Regulation Test

1. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of :
a) Chicago
b) The Hague
c) Warsaw
d) Montreal

2. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is
about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law
a) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
b) may request such person to disembark
c) may deliver such person to the competent authorities
d) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members

3. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with :

a) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
b) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
c) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
d) offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft

4. For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if
the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
a) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command

b) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot c)
5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command
d) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command

5. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure
to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
a) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
b) Switching on and off three times the landing lights
c) Switching on and off four times the landing lights
d) Switching on and off four times the navigation lights

6. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or leave a control zone
when ceiling is less than :
a) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
b) 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
c) 2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
d) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km

7. Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the
intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ?
a) Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
b) Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
c) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
d) Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the
intercepted aircraft.

8. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

a) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist
b) Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.

c) Crossing arms extended above his head

d) Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground

9. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :

a) Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

b) Come back and land.

c) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.

d) Dangerous airfield. Do not land.

10. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the
highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight :

a) at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

b) at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
c) at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
d) at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

11. The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:
a) 7500.
b) 2000.
c) 7600.
d) 7700.

12. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and
recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
a) Annex 11
b) Annex 14
c) Annex 6
d) Annex 17

13. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following
the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft, is:

a) 10 minutes.

b) 3 minutes.

c) 5 minutes.

d) 2 minutes.

14. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft ""on track"" uses
DME stations, is:
a) 20 NM.
b) 10 NM.
c) 5 NM.
d) 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding
aircraft.

15. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

a) Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist.

b) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.

c) Crossing arms extended above his head.

d) Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.

16. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and
subsequently changes to VFR?
a) Z
b) I
c) V
d) Y

17. Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
a) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
b) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
c) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
d) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility.

18. Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is:
a) 2 000 feet.
b) 4 000 feet.
c) 3 000 feet.
d) 1 500 feet.

19. A ""RNAV"" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided
that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same ""on track"" way-point. This minimum is:
a) 80 NM.
b) 60 NM.
c) 50 NM.
d) 20 NM.

20. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids
permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
a) 5 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 3 minutes

21. ""Clearway"" is defined rectangular area established to:

a) Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
b) Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.
c) Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
d) Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.

22. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

a) Flashing green.

b) Fixed green.
c) Flashing white.

d) Fixed white.

23. The ""PAPI"" shall consist of:

a) Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

b) wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

c) Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
d) A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.

24. Taxiway edge lights shall be:

a) Fixed showing blue.

b) Fixed showing green.

c) Fixed showing yellow.

d) Flashing showing blue.

25. Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration :

a) information signs, yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.

b) mandatory instruction signs , red background with black inscriptions.

c) information signs, orange background with black inscriptions.

d) mandatory instruction signs, black background with red inscriptions.

26. An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is assumed to:

a) Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight

b) Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight rules
c) Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation aid serving the
destination aerodrome
d) Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome

27. In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time entered is
the :
a) allocated slot time
b) estimated time over the first point en route
c) estimated take-off time
d) estimated off-block time
28. For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATS flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum
certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is :
a) light ""L""
b) heavy ""H""
c) medium ""M""
d) unclassified ""U""

29. An aeroplane is flying from an airport to another. In cruise, the calibrated airspeed is I50 kt, true airspeed
180 kt, average groundspeed 210 kt, the speed box on the filed flight plan shall be filled as follows:
a) N0180
b) K0210
c) K0180
d) K0150

30. CAR section 8:

a. Air Safety

b. Aircraft Operations

c. Airworthiness

31. Doc 7030

a. Search And Rescue

b. Manual of Radio Telephony

c. Regional Supplementary Procedures

32. Doc 9156:

a. Location indicators

b. Aircraft Accident/ Incident Reporting Manual

c. Search And Rescue

33. Alternate yellow/green centre line lights of a taxiway indicate:

A) The proximity of a runway

B) An ILS/MLS critical/ sensitive area
C) A stopway

34. High intensity obstacle lights should be:

A) Flashing red
B) Flashing white
C) Fixed orange

35. SVFR may be authorized when the ground visibility is not less than:

A) 1500 m
8) 1800 m
C) 1000 m
36. An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot license aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating,
shall have completed....hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories
acceptable to the licensing Authority

A) 20hours

B) 40 hours

C) 50 hours

37. The holder of a commercial pilot licence when as Co-Pilot performing under the supervision of a pilot who
fulfills the flying experience requirements of a check pilot, the duties and functions of a pilot- in-command
shall be entitled to be credited:

1. A) in full with his flight time but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher
grade of pilot licence

2. B) 50%of the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in
accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority

3. C) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

38. While refueling is in progress, no naked light be brought within _ mts:

A) 35

B) 30

C)100

39. Pilots log book is to be preserved for

A) 5 years from the date of starting the log book

B) 5 years from the date of last entry

C) 3 yrs from the date of last entry

40. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the permission of:

1. A) Aerodrome

2. B) Local District Magistrate.

3. C) Operator.

41. The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks:

A) 6 hrs before commencement if flight.

B) 12 hrs before commencement of flight.

C) 24 hrs before commencement of flight.

42. Operational Manual is:

A) Prepared by the operator and authorized by the DGCA
8) Prepared by the DGCA and authorized by operator
C) Prepared by the operator and authorized by manufacturer

43. How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed?
a) 3:00 hours.
b) 1:00 hour.
c) 0:30 hours.
d) 0:10 hours.

44. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right
right, will first see the :
a) green steady light
b) red steady light
c) white steady light
d) green flashing light

45. The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the rear
of the aircraft, is :
a) 140°
b) 110°
c) 70°
d) 220°

46. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific
dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach
light system?
a) 1000 metres
b) 420 metres
c) 900 metres
d) 1200 metres

47. In the ""PAPI"" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and
the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
a) On or close to the approach slope.
b) Above the approach slope.
c) Below the approach slope.
d) Only on the approach slope.

48. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

a) Flashing green.

b) Fixed green.
c) Flashing white.

d) Fixed white.
49. ""Instrument runways"" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument
approach procedures.
a) Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
b) Precision approach runways category I, II and III.
c) Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
d) Precision approach runways in general

50. LDA=1500m. What will be the distance of aiming point marking from threshold?

a. 250m

b. 300m

c. 150m

d. 400m