MICROBIOLOGY & PUBLIC HEALTH

A 1. The sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population:

A) Outbreak B) Zoonotic C) Endemic D) Sporadic

D 2. A causative agent of peptic ulcer:

A) Escherichia coli B) Bordetella pertussi C) Shigella dysenteriae D) Helicobacter pylori

A 3. The “four o’clock habit” promoted by the Department of Health is designed to prevent the spread of:
A) Dengue fever B) Tuberculosis C) Malnutrition D) Malaria

A 4. The first drug available for HIV:

A) ZDU B) RMP C) TMP D) CMC

B 5. An immediate hypersensitivity reaction following exposure of a sensitized individual to the appropriate

antigen:
A) Hay fever B) Anaphylaxis C) Asthma D) Desensitization

D 6. A thin proteinaceous appendage necessary for bacterial conjugation:

A) Cilium B) Trichome C) Flagellum D) Pilus

B 7. The use of nitrite as preservative for food is discouraged because:

A) It can discolor the meat
B) It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines
C) It decomposed to nitric acid which can react with heme pigments
D) It is not readily available

B 8. The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supplies:

A) Lysol B) Chlorine C) Ozone D) Reverse osmosis

B 9. An object that is able to harbor and transmit microorganisms:

A) Mite B) Fomite C) Arthropod D) Vector

C 10. Administration of a toxoid confers:

A) Naturally acquired active immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity
B) Naturally acquired passive immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity

A 11. An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a specific disease
within a susceptible population during a specific period:
A) Morbidity rate B) Prevalence rate C) Mortality rate D) All of the above

D 12. The effectiveness of a disinfectant is influenced by:

A) Population size C) Concentration of the disinfectant
B) Duration of exposure D) All of the above

A 13. Lesions in the oral cavity caused by measles virus are known as:
A) Koplik spot B) Peyer’s pathches C) Rose spots D) Rashes

C 14. Anaerobic bacteria that derive energy by converting formates, acetates and other compounds to
methane:
A) Microaerophilic B) Metanochromic C) Methanogenic D) Cyanobactreria

B 15. Artificially acquired passive immunity is developed after vaccination with:

A) Attenuated microorganism C) Toxoids
B) Immunoglobulin preparations D) Cyanobacteria

A 16. Nosocomial infections are:

A) Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital
B) Infections of the nasal area
C) Infections where pathogens enters the body through the nose
D) Infections among animals

C 17. The capacity of an organism to produce a toxin is known as:

A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Toxicity

B 18. The Boracay water was declared unsafe due to:

A) Industrial wastes B) Fecal coliforms C) Red tide D) Oil spills

D 19. The male ascaris is distinguished from the female because its tail is:
A) Straight B) Slim C) Blunt D) Curved

A 20. It refers to water suitable for drinking:

A) Potable B) Edible C) Bacteria-free D) Odor-free

B 21. Microbial decomposition of proteins with the production of H2S and amines is known as:
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A) Fermentation B) Putrefaction C) Dentrification D) Transpeptidation

D 22. Rod-shaped bacteria curved to form commas are known as:

A) Bacilli B) Cocci C) Spiral D) Vibrios

A 23. This statement is true about viral infection:

A) Viral infections are self-limiting
B) Viral infections confer lifetime immunity
C) Viral infections are treated by antibiotics
D) All statements are correct

D 24. The heat-stable lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of gram-negative cell wall that is toxic to the
host is known as:
A) Tetanospasmin B) Aflatoxin C) Enterotoxin D) Endotoxin

A 25. The ability of a microorganism to enter a host, grow, reproduce and spread throughout its body is known
as:
A) Invasiveness B) Pathogenicity C) Toxigenicity D) Virulence

D 26. The intimate living together of members of two different species is known as:
A) Mutualism B) Commensalism C) Symbiosis D) All of the above

B 27. Plastics that can be decomposed by microorganism are said to be:

A) Recyclable B) Biodegradable C) Earth-friendly D) Reversible

B 28. Dengue virus vector:

A) Plasmodium falciparum B) Aedes aegypti C) Anopheles mosquito D) None of the above

D 29. It causes ringworm infection with whitish patches on human skin:

A) Tinea capitis B) Tines corporis
C) Trichophyton rubrum D) Malasseria furfur

D 30. The causative agent of pneumonia acquired by inhalation from air-conditioners:

A) Chlamydia pneumoniae B) Salmonella typhi
C) Pneumocystis carinii D) Legionella pneumophila

D 31. The following are communicable diseases, except:

A) Measles B) Pneumonia C) Hepatitis D) Tetanus

A 32. The following are zoonotic diseases, except:

A) Mumps B) Leptospirosis C) Anthrax D) Brucellosis

A 33. Hansen’s disease is caused by:

A) Mycobacterium leprae B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Myoplasma leprae D) None of the above

B 34. The following are true about moist heat sterilization, except:
A) Makes use of an autoclave C) Makes use of steam under pressure
B) Causes oxidation of cell components D) Can kill both vegetative cells and spores

D 35. A cellular structure equated for drug resistance is the:

A) Endospore B) Exospore C) Transposon D) Capsule

D 36. Bacterial genes responsible for drug resistance are known as:
A) F plasmids B) R plasmids C) Transposons D) Both B and C

B 37. Group of microorganisms that can be transmitted to humans by animal vectors like insects:
A) Protozoa B) Rickettias C) Chlamydias D) Myoplasmas

C 38. The first chemotherapeutic agent scientifically discovered and evaluated:

A) Sulfonamide B) Penicillin C) Salvarsan D) None of the above

C 39. Thioglycollate agar is an example of:

A) Enriched media B) Selective media C) Anaerobic media D) Differential media

B 40. A chemical agent that kills the vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily the
spores is known as:
A) Antiseptic B) Disinfectant C) Sanitizer D) Germicide

A 41. An example of ionizing radiation:

A) X-ray B) UV C) Sunlight D) All of the above

D 42. The primary site of electron transport system in eukaryotes:

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A) Ribosomes B) Nucleus C) Cytoplasm D) Mitochondria

A 43. The organism with atypical cell walls:

