 15 PRINCE GEORGE

25. With reference to the above question, what is the lowest altitude you can
descend to after completing the procedure turn and prior to crossing the
final approach fix?

(a) 3620 feet

(b) 3700 feet
(c) 4000 feet
(d) 2840 feet

26. What are the mandatory broadcasts required to be transmitted while

completing the full procedure NDB RWY 15 at Prince George, if the tower
is not in operation?
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 (a) 5 minute prior to commencing the approach, procedure turn
outbound, passing the FAF, and in the event of the missed approach.
(b) As requested by Vancouver ATC.
(c) 5 minutes prior to commencing the approach, intercepting the final
approach track, passing the final approach fix, and in the event of the
missed approach.
(d) 5 NM's back from the NDB, procedure turn outbound, 3 minutes
prior to landing and in the event of a missed approach.

27. You are established inbound on the localizer on an ILS approach. You may
proceed with the approach past the FAF if:

(a) the RVR is less than 1200, it is a training flight and you intend to
land.
(b) the RVR is less than 1200 due to a localized phenomenon and the
reported visibility is 1/4 SM.
(c) you are outside the FAF and the RVR is less than 1200.
(d) the approach is radar monitored.

28. If you were flying an approach at an indicated airspeed of 115 KTS, you're
category of aircraft is:

(a) Category A
(b) Category B
(c) Category C
(d) Category D
(e) None of the above, the aircraft's category is based on the aircraft's
maneuvering speed.

29. With regards to your Mode C transponder, the readout is considered invalid
if the difference is off by how many feet?

(a) 100 feet

(b) 200 feet
(c) 300 feet
(d) 500 feet
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30. With reference to the above question, if your Mode C readout is considered
invalid you will be asked to:

(a) land as soon as practical

(b) land as soon as possible
(c) exit controlled airspace
(d) switch to Mode A only

31. A STAR is:

(a) Simulated Track And Radial

(b) Standard Terminal Arrival
(c) Specified Terminal Arrival
(d) Simultaneous Arrivals

32. With regards to aircraft equipment, what is required for Single-Pilot IFR?

(a) A boom mike with a push-to-talk installed on the control column.

(b) Source of illumination for your chart holder
(c) A two-axis autopilot
(d) All of the above

33. What is the aircraft speed limit for below 3000 feet and with 10 NM of a
controlled aerodrome?

(a) 175 KIAS

(b) 200 KIAS
(c) 250 KIAS
(d) None of the above

34.

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