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1. Position report is required to be given when

a) Crossing an FIR b)Over a compulsory reporting point
c) if so required by ATC d) all are correct
Ans. d

2. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in

a) Aeradio b) AIP c) Notams d) AIRACs
Ans. b

3. An aircraft is following a track of 179º (M) on a VFR plan. The choice of flight levels
available to the pilot are:
a) 50,70,90,150,170,190,210,230,250,270,290
b) 55,75,95,155,175,195,215,235,255,275,295
c) 50,70,90,110,130,160,180,200,220,240,260,280
d) 55, 75, 95, 115, 135, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275
Ans. d

4. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal means:

a) Do not land for the time being
b) Landings Prohibited
c) Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on runways and taxi ways only
d) Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad state of the Maneuvering
area
Ans. d

5. Above flight level 290 the minimum vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal
tracks in RVSM area is
a) 1000 feet up to F410 b) 2000 feet up to F410
c) 4000 feet up to F460 d) 5000 feet up to F460
Ans. a

6. Wake turbulence separation minima for Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft is:
a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 5 minutes d) Non of the above
Ans. a

7. All flights above_________ flight levels are to be cleared IFR irrespective of weather Conditions
a) F 280 b) F 150 c) F 140 d) F 100
Ans. b

8. If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated through

a) AIP b) AIC c) NOTAM d) AIRAC
Ans. c

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9. The highest flight level that can be flown in India is
a) 460 b) 450 c) 440 d) 400
Ans. a

10. A report received from an aircraft giving a position and /or met report is called
a) Met report b) Position report c) Air report d) All of the above
Ans. c

11. During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference .On SSR you should set
a) Mode A code 7500 b) Mode A code 7600 c) Mode A code 7700 d) Mode C code 7500
Ans. a

12. What information is included in the third section of an Air report?

a) Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence b) Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c) Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence d) ETA Destination
Ans. c

13. A fresh flight plan is to be filed if a scheduled controlled flight is delayed by more than
a) One hour b) 30 minutes c) 15 mins d) 5 mins
Ans. b

14. The minimum wake turbulence time separation for a heavy aircraft to land behind a
heavy aircraft is
a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 5 minutes d) not required
Ans. d

15. The air report contains following items:

a) Air temperature, Turbulence, Surface wind & aircraft Icing
b) Turbulence, upper winds & surface temperature
c) Air temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & aircraft Icing & humidity
d) All are correct
Ans. c

16. At an aerodrome special VFR may be authorized when

a) Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
b) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
c) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
d) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet
Ans. a

17. Routes guides are required to be carried by :

a. All aircraft b. Pvt. Aircraft c. Scheduled aircraft d. Aerial aircraft
Ans. c

18. AIP India is published by

a) DGCA b) AAI c) Civil Aviation Ministry d) ICAO

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Ans. b

19. Sunrise time of an Airport in calculated for an altitude of the Sun

a) 6° below the horizon b) 0° at the horizon
c) 8° below the horizon d) 12° below the horizon
Ans. b

20. An Aircraft shall report “long final” when it is at _________ from the approach end of the rwy
a) 8NMs b) 4NMs c) 1NMs d) 2 NMs
Ans. a

21. ‘ATIS’ is a continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning:

a) ATS information b) ATS and Met information
c) Navigation Information d) Traffic Information
Ans. b

22. An aircraft is on a track of 030º (M) and reports crossing a point at 0412 Hrs at F370. Other
aircraft at F370 on a track of 100º(M) can cross the same point not earlier than:
a) 0422 hrs b) 0417 hrs if 40 kts faster c) 0427 hrs d) 0402 hrs
Ans. c

23. An ac at F390 crosses a point at 0210 hrs wishes to descent to F310. There is reciprocal traffic
estimating to cross same point at 0300hrs maintaining F 330. By what time the descending
aircraft should reach F310 if both aircraft maintain same speed?
a) 0215 hrs b) 0220 hrs c) 0225 hrs d) 0250 hrs
Ans. c

24. A prohibited area is an area over which:

a) Flight within 2 miles is prohibited. b) Flight of aircraft is totally prohibited.
c) Low flying is prohibited. d) Only instrument flying practice can be done.
Ans. b

25. An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

a) there are obstructions on the airport
b) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
c) the Air Traffic Control is not in operation
d) runway is blocked
Ans. b

26. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on
landing is a
a) light, quartering headwind b) light, quartering tailwind
c) Strong headwind d) strong tailwind
Ans. b

27. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance

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 during daylight hours is to use
a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’clock positions
b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing
d) a series of eye movements focused at horizon
Ans. b

28. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded
information concerning
a) Pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain
or to an obstruction
b) Non-essential information to reduce frequency congestion
c) Non-control information in selected high-activity terminal areas
d) To warn pilots about conflicting traffic
Ans. c

29. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
a) The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation
b) The corrected density altitude of the departure airport
c) The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport
d) QFE
Ans. a

30. Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even during
broad day light, when aircraft are flown.:
a) At or above F150. b) Within controlled airspace.
c) At or above F 200. d) In designated areas or designated routes.
Ans. a

31. What time is filled in item 13 of flight plan?

a) Expected Time of Departure b) Estimated off block time
c) Expected Approach Time d) Estimated Elapsed Time
Ans. b

32. The visibility reqd. when flying at (or) below 3000’ in a controlled airspace
a) 5 kms b) 8 kms c) 10 kms d) 3 kms
Ans. a

33. What speed is filled in item 15 of flight plan: a) IAS b) TAS c) RAS d) GS
Ans. b

34. The pilot has to inform the ATC if the ETA changes by
a) 5 mins b) 3 mins c) 10 mins d) 2 mins
Ans. b

35. Runaway direction is measured from:

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 a) True North b) Compass North c) Magnetic North d) North Pole
Ans. c

36. If the marshaller has either arm placed level with shoulder and moved laterally across throat
indicates
a) Stop b) Cut Engines c) Continue Straight d) Turn Off
Ans. b

37. A pilot not having an instrument rating cannot fly :

a) At any time. b) During hours of night.
c) Without permission of aerodrome officer. d) Without permission from the DGCA.
Ans. b

38. If a climbing a/c is crossing the level of another a/c the separation required is
a) 15 NMs b) 15 Mins c) 20 NMs d) 5 Mins
Ans. b

39. What shape and colour is a landing direction indicator?

a) A white capital T; land along the stem towards the crosspiece
b) An orange or red windsock, land towards the mast
c) A white or orange capital T; land along the stem towards the crosspiece
d) An orange wedge shape in 3 dimensions, land towards the point of the wedge
Ans. c

40. How should a close part of a runway be marked?

a) With yellow and black marker boards b) With red and white marker boards
c) With a white cross on the surface d) With white chevrons on the surface
Ans. c

41. What is the minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in
Class G airspace at a speed of 120 knots and in sight of the surface?
a) 8000 meters b) 5000 meters c) 1500 meters d) There is no minimum
Ans. b

42. What is the minimum horizontal distance which an aero plane must stay away from cloud in
Class D airspace at 2000 feet in order to fly under VFR?
a) 1500 meters b) 1800 meters
b) No minimum stated provided the aircraft has a flight visibility of 5000 meters
c) No minimum stated provided the aircraft is in sight of the surface.
Ans. a

43. What is correctly defined as “A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an
aircraft and its occupants?
a) The emergency phase b) The uncertainty phase c) The alert phase d) The distress phase
Ans. c

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44. An aircraft should be refueled:
a) Inside a hanger.
b) Inside a hanger or building under supervision after taking adequate precautions.
c) In the open.
d) Wherever adequate facility exists.
Ans. c

45. Position report shall be made after every _______, where no standard reporting points exist .
a) 15 Mins b) 20 Mins c) first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins d) 60 Mins
Ans. c

46. DME separation between A/C on same track, same level and in same direction is
a) 10 NM b) 20 NM c) 15 NM d) 5 NM
Ans. b

47. An aircraft on a Special VFR flight has been cleared for “straight in “approach. Because of
low ceiling and poor visibility, the pilot is concerned about the exact location of a radio mast
in the vicinity. Avoiding this obstruction is the responsibility
a) of the pilot. b) of the tower controller as the controller is aware of the obstruction .
c) of ATC as the pilot has been given Special VFR clearance .
d) Shared equally by the pilot and the controller.
Ans. a

48. The maneuvering area of an airport is that area

a) Normally referred to as the ramp or apron.
b) Which includes the apron, taxiways and runways?
c) Used when taxiing to and from the parking area.
d) Used for taxiing, taking off and landing.
Ans. d

49. VFR flight in class F airspace above 3000’ msl and below 10,000 ‘MSL.
a) Provided flight visibility is 1500 m. b) Provided flight visibility is 3000 m.
c) Provided flight visibility is 5000 m. d) Provided flight visibility is 8000 m.
Ans. c

50. What is the definition of MEA?

a) The lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures
acceptable navigational signal coverage.
b) Lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle requirements assures acceptable
navigational signal coverage, two – way radio communications, and provides adequate
radar coverage.
c) An altitude, which meets obstacle clearance
d) An altitude, which ensures minimum 1000’ clearance from all obstacles
Ans. a