A) Mycoplasmas B) Rickettias C) Chlamydias D) Viruses

A 44. Koch’s postulates include the following, except:

A) The suspected organism should be present in health individuals
B) The organism must be isolated and grown as pure culture in the laboratory
C) The organism must initiate the symptoms of the disease in healthy animals
D) The organism must be re-isolated from the animal and be cultured again in the laboratory

B 45. The following are contributions of Louis Pasteur in microbiology, except:

A) Terms “aerobic” and “anaerobic” C) Pasteur flask
B) Fractional sterilization D) Fermentation

C 46. A phenomenon wherein an organism exhibits plasticity:

A) Dimorphism B) Polymorphism C) Pleomorphism D) Fleximorphism

A 47. The following can be sterilized in an autoclave, except:

A) Olive oil B) Culture media C) Water D) Glassware

C 48. A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency:

A) Virus B) Bacillus thuringiensis
C) Bacillus stearothermophilus D) Clostridium botulinum

C 49. Phase in the bacterial growth curve wherein the culture is in the period of balanced growth:
A) Log phase B) Lag phase C) Stationary phase D) Death phase

C 50. A process by which bacterial endospore returns to its vegetative state:

A) Polymorphism B) Mutagenicity C) Germination D) Sporulation

B 51. Ribosomes of Candida albicans are referred to as:

A) 70s B) 80s C) 90s D) 100s

D 52. Organisms that can grow at body temperature:

A) Thermophiles B) Psychrophiles C) Acidophiles D) Mesophiles

B 53. Specific process of reproduction among prokaryotes:

A) Sporulation B) Transverse binary fission C) Germination D) None of the above

A 54. A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus:

A) Transduction B) Conjugation C) Transformation D) Both A and C

A 55. A structurally mature infections viral particle:

A) Virion B) Capsid C) Capsule D) Spore

A 56. An algae group responsible for red tide poisoning:

A) Dinoflagellate B) Diatom C) Euglenoid D) None of the above

A 57. A theory that states that life originates from non-life:

A) Theory of Spontaneous Generation C) Germ Theory
B) Koch’s Postulates D) None of the above

A 58. Lymphocytes that have a high affinity for HIV:

A) T-helper lymphocytes B) B-lymphocytes C) Phagocytes D) T-cytotoxic lymphocytes

C 59. A priority program of DOH, which aims at promoting availability of quality services in health centers and
hospitals:
A) Health Sector Reform Agenda D) Health Passport Initiative
B) National Health Objectives E) None of the above
C) Sentrong Sigla

B 60. Another priority program of DOH, which emphasizes partnership and shared responsibility for health
among various sectors:
A) Health Sector Reform Agenda D) Health Passport Initiative
B) National Health Objectives E) None of the above
C) Sentrong Sigla

A 61. Its function is mainly to serve as an advisory body to the local executive or local legislative on health
related matters:
A) DOH B) WHO C) QUERT D) Sentrong Sigla E) None of the above

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D 62. Backyard gardening, community project and putting of herbal plants are among the major activities under
this program:
A) Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy D) WHO
B) Nutrition Program E) None of the above
C) National Drug Policy Program

D 63. Its main objective is attainment by all people of the highest possible level of health:
A) Philhealth B) DOH Hospitals C) UNICEF D) WHO E) None of the above

D 64. National Center for Disease Prevention and Control belongs to what function cluster:
A) Internal Management D) Health Regulation Development
B) Health Regulation E) None of the above
C) External Affairs

B 65. An employee liability law that provides financial supports for workers unemployed because of work
related injuries:
A) OSH Act D) Coal Mine Health and Safety Act
B) Workers Compensation Law E) None of the above
C) Civilian Rehabilitation

E 66. A lung disease caused by cotton-mill dust:

A) Mesothelioma C) Physical hazards E) None of the above
B) Chemical hazards ` D) Ergonomic hazards

C 67. A type of industrial hazard, which includes ambient heat, burn, noise and vibration:
A) Biological C) Physical E) None of the above
B) Chemical D) Ergonomic

B 68. Air contaminants causing death by asphyxiation in high concentration:

A) Sulfur dioxide B) CO C) CO2 D) Lead E) None of the above

E 69 The following are functions of Amiotic fluid, except:

A) Allows the movement of fetus D) Allows the fetus to float
B) Protects against mechanical injury E) None of the above
C) Provides stable temperature

A 70. Food processing technique that protects food from oxidative deterioration and growth of aerobic
microorganism:
A) Canning B) Pasteurization C) Irradiation D) Drying E) None of the above

C 71. A vitamin that serves as intracellular antioxidants:

A) Vit. A B) Vit. D C) Vit. E D) Vit. K E) None of the above

C 72. The irreversible stage of alcohol damage characterized by liver enlargement:

A) Cirrhosis B) Alcoholic hepatitis C) Fatty liver D) All E) None

E 73. The following are attributed to fetal alcohol syndrome, except:

A) Smaller size B) Deformities of limb C) Heart defects D) Poor coordination E) None

B 74. Stage of alcoholism wherein the person experiences blackouts:

A) Initial stage B) Middle stage C) Third stage D) final stage E) None

E 75. Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly acidic rain, snow, hair or fog:
A) Carbon dioxide B) Sulfur dioxide C) Nitrogen oxide D) A and B E) B and C

D 76. It is an aging process in the life cycle of lake, pond or slow moving river and stream brought about by the
accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in
the number of organisms:
A) Acidification D) Eutrophication
B) Alkalinification E) None
C) Nitrification
B 77. A drug for treatment of alcoholism, which acts to diminish the pleasurable effects of alcohol:
A) Naltrexone B) Antabuse C) Tranquilizers D) All E) None

A 78. This is a period between conceptions through complete delivery of the product of conception:
A) Pregnancy B) Fertilization C) Implantation D) Cleavage E) None

A 79. A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport and wound healing:
A) Copper B) Manganese C) Chromium D) Zinc E) None

A 80. It describes the amounts of energy, protein, minerals and vitamins needed by normal healthy individual:
A) RDA B) REA C) RAD D) RAE E) None

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B 81. A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport and
excretion of nutrients:
A) Primary malnutrition D) Overnutrition
B) Secondary malnutrition E) None
C) Undernutrition

A 82. Deficiency of thiamine leads to:

A) Beri-beri B) Pellagra C) Stomatitis D) A and B E) B and C

C 83. A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity:

A) Cirrhosis B) Alcoholism C) Hang-over D) A and B E) B and C

C 84. Vitamin B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:

A) Steven Johnson’s Syndrome D) A and B
B) Down Syndrome E) None
C) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

B 85. Regarding the nature of medicinally important viruses, which one of the following statements is least
accurate?
A) Poliovirus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
B) Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
C) Hepatitis B is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
D) Influenza virus is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.

