Spectrum Management and Telecommunications 18 June, 2017

Basic Qualification Question Bank for

Amateur Radio Operator Certificate
Examinations
Foreword:
This question bank contains the questions that will be used effective the date printed on the
title page, for making Basic Qualification examinations for the Amateur Radio Operator
Certificate.
The correct choice of the four suggested answers appears in brackets following each
question identifier. i.e. B-001-001-001 (A)

While every reasonable effort has been made to ensure accuracy in this document, no
warranty is expressed or implied.

Candidates for amateur radio operator certificate examinations are encouraged to contact the
following amateur radio organizations for information on study material.

Radio Amateurs of Canada

720 Belfast Road, Suite 217
Ottawa, Ontario
K1G 0Z5
www.rac.ca

Radio Amateur du Québec inc.

4545 Pierre-de-Coubertin Avenue
C.P. 1000, Succursale M
Montréal, Quebec
H1V 3R2
www.raqi.qc.ca

Instructions for examiners are contained in Radiocommunication Information Circular RIC-1,

Guide for Examiners Accredited to Conduct Examinations for the Amateur Radio Operator
Certificate.

For additional information, please contact the Amateur Radio Service Centre:

Industry Canada
Amateur Radio Service Centre
2 Queen Street East
Sault Ste. Marie, ON
P6A 1Y3

E-mail address: spectrum.amateur@ic.gc.ca

Telephone: 1-888-780-3333 (Toll free)
Fax number: 1-705-941-4607
B-001-001-001 (D) B-001-002-002 (B)
Authority to make regulations governing An Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is
radiocommunications is derived from: valid for:
A the Radiocommunication Regulations A one year
B the Standards for the Operation of Radio B life
Stations in the Amateur Radio Service C five years
C the ITU Radio Regulations D three years
D the Radiocommunication Act
B-001-002-003 (A)
B-001-001-002 (C)
Whenever a change of address is made:
Authority to make "Standards for the
Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur A Industry Canada must be advised of any
Radio Service" is derived from: change in postal address
A the Standards for the Operation of Radio B Industry Canada must be notified within
Stations in the Amateur Radio Service 14 days of operation at the new address
B the ITU Radio Regulations C the station shall not be operated until a
change of address card is forwarded to
C the Radiocommunication Act
Industry Canada
D the Radiocommunication Regulations
D within the same province, there is no
need to notify Industry Canada
B-001-001-003 (A)
The Department that is responsible for the B-001-002-004 (A)
administration of the Radiocommunication The Amateur Radio Operator Certificate:
Act is:
A Industry Canada A must be retained at the station
B Transport Canada B must be put on file
C Communications Canada C must be kept in a safe place
D National Defence D must be kept on the person to whom it is
issued
B-001-001-004 (C)
B-001-002-005 (C)
The "amateur radio service" is defined in:
The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator
A the Standards for the Operation of Radio Certificate shall, at the request of a duly
Stations in the Amateur Radio Service appointed radio inspector, produce the
certificate, or a copy thereof, to the
B the FCC's Part 97 rules inspector, within ____ hours after the
C the Radiocommunication Regulations request:
D the Radiocommunication Act
A 24
B 72
B-001-002-001 (A)
C 48
What must you do to notify your mailing D 12
address changes?
A Contact Industry Canada and provide B-001-002-006 (C)
details of your address change
The fee for an Amateur Radio Operator
B Telephone your local club, and give them Certificate is:
your new address
C Contact an accredited examiner and A $10
provide details of your address change B $24
D Write amateur organizations advising C free
them of your new address, enclosing D $32
your certificate
B-001-002-007 (B) B-001-003-005 (B)
The Amateur Radio Operator Certificate Which of the following is not correct? The
should be: Minister may suspend an Amateur Radio
Operator Certificate:
A retained in the radio amateur's vehicle
B retained at the address provided to A Where the holder has failed to comply
Industry Canada with a request to pay fees or interest due
C retained in a safety deposit box B With no notice, or opportunity to make
representation thereto
D retained on the radio amateur's person
C Where the holder has contravened the
Radiocommunication Act, its
B-001-003-001 (D)
Regulations, or the terms and conditions
Out of amateur band transmissions: of the certificate
D Where the certificate was obtained
A must be identified with your call sign through misrepresentation
B are permitted
C are permitted for short tests only B-001-003-006 (C)
D are prohibited - penalties could be Which of the following statements is not
assessed to the control operator correct?
A In executing a warrant, a radio inspector
B-001-003-002 (C)
shall not use force, unless accompanied
If an amateur pretends there is an by a peace officer, and force is
emergency and transmits the word authorized
"MAYDAY," what is this called? B The person in charge of a place entered
A An emergency test transmission by a radio inspector shall give the
inspector information that the inspector
B Nothing special: "MAYDAY" has no requests
meaning in an emergency
C A radio inspector may enter a dwelling
C False or deceptive signals without the consent of the occupant and
D A traditional greeting in May without a warrant
D Where entry is refused, and is necessary
B-001-003-003 (D) to perform his duties under the Act, a
radio inspector may obtain a warrant
A person found guilty of transmitting a false
or fraudulent distress signal, or interfering
with, or obstructing any radio B-001-004-001 (A)
communication, without lawful cause, may What age must you be to hold an Amateur
be liable, on summary conviction, to a Radio Operator Certificate with Basic
penalty of: Qualification?
A a fine of $10 000 A There are no age limits
B a prison term of two years B 70 years or younger
C a fine of $1 000 C 18 years or older
D a fine, not exceeding $5 000, or a prison D 14 years or older
term of one year, or both
B-001-004-002 (A)
B-001-003-004 (D)
Which examination must be passed before
What government document states the an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is
offences and penalties for non compliance of issued?
the rules governing radiocommunications?
A Basic
A The Official Radio Rules of Canada
B Personality test
B The Radiocommunications Regulations
C Morse code
C The Radiocommunications Law Reform
D Advanced
Act of 2002
D The Radiocommunication Act
B-001-004-003 (D) B-001-004-007 (B)
Holders of which one of the following What conditions must candidates to
certificates may be issued an Amateur amateur radio certification meet?
Radio Operator Certificate?
A Be at least 14 years of age and a
A Canadian Restricted Operator Certificate Canadian citizen or permanent resident
- Maritime (ROC-M) B Have a valid address in Canada
B Canadian Restricted Operator's C Be a Canadian citizen
Certificate - Maritime Commercial (ROC- D Be a Canadian citizen or permanent
MC)
resident
C Canadian Restricted Operator Certificate
- Aeronautical (ROC-A) B-001-005-001 (B)
D Canadian Radiocommunication Operator
General Certificate Maritime (RGMC) Radio apparatus may be installed, placed in
operation, repaired or maintained by the
holder of an Amateur Radio Operator
B-001-004-004 (A)
Certificate with Advanced Qualification on
After an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate behalf of another person:
with Basic qualifications is issued, the
A if the transmitter of a station, for which a
holder may be examined for additional
radio authorization is to be applied for, is
qualifications in the following order:
type approved and crystal controlled
A any order B if the other person is the holder of an
B Morse code after passing the Advanced Amateur Radio Operator Certificate to
C Morse code after passing the Basic with operate in the amateur radio service
Honours C pending the granting of a radio
D Advanced after passing Morse code authorization, if the apparatus covers the
amateur and commercial frequency
bands
B-001-004-005 (A)
D pending the granting of an Amateur Radio
One Morse code qualification is available for Operator Certificate if the apparatus
the Amateur Radio Operator Certificate. It is: covers the amateur frequency bands only
A 5 w.p.m.
B-001-005-002 (D)
B 12 w.p.m.
C 7 w.p.m. The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator
Certificate may design and build from
D 15 w.p.m.
scratch transmitting equipment for use in the
amateur radio service provided that person
B-001-004-006 (B) has the:
The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator A Basic and Morse code qualification
Certificate with the Basic Qualification is
authorized to operate following stations:
B Morse code with Honours qualification
C Basic qualification
A any authorized station except stations
D Advanced qualification
authorized in the amateur, aeronautical or
maritime services
B a station authorized in the amateur
service
C a station authorized in the aeronautical
service
D a station authorized in the maritime
service
B-001-005-003 (D) B-001-006-003 (B)
Where a friend is not the holder of any type Which of the following statements is not
of radio operator certificate, you, as a holder correct?
of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate
A A radio amateur may not operate, or
with Basic Qualification, may, on behalf of
permit to be operated, a radio apparatus
your friend:
which he knows is not performing to the
A install an amateur station, but not Radiocommunication Regulations
operate or permit the operation of the B A radio amateur may use a linear
apparatus amplifier to amplify the output of a
B install and operate the radio apparatus, licence-exempt transmitter outside any
using your own call sign amateur radio allocations
C modify and repair the radio apparatus but C A considerate operator does not transmit
not install it unnecessary signals
D not install, place in operation, modify, D A courteous operator refrains from using
repair, maintain, or permit the operation offensive language
of the radio apparatus
B-001-006-004 (D)
B-001-005-004 (C)
Which of the following statements is not
A radio amateur with Basic and Morse code correct?
qualifications may install an amateur station
A Except for a certified radio amateur
for another person:
operating within authorized amateur radio
A only if the station is for use on one of the allocations, no person shall possess or
VHF bands operate any device for the purpose of
B only if the DC power input to the final amplifying the output power of a licence-
stage does not exceed 200 watts exempt radio apparatus
C only if the other person is the holder of a B A person may operate or permit the
valid Amateur Radio Operator Certificate operation of radio apparatus only where
the apparatus is maintained to the
D only if the final power input does not
Radiocommunication Regulations
exceed 100 watts
tolerances
B-001-006-001 (A)
C A person may operate an amateur radio
station when the person complies with
An amateur radio station with a maximum the Standards for the Operation of Radio
input power to the final stage of 2 watts: Stations in the Amateur Radio Service
A must be operated by a person with an D An amateur radio operator transmitting
Amateur Certificate and call sign unnecessary or offensive signals does
not violate accepted practice
B must be licensed by Industry Canada
C need not be licensed in isolated areas B-001-006-005 (A)
only
D is exempt from regulatory control by Which of the following statements is not
Industry Canada correct? A person may operate radio
apparatus, authorized in the amateur
service:
B-001-006-002 (D)
A on aeronautical, marine or land mobile
An amateur station may be used to
frequencies
communicate with:
B only where the person complies with the
A any stations which are identified for Standards for the Operation of Radio
special contests Stations in the Amateur Radio Service
B armed forces stations during special C only where the apparatus is maintained
contests and training exercises within the performance standards set by
C any station transmitting in the amateur Industry Canada regulations and policies
bands D except for the amplification of the output
D stations operated under similar power of licence-exempt radio apparatus
authorizations operating outside authorized amateur
radio service allocations
B-001-006-006 (C) B-001-007-004 (D)
Some VHF and UHF FM radios purchased Which of the following one-way
for use in the amateur service can also be communications may not be transmitted in
programmed to communicate on frequencies the amateur service?
used for the land mobile service. Under what
A Radio control commands to model craft
conditions is this permissible?
B Brief transmissions to make adjustments
A The equipment has a RF power output of to the station
2 watts or less
C Morse code practice
B The equipment is used in remote areas D Broadcasts intended for the general
north of 60 degrees latitude
public
C The radio is certified under the proper
Radio Standard Specification for use in B-001-007-005 (A)
Canada and licensed by Industry Canada
on the specified frequencies You wish to develop and use a new digital
D The radio operator has a Restricted encoding technique to transmit data over
Operator's Certificate amateur radio spectrum. Under what
conditions is this permissible?
B-001-007-001 (D) A When the encoding technique is
published in the public domain
Which of the following cannot be discussed
on an amateur club net? B When it is used for music streaming
content
A Recreation planning
C When it is used for commercial traffic
B Code practice planning D When it includes sending the amateur
C Emergency planning station's call sign
D Business planning
B-001-007-006 (B)
B-001-007-002 (B) When may an amateur station in two-way
When is a radio amateur allowed to communication transmit an encoded
broadcast information to the general public? message?
A Only when broadcasts last longer than 15 A When transmitting above 450 MHz
minutes B Only when the encoding or cipher is not
B Never secret
C Only when the operator is being paid C During a declared communications
D Only when broadcasts last less than 1 emergency
hour D During contests