D 86. The following statements regarding the capsules of bacteria are correct, except:
A) Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharides and serve to protect the bacteria by inhibiting
phagocytosis.
B) Bacterial capsules can vary antigenically, and as a result some bacteria have many serologic types.
C) Bacterial capsules can be purified and used in vaccines against certain bacteria, example the
Pneumococcus.
D) Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.

C 87. The following statements regarding Coccidiodes immitis are correct, except:
A) It is a dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules in the body.
B) Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (anthroconida), hence the primary site
of infection is the lungs.
C) When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts.
D) The most important host defense against this organism is cell-mediated immunity.

A 88. The following statements regarding bacterial exotoxins are correct, except:
A) They are integral parts of the cell wall.
B) They are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli.
C) They are polypeptides consisting of two functional regions, the one that binds to cell receptors and
one that ha the toxic activity.
D) Treatment of some exotoxins with formaldehyde yields a toxoid, which is used as the immunogen in
certain vaccines.

D 89. The following statements regarding the C3 component of the complement cascade are correct, except:
A) It is involved in both the classic and the alternative pathways.
B) Its C3a fragment can cause anaphylaxis by releasing histamines from mast cells.
C) Its C3b fragment binds to both IgG and surface receptors on neutrophils.
D) Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria.

C 90. Regarding the prevention of bacterial diseases by vaccines, which one of the following is least accurate?
A) Tetanus toxoid is produced by treating tetanus toxin with formalin, which inactivates its ability to cause
disease but leaves its antigenicity intact.
B) Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children.
C) Both the pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and
produce significant side effects in children.
D) The pneumococcal vaccine contains the capsular polysaccharide of many serotypes and is
recommended primarily for older people.

D 91. Several viruses infect the intestinal tract as their initial site of infection. Which one of the following is least
likely to do this?
A) Hepatitis A virus B) Poliovirus C) Rotavirus D) Mumps virus

C 92. Penicillin is a very effective antibacterial drug but their use is limited by allergic reactions. In these
allergies, Penicillin acts as a hapten. Which of the following is the most accurate?

A) Penicillin is a T-dependent antigens, which bind to receptors on B cells and stimulate an antibody
response.
B) Penicillin interacts with T cell receptors on CD4-positive T cells and activates them.
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C) Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The
carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper-T cell.
D) Penicillin interacts with the early complements (C1, C4, C2 and C3) to release inflammatory
mediators.

Choices for numbers 93 – 97:

A) Staphylococcus aureus D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
B) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

B 93. The causative agent of suppurative diseases like pharyngitis and cellulites and nonsuppurative diseases
like rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis.

A 94. The causative agent of food poisoning, TSS and skin boils.

D 95. Norma flora of the skin but may cause “stitch abscess” and sepsis.

B 96. A group B Streptococcus that causes neonatal meningitis and sepsis.

C 97. The causative agent of pneumonia and meningitis in adults, and otitis media and sinusitis in children.

Choices for numbers 98 – 102:

A) Meningococcus D) Clostridium tetani
B) Gonococcus E) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Bacillus antracis

B 98. A gram negative, kidney bean shaped diplococci causing gonorrhea.

A 99. A gram negative, kidney bean shaped diplococci, oxidase positive with large polysaccharide capsule
referred to as glycocalyx.

D 100. Anaerobic, gram positive with terminal spore affecting neutrotransmitters leading to excitatory neurons
that are unopposed and extreme muscle spasm.

E 101. Aerobic, non-spore forming organism that exhibits tumbling motility and capable of causing meningitis
and sepsis in newborn and immunocompromised patients.

C 102. Large, spore-forming rod, whose capsule is composed of poly-D-glutamate and may cause Wool Sorter’s
disease.

Choices for numbers 103 – 106:

A) Clostridium perfringens D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) Clostridium tetani E) Clostridium dificile
C) Clostridium botulinum

B 103. Characterized physiologically by a “sardonic smile.”

A 104. The causative agent of gas gangrene.

D 105. In stained smear, it is usually seen in Chinese letter arrangement having metachromatic granules and
may infect the respiratory system.

E 106. Anaerobic, gram positive, spore-forming rods, which is a normal flora of the intestine. It has enterotoxin
that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis.

C 107. The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good foods.

Choices for numbers 108 – 112:

A) Escherichia coli D) Vibrio cholerae
B) Salmonella typhi E) Camphylobacter jejuni
C) Shigella dysenteriae

D 108. A halophilic coma shaped, gram negative bacteria.

E 109. A gram negative, coma shaped microaerophilic rod that causes enterocolitis and can be cultured in
Skirrow’s agar.

C 110. Facultative gram negative rods, non-lactose fermenting and may cause enterocolitis (dysentery).
A 111. Urinary tract infection (UTI), sepsis neonatal meningitis and “travelers diarrhea” are the most common
diseases caused by this gram negative, non-lactose fermenting bacilli.

B 112. Ceftriaxone is the most effective drug used to treat this facultative, non-lactose fermenting, gram
negative rod which is capable of producing H2S.
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Choices for numbers 113 – 117:

A) Mycobacterium leprae D) Treponema pallidum
B) Mycobactrium tuberculosis E) Leptospira interrogans
C) Borrelia burgdorferi

D 113. Penicillin is effective for this spirochete organism causing syphilis.

E 114. Spirochete, which is the causative agent of leptospirosis.

C 115. Spirochete, which is the causative agent of Lyme disease and can be treated by Doxycycline for early
stage and Pen G for late stages.

A 116. An acid-fast bacillus that have mycolic acid in its cell wall, which can be seen in a palisade arrangement.

B 117. An acid-fast, catalase negative bacillus that can be grown in Lowenstein-Jensen medium and is capable
of producing Niacin. It can be treated with Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide and INH.

Choices for numbers 118 – 122:

A) Herpes Simplex virus Type 1 D) Cytomegalovirus
B) Varicella-Zoster virus E) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Herpes simplex virus Type 2

D 118. Gangcyclovir is beneficial in treating pneumonia and retinitis, while Acyclovir is ineffective.

E 119. The causative agent of Infectious Mononucleosis (IM) and is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma in East
African children. No drug is effective to treat the disease.

C 120. The causative agent of herpes genitalis, which can then be treated with Acyclovir.

A 121. The causative agent of herpes labialis (fever blisters or cold sores), keratitis and encephalitis.

B 122. The causative agent of Varicella (chicken pox) in children and Zoster (shingles) in adults.

D 123. Which one of the following statements is the most accurate comparison of human, bacterial and fungal
cells?
A) Human cells undergo mitosis, whereas neither bacteria nor fungi do.
B) Human and fungal cells have similar cell wall, in contrast to bacteria whose cell wall contains
peptidoglycan.
C) Human and bacterial cells have plasmids, whereas fungal cells do not have.
D) Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different.

C 124. The following statements concerning endotoxins are correct, except:

A) They are less potent (ie., less active on weight basis) than exotoxins.
B) They are more heat stable than exotoxins.
C) They bind to specific cell receptors, whereas exotoxins do not.
D) They are part of the bacterial cell wall, whereas exotoxins are not.

B 125. The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is:

A) Activated macrophages secreting proteases
B) IgG and IgM antibodies
C) Helper-T cells
D) Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin

D 126. The following events involve recombination of DNA, except:

A) Transduction of a chromosomal gene
B) Transposition of a mobile genetic element
C) Integration of a temperate bacteriophage
D) Conjugation, such as the transfer of a R (resistance) factor

B 127. The following statements about the normal flora are correct, except:
A) The most common organism found on the skin is Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B) Escherichia coli is a prominent member of the normal flora of the throat.
C) Colon is the major site where Bacteroides fragilis can be found.
D) Nose is one of the most common sites where Staphylococcus aureus can be found.

C 128. Which of the following statements is the most important function of antibody in host defenses against
bacteria?
A) Activation of the lysozyme that degrades the cell wall
B) Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins
C) Facilitation of phagocytosis
D) Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

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D 129. Which of the following best describes the mode of action of endotoxin?
A) Degrades lecithin in cell membranes
B) Inactivates elongation factor-2
C) Blocks release of acetylcholine
D) Causes the release of necrosis factor

D 130. The identification of bacteria by serologic test is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the
following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
A) Capsule B) Flagella C) Cell wall D) Ribosomes

Choices for numbers 131 – 135:

A) Diphtheria toxin D) Toxic shock syndrome toxin
B) Tetanus toxin E) Cholera toxin
C) Botulinum toxin

C 131. Causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine

A 132. Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking elongation factor-2

D 133. Stimulates T cells to produce cytokines

E 134. Stimulates the production of cyclic AMP by adding ADP-ribose to a G protein

B 135. Inhibits the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters causing muscle spasms

B 136. An outbreak of sepsis causes by Staphylococcus aureus has occured in the newborn nursery. You are
called to investigate. According to your knowledge of the norma flora , what is the most likely source of
the bacteria?
A) Colon B) Nose C) Throat D) Vagina

A 137. The following organisms are recognized causes of diarrhea, except:

A) Clostridium perfringens B) Streptococcus fecalis C) Escherichia coli D) Vibrio cholerae

C 138. A patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis, which is caused by a member of the viridans group of
Streptococcus. Which one of the following sites is most likely to be the source of the organism?
A) Skin B) Colon C) Oropharynx D) Urethra

C 139. The coagulase test, wherein the bacteria causes plasma to clot is used to distinguish:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus faecalis
B) Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus
C) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis

C 140. Five hours after eating fried rice at a restaurant, you and your friends developed nausea, vomiting and
diarrhea. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent?
A) Clostridium perfringens C) Bacillus cereus
B) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli D) Salmonella typhi

C 141. Which of the following zoonotic diseases has no arthropod vector?

A) Plague B) Lyme disease C) Brucellosis D) Epidemic typhus

B 142. Which of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells?
A) Salmonella typhi B) Rickettsia typhi C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Coxiella burnetii

D 143. The following statements concerning Chlamydia are correct, except:

A) Chlamydia is a strict intracellular parasite because it cannot synthesize sufficient ATP.
B) Chlamydia possesses both DNA and RNA and is bounded by a cell wall.
C) Chlamydia trachomatis has multiple serotypes, whereas C. psittaci has only one serotype.
D) Most Chlamydias are transmitted by arthropods.

D 144. A 55-year old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A gram stain of urine sample shows gram-negative
rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals non-lactose fermenting colonies without evidence of
swarming motility. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent of his urinary
tract infection?

A) Streptococcus faecalis B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C) Proteus vulgaris D) Escherichia coli

B 145. Acute glomerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which of the following
organisms?
A) Streptococcus faecalis B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus agalactiae

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C 146. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of pneumonia in an immunocompetent
patient?
A) Nocardia asteroides B) Serratia marcescens
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae D) Legionella pneumophila

A 147. Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be lifelong?
A) Passive immunity B) Passive-active immunity
C) Active immunity D) Cell-mediated immunity

D 148. The following statements concerning Interferon are correct, except:

A) Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses.
B) Interferon is induced by double-stranded DNA.
C) Interferon of one species acts more effectively in the cells of that species.
D) Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell.

C 149. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. The following statements concerning this fact are correct,
except:
A) Viruses cannot generate energy outside the cell.
B) Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside the cell.
C) Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides.
D) Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes.

A 150. The following statements about lysogeny are correct, except:

A) Viruses replicate independently of bacterial genes.
B) Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed.
C) Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA.
D) Some lysogenic bactriophage encode toxins that cause human diseases.