B-001-007-003 (B) B-001-007-007 (B)

When may false or deceptive amateur What are the restrictions on the use of
signals or communications be transmitted? abbreviations or procedural signals in the
amateur service?
A When you need to hide the meaning of a
message for secrecy A Only "10 codes" are permitted
B Never B They may be used if the signals or codes
C When operating a beacon transmitter in a are not secret
"fox hunt" exercise C There are no restrictions
D When playing a harmless "practical joke" D They are not permitted because they
obscure the meaning of a message to
government monitoring stations
B-001-007-008 (C) B-001-008-001 (C)
What should you do to keep you station Where may the holder of an Amateur Radio
from retransmitting music or signals from a Operator Certificate operate an amateur
non-amateur station? radio station in Canada?
A Speak closer to the microphone to A Only at the address shown on Industry
increase your signal strength Canada records
B Adjust your transceiver noise blanker B Anywhere in your call sign prefix area
C Turn down the volume of background C Anywhere in Canada
audio D Anywhere in Canada during times of
D Turn up the volume of your transmitter emergency

B-001-007-009 (A) B-001-008-002 (C)

The transmission of a secret code by the Which type of station may transmit one-way
operator of an amateur station: communications?
A is not permitted A HF station
B is permitted for contests B VHF station
C must be approved by Industry Canada C Beacon station
D is permitted for third-party traffic D Repeater station

B-001-007-010 (C) B-001-008-003 (A)

A radio amateur may be engaged in Amateur radio operators may install or
communication which include the operate radio apparatus:
transmission of: A at any location in Canada
A radiocommunication in support of B only at the address which is on record at
industrial, business, or professional Industry Canada
activities C at the address which is on record at
B commercially recorded material Industry Canada and at one other
C Q signals location
D programming that originates from a D at the address which is on record at
broadcasting undertaking Industry Canada and in two mobiles

B-001-007-011 (D) B-001-008-004 (C)

In the amateur radio service, business In order to install any radio apparatus, to be
communications: used specifically for receiving and
automatically retransmitting radiotelephone
A are permitted on some bands communications within the same frequency
B are only permitted if they are for the band, a radio amateur must hold an Amateur
safety of life or immediate protection of Radio Operator Certificate, with a minimum
property of:
C are not prohibited by regulation A Basic qualification
D are not permitted under any B Basic with Honours qualification
circumstance
C Basic and Advanced qualifications
D Basic and Morse code qualifications
B-001-008-005 (D) B-001-009-003 (B)
In order to install any radio apparatus, to be What is your responsibility as a station
used specifically for an amateur radio club owner?
station, the radio amateur must hold an
A You must notify Industry Canada if
Amateur Radio Operator Certificate, with a
another amateur acts as the control
minimum of the following qualifications:
operator
A Basic, Advanced and Morse code B You are responsible for the proper
B Basic operation of the station in accordance
C Basic with Honours with the regulations
D Basic and Advanced C You must allow another amateur to
operate your station upon request
B-001-008-006 (C) D You must be present whenever the
station is operated
In order to install or operate a transmitter or
RF amplifier that is neither professionally B-001-009-004 (C)
designed nor commercially manufactured for
use in the amateur service, a radio amateur Who may be the control operator of an
must hold an Amateur Operator's Certificate, amateur station?
with a minimum of which qualifications? A Any person over 21 years of age with
A Basic and Morse code Basic and Morse code qualifications
B Basic, Advanced and Morse code B Any person over 21 years of age
C Basic and Advanced C Any qualified amateur chosen by the
D Basic with Honours station owner
D Any person over 21 years of age with a
Basic Qualification
B-001-009-001 (B)
Who is responsible for the proper operation B-001-009-005 (B)
of an amateur station?
When must an amateur station have a
A Only the control operator control operator?
B Both the control operator and the station A Only when training another amateur
owner
B Whenever the station is transmitting
C Only the station owner who is the holder
of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate C A control operator is not needed
D The person who owns the station D Whenever the station receiver is operated
equipment
B-001-009-006 (A)
B-001-009-002 (A) When an amateur station is transmitting,
If you transmit from another amateur's where must its control operator be?
station, who is responsible for its proper A At the station's control point
operation?
B Anywhere in the same building as the
A Both of you transmitter
B You C At the station's entrance, to control entry
C The station owner, unless the station to the room
records show that you were the control D Anywhere within 50 km of the station
operator at the time location
D The station owner
B-001-009-007 (C) B-001-010-002 (D)
Why can't family members without When may you deliberately interfere with
qualifications transmit using your amateur another station's communications?
station if they are alone with your
A Only if the station is operating illegally
equipment?
B Only if the station begins transmitting on
A They must first know how to use the right a frequency you are using
abbreviations and Q signals
C You may expect, and cause, deliberate
B They must first know the right interference because it can't be helped
frequencies and emission modes for during crowded band conditions
transmitting D Never
C They must hold suitable amateur radio
qualifications before they are allowed to
B-001-010-003 (C)
be control operators
D They must not use your equipment If the regulations say that the amateur
without your permission service is a secondary user of a frequency
band, and another service is a primary user,
B-001-009-008 (C) what does this mean?

The owner of an amateur station may: A Amateurs are only allowed to use the
frequency band during emergencies
A permit anyone to use the station without B Amateurs must increase transmitter
restrictions power to overcome any interference
B permit anyone to use the station and caused by primary users
take part in communications C Amateurs are allowed to use the
C permit any person to operate the station frequency band only if they do not cause
under the supervision and in the presence interference to primary users
of the holder of the amateur operator D Nothing special: all users of a frequency
certificate band have equal rights to operate
D permit anyone to take part in
communications only if prior written B-001-010-004 (C)
permission is received from Industry What rule applies if two amateurs want to
Canada use the same frequency?

B-001-009-009 (B) A The station operator with a lower power

output must yield the frequency to the
Which of the following statements is station with a higher power output
correct?
B Station operators in ITU Regions 1 and 3
A Any person may operate a station in the must yield the frequency to stations in
amateur radio service ITU Region 2
B Any person may operate an amateur C Both station operators have an equal right
station under supervision, and in the to operate on the frequency
presence of, a person holding appropriate D The station operator with a lesser
qualifications qualification must yield the frequency to
C A person, holding only Basic an operator of higher qualification
Qualification, may operate another
station on 14.2 MHz B-001-010-005 (C)
D Radio amateurs may permit any person What name is given to a form of interference
to operate the station without supervision that seriously degrades, obstructs or
repeatedly interrupts a radiocommunication
B-001-010-001 (C) service?
What is a transmission called that disturbs A Adjacent interference
other communications?
B Disruptive interference
A Transponder signals C Harmful interference
B Unidentified transmissions D Intentional interference
C Harmful interference
D Interrupted CW
B-001-010-006 (D) B-001-010-010 (C)
Where interference to the reception of Which of these amateur bands may be
radiocommunications is caused by the heavily occupied by licence exempt
operation of an amateur station: devices?
A the amateur station operator is not A 430 to 450 MHz
obligated to take any action B 135.7 to 137.8 kHz
B the amateur station operator may C 902 to 928 MHz
continue to operate without restrictions D 3.5 to 4.0 MHz
C the amateur station operator may
continue to operate and the necessary
B-001-010-011 (A)
steps can be taken when the amateur
operator can afford it The amateur radio service is authorized to
D the Minister may require that the share a portion of what Industrial Scientific
necessary steps for the prevention of the Medical (ISM) band that is heavily used by
interference be taken by the radio licence exempt devices?
amateur A 2300 to 2450 MHz
B 430 to 450 MHz
B-001-010-007 (C)
C 144 to 148 MHz
Radio amateur operation must not cause D 1240 to 1300 MHz
interference to other radio services operating
in which of the following bands?
B-001-011-001 (A)
A 144.0 to 148.0 MHz
Amateur radio stations may communicate:
B 14.0 to 14.2 MHz
C 430.0 to 450.0 MHz A only with other amateur stations
D 7.0 to 7.1 MHz B with anyone who uses international
Morse code
B-001-010-008 (B) C with non amateur stations
Radio amateur operations are not ARE NOT D with any station involved in a real or
protected from interference caused by simulated emergency
another service operating in which of the
following frequency bands? B-001-011-002 (A)
A 50 to 54 MHz During relief operations in the days following
B 902 to 928 MHz a disaster, when may an amateur use his
equipment to communicate on frequencies
C 144 to 148 MHz
outside amateur bands?
D 222 to 225 MHz
A Never
B-001-010-009 (C) B When relaying messages on behalf of
government agencies
Which of the following is not correct? The
operator of an amateur station:
C When messages are destined to
agencies without amateur radio support
A may conduct technical experiments D When normal communication systems
using the station apparatus are overloaded, damaged or disrupted
B may make trials or tests, except if there
is a possibility of interference to other
stations
C may make trials or tests, even though
there is a possibility of interfering with
other stations
D shall not cause harmful interference to a
station in another service which has
primary use of that band
B-001-011-003 (C) B-001-011-007 (B)
If you hear an unanswered distress signal on During an emergency, what power output
an amateur band where you do not have limitations must be observed by a station in
privileges to communicate: distress?
A you may offer assistance after contacting A 200 watts PEP
Industry Canada for permission to do so B There are no limitations for a station in
B you may not offer assistance distress
C you should offer assistance C 1000 watts PEP during daylight hours,
D you may offer assistance using reduced to 200 watts PEP during the
international Morse code only night
D 1500 watts PEP
B-001-011-004 (A)
In the amateur radio service, it is permissible B-001-011-008 (A)
to broadcast: During a disaster:
A radio communications required for the
immediate safety of life of individuals or
A most communications are handled by
the immediate protection of property nets using predetermined frequencies in
amateur bands. Operators not directly
B music involved with disaster communications
C commercially recorded material are requested to avoid making
D programming that originates from a unnecessary transmissions on or near
broadcast undertaking frequencies being used for disaster
communications
B-001-011-005 (D) B use only frequencies in the 80 metre
band
An amateur radio station in distress may:
C use only frequencies in the 40 metre
A only use radiocommunication bands for band
which the operator is qualified to use D use any United Nations approved
frequency
B use any means of radiocommunication,
but only on internationally recognized
emergency channels B-001-011-009 (C)
C only Morse code communications on Messages from recognized public service
internationally recognized emergency agencies may be handled by amateur radio
channels stations:
D any means of radiocommunication A when Industry Canada has issued a
special authorization
B-001-011-006 (D) B only on the 7 and 14 MHz bands
During a disaster, when may an amateur C during peace time and civil emergencies
station make transmissions necessary to and exercises
meet essential communication needs and D using Morse code only
assist relief operations?
A Never: only official emergency stations B-001-011-010 (D)
may transmit in a disaster
It is permissible to interfere with the working
B When normal communication systems of another station if:
are working but are not convenient
A the other station is not operating
C Only when the local emergency net is
according to the Radiocommunication
activated
Regulations
D When normal communication systems
are overloaded, damaged or disrupted B you both wish to contact the same
station
C the other station is interfering with your
transmission
D your station is directly involved with a
distress situation
B-001-012-001 (B) B-001-012-004 (A)
What kind of payment is allowed for third- Which of the following is not an exception
party messages sent by an amateur from the penalties under the Act, for
station? divulging, intercepting or using information
obtained through radiocommunication, other
A Any amount agreed upon in advance
than broadcasting?
B No payment of any kind is allowed
A Where it is to provide information for a
C Donation of amateur equipment
journalist
D Donation of equipment repairs
B Where it is for the purpose of preserving
or protecting property, or for the
B-001-012-002 (B) prevention of harm to a person
Radiocommunications transmitted by C Where it is for the purpose of giving
stations other than a broadcasting station evidence in a criminal or civil proceeding
may be divulged or used: in which persons are required to give
evidence
A during peacetime civil emergencies
D Where it is on behalf of Canada, for the
B if it is transmitted by an amateur station purpose of international or national
C if transmitted by any station using the defence or security
international Morse code
D if transmitted in English or French B-001-013-001 (B)
Which of the following call signs is a valid
B-001-012-003 (C) Canadian amateur radio call sign?
The operator of an amateur station: A KA9OLS
B VA3XYZ
A shall charge no more than $10 for each
message that the person transmits or C SM2CAN
receives D BY7HY
B may accept a gift or gratuity in lieu of
remuneration for any message that the B-001-013-002 (C)
person transmits or receives
How often must an amateur station be
C shall not demand or accept remuneration identified?
in any form, in respect of a
radiocommunication that the person A At least once during each transmission
transmits or receives B At the beginning and end of each
D shall charge no less than $10 for each transmission
message that the person transmits or C At least every thirty minutes, and at the
receives beginning and at the end of a contact
D At the beginning of a contact and at least
every thirty minutes after that