B 151. The following viruses possess an outer envelope of lipoprotein, except:

A) Varicell-zoster virus B) Papillomavirus C) Influenza virus D) HIV virus

B 152. The following viruses possess RNA polymerase in the virion, except:
A) Hepatitis A virus B) Smallpox virus C) Mumps virus D) Rotavirus

A 153. The following viruses possess double-stranded DNA as its genome, except:
A) Coxsackie virus B) Herpes simplex virus C) Rotavirus D) Adenovirus

B 154. Which of the following statements best describe a viriod?

A) It is a defective virus that is missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein.
B) It consists of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat.
C) It causes tumor in experimental animals.
D) It requires RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.

B 155. The following statements about measles virus and rubella virus are correct, except:
A) They are enveloped RNA viruses.
B) Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
C) They each have a single antigenic type.
D) They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol.

D 156. The following statements about influenza virus and rabies virus are correct, except:
A) They are enveloped RNA viruses.
B) Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
C) Vaccines containing killed organisms are available for both viruses.
D) They each have a single antigenic type.

C 157. The following statements about poliovirus and rhinovirus are correct, except:
A) They are non-enveloped RNA viruses.
B) They each have multiple antigenic types.
C) Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
D) They do not integrate their genome into the DNA of the host cell.
Choices for numbers 158 – 161:
A) DNA enveloped virus D) RNA non-enveloped virus
B) DNA non-enveloped virus E) Viriod
C) RNA enveloped virus
A 158. Herpes simplex virus

C 159. Human Tcell leukemia virus

B 160. Human papillomavirus

D 161. Rotavirus

B 162. The following pathogens are likely to establish chronic or latent infections, except:
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A) Cytomegalovirus B) Hepatitis A virus C) Hepatitis B virus D) Herpes simples virus

D 163. Which of the following strategies is most likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal immunity to
poliovirus?
A) Parenteral (intramuscular) administration of inactivated vaccine
B) Oral administration of poliovirus immunoglobulin
C) Parenteral administration of live vaccine
D) Oral administration of live vaccine

C 164. The following clinical syndromes are associated with infection by picornavirus, except:
A) Myocarditis/Pericarditis B) Hepatitis C) Mononucleosis D) Meningitis

A 165. The following statements concerning human rabies vaccine are correct, except:
A) The vaccine contains live, attenuated rabies virus.
B) If the patient was bitten by a wild animal such as skunk, the rabies vaccine must be given.
C) When the vaccine is used for post-exposure prophylaxis, rabies immune globulin must also be given.
D) The virus in the vaccine is grown in human cell cultures thus decreasing the risk of allergic
encephalomyelitis.

C 166. The following statements about Hepatitis A are correct, except:

A) The initial site of viral replication is the gastrointestinal tract.
B) Hepatitis A virus commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children.
C) Isolating the virus in a cell culture usually makes diagnosis of hepatitis A.
D) Gamma globulin is used to prevent the disease in exposed persons.

Choices for numbers 167 – 171:

A) Hepatitis C virus D) Dengue virus
B) Cytomegalovirus E) St. Louis encephalitis virus
C) Human papilloma virus

C 167. It is implicated as the cause of carcinoma of the cervix.

E 168. Wild birds are important reservoirs of this virus.

B 169. It is an important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients.

A 170. Donated blood containing antibody to this RNA virus ahould not be used for transfusion.

D 171. It causes hemorrhagic fever that can be life threatening.

D 172. Bacteria lack all of the following organelles, except:

A) Mitochondria B) Nucleus C) Mitotic apparatus D) DNA E) Nuclear membrane

D 173. The following are true about prokaryotes, except:

A) They are relatively small.
B) Their genes are dedicated to essential functions only.
C) They lack autonomous organelles.
D) Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane.

A 174. Unicellular prokaryotic organism that divides by binary fission:

A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Protozoa D) Helminths

B 175. Phylogenetic classifications are based on:

A) Shared morphologic attributes B) Evolutionary relationships
C) Shape D) Unusual growth characteristics

E 176. The peptidoglycan of gram-negative bacteria probably is:

A) 20 layers thick D) 80 layers thick
B) 40 layers thick E) 1 layer thick
C) 10 layers thick

C 177. Porins are:

A) Cytoplasmic membrane proteins B) Periplasmic proteins
C) Outer membrane proteins D) Inclusion bodies

B 178. Gram-negative bacterial cell wall contains the following components, except:
A) Lipoproteins B) Lipotechoic acid C) Lipopolysacchatide D) Phospholipid

C 179. This is a saclike invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane that is associated with the DNA of bacterial
cells. It functions as the origin of the transverse septum that divides the cell and the binding site of the
DNA.
A) Nucleoid B) Plasmids C) Mesosomes D) Transposons

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A 180. The bacterial organelle that is used for motility:

A) Flagella B) Pili C) Cilia D) Pseudopods

B 181. An intracytoplasmic granule may contain:

A) Nucleic cids B) Glycogen C) Steroids D) Spindle fibers

C 182. The substance responsible for the heat resistance of endospores:

A) Polymerized d-glutamic acid B) Flagellin C) Dipicolinic acid D) Techoic acid

B 183. This mediates the attachment of bacteria to specific receptors on human cell surfaces, which is the
necessary step in the initiation of infection for some organisms:
A) Flagella B) Fimbriae C) Capsule D) Endospores

B 184. This mediates the firm adherence of bacteria to various structures such as skin, heart valves, teeth and
even catheters:
A) Capsule B) Slime layer C) Pili D) Flagella

D 185. The following are true for endospores, except:

A) Highly resistant to disinfectants
B) Can survive for many years, especially in soil
C) Produced under condition of nutritional deprivation
o
D) Killed by heating at 100 C

A 186. A rod-like bacterium that grows optimally at mammalian body temperature and is killed by the presence
of oxygen is best described as:
A) Mesophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli
B) Mesophilic, obligate aerobic bacilli
C) Psychrophilic, facultative anaerobic streptobacillus
D) Psychrophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli

A 187. Bacteria that derive their energy from oxidation of organic molecules are known as:
A) Heterotrophs B) Autotrophs C) Chemoautotrophs D) Photoautotrophs

C 188. The stage in the growth cycle of bacteria that reflects the period during which vigorous metabolic activity
occurs but cells do not divide is the:
A) Stationary phase B) Log phase C) Lag phase D) Death phase

C 189. The time required for a cell to divide or a population to double is known as:
A) Thermal death time B) Growth rate constant C) Generation time D) Thermal death point

C 190. Which of the following organisms is a predatory bacterium?

A) Salmonella thypinurium C) Bdellovibrio bacteriovirus
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

D 191. Specific nutrients transverse the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria by:

A) Activated transport B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Carrier-mediated transport D) Any of the above

B 192. Bacteria that ferment substrates to single end products are called:
A) Heterofermenters B) Homofermenters
C) Glyoxalate shunt fermenters D) Oxidative fermenters

B 193. The primary natural nutrients of bacteria are:

A) Carbohydrates/Nucleic acids/Steroids C) Nucleic acids/Chitin/Peptidoglycans
B) Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids D) Lipids/Polysaccharides/Lactoferrin

C 194. Which of the following statements is true about drug-resistant plasmids?

A) Found only in gram-negative bacteria
B) Usually confer resistance to a single antibiotic
C) May be divided into two distinct genetic components: the RTF and r determinant
D) Two of the above

B 195. Which of the following statements is true about bacterial conjugation?

A) It requires the F factor
B) It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili
C) It is mediated by a bacterial virus
D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria

C 196. It is the relationship between the host and the normal microbiota:
A) Disease B) Infection C) Symbiosis D) Parasitism

C 197. It refers to the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic bacteria:

A) Disease B) Infestation C) Infection D) Syndromes
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A 198. Influenza develops rapidly and lasts only for a short time. This is described as:
A) Acute B) Subacute C) Chronic D) Latent

B 199. This period is characterized by mild aches, malaise and it follows the period of incubation of the disease:
A) Decline phase B) Prodormal stage C) Illness stage D) Convalescence stage

C 200. The number of cases of Filipinos with AIDS has increased tremendously over the past few years. This is
described as:
A) Endemic B) Epidemic C) Pandemic D) Acute

B 201. It is an indication of the ability of a bacterium to produce pathologic changes or disease in the host:
A) Virulence B) Pathogenicity C) Attenuation D) In vitro growth rates

A 202. The two major components of virulence include:

A) Invasiveness and toxigenicity C) Adherence factors and antiphagocytic mechanisms
B) Intracellular and extracellular survival D) Capsules and spreading factors

B 203. The bacterial toxin that attaches to the presynaptic terminals of cholinergic nerves, where it blocks the
release of acetycholine, is produced by:
A) Bacillus anthracis C) Clostridium tetani
B) Clostridium botulinum D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

D 204. The bacterial toxin that causes cessation of mammalian protein synthesis by inactivating EF-2 of
eukaryotic cells is produced by:
A) Bacillus anthracis C) Clostridium tetani
B) Clostridium botulinum D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A 205. The bacterium that produces a toxin that activates adenylate cyclase, resulting in accumulation of cyclic
AMP in the epithelial cells of the mucosal lining, is:
A) Escherichia coli C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Staphylococcus aureus

D 206. The following statements are true about endotoxins, except:

A) They are also known as lipopolysaccharides.
B) They are integral part of the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.
C) They are normally not as toxic as bacterial exotoxins.
D) Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving.

C 207. The following structures normally contain indigenous microbial flora, except:
A) Teeth B) Urethra C) Bronchi D) Skin

D 208. The region of the body that contains the largest population of microbial flora:
A) Skin B) Colon C) Vagina D) Mouth

B 209. Vancomycin is produced naturally from:

A) Strep. nodosus B) Strep. orientalis C) Strep. griseus D) Strep. orchidaceous

C 210. Polymixin is produced from:

A) Bacillus subtilis B) Bacillus cereus C) Bacillus polymyxa D) Bacillus anthracis

D 211. The following antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of proteins in microorganisms, except:
A) Aminoglycosides B) Tetracyclines C) Lincomycin D) Cephalosporins

C 212. Certain bacterial strains are resistant to the bactericidal activity of the Penicillins and the Cephalosporins,
although the growth of the organism is inhibited. This phenomenon (tolerance) is related to a defect or a
deficiency of:
A) Plasmid that codes for penicillinase C) Cellular growth rates
B) Autolytic enzymes D) Certain cytochromes

B 213. Nystatin is produced naturally from:

A) Strep. nodosus B) Strep.noursei C) Strep. griseus D) Strep. natalensis

D 214. This antibiotic has been found to be toxic, so its use has been limited only for the treatment of TB:
A) Penicillin B) Bacitracin C) Vancomycin D) Cycloserine

B 215. Aplastic anemia is a rare but usually fatal side effect associated with the use of this antibiotic:
A) Gentamicin B) Chloramphenicol C) Bacitracin D) Polymixin

B 216. It refers to the killing of many, but not all microorganisms:

A) Sterilization B) Disinfection C) Antisepsis D) Asepsis

D 217. It is the most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice:

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A) Chlorine B) Merthiolate C) Hydrogen peroxide D) Iodine

A 218. This chemical agent is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization of heat sensitive materials. It
kills by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids:
A) Ethylene oxide B) Formaldehyde C) Acids and alkalis D) Hydrogen peroxide

B 219. It is the method of choice in sterilizing heat sensitive solutions:

A) Autoclave B) Filtration C) Radiation D) Pasteurization

D 220. This disinfectant is useful in preventing gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum among infants whose
patients have Gonorrhea:
A) Merthiolate B) Mercurochrome C) Silver sulfadiazine D) Silver nitrate

D 221. The following are milk-borne pathogens, except:

A) Mycobaterium bovis B) Salmonella C) Streptococcus D) Clostridium

D 222. Which is the best method to sterilize Penicillin solution?