B-001-013-003 (C)
What do you transmit to identify your
amateur station?
A Your first name and your location
B Your full name
C Your call sign
D Your "handle"
B-001-013-004 (D) B-001-013-008 (D)
What identification, if any, is required when What language may you use when
two amateur stations begin identifying your station?
communications?
A Any language being used for a contact
A No identification is required B Any language being used for a contact,
B Both stations must transmit both call providing Canada has a third-party
signs communications agreement with that
C One of the stations must give both country
stations' call signs C Any language of a country which is a
D Each station must transmit its own call member of the International
sign Telecommunication Union
D English or French
B-001-013-005 (D)
What identification, if any, is required when B-001-013-009 (B)
two amateur stations end communications? The call sign of an amateur station must be
transmitted:
A No identification is required
B One of the stations must transmit both A when requested to do so by the station
stations' call signs being called
C Both stations must transmit both call B at the beginning and at the end of each
signs exchange of communications and at
D Each station must transmit its own call intervals not greater than 30 minutes
sign C at intervals not greater than three minutes
when using voice communications
B-001-013-006 (D) D at intervals not greater than ten minutes
when using Morse code
What is the longest period of time an
amateur station can transmit, without
identifying by call sign? B-001-013-010 (D)
The call sign of an amateur station must be
A 20 minutes
sent:
B 15 minutes
A every minute
C 10 minutes
D 30 minutes B every 15 minutes
C once after initial contact
B-001-013-007 (C) D at the beginning and end of each
exchange of communications, and at
When may an amateur transmit unidentified least every 30 minutes, while in
communications? communications
A Only if it does not interfere with others
B Only for two-way or third-party B-001-013-011 (B)
communications The call sign of a Canadian amateur radio
C Never, except to control a model craft station would normally start with the letters:
D Only for brief tests not meant as A EA, EI, RO or UY
messages
B VA, VE, VO or VY
C GA, GE, MO or VQ
D A, K, N or W
B-001-014-001 (C) B-001-014-004 (D)
If a non-amateur friend is using your station A person operating a Canadian amateur
to talk to someone in Canada, and a foreign station is forbidden to communicate with
station breaks in to talk to your friend, what amateur stations of another country:
should you do?
A without written permission from Industry
A Report the incident to the foreign Canada
amateur's government B until he has properly identified his station
B Stop all discussions and quickly sign off C unless he is passing third-party traffic
C Have your friend wait until you determine D when that country has notified the
from the foreign station if their International Telecommunication Union
administration permits third-party traffic that it objects to such communications
D Since you can talk to foreign amateurs,
your friend may keep talking as long as B-001-014-005 (C)
you are the control operator
International communications on behalf of
third parties may be transmitted by an
B-001-014-002 (A)
amateur station only if:
If you let an unqualified third party use your
A the countries for which the traffic is
amateur station, what must you do at your
intended have registered their consent to
station's control point?
such communications with the ITU
A You must continuously monitor and B radiotelegraphy is used
supervise the third party's participation
C the countries concerned have authorized
B You must key the transmitter and make such communications
the station identification D English or French is used to identify the
C You must monitor and supervise the station at the end of each transmission
communication only if contacts are made
on frequencies below 30 MHz B-001-014-006 (D)
D You must monitor and supervise the
communication only if contacts are made Amateur third party communications is:
in countries which have no third party
communications A the transmission of commercial or secret
messages
B-001-014-003 (C) B a simultaneous communication between
three operators
Radio amateurs may use their stations to
transmit international communications on
C none of these answers
behalf of a third party only if: D the transmission of non-commercial or
personal messages to or on behalf of a
A the communication is transmitted by third party
secret code
B prior remuneration has been received B-001-014-007 (C)
C such communications have been International third party amateur radio
authorized by the other country communication in case of emergencies or
concerned disaster relief is expressly permitted unless:
D the amateur station has received written
authorization from Industry Canada to A the foreign administration is in a declared
pass third party traffic state of war
B internet service is working well in the
foreign country involved
C specifically prohibited by the foreign
administration concerned
D satellite communication can be originated
in the disaster area
B-001-014-008 (A) B-001-014-011 (C)
One of the following is not considered to be Which of the following statements is not
communications on behalf of a third party, correct? A Canadian radio amateur may, on
even though the message is originated by, amateur frequencies,:
or addressed to, a non-amateur:
A pass messages originating from or
A messages originated from Canadian destined to the Canadian Forces Affiliate
Forces Affiliate Radio Service (CFARS) Radio Service (CFARS)
B messages that are handled within a local B communicate with a similar station of a
network country which has not notified ITU that it
C messages addressed to points within objects to such communications
Canada C pass third-party traffic with all duly
D all messages received from Canadian licensed amateur stations in any country
stations which is a member of the ITU
D pass messages originating from or
B-001-014-009 (D) destined to the United States Military
Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)
One of the following is not considered to be
communications on behalf of a third party,
B-001-015-001 (D)
even though the message may be originated
by, or addressed to, a non-amateur: If you let another amateur with additional
qualifications than yours control your
A all messages originated by Canadian
station, what operating privileges are
amateur stations
allowed?
B messages addressed to points within
Canada from the United States A Any privileges allowed by the additional
qualifications
C messages that are handled within local
networks during a simulated emergency B All the emission privileges of the
exercise additional qualifications, but only the
frequency privileges of your qualifications
D messages that originate from the United
States Military Auxiliary Radio System C All the frequency privileges of the
(MARS) additional qualifications, but only the
emission privileges of your qualifications
B-001-014-010 (A) D Only the privileges allowed by your
qualifications
Which of the following is not correct? While
operating in Canada a radio amateur
B-001-015-002 (C)
licensed by the Government of the United
States must: If you are the control operator at the station
of another amateur who has additional
A obtain a Canadian amateur certificate
qualifications to yours, what operating
before operating in Canada
privileges are you allowed?
B add to his call sign the Canadian call
sign prefix for the geographic location of A All the emission privileges of the
the station additional qualifications, but only the
frequency privileges of your qualifications
C qualify his identification when operating
phone by adding to the call sign the word B All the frequency privileges of the
"mobile" or "portable" or when operating additional qualifications, but only the
Morse code by adding a slash "/" emission privileges of your qualifications
D identify with the call sign assigned by the C Only the privileges allowed by your
FCC qualifications
D Any privileges allowed by the additional
qualifications
B-001-015-003 (C) B-001-015-008 (A)
In addition to passing the Basic written In Canada, the 20 meter amateur band
examination, what must you do before you corresponds in frequency to:
are allowed to use amateur frequencies
A 14.000 to 14.350 MHz
below 30 MHz?
B 13.500 to 14.000 MHz
A You must pass a Morse code test
C 15.000 to 15.750 MHz
B You must attend a class to learn about D 16.350 to 16.830 MHz
HF communications
C You must pass a Morse code or
B-001-015-009 (A)
Advanced test or attain a mark of 80% on
the Basic exam In Canada, the 15 metre amateur band
D You must notify Industry Canada that you corresponds in frequency to:
intend to operate on the HF bands A 21.000 to 21.450 MHz
B 18.068 to 18.168 MHz
B-001-015-004 (A)
C 14.000 to 14.350 MHz
The holder of an amateur radio certificate D 28.000 to 29.700 MHz
may operate radio controlled models:
A on all frequencies above 30 MHz B-001-015-010 (A)
B if the control transmitter does not exceed In Canada, the 10 metre amateur band
15 kHz of occupied bandwidth corresponds in frequency to:
C if the frequency used is below 30 MHz
A 28.000 to 29.700 MHz
D if only pulse modulation is used
B 24.890 to 24.990 MHz
B-001-015-005 (D) C 21.000 to 21.450 MHz
D 50.000 to 54.000 MHz
In Canada, the 75/80 metre amateur band
corresponds in frequency to:
B-001-015-011 (D)
A 3.0 to 3.5 MHz
In Canada, radio amateurs may use which of
B 4.0 to 4.5 MHz the following for radio control of models:
C 4.5 to 5.0 MHz
A 50 to 54 MHz only
D 3.5 to 4.0 MHz
B all amateur frequency bands
B-001-015-006 (D) C 50 to 54, 144 to 148, and 222 to 225
MHz only
In Canada, the 160 metre amateur band D all amateur frequency bands above 30
corresponds in frequency to:
MHz
A 1.5 to 2.0 MHz
B 2.0 to 2.25 MHz B-001-016-001 (A)
C 2.25 to 2.5 MHz What is the maximum authorized bandwidth
D 1.8 to 2.0 MHz within the frequency range of 50 to 148
MHz?
B-001-015-007 (C) A 30 kHz
In Canada, the 40 metre amateur band B 20 kHz
corresponds in frequency to: C The total bandwidth shall not exceed that
of a single-sideband phone emission
A 6.0 to 6.3 MHz
D The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10
B 7.7 to 8.0 MHz
times that of a CW emission
C 7.0 to 7.3 MHz
D 6.5 to 6.8 MHz
B-001-016-002 (B) B-001-016-007 (B)
The maximum bandwidth of an amateur Single sideband is not permitted in the band:
station's transmission allowed in the band
28 to 29.7 MHz is: A 7.0 to 7.3 MHz
A 15 kHz B 10.1 to 10.15 MHz
B 20 kHz C 18.068 to 18.168 MHz
C 6 kHz D 24.89 to 24.99 MHz
D 30 kHz
B-001-016-008 (C)
B-001-016-003 (B) What precaution must an amateur radio
operator take when transmitting near band
Except for one band, the maximum
edges?
bandwidth of an amateur station's
transmission allowed between 7 and 28 MHz A Make sure that the emission mode is
is: compatible with agreed band plans
A 30 kHz B Watch the standing wave ratio so as not
to damage the transmitter
B 6 kHz
C Ensure that the bandwidth required on
C 15 kHz
either side of the carrier frequency does
D 20 kHz not fall out of band
D Restrict operation to telegraphy
B-001-016-004 (C)
The maximum bandwidth of an amateur B-001-016-009 (B)
station's transmission allowed in the band
Which of the following answers is not
144 to 148 MHz is:
correct? Based on the bandwidth required,
A 20 kHz the following modes may be transmitted on
B 15 kHz these frequencies:
C 30 kHz A fast-scan television (ATV) on 440 MHz
D 6 kHz B fast-scan television (ATV) on 145 MHz
C AMTOR on 14.08 MHz
B-001-016-005 (A) D 300 bps packet on 10.145 MHz
The maximum bandwidth of an amateur
station's transmission allowed in the band B-001-016-010 (D)
50 to 54 MHz is:
Which of the following answers is not
A 30 kHz correct? Based on the bandwidth required,
B 20 kHz the following modes may be transmitted on
these frequencies:
C 6 kHz
D 15 kHz A slow-scan television (SSTV) on 14.23
MHz
B-001-016-006 (C) B frequency modulation (FM) on 29.6 MHz
C single-sideband (SSB) on 3.76 MHz
Which of the following bands of amateur
frequencies has a maximum allowed D fast-scan television (ATV) on 14.23 MHz
bandwidth of less than 6 kHz. That band is:
A 24.89 to 24.99 MHz
B 1.8 to 2.0 MHz
C 10.1 to 10.15 MHz
D 18.068 to 18.168 MHz
B-001-016-011 (C) B-001-017-005 (C)
Which of the following answers is not What is the maximum transmitting power an
correct? Based on the bandwidth required, amateur station may use for SSB operation
the following modes may be transmitted on on 7055 kHz, if the operator has Basic with
these frequencies: Honours qualifications?
A Morse radiotelegraphy (CW) on 10.11 A 2000 watts PEP output
MHz B 200 watts PEP output
B 300 bps packet on 10.148 MHz C 560 watts PEP output
C single-sideband (SSB) on 10.12 MHz D 1000 watts PEP output
D frequency modulation (FM) on 29.6 MHz
B-001-017-006 (D)
B-001-017-001 (B)
The DC power input to the anode or collector
What amount of transmitter power should circuit of the final RF stage of a transmitter,
radio amateurs use at all times? used by a holder of an Amateur Radio
Operator Certificate with Advanced
A 2000 watts PEP output
Qualification, shall not exceed:
B The minimum legal power necessary to
communicate A 250 watts
C 25 watts PEP output B 500 watts
D 250 watts PEP output C 750 watts
D 1000 watts
B-001-017-002 (B)
B-001-017-007 (A)
What is the most FM transmitter power a
holder of only Basic Qualification may use The maximum DC input to the final stage of
on 147 MHz? an amateur transmitter, when the operator is
the holder of both the Basic and Advanced
A 25 watts PEP output
qualifications, is:
B 250 W DC input
A 1000 watts
C 1000 watts DC input
B 250 watts
D 200 watts PEP output
C 1500 watts
B-001-017-003 (B) D 500 watts