A) Autoclaving B) Dry heat (oven) C) Ethylene oxide D) Filtration

C 223. The DTP vaccine is composed of which of the following:

A) Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis
B) Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis
D) Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B 224. The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is composed of:

A) L-glutamic acid B) D-glutamic acid C) Polysaccharide D) Nucleic acid

D 225. Bacillus anthracis possesses all of the following characteristic, except:

A) It is a large, gram-positive rod
B) It is a spore-former.
C) It produces a potent exotoxin composed of three antigenically distinct thermolabile proteins.
D) It can live inside phagocytic cells.

A 226. Listeria monocytogenes has all of the following characteristics, except:

A) It is a spore-former. C) It can live inside phagocytic cells.
B) It is a short, gram-positive rod D) It is actively motile.

A 227. The most important anti-phagocytic structure of the Group A streptococci:

A) M protein B) Group A carbohydrate C) Hyaluronic acid capsule D) Protein A

C 228. The single differentiation test between Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus:
A) Gram staining B) Catalase test C) Coagulase test D) Hemolysis test

D 229. An example of a streptococcal disease sequela:

A) Scarlet fever B) Pharyngitis C) Puerperal sepsis D) Rheumatic fever

C 230. The group A streptococci serotype most commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis:
A) 2 B) 7 C) 12 D) 19

C 231. The Streptococcus most commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Viridans streptococci
B) Streptococcus agalactiae D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

C 232. Which of the following does not influence the virulence of Neisseria gonorrhea?
A) Polysaccharide capsule C) Genus-specific protein
B) Lipopolysaccharide endotoxin D) Production of IgA protease

D 233. Neisseria are all:

A) Gram positive B) Anaerobes C) Coagulase positive D) Oxidase positive

D 234. In the laboratory, Neisseria meningitidis may be distinguished from Neisseria gonorrhea by:
A) Its characteristic morphology and gram stain
B) Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability to grow in Thayer-Martin medium
C) The presence of pili
D) Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate

C 235. The most important mechanism of transmission of Pasteurella multicoda from animals to humans:
A) Blood-sucking arthropods D) Contact with contaminated urine
B) Contact with contaminated feces E) Handling of infected tissues
C) Animal bites and scratches

B 236. Which of the following statements is true about whooping cough?

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A) Infants under the age of 3 months are not susceptible.

B) The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract.
C) Immunity is conferred by killer T cells that recognize cell wall M antigen.
D) All of the above

E 237. Tularemia may occur in:

A) Ulderoglandular form B) Oculoglandular form C) Pulmonary form D) All of the above

D 238. The intestinal tract is the only natural habitat of this lactose fermenting, facultative anaerobic,
nosocomial pathogen:
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
B) Proteus vulgaris D) Escherichia coli

A 239. A gram negative, non-motile rod that produces a large mucoid colony on agar medium was isolated
from a chronically ill patient who died of pneumonia. This organism probably belongs to the genus:
A) Klebsiella B) Pseudomonas C) Proteus D) Serratia

A 240. A gram-negative rod was isolated from the urine of a patient suspected of having a UTI. The organism
is lactose negative, urease positive and motile. It most likely belongs to the genus:
A) Proteus B) Escherichia C) Serratia D) Klebsiella

C 241. Leprosy may manifest itself as:

A) Lepromatous leprosy B) Tuberculoid leprosy C) A and B D) B and C

D 242. Secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following, except:

A) Cutaneous lesions C) Onset is 4 weeks or more after chancre
B) Mucous membrane lesions D) Absence of spirochetes in the lesions

D 243. The diagnosis of early syphilis is best made by:

A) Inoculating guinea pigs with lesion material and examining blood smears 3 days later
B) Culture on chocolate agar and incubated with 10% carbon dioxide
C) The VDRL test
D) Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present

B 244. The smallest known free-living microorganism is:

A) Viruses B) Mycoplasma species C) Rickettsia D) Chlamydiae

B 245. The growing stage of a protozoan parasite is:

A) Sporozoite B) Trophozoite C) Merozoite D) Cysts

D 246. A class in which only parasitic forms occur:

A) Sarcodina B) Mastigophora C) Ciliata D) Sporozoa

D 247. In which of the following the eggs of parasitic worms can be found:
A) Stool B) Urine C) Sputum D) All of the above E) None of the above

E 248. Which of the following techniques is used in quantitative estimations of infections with parasitic worms?
A) Formalin-ether B) Kato thick smear C) Stool dilution D) A and B E) B and C

B 249. Blastocyctis hominis is a:

A) Zooparasite B) Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst
C) New name for Enatamoeba coli D) Bacteria

C 250. The findings of ingested red blood cells in a trophozoite practically identifies:
A) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica E) Dientamoeba fragilis
B) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii

C 251. Actively motile trophozoite with directional motility and contains ingested red blood cells:
A) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica E) Dientamoeba fragilis
B) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii

A 252. Trophozoite with nucleus seen without difficulty in fresh, unstained preparation:
A) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica E) Dientamoeba fragilis
B) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii

C 253. Cysts of this organism contains 1-4 nuclei:

A) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica E) Dientamoeba fragilis
B) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii

C 254. The chromatoid bodies of this organism appear as cigar-shaped or sausage-shaped:

A) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica E) Dientamoeba fragilis
B) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii
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D 255. Cysts of this organism are usually without glycogen vacuoles (Iodine cysts):
A) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica E) Dientamoeba fragilis
B) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii

A 256. In clinical cases of malaria, the most favorable time to find parasites in the blood is:
A) The period just before a paroxysm
B) At the beginning of a paroxysm
C) During the late paroxysmal stage
D) The period just following a paroxysm

B 257. Definitive host of human malarial parasites:

A) Any domestic animal B) Anopheles mosquito C) Man D) B and C

A 258. The sexual cycle is the:

A) Sporogony B) Schizogony C) Either B or C D) Neither B nor C

A 259. Eosinophilic stippling of erythrocytes (Schauffer.s dots) is often seen in infections with:
A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

C 260. As a rule, only rings and crescent-shaped gametocytes are observed in peripheral blood, which
includes:
A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

A 261. The malarial parasite that enlarges red blood cells:

A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

B 262. Man may acquire Toxoplasma from:

A) Mice B) Cats C) Dogs D) Pigs

C 263. Toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by:

A) Stool examination B) Thin blood film
C) Flourescent antibody tests D) Intradermal test

B 264. Toxoplasma is probably transmitted to man by:

A) Bite of the vector insect
B) Ingestion of a resistant oocyst
C) In the body of the parasitic nematode
D) Ingestion of infected food

A 265. The posterior part of this parasite has a twisted appearance:

A) Chilomastix mesnili B) Giardia lamblia
C) Trichomonas hominis D) Retortamonas

C 266. An axostyle is present in this organism:

A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

B 267. Trophozoite that resembles “old man’s eyeglasses”:

A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

A 268. This organism has lemon-shaped cysts:

A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae

C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale

A 269. This causes visceral leishmaniasis:

A) Leishmania donovani C) Leishmania braziliensis
B) Leishmania tropica D) Trypanosoma cruzi

C 270. The reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection:

A) Dog B) Cat C) Pig D) Cattle

B 271. A viviparous organism:

A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Trichenella spiralis C) Hookworm D) Pinworm

B 272. Which of the following neither lay eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal canal?
A) Hookworm B) Pinworm C) Trichinella spiralis D) Trichuris trichiura

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B 273. “Old world” hookworm:

A) Necator americanus B) Ancylostoma duodenale
C) Ancylostoma caninum D) Toxocara canis

C 274. This organism causes tropical elephantiasis:

A) Loa loa B) Onchocerca volvulus C) Wucheria bancrofti D) Dracunculus medinensis

C 275. The presence of mammillated eggs or the large adult worm in the stool identifies this organism:
A) Trichuris trichiura B) Enterobius vermicularis
C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Strongyloides stercoralis

B 276. The adult form of this organism has a whip-like anterior portion:
A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis

A 277. The eggs of this organism are most likely to be found through anal swabs or cellophane tape:
A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis

C 278. Visceral larva migrans is acquired by ingesting eggs of a nematode parasite of:
A) Pig B) Monkey C) Dog D) Cat

E 279. Filariform larva that can penetrate through the skin:

A) Enterobius vermicularis D) A and B
B) Strongyloides stercoralis E) B and C
C) Hookworm

E 280. Finding the rhabditiform larva in the stool identifies this organism:
A) Hookworm D) Ascaris lumbricoides
B) Whipworm E) Strongyloides stercoralis
C) Pinworm

B 281. Eggs in the 2-8 cell stage of development often appear in the stool in infections with
A) Whipworm B) Hookworm C) Pinworm D) Large intestinal roundworm

C 282. The dog tapeworm that can be accidentally transmitted to humans:

A) Hymenolepsis nana B) Hymenolepsis diminuta C) Dipylidium caninum D) Taenia solium

C 283. The fish tapeworm that can be acquired by eating insufficiently cooked, infected fish:
A) Taenia solium C) Dipyllobotrium latum E) Echinococcus granulosus
B) Taenia saginata D) Dipylidium caninum

E 284. The adult form of this tapeworm has only four segments:
A) Taenia solium C) Dipyllobotrium latum E) Echinococcus granulosus
B) Taenia saginata D) Dipylidium caninum

C 285. The eggs of this worm are operculated:

A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum

B 286. Man is often infected by peeling water chestnuts with his teeth, which contain this organism:
A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski
C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis

A 287. This causes Egyptian hematuria:

A) Schistosoma hematobium C) Schistosoma japonicum
B) Schistosoma mansoni D) Fasciola hepatica

B 288. The eggs of this organism has a rudimentary lateral spine:

A) Schistosoma hematobium C) Schistosoma japonicum
B) Schistosoma mansoni D) Fasciola hepatica

D 289. This organism is acquired by eating infected raw fish:

A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski
C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis

C 290. This is also known as the Oriental ling fluke:

A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski
C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis

B 291. The presence of cryoglobulins in the serum of a patient may indicate that the patient has:
A) Anemia B) Circulating immune complexes
C) Hashimotos’s thyroiditis D) Pernicious anemia

B 292. The Coomb’s test is the most important laboratory method in the diagnosis of:
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A) Myasthenia gravis C) Waldenstrom’s macroglubilemia

B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia D) Rheumatoid arthritis

B 293. The most important antibody that plays a role in the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosus is:
A) Antibody thyroglobuin C) Antibody to mitochondria
B) Antibody to DNA D) Antibody to smooth muscle

C 294. In the syndrome of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:

A) Streptococcal nucleases and streptolysin accumulate in the glomerular basement membrane.
B) Streptococcal capsular antigen (hyaluronic acid) and glucoronic acid subunits precipitate with
antibody and are deposited in the glomeruli in lumpy patterns.
C) Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane.
D) Hematuria is due to the action of streptolysin O.

C 295. In group A beta hemolytic streptococci, the types are determined by the antigenic specificity of:
A) Capsule
B) Mucopeptide layer
C) M and/or T proteins
D) Extracellular products such as streptolysin O, which is produced only by group A streptococci

D 296. Congenital rubella can be diagnosed in a week-old infant by:

A) Demonstration of maternal IgM antibodies against rubella virus
B) Testing for HI antibodies specific for the virus in the infant’s serum
C) Demonstration of circulating IgG antibodies against rubella virus
D) Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant

D 297. Caesarian section has been found to eliminate neonatal complications due to which of the following
viruses?
A) Varicella-zoster B) Cytomegalovirus C) Poliovirus D) Herpes simplex virus

A 298. Dermatophytes that infect special keratinized areas of the body, skin and nails only are likely to belong
to genus:
A) Epidermophyton B) Trichophyton C) Microsporum D) Trichosporum

B 299. A hapten is a substance that:

A) Induces cellular immune response but not antibody production
B) Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response
when coupled to a larger molecule
C) Induces tolerance when given alone
D) When coupled to a larger molecule can be recognized by B lymphocytes but not T lymphocytes

B 300. Which of the following is a characteristic of the “positive strand” RNA virus?
A) The polymeranse contained in the virion is necessary in the replication.
B) The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA.
C) The virion RNA cannot be extracted in an infectious form.
D) Viral messenger RNA is complementary to the virion RNA.

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