Where in your station can you verify that

B-001-017-008 (A)
legal power limits are respected?
The operator of an amateur station, who is
A At the power supply terminals inside the
the holder of a Basic Qualification, shall
transmitter or amplifier
ensure that the station power, when
B At the antenna connector of the expressed as RF output power measured
transmitter or amplifier across an impedance matched load, does
C At the power amplifier RF input terminals not exceed:
inside the transmitter or amplifier A 560 watts peak-envelope power, for
D On the antenna itself, after the transmitters producing any type of single
transmission line sideband emission
B 2500 watts peak power
B-001-017-004 (A)
C 1000 watts carrier power for transmitters
What is the maximum transmitting output producing other emissions
power an amateur station may use on 3750 D 150 watts peak power
kHz, if the operator has Basic and Morse
code qualifications?
A 560 watts PEP output for SSB operation
B 1000 watts PEP output for SSB operation
C 1500 watts PEP output for SSB operation
D 2000 watts PEP output for SSB operation
B-001-017-009 (D) B-001-018-003 (A)
The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Radiotelephone signals in a frequency band
Certificate with Basic Qualification is limited below ____ MHz cannot be automatically
to a maximum of _______ watts when retransmitted, unless these signals are
expressed as direct current input power to received from a station operated by a person
the anode or collector circuit of the qualified to transmit on frequencies below
transmitter stage supplying radio frequency the above frequency:
energy to the antenna:
A 29.5 MHz
A 1000 B 29.7 MHz
B 750 C 50 MHz
C 100 D 144 MHz
D 250
B-001-018-004 (B)
B-001-017-010 (A)
Which of the following statements is not
Which of the following is the most powerful correct? Radiotelephone signals may be
equipment the holder of a Basic with retransmitted:
Honours certificate can legally operate at full
A in the 144-148 MHz frequency band,
power?
when received from a station operated by
A 160 watts carrier power VHF amplifier a person with only Basic Qualification
B 100 watts carrier power HF transmitter B in the 21 MHz band, when received in a
C 200 watts carrier power HF transceiver VHF band, from a station operated by a
person with only Basic Qualification
D 600 watts PEP HF linear amplifier
C in the 29.5-29.7 MHz band, when
received in a VHF band, from a station
B-001-018-001 (C)
operated by a person with only Basic
What kind of amateur station automatically Qualification
retransmits the signals of other stations? D in the 50-54 MHz frequency band, when
A Remote-control station received from a station operated by a
person with only Basic Qualification
B Beacon station
C Repeater station B-001-019-001 (D)
D Space station control and telemetry link
When operating on frequencies below 148
MHz:
B-001-018-002 (C)
A the bandwidth for any emission must not
An unmodulated carrier may be transmitted exceed 3 kHz
only:
B the frequency stability of the transmitter
A when transmitting SSB must be at least two parts per million
B in frequency bands below 30 MHz over a period of one hour
C for brief tests on frequencies below 30 C an overmodulation indicator must be used
MHz D the frequency stability must be
D if the output to the final RF amplifier is comparable to crystal control
kept under 5W
B-001-019-002 (A)
A reliable means to prevent or indicate
overmodulation must be employed at an
amateur station if:
A radiotelephony is used
B DC input power to the anode or collector
circuit of the final RF stage is in excess
of 250 watts
C radiotelegraphy is used
D persons other than the holder of the
authorization use the station
B-001-019-003 (D) B-001-020-002 (A)
An amateur station using radiotelephony The operator of an amateur station shall
must install a device for indicating or ensure that:
preventing:
A communications are limited to messages
A resonance of a technical or personal nature
B antenna power B communications are exchanged only with
C plate voltage commercial stations
D overmodulation C all communications are conducted in
secret code
B-001-019-004 (D) D charges are properly applied to all third-
party communications
The maximum percentage of modulation
permitted in the use of radiotelephony by an B-001-020-003 (D)
amateur station is:
Which of the following is not a provision of
A 75 percent the ITU Radio Regulations which apply to
B 50 percent Canadian radio amateurs?
C 90 percent A It is forbidden to transmit international
D 100 percent messages on behalf of third parties,
unless those countries make special
B-001-019-005 (D) arrangements

All amateur stations, regardless of the mode

B Radiocommunications between countries
of transmission used, must be equipped shall be forbidden, if the administration of
with: one of the countries objects
C Administrations shall take such
A a DC power meter measures as they judge necessary to
B an overmodulation indicating device verify the operational and technical
C a dummy antenna qualifications of amateurs
D a reliable means of determining the D Transmissions between countries shall
operating radio frequency not include any messages of a technical
nature, or remarks of a personal
character
B-001-019-006 (A)
The maximum percentage of modulation B-001-020-004 (D)
permitted in the use of radiotelephony by an
amateur station is: The ITU Radio Regulations limit those radio
amateurs, who have not demonstrated
A 100 percent proficiency in Morse code, to frequencies
B 90 percent above:
C 75 percent A 1.8 MHz
D 50 percent B 3.5MHz
C 28 MHz
B-001-020-001 (A) D none of the other answers
What type of messages may be transmitted
to an amateur station in a foreign country? B-001-020-005 (B)
A Messages of a technical nature or In addition to complying with the
personal remarks of relative unimportance Radiocommunication Act and Regulations,
B Messages of any type, if the foreign Canadian radio amateurs must also comply
country allows third-party with the regulations of the:
communications with Canada A International Amateur Radio Union
C Messages that are not religious, political,
B International Telecommunication Union
or patriotic in nature
C American Radio Relay League
D Messages of any type
D Radio Amateurs of Canada Inc.
B-001-021-001 (A) B-001-022-001 (A)
In which International Telecommunication Which of these statements is not correct?
Union Region is Canada?
A The fee for taking an examination for an
A Region 2
Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an
B Region 4 Industry Canada office is $5 per
C Region 3 qualification
D Region 1 B An accredited examiner may recover the
cost of administering an examination
B-001-021-002 (D) C An accredited volunteer examiner must
hold an Amateur Radio Operator
A Canadian radio amateur, operating his
Certificate with Basic, Advanced, and
station in the state of Florida, is subject to
Morse code qualifications
which frequency band limits?
D The fee for taking an examination for an
A ITU Region 2 Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an
B ITU Region 3 Industry Canada office is $20 per
qualification
C ITU Region 1
D Those applicable to US radio amateurs
B-001-022-002 (A)

B-001-021-003 (B) Which of the following statements is not

correct?
A Canadian radio amateur, operating his
station 7 kilometres (4 miles) offshore from A A disabled candidate must pass a normal
the coast of Florida, is subject to which amateur radio certificate examination
frequency band limits? before being granted any qualification
B A disabled candidate, taking a Morse
A ITU Region 2
code sending test, may be allowed to
B Those applicable to US radio amateurs recite the examination text in Morse code
C Those applicable to Canadian radio sounds
amateurs C Examinations for disabled candidates
D ITU Region 1 may be given orally, or tailored to the
candidate's ability to complete the
B-001-021-004 (D) examination
D An accredited examiner may recover the
Australia, Japan, and Southeast Asia are in cost of administering an examination.
which ITU Region?
A Region 1 B-001-022-003 (D)
B Region 2 The fee for taking examinations for amateur
C Region 4 radio operator certificates by an accredited
D Region 3 volunteer examiner is:
A always $20 per qualification
B-001-021-005 (C) B always free of charge
Canada is located in ITU Region: C always $20 per visit regardless of the
number of examinations
A Region 3 D to be negotiated between examiner and
B Region 4 candidate
C Region 2
D Region 1
B-001-022-004 (D) B-001-023-003 (D)
The fee for taking amateur radio certificate If you are planning to install or modify an
examinations at an Industry Canada office antenna system under what conditions may
is: you not be required to contact land use
authorities to determine public consultation
A $20 per visit, regardless of the number of
requirements?
qualification examinations
B no charge for qualification examinations A In a rural area
C $5 per qualification examination B When the structure is part of an amateur
radio antenna
D $20 per qualification
C When transmitting will only be done at
low power
B-001-022-005 (C)
D When an exclusion criterion defined by
Which of the following statements is false? Industry Canada applies

A A candidate who fails a written B-001-023-004 (A)

examination due to not usually speaking
English or French may be given an oral The land use authority has not established a
examination process for public consultation for antenna
systems. The radio amateur planning to
B An examiner may request medical
install or modify an antenna system:
evidence from a practicing medical
physician before accommodating testing A must fulfill the public consultation
C A candidate with insufficient knowledge of requirements set out in Industry Canada's
English or French may be accompanied Default Public Consultation Process
by an interpreter unless the land use authority excludes
D A candidate who fails a written their type of proposal from consultation or
examination for lack of reading skills may it is excluded by Industry Canada's
be given an oral examination process
B can proceed with their project without
B-001-023-001 (A) public consultation
C must implement a public consultation
Which of these statements about the
process of their own design
installation or modification of an antenna
structure is not correct? D must wait for the land use authority to
develop a public consultation process
A A radio amateur may erect any size
antenna structure without consulting B-001-023-005 (B)
neighbours or the local land-use authority
Which is not an element of the Industry
B A radio amateur must follow Industry
Canada Public Consultation Process for
Canada's antenna siting procedures.
antenna systems?
C Industry Canada expects radio amateurs
to address community concerns in a A Providing an opportunity for the public to
responsible manner respond regarding measures to address
D Prior to an installation, for which reasonable and relevant concerns
community concerns could be raised, B Participating in public meetings on the
radio amateurs may be required to project
consult with their land-use authority C Providing written notice
D Addressing relevant questions comments
B-001-023-002 (C) and concerns
Who has authority over antenna installations
including antenna masts and towers?
A The local municipal government
B The majority of neighbours residing within
a distance of three times the proposed
antenna structure height
C The Minister of Industry
D The person planning to use the tower or
their spouse
B-001-023-006 (B) B-001-023-009 (B)
The Default Public Consultation Process for In general, what is the tallest amateur radio
antenna systems requires proponents to antenna system excluded from the
address: requirement to consult with the land use
authority and the public where there is a
A opposition to the project
land use authority defined public
B reasonable and relevant concerns consultation process?
provided in writing within the 30 day
public comment period A 21m
C all questions, comments and concerns B the taller of the height exclusion in the
raised land use authority public consultation
process and Industry Canada's antenna
D comments reported in media reporting on
siting procedures
the proposal
C 10m
B-001-023-007 (B) D 15m

Where a municipality has developed a public

consultation process which of the following B-001-023-010 (D)
options best describes all circumstances Where a land use authority or municipality
when public consultation may not be has established a public consultation
required? process for antenna systems, who
determines how public consultation should
A Exclusions listed in both CPC-2-0-03 and
take place?
the Local land use authority process
B Exclusions listed in either CPC-2-0-03 or A Industry Canada
the Local land use authority process B The person planning to erect an antenna
C Exclusions listed in the Industry Canada structure
Client Procedures Circular on C The provincial government
Radiocommunications and Broadcasting D The municipality or local land use
Antenna Systems CPC-2-0-03 authority
D Exclusions defined in the Local land use
authority process B-001-024-001 (A)

B-001-023-008 (C) What organization has published safety

guidelines for the maximum limits of RF
Where the proponent and a stakeholder energy near the human body?
other than the general public reach an
impasse over a proposed antenna system A Health Canada
the final decision will: B Canadian Standards Association
A be made by the municipality in which the C Environment Canada
antenna is to be built D Transport Canada
B be made by a majority vote of those
residing within a radius of three times the B-001-024-002 (D)
antenna structure height What is the purpose of the Safety Code 6?
C be made by Industry Canada
D be postponed until those in dispute reach A It lists all RF frequency allocations for
an agreement interference protection
B It sets transmitter power limits for
interference protection
C It sets antenna height limits for aircraft
protection
D It gives RF exposure limits for the human
body
B-001-024-003 (A) B-001-024-007 (B)
According to Safety Code 6, what The permissible exposure levels of RF fields:
frequencies cause us the greatest risk from
RF energy? A decreases, as frequency is increased
above 300 MHz
A 30 to 300 MHz
B increases, as frequency is increased
B 300 to 3000 MHz
from 300 MHz to 1.5 GHz
C Above 1500 MHz
C decreases, as frequency is decreased
D 3 to 30 MHz below 10 MHz
D increases, as frequency is increased
B-001-024-004 (C) from 10 MHz to 300 MHz
Why is the limit of exposure to RF the
lowest in the frequency range of 30 MHz to B-001-024-008 (C)
300 MHz, according to Safety Code 6? Which statement is not correct?
A There are fewer transmitters operating in
this range A Safety Code 6 uses different units for the
magnetic field strength and the electric
B Most transmissions in this range are for a
field strength when stating limits
longer time
C The human body absorbs RF energy the
B Safety Code 6 specifies lower exposure
most in this range limits for the general public in
uncontrolled areas than it does for people
D There are more transmitters operating in
in controlled areas
this range
C hand held transmitters are excluded from
Safety Code 6 requirements
B-001-024-005 (A)
D Antenna gain, distance, transmitter
According to Safety Code 6, what is the power and frequency are all factors which
maximum safe power output to the antenna influence the electric field strength and a
of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio? person's exposure to radio energy.
A Not specified
B-001-024-009 (A)
B 10 watts
C 25 watts Which statement is correct?
D 125 milliwatts
A Safety Code 6 sets limits for RF
exposure from all radio transmitters
B-001-024-006 (D) regardless of power output
Which of the following statements is not B Safety Code 6 regulates the operation of
correct? receivers only
A Maximum exposure levels of RF fields to C The operation of portable transmitting
the general population, in the frequency equipment is of no concern in Safety
range 10 to 300 MHz, is 28 V/m RMS (E- Code 6
field) D Portable transmitters, operating below 1
B Permissible exposure levels of RF fields GHz, with an output power equal to, or
increases as frequency is increased from less than 7 watts, are exempt from the
300 MHz to 1.5 GHz requirements of Safety Code 6
C Permissible exposure levels of RF fields
increases as frequency is decreased
from 10 MHz to 1 MHz
D Permissible exposure levels of RF fields
decreases as frequency is decreased
below 10 MHz
B-001-024-010 (C) B-001-025-003 (D)
Which of these statements about Safety Which of the following is defined in EMCAB-
Code 6 is false? 2 as "any device, machinery or equipment,
other than radio apparatus, the use or
A Safety Code 6 sets limits for induced
functioning of which is, or can be, adversely
currents, electrical field strength and
affected by radiocommunication emissions"?
magnetic field strength from
electromagnetic radiation A Cable television converters
B Safety Code 6 sets limits for allowable B Audio and video recorders
rates at which RF energy is absorbed in C Broadcast receivers
the body (Specific Absorption Rate) D Radio-sensitive equipment
C Safety Code 6 sets limits in terms of
power levels fed into antennas
B-001-025-004 (A)
D Safety Code 6 sets limits for contact
currents that could be drawn from According to EMCAB-2 which of the
ungrounded or poorly grounded objects following types of equipment is not included
in the list of field strength criteria for
B-001-025-001 (D) resolution of immunity complaints?

In the event of the malfunctioning of a A Broadcast transmitters

neighbour's broadcast FM receiver and B Broadcast receivers
stereo system, it will be deemed that the C Associated equipment
affected equipment's lack of immunity is the D Radio-sensitive equipment
cause if the field strength:
A at the transmitting location is below the B-002-001-001 (D)
radio amateur's maximum allowable
transmitter power What is a good way to make contact on a
repeater?
B at the transmitting location is above 100
watts A Say the other operator's name, then your
C near the affected equipment is above call sign three times
Industry Canada's specified immunity B Say, "Breaker, breaker,"
criteria C Say the call sign of the station you want
D on the premises of the affected to contact three times
equipment is below Industry Canada's D Say the call sign of the station you want
specified immunity criteria to contact, then your call sign

B-001-025-002 (A) B-002-001-002 (A)

In the event of interference to a neighbour's What is the main purpose of a repeater?
television receiver, according to EMCAB-2 it
will be deemed that a radio amateur's A To increase the range of portable and
transmission is the cause of the problem if mobile stations
the field strength:
B To link amateur stations with the
A on the neighbour's premises is above telephone system
Industry Canada's specified immunity C To retransmit weather information during
criteria severe storm warnings
B near the TV is below Industry Canada's D To make local information available 24
specified immunity criteria hours a day
C at the transmitting location is below the
radio amateur's maximum allowable
transmitter power
D at the transmitting location is above the
radio amateur's maximum allowable
transmitter power
B-002-001-003 (C) B-002-001-007 (C)
What is frequency coordination on VHF and Why should you pause briefly between
UHF bands? transmissions when using a repeater?
A The selection of simplex frequencies by A To reach for pencil and paper for third-
individual operators party communications
B A part of the planning prior to a contest B To dial up the repeater's autopatch
C A process which seeks to carefully C To listen for anyone else wanting to use
assign frequencies so as to minimize the repeater
interference with neighbouring repeaters D To check the SWR of the repeater
D A band plan detailing modes and
frequency segments within a band B-002-001-008 (C)

B-002-001-004 (A) Why should you keep transmissions short

when using a repeater?
What is the purpose of a repeater time-out
timer? A To give any listening non-hams a chance
to respond
A It interrupts lengthy transmissions B To see if the receiving station operator is
without pauses
still awake
B It lets a repeater have a rest period after C A long transmission may prevent
heavy use someone with an emergency from using
C It logs repeater transmit time to predict the repeater
when a repeater will fail D To keep long-distance charges down
D It tells how long someone has been using
a repeater
B-002-001-009 (C)

B-002-001-005 (D) What is the proper way to join into a

conversation on a repeater?
What is a CTCSS tone?
A Shout, "break, break!" to show that you're
A A tone used by repeaters to mark the eager to join the conversation
end of a transmission B Turn on an amplifier and override whoever
B A special signal used for telemetry is talking
between amateur space stations and C Say your call sign during a break
Earth stations between transmissions
C A special signal used for radio control of D Wait for the end of a transmission and
model craft start calling the desired party
D A sub-audible tone that activates a
receiver audio output when present B-002-001-010 (D)
What is the accepted way to ask someone
B-002-001-006 (B) their location when using a repeater?
How do you call another station on a A What is your 20?
repeater if you know the station's call sign?
B Locations are not normally told by radio
A Wait for the station to call "CQ", then C What is your 12?
answer it
D Where are you?
B Say the station's call sign, then identify
your own station
C Say "break, break 79," then say the
station's call sign
D Say "CQ" three times, then say the
station's call sign
B-002-001-011 (D) B-002-002-005 (D)
FM repeater operation on the 2 metre band What is the Standard International Phonetic
uses one frequency for transmission and for the letter D?
one for reception. The difference in frequency
A Dog
between the transmit and receive frequency
is normally: B Denmark
C David
A 800 kHz
D Delta
B 1 000 kHz
C 400 kHz
B-002-002-006 (C)
D 600 kHz
What is the Standard International Phonetic
for the letter E?
B-002-002-001 (C)
A Edward
To make your call sign better understood
when using voice transmissions, what B England
should you do? C Echo
A Talk louder D Easy
B Turn up your microphone gain
B-002-002-007 (C)
C Use Standard International Phonetics for
each letter of your call sign What is the Standard International Phonetic
D Use any words which start with the same for the letter G?
letters as your call sign for each letter of A Germany
your call
B Gibraltar
B-002-002-002 (C) C Golf
D George
What can you use as an aid for correct
station identification when using phone?
B-002-002-008 (B)
A Unique words of your choice
What is the Standard International Phonetic
B A speech compressor for the letter I?
C The Standard International Phonetic
Alphabet A Item
D Q signals B India
C Iran
B-002-002-003 (D) D Italy
What is the Standard International Phonetic
for the letter A? B-002-002-009 (C)

A Able What is the Standard International Phonetic

for the letter L?
B Adam
C America A London
D Alfa B Luxembourg
C Lima
B-002-002-004 (A) D Love
What is the Standard International Phonetic
for the letter B? B-002-002-010 (A)

A Bravo What is the Standard International Phonetic

for the letter P?
B Brazil
C Borneo A Papa
D Baker B Portugal
C Paris
D Peter
B-002-002-011 (B) B-002-003-004 (D)
What is the Standard International Phonetic When should you consider using simplex
for the letter R? operation instead of a repeater?
A Romania A When the most reliable communications
B Romeo are needed
C Roger B When an emergency telephone call is
needed
D Radio
C When you are traveling and need some
local information
B-002-003-001 (B)
D When signals are reliable between
What is the correct way to call "CQ" when communicating parties without using a
using voice? repeater
A Say "CQ" at least ten times, followed by
"this is," followed by your call sign B-002-003-005 (B)
spoken once Why should local amateur communications
B Say "CQ" three times, followed by "this use VHF and UHF frequencies instead of HF
is," followed by your call sign spoken frequencies?
three times
A Because signals are stronger on VHF
C Say "CQ" once, followed by "this is," and UHF frequencies
followed by your call sign spoken three
times
B To minimize interference on HF bands
capable of long-distance communication
D Say "CQ" at least five times, followed by
"this is," followed by your call sign C Because greater output power is
spoken once permitted on VHF and UHF
D Because HF transmissions are not
B-002-003-002 (D) propagated locally

How should you answer a voice CQ call? B-002-003-006 (D)

A Say the other station's call sign at least Why should we be careful in choosing a
five times phonetically, followed by "this simplex frequency when operating VHF or
is," then your call sign twice UHF FM?
B Say the other station's call sign at least A Interference may be caused to
three times, followed by "this is," and unlicensed devices operating in the same
your call sign at least five times band
phonetically B Implanted medical devices share the
C Say the other station's call sign at least same spectrum
ten times, followed by "this is," then your C Some frequencies are designated for
call sign at least twice narrow band FM and others for wideband
D Say the other station's call sign once, FM
followed by "this is," then your call sign D You may inadvertently choose a channel
given phonetically that is the input to a local repeater

B-002-003-003 (C) B-002-003-007 (A)

What is simplex operation? If you are talking to a station using a
repeater, how would you find out if you could
A Transmitting on one frequency and communicate using simplex instead?
receiving on another
A See if you can clearly receive the station
B Transmitting one-way communications
on the repeater's input frequency
C Transmitting and receiving on the same
frequency
B See if a third station can clearly receive
both of you
D Transmitting and receiving over a wide
area C See if you can clearly receive a more
distant repeater
D See if you can clearly receive the station
on a lower frequency band
B-002-003-008 (C) B-002-004-001 (D)
If you are operating simplex on a repeater What should you do before you transmit on
frequency, why would it be good amateur any frequency?
practice to change to another frequency?
A Check your antenna for resonance at the
A There are more repeater operators than selected frequency
simplex operators B Make sure the SWR on your antenna
B Changing the repeater's frequency transmission line is high enough
requires the authorization of Industry C Listen to make sure that someone will be
Canada able to hear you
C Changing the repeater's frequency is not D Listen to make sure others are not using
practical the frequency
D The repeater's output power may ruin
your station's receiver B-002-004-002 (B)
If you contact another station and your
B-002-003-009 (D)
signal is extremely strong and perfectly
Which sideband is commonly used for 20- readable, what adjustment should you make
metre phone operation? to your transmitter?
A Lower A Continue with your contact, making no
B FM changes
C Double B Turn down your power output to the
minimum necessary
D Upper
C Turn on your speech processor
B-002-003-010 (B) D Reduce your SWR

Which sideband is commonly used on 3755

B-002-004-003 (B)
kHz for phone operation?
What is one way to shorten transmitter tune-
A Upper
up time on the air to cut down on
B Lower interference?
C FM A Use twin lead instead of coaxial cable
D Double transmission lines
B Tune the transmitter into a dummy load
B-002-003-011 (D)
C Use a long wire antenna
What is the best method to tell if a band is D Tune up on 40 metres first, then switch to
"open" for communication with a particular the desired band
distant location?
A Ask others on your local 2 metre FM B-002-004-004 (A)
repeater How can on-the-air interference be
B Telephone an experienced local amateur minimized during a lengthy transmitter
C Look at the propagation forecasts in an testing or tuning procedure?
amateur radio magazine A Use a dummy load
D Listen for signals from that area from an B Choose an unoccupied frequency
amateur beacon station or a foreign
broadcast or television station on a C Use a non-resonant antenna
nearby frequency D Use a resonant antenna that requires no
loading-up procedure
B-002-004-005 (B) B-002-004-009 (D)
Why would you use a dummy load? When selecting a single-sideband phone
transmitting frequency, what minimum
A To reduce output power frequency separation from a contact in
B To test or adjust your transceiver without progress should you allow (between
causing interference suppressed carriers) to minimize
interference?
C To give comparative signal reports
D It is faster to tune A 150 to 500 Hz
B Approximately 6 kHz
B-002-004-006 (B) C Approximately 10 kHz
If you are the net control station of a daily D Approximately 3 kHz
HF net, what should you do if the frequency
on which you normally meet is in use just B-002-004-010 (D)
before the net begins?
What is a band plan?
A Cancel the net for that day
B Call and ask occupants to relinquish the A A plan of operating schedules within an
frequency for the scheduled net amateur band published by Industry
operations, but if they are not agreeable, Canada
conduct the net on a frequency 3 to 5 B A plan devised by a club to best use a
kHz away from the regular net frequency frequency band during a contest
C Reduce your output power and start the C A guideline for deviating from amateur
net as usual frequency band allocations
D Increase your power output so that net D A guideline for using different operating
participants will be able to hear you over modes within an amateur band
the existing activity
B-002-004-011 (D)
B-002-004-007 (C)
Before transmitting, the first thing you
If a net is about to begin on a frequency should do is:
which you and another station are using,
A ask if the frequency is occupied
what should you do?
B make an announcement on the frequency
A Transmit as long as possible on the indicating that you intend to make a call
frequency so that no other stations may
C decrease your receiver's volume
use it
D listen carefully so as not to interrupt
B Turn off your radio
communications already in progress
C As a courtesy to the net, move to a
different frequency B-002-005-001 (D)
D Increase your power output to ensure that
all net participants can hear you What is the correct way to call "CQ" when
using Morse code?
B-002-004-008 (D) A Send the letters "CQ" three times,
followed by "DE", followed by your call
If propagation changes during your contact
sign sent once
and you notice increasing interference from
other activity on the same frequency, what B Send the letters "CQ" ten times, followed
should you do? by "DE", followed by your call sign sent
once
A Tell the interfering stations to change
C Send the letters "CQ" over and over
frequency, since you were there first
D Send the letters "CQ" three times,
B Report the interference to your local
followed by "DE", followed by your call
Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
sign sent three times
C Increase the output power of your
transmitter to overcome the interference
D Move your contact to another frequency
B-002-005-002 (B) B-002-005-007 (D)
How should you answer a routine Morse What is meant by the term "DX"?
code "CQ" call?
A Calling any station
A Send your call sign followed by your
name, station location and a signal report B Go ahead
B Send the other station's call sign twice, C Best regards
followed by "DE", followed by your call D Distant station
sign twice
C Send your call sign four times B-002-005-008 (C)
D Send the other station's call sign once, What is the meaning of the term "73"?
followed by "DE", followed by your call
sign four times A Love and kisses
B Go ahead
B-002-005-003 (A)
C Best regards
At what speed should a Morse code "CQ" D Long distance
call be transmitted?
A At any speed which you can reliably B-002-005-009 (A)
receive
Which of the following describes full break-in
B At any speed below 5 w.p.m. telegraphy (QSK)?
C At the highest speed your keyer will
operate A Incoming signals are received between
transmitted Morse code dots and dashes
D At the highest speed at which you can
control the keyer B Automatic keyers are used to send
Morse code instead of hand keys
B-002-005-004 (D) C An operator must activate a manual
send/receive switch before and after every
What is the meaning of the procedural signal transmission
"CQ"?
D Breaking stations send the Morse code
A Call on the quarter hour prosign "BK"
B An antenna is being tested
C Only the station "CQ" should answer B-002-005-010 (C)
D Calling any station When selecting a CW transmitting
frequency, what minimum frequency
B-002-005-005 (A) separation from a contact in progress should
you allow to minimize interference?
What is the meaning of the procedural signal
"DE"? A 1 to 3 kHz
B 3 to 6 kHz
A From
C 150 to 500 Hz
B Received all correctly
D 5 to 50 Hz
C Calling any station
D Directional Emissions
B-002-005-011 (C)

B-002-005-006 (B) Good Morse telegraphy operators:

What is the meaning of the procedural signal A save time by leaving out spaces between
"K"? words
A All received correctly B tune the transmitter using the operating
B Any station please reply antenna
C End of message
C listen to the frequency to make sure that
it is not in use before transmitting
D Called station only transmit
D always give stations a good readability
report
B-002-006-001 (A) B-002-006-006 (C)
What are "RST" signal reports? A distant station asks for a signal report on
a local repeater you monitor. Which fact
A A short way to describe signal reception affects your assessment?
B A short way to describe transmitter A You need to listen to the repeater input
power frequency for an accurate signal report
C A short way to describe sunspot activity B Signal reports are only useful on simplex
D A short way to describe ionospheric communications
conditions C The other operator needs to know how
well he is received at the repeater, not
B-002-006-002 (D) how well you receive the repeater
What does "RST" mean in a signal report? D The repeater gain affects your S-meter
reading
A Recovery, signal strength, tempo
B Recovery, signal speed, tone B-002-006-007 (C)
C Readability, signal speed, tempo If the power output of a transmitter is
D Readability, signal strength, tone increased by four times, how might a nearby
receiver's S-meter reading change?
B-002-006-003 (A) A Decrease by approximately four S units
What is the meaning of: "Your signal report B Decrease by approximately one S unit
is 5 7"? C Increase by approximately one S unit
A Your signal is perfectly readable and
D Increase by approximately four S units
moderately strong
B Your signal is readable with considerable B-002-006-008 (A)
difficulty By how many times must the power output
C Your signal is perfectly readable with of a transmitter be increased to raise the S-
near pure tone meter reading on a nearby receiver from S8
D Your signal is perfectly readable, but to S9?
weak A Approximately 4 times
B Approximately 5 times
B-002-006-004 (A)
C Approximately 3 times
What is the meaning of: "Your signal report D Approximately 2 times
is 3 3 "?
A Your signal is readable with considerable B-002-006-009 (B)
difficulty and weak in strength
What does "RST 579" mean in a Morse
B Your signal is unreadable, very weak in code contact?
strength
A Your signal is barely readable,
C The station is located at latitude 33
moderately strong, and with faint ripple
degrees
D The contact is serial number 33 B Your signal is perfectly readable,
moderately strong, and with perfect tone
B-002-006-005 (B)
C Your signal is perfectly readable, weak
strength, and with perfect tone
What is the meaning of: "You are 5 9 plus D Your signal is fairly readable, fair
20 dB"? strength, and with perfect tone
A Your signal strength has increased by a
factor of 100
B You are perfectly readable with a signal
strength 20 decibels greater than S 9
C The bandwidth of your signal is 20
decibels above linearity
D Repeat your transmission on a frequency
20 kHz higher
B-002-006-010 (B) B-002-007-004 (A)
What does "RST 459" mean in a Morse What is one meaning of the Q signal
code contact? "QSY"?
A Your signal is moderately readable, very A Change frequency
weak, and with hum on the tone B Use more power
B Your signal is quite readable, fair C Send faster
strength, and with perfect tone D Send more slowly
C Your signal is very readable, very strong,
and with perfect tone
B-002-007-005 (D)
D Your signal is barely readable, very weak,
and with perfect tone What is the meaning of the Q signal "QSB"?

B-002-006-011 (C) A I am busy

B I have no message
What is the meaning of "Your signal report
is 1 1"? C A contact is confirmed
D Your signal is fading
A Your signal is first class in readability
and first class in strength
B-002-007-006 (D)
B Your signal is very readable and very
strong What is the proper Q signal to ask who is
C Your signal is unreadable, and barely calling you on CW?
perceptible A QSL?
D Your signal is 11 dB over S9 B QRL?
C QRT?
B-002-007-001 (C) D QRZ?
What is the meaning of the Q signal "QRS"?
B-002-007-007 (B)
A Send "RST" report
The signal "QRM" signifies:
B Radio station location is:
C Send more slowly A is my transmission being interfered with
D Interference from static B I am being interfered with
C I am troubled by static
B-002-007-002 (D) D your signals are fading
What is one meaning of the Q signal "QTH"?
B-002-007-008 (A)
A Stop sending
The signal "QRN" means:
B My name is
C Time here is A I am troubled by static
D My location is B I am busy
C are you troubled by static
B-002-007-003 (C) D I am being interfered with
What is the proper Q signal to use to see if
a frequency is in use before transmitting on B-002-007-009 (B)
CW?
The "Q signal" indicating that you want the
A QRU? other station to send slower is:
B QRZ? A QRN
C QRL?
B QRS
D QRV?
C QRM
D QRL
B-002-007-010 (C) B-002-008-004 (C)
Who is calling me is denoted by the "Q What is the proper distress call to use when
signal": operating CW?
A QRP? A QRRR
B QRM? B MAYDAY
C QRZ? C SOS
D QRK? D CQD

B-002-007-011 (C) B-002-008-005 (A)

The "Q signal" which signifies "I will call you What is the proper way to interrupt a
again" is: repeater conversation to signal a distress
call?
A QRS
B QRT A Break-in immediately following the
transmission of the active party and state
C QRX
your situation and call sign
D QRZ
B Say "EMERGENCY" three times
C Say "SOS," then your call sign
B-002-008-001 (D)
D Say "HELP" as many times as it takes
When may you use your amateur station to to get someone to answer
transmit an "SOS" or "MAYDAY"?
A Never B-002-008-006 (D)
B Only at specific times (at 15 and 30 Why is it a good idea to have a way to
minutes after the hour) operate your amateur station without using
C Only in case of a severe weather watch commercial AC power lines?
D In a life-threatening distress situation A So you will comply with rules
B So you may operate in contests where
B-002-008-002 (D) AC power is not allowed
If you are in contact with another station and C So you may use your station while
you hear an emergency call for help on your mobile
frequency, what should you do? D So you may provide communications in
an emergency
A Tell the calling station that the frequency
is in use
B-002-008-007 (A)
B Direct the calling station to the nearest
emergency net frequency What is the most important accessory to
C Call your local police station and inform have for a hand-held radio in an emergency?
them of the emergency call A Several sets of charged batteries
D Immediately stop your contact and B An extra antenna
acknowledge the emergency call
C A portable amplifier
D A microphone headset for hands-free
B-002-008-003 (C)
operation
What is the proper distress call to use when
operating phone? B-002-008-008 (C)
A Say "EMERGENCY" several times Which type of antenna would be a good
B Say "HELP" several times choice as part of a portable HF amateur
C Say "MAYDAY" several times station that could be set up in case of an
emergency?
D Say "SOS" several times
A A three-element Yagi
B A three-element quad
C A dipole
D A parabolic dish
B-002-008-009 (C) B-002-009-002 (B)
If you are communicating with another What is an azimuthal map?
amateur station and hear a station in
distress break in, what should you do? A A map that shows the number of degrees
longitude that an amateur satellite
A Change to a different frequency so the
appears to move westward at the equator
station in distress may have a clear
channel to call for assistance B A map projection centered on a particular
location, used to determine the shortest
B Immediately cease all transmissions
path between points on the Earth's
because stations in distress have
surface
emergency rights to the frequency
C A map projection centered on the North
C Acknowledge the station in distress and
Pole
determine its location and what
assistance may be needed D A map that shows the angle at which an
amateur satellite crosses the equator
D Continue your communication because
you were on frequency first
B-002-009-003 (D)
B-002-008-010 (B) What is the most useful type of map to use
when orienting a directional HF antenna
In order of priority, a distress message
toward a distant station?
comes before:
A Mercator
A a safety message
B Polar projection
B an emergency message
C Topographical
C no other messages
D Azimuthal
D a government priority message

B-002-009-004 (B)
B-002-008-011 (D)
A directional antenna pointed in the long-
If you hear distress traffic and are unable to
path direction to another station is generally
render direct assistance you should:
oriented how many degrees from its short-
A enter the details in the log book and take path heading?
no further action
A 270 degrees
B take no action
B 180 degrees
C tell all other stations to cease
C 45 degrees
transmitting
D 90 degrees
D contact authorities and then maintain
watch until you are certain that
assistance will be forthcoming B-002-009-005 (D)
What method is used by radio amateurs to
B-002-009-001 (D) provide written proof of communication
What is a "QSL card"? between two amateur stations?
A A two-page letter containing a photograph
A A Notice of Violation from Industry of the operator
Canada B A radiogram sent over the CW traffic net
B A postcard reminding you when your C A packet message
certificate will expire
D A signed post card listing contact date,
C A letter or postcard from an amateur pen time, frequency, mode and power, called
pal a "QSL card"
D A written proof of communication
between two amateurs
B-002-009-006 (B) B-002-009-010 (B)
You hear other local stations talking to radio When referring to contacts in the station log,
amateurs in New Zealand but you don't hear what do the letters UTC mean?
those stations with your beam aimed on the
A Unlimited Time Capsule
normal compass bearing to New Zealand.
What should you try? B Universal Time Coordinated (formerly
Greenwich Mean Time - GMT)
A Point your antenna to the south
C Universal Time Constant
B Point your beam 180 degrees away from D Unlisted Telephone Call
that bearing and listen for the stations
arriving on the "long-path"
B-002-009-011 (A)
C Point your antenna toward Newington,
Connecticut To set your station clock accurately to UTC,
D Point your antenna to the north you could receive the most accurate time off
the air from _______?
B-002-009-007 (B) A CHU, WWV or WWVH
Which statement about recording all B A non-directional beacon station
contacts and unanswered "CQ calls" in a C Your local television station
station logbook or computer log is not D Your local radio station
correct?
A A log is important for handling neighbour B-003-001-001 (B)
interference complaints
A low pass filter in an HF station is most
B A logbook is required by Industry Canada effective when connected:
C A log is important for recording contacts
A midway between the transceiver and
for operating awards
antenna
D A well-kept log preserves your fondest
amateur radio memories for years B as close as possible to the transceiver
output
B-002-009-008 (D) C as close as possible to the antenna tuner
output
Why would it be useful to have an azimuthal D as close as possible to the antenna
world map centred on the location of your
station?
B-003-001-002 (A)
A Because it looks impressive
A low pass filter in an HF station is most
B Because it shows the angle at which an effective when connected:
amateur satellite crosses the equator
C Because it shows the number of degrees A as close as possible to the linear
longitude that an amateur satellite moves amplifier output
west B as close as possible to the antenna
D Because it shows the compass bearing C as close as possible to the antenna tuner
from your station to any place on Earth, output
for antenna planning and pointing D as close as possible to the linear
amplifier input
B-002-009-009 (C)
Station logs and confirmation (QSL) cards B-003-001-003 (D)
are always kept in UTC (Universal Time In designing an HF station, which
Coordinated). Where is that time based? component would you use to reduce the
A Ottawa, Canada effects of harmonic radiation?
B Newington, Connecticut A Dummy load
C Greenwich, England B Antenna switch
D Geneva, Switzerland C SWR bridge
D Low pass filter
B-003-001-004 (D) B-003-001-009 (B)
Which component in an HF station is the In an HF Station, the antenna tuner is
most useful for determining the effectiveness commonly used:
of the antenna system?
A to tune low pass filters
A Antenna switch B with most antennas when operating
B Linear amplifier below 14 MHz
C Dummy load C with most antennas when operating
D SWR bridge above 14 MHz
D to tune into dummy loads
B-003-001-005 (C)
B-003-002-001 (B)
Of the components in an HF station, which
component would normally be connected In a frequency modulation transmitter, the
closest to the antenna, antenna tuner and input to the speech amplifier is connected to
dummy load? the:
A Low pass filter A frequency multiplier
B SWR bridge B microphone
C Antenna switch C modulator
D Transceiver D power amplifier

B-003-001-006 (A) B-003-002-002 (C)

Of the components in an HF station, which In a frequency modulation transmitter, the
component would be used to match microphone is connected to the:
impedances between the transceiver and
A power amplifier
antenna?
B oscillator
A Antenna tuner
C speech amplifier
B Antenna switch D modulator
C Dummy load
D SWR bridge B-003-002-003 (C)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the
B-003-001-007 (D)
____________is in between the speech
In an HF station, which component is amplifier and the oscillator.
temporarily connected in the tuning process
A microphone
or for adjustments to the transmitter?
B frequency multiplier
A SWR bridge
C modulator
B Low pass filter D power amplifier
C Antenna tuner
D Dummy load B-003-002-004 (A)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the
B-003-001-008 (B)
__________is located between the
In an HF station, the antenna tuner is modulator and the frequency multiplier.
usually used for matching the transceiver
A oscillator
with:
B speech amplifier
A tri-band Yagi antennas
C power amplifier
B most antennas when operating below 14 D microphone
MHz
C most antennas when operating above 14
MHz
D mono-band Yagi type antennas
B-003-002-005 (B) B-003-003-003 (D)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the In a frequency modulation receiver, the
___________is located between the output of the local oscillator is fed to the:
oscillator and the power amplifier.
A radio frequency amplifier
A modulator B limiter
B frequency multiplier C antenna
C microphone D mixer
D speech amplifier
B-003-003-004 (B)
B-003-002-006 (C)
In a frequency modulation receiver, the
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the output of the ________is connected to the
_________ is located between the frequency mixer.
multiplier and the antenna.
A speaker or headphones
A speech amplifier B local oscillator
B oscillator C frequency discriminator
C power amplifier D intermediate frequency amplifier
D modulator
B-003-003-005 (A)
B-003-002-007 (C)
In a frequency modulation receiver,
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the the_________ is in between the mixer and
power amplifier output is connected to the: the intermediate frequency amplifier.
A microphone A filter
B modulator B limiter
C antenna C frequency discriminator
D frequency multiplier D radio frequency amplifier

B-003-003-001 (D) B-003-003-006 (B)

In a frequency modulation receiver, the In a frequency modulation receiver, the
________is connected to the input of the ________ is located between the filter and
radio frequency amplifier. the limiter.
A mixer A radio frequency amplifier
B frequency discriminator B intermediate frequency amplifier
C limiter C local oscillator
D antenna D mixer

B-003-003-002 (A) B-003-003-007 (C)

In a frequency modulation receiver, the In a frequency modulation receiver,
__________ is in between the antenna and the__________ is in between the
the mixer. intermediate frequency amplifier and the
frequency discriminator.
A radio frequency amplifier
B audio frequency amplifier A local oscillator
C local oscillator B radio frequency amplifier
D intermediate frequency amplifier C limiter
D filter
B-003-003-008 (C) B-003-004-003 (C)
In a frequency modulation receiver, the In a CW transmitter, the_________ is
__________ is located between the limiter between the master oscillator and the power
and the audio frequency amplifier. amplifier.
A speaker or headphones A power supply
B local oscillator B telegraph key
C frequency discriminator C driver/buffer
D intermediate frequency amplifier D audio amplifier

B-003-003-009 (C) B-003-004-004 (C)

In a frequency modulation receiver, the In a CW transmitter, the_____________
_________ is located between the speaker controls when RF energy is applied to the
or headphones and the frequency antenna.
discriminator.
A driver/buffer
A intermediate frequency amplifier B power amplifier
B radio frequency amplifier C telegraph key
C audio frequency amplifier D master oscillator
D limiter
B-003-004-005 (A)
B-003-003-010 (C)
In a CW transmitter, the ______________ is
In a frequency modulation receiver, the in between the driver/buffer stage and the
__________ connects to the audio antenna.
frequency amplifier output.
A power amplifier
A frequency discriminator B power supply
B limiter C telegraph key
C speaker or headphones D master oscillator
D intermediate frequency amplifier
B-003-004-006 (C)
B-003-004-001 (C)
In a CW transmitter, the output of the
In a CW transmitter, the output from the _____________ is transferred to the
__________ is connected to the driver/buffer. antenna.
A telegraph key A power supply
B power supply B master oscillator
C master oscillator C power amplifier
D power amplifier D driver/buffer

B-003-004-002 (D) B-003-005-001 (B)

In a typical CW transmitter, the In a single sideband and CW receiver, the
___________ is the primary source of direct antenna is connected to the ____________ .
current.
A intermediate frequency amplifier
A driver/buffer B radio frequency amplifier
B power amplifier C product detector
C master oscillator D local oscillator
D power supply
B-003-005-002 (A) B-003-005-007 (A)
In a single sideband and CW receiver, the In a single sideband and CW receiver, the
output of the _____________ is connected __________ output is connected to the
to the mixer. audio frequency amplifier.
A radio frequency amplifier A product detector
B filter B local oscillator
C intermediate frequency amplifier C beat frequency oscillator
D audio frequency amplifier D intermediate frequency amplifier

B-003-005-003 (C) B-003-005-008 (C)

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the In a single sideband and CW receiver, the
__________ is connected to the radio output of the ___________ is connected to
frequency amplifier and the local oscillator. the product detector.
A product detector A radio frequency amplifier
B filter B audio frequency amplifier
C mixer C beat frequency oscillator
D beat frequency oscillator D mixer

B-003-005-004 (A) B-003-005-009 (A)

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the In a single sideband and CW receiver, the
output of the ___________ is connected to __________ is connected to the output of
the mixer. the product detector.
A local oscillator A audio frequency amplifier
B intermediate frequency amplifier B intermediate frequency amplifier
C beat frequency oscillator C local oscillator
D product detector D radio frequency amplifier

B-003-005-005 (C) B-003-005-010 (B)

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the In a single sideband and CW receiver, the
_____________ is in between the mixer and __________ is connected to the output of
intermediate frequency amplifier. the audio frequency amplifier.
A beat frequency oscillator A beat frequency oscillator
B product detector B speaker or headphones
C filter C mixer
D radio frequency amplifier D radio frequency amplifier

B-003-005-006 (A) B-003-006-001 (C)

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the In a single sideband transmitter, the output
__________ is in between the filter and of the ________ is connected to the
product detector. balanced modulator.
A intermediate frequency amplifier A linear amplifier
B audio frequency amplifier B mixer
C beat frequency oscillator C radio frequency oscillator
D radio frequency amplifier D variable frequency oscillator
B-003-006-002 (C) B-003-006-007 (D)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output In a single sideband transmitter, the output
of the ____________ is connected to the of the _________ is connected to the mixer.
filter.
A radio frequency oscillator
A mixer B linear amplifier
B radio frequency oscillator C antenna
C balanced modulator D variable frequency oscillator
D microphone
B-003-006-008 (D)
B-003-006-003 (C)
In an single sideband transmitter, the
In a single sideband transmitter, the ____________ is in between the mixer and
_____________ is in between the balanced the antenna.
modulator and the mixer.
A variable frequency oscillator
A speech amplifier B balanced modulator
B microphone C radio frequency oscillator
C filter D linear amplifier
D radio frequency oscillator
B-003-006-009 (B)
B-003-006-004 (A)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output
In a single sideband transmitter, the of the linear amplifier is connected to the
______________ is connected to the ______________.
speech amplifier.
A speech amplifier
A microphone B antenna
B radio frequency oscillator C filter
C filter D variable frequency oscillator
D mixer
B-003-007-001 (D)
B-003-006-005 (B)
In an amateur digital radio system, the
In a single sideband transmitter, the output __________________interfaces with the
of the ___________ is connected to the computer.
balanced modulator.
A antenna
A linear amplifier B power supply
B speech amplifier C transceiver
C filter D input/output
D variable frequency oscillator
B-003-007-002 (B)
B-003-006-006 (C)
In an amateur digital radio system, the
In a single sideband transmitter, the output modem is connected to the ________.
of the variable frequency oscillator is
A input/output
connected to the __________.
B computer
A balanced modulator
C amplifier
B linear amplifier D antenna
C mixer
D antenna
B-003-007-003 (B) B-003-008-003 (A)
In an amateur digital radio system, the In a regulated power supply, the
transceiver is connected to the _______________ is between the
___________. transformer and the filter.
A input/output A rectifier
B modem B input
C computer C output
D scanner D regulator

B-003-007-004 (C) B-003-008-004 (C)

In an amateur digital radio system, the audio In a regulated power supply, the output of
connections of the modem/sound card are the rectifier is connected to the
connected to the ___________. ______________.
A scanner A transformer
B antenna B regulator
C transceiver C filter
D input/output D output

B-003-007-005 (D) B-003-008-005 (C)

In an amateur digital radio system, the In a regulated power supply, the output of
modem function is often performed by the the filter connects to the
computer____________ . ____________________.
A keyboard A rectifier
B scanner B output
C serial port C regulator
D sound card D transformer

B-003-008-001 (A) B-003-008-006 (D)

In a regulated power supply, the transformer In a regulated power supply, the
connects to an external source which is _______________is connected to the
referred to as______________. regulator.
A input A rectifier
B regulator B input
C filter C transformer
D rectifier D output

B-003-008-002 (D) B-003-009-001 (C)

In a regulated power supply, the In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the
_______________ is between the input and ____________ is primarily for mechanical
the rectifier. support purposes.
A output A driven element
B regulator B director
C filter C boom
D transformer D reflector
B-003-009-002 (A) B-003-010-003 (D)
In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the If two receivers of different sensitivity are
________ is the longest radiating element. compared, the less sensitive receiver will
produce:
A reflector
B director A a steady oscillator drift
C driven element B more than one signal
D boom C more signal or less noise
D less signal or more noise
B-003-009-003 (D)
B-003-010-004 (C)
In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the
______________ is the shortest radiating Which of the following modes of
element. transmission is usually detected with a
product detector?
A boom
B reflector A Frequency modulation
C driven element B Pulse modulation
D director C Single sideband suppressed carrier
D Double sideband full carrier
B-003-009-004 (D)
B-003-010-005 (B)
In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the
______________is not the longest nor the A receiver designed for SSB reception must
shortest radiating element. have a BFO (beat frequency oscillator)
because:
A boom
B director A it phases out the unwanted sideband
signal
C reflector
B the suppressed carrier must be replaced
D driven element
for detection
C it beats with the received carrier to
B-003-010-001 (B)
produce the other sideband
Which list of emission types is in order from D it reduces the passband of the IF stages
the narrowest bandwidth to the widest
bandwidth?
B-003-010-006 (D)
A RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice
A receiver receives an incoming signal of
B CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice 3.54 MHz, and the local oscillator produces
C CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice a signal of 3.995 MHz. To which frequency
D CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice should the IF be tuned?
A 7.435 MHz
B-003-010-002 (A) B 3.995 MHz
The figure in a receiver's specifications which C 3.54 MHz
indicates its sensitivity is the: D 455 kHz
A RF input signal needed to achieve a given
signal plus noise to noise ratio B-003-010-007 (D)
B audio output in watts What kind of filter would you use to
C bandwidth of the IF in kilohertz attenuate an interfering carrier signal while
D number of RF amplifiers receiving an SSB transmission?
A A band pass filter
B An all pass filter
C A pi-network filter
D A notch filter
B-003-010-008 (D) B-003-011-001 (A)
The three main parameters against which What does chirp mean?
the quality of a receiver is measured are:
A A small change in a transmitter's
A selectivity, stability and frequency range
frequency each time it is keyed
B sensitivity, stability and cross-modulation
B A high-pitched tone which is received
C sensitivity, selectivity and image rejection along with a CW signal
D sensitivity, selectivity and stability C A slow change in transmitter frequency
as the circuit warms up
B-003-010-009 (B) D An overload in a receiver's audio circuit
A communications receiver has four filters whenever CW is received
installed in it, respectively designated as
250 Hz, 500 Hz, 2.4 kHz, and 6 kHz. If you B-003-011-002 (B)
were listening to single sideband, which filter What can be done to keep a CW transmitter
would you utilize? from chirping?
A 500 Hz A Add a low pass filter
B 2.4 kHz B Keep the power supply voltages very
C 250 Hz steady under transmit load
D 6 kHz C Add a key-click filter
D Keep the power supply current very
B-003-010-010 (B) steady under transmit load
A communications receiver has four filters
installed in it, respectively designated as B-003-011-003 (B)
250 Hz, 500 Hz, 2.4 kHz and 6 kHz. You What circuit has a variable-frequency
are copying a CW transmission and there is oscillator connected to a buffer/driver and a
a great deal of interference. Which one of power amplifier?
the filters would you choose?
A A digital radio transmitter
A 6 kHz
B A VFO-controlled CW transmitter
B 250 Hz
C A crystal-controlled AM transmitter
C 500 Hz D A single-sideband transmitter
D 2.4 kHz
B-003-011-004 (D)
B-003-010-011 (C)
What type of modulation system changes
Selectivity can be placed in the audio stages the amplitude of an RF wave for the purpose
of a receiver by the utilization of RC active or of conveying information?
passive audio filters. If you were to copy
CW, which of the following bandpasses A Phase modulation
would you choose? B Amplitude-rectification modulation
A 300 - 2700 Hz C Frequency modulation
B 100 - 1100 Hz D Amplitude modulation
C 750 - 850 Hz
B-003-011-005 (B)
D 2100 - 2300 Hz
In what emission type does the
instantaneous amplitude (envelope) of the
RF signal vary in accordance with the
modulating audio?
A Frequency shift keying
B Amplitude modulation
C Frequency modulation
D Pulse modulation
B-003-011-006 (A) B-003-011-011 (D)
Morse code is usually transmitted by radio The difference between DC input power and
as: RF output power of a transmitter RF
amplifier:
A an interrupted carrier
B a series of key-clicks A is lost in the transmission line
C a continuous carrier B is due to oscillating
D a voice-modulated carrier C radiates from the antenna
D appears as heat dissipation
B-003-011-007 (D)
B-003-012-001 (B)
A mismatched antenna or transmission line
may present an incorrect load to the What may happen if an SSB transmitter is
transmitter. The result may be: operated with the microphone gain set too
high?
A loss of modulation in the transmitted
signal A It may cause digital interference to
B the driver stage will not deliver power to computer equipment
the final B It may cause splatter interference to
C the output tank circuit breaks down other stations operating near its
frequency
D full power will not be transferred to the
antenna C It may cause interference to other
stations operating on a higher frequency
B-003-011-008 (D) band
D It may cause atmospheric interference in
One result of a slight mismatch between the the air around the antenna
power amplifier of a transmitter and the
antenna would be:
B-003-012-002 (B)
A smaller DC current drain
What may happen if an SSB transmitter is
B lower modulation percentage operated with too much speech processing?
C radiated key-clicks A It may cause interference to other
D reduced antenna radiation stations operating on a higher frequency
band
B-003-011-009 (A) B It may cause audio distortion or splatter
An RF oscillator should be electrically and interference to other stations operating
mechanically stable. This is to ensure that near its frequency
the oscillator does not: C It may cause digital interference to
computer equipment
A drift in frequency
D It may cause atmospheric interference in
B become over modulated the air around the antenna
C generate key-clicks
D cause undue distortion B-003-012-003 (B)
What is the term for the average power
B-003-011-010 (C) supplied to an antenna transmission line
The input power to the final stage of your during one RF cycle, at the crest of the
transmitter is 200 watts and the output is modulation envelope?
125 watts. What has happened to the A Peak transmitter power
remaining power?
B Peak envelope power
A It has been used to provide negative C Peak output power
feedback
D Average radio-frequency power
B It has been used to provide positive
feedback
C It has been dissipated as heat loss
D It has been used to provide greater
efficiency
B-003-012-004 (D) B-003-012-008 (B)
What is the usual bandwidth of a single- How should the microphone gain control be
sideband amateur signal? adjusted on a single-sideband phone
transmitter?
A 1 kHz
B 2 kHz A For a dip in plate current
C Between 3 and 6 kHz B For slight movement of the ALC meter on
modulation peaks
D Between 2 and 3 kHz
C For full deflection of the ALC meter on
modulation peaks
B-003-012-005 (A)
D For 100% frequency deviation on
In a typical single-sideband phone modulation peaks
transmitter, what circuit processes signals
from the balanced modulator and sends B-003-012-009 (B)
signals to the mixer?
The purpose of a balanced modulator in an
A Filter SSB transmitter is to:
B IF amplifier
A make sure that the carrier and both
C RF amplifier sidebands are in phase
D Carrier oscillator B suppress the carrier and pass on the two
sidebands
B-003-012-006 (C) C make sure that the carrier and both
What is one advantage of carrier sidebands are 180 degrees out of phase
suppression in a double-sideband phone D ensure that the percentage of modulation
transmission? is kept constant
A Greater modulation percentage is
obtainable with lower distortion B-003-012-010 (A)
B Simpler equipment can be used to In a SSB transmission, the carrier is:
receive a double-sideband suppressed-
carrier signal A reinserted at the receiver
C More power can be put into the B transmitted with one sideband
sidebands for a given power amplifier C inserted at the transmitter
capacity D of no use at the receiver
D Only half the bandwidth is required for the
same information content
B-003-012-011 (B)
B-003-012-007 (A) The automatic level control (ALC) in a SSB
transmitter:
What happens to the signal of an
overmodulated single-sideband or double- A reduces the system noise
sideband phone transmitter? B controls the peak audio input so that the
A It becomes distorted and occupies more power amplifier is not overdriven
bandwidth C reduces transmitter audio feedback
B It becomes stronger with no other effects D increases the occupied bandwidth
C It occupies less bandwidth with poor
high-frequency response
D It has higher fidelity and improved signal-
to-noise ratio
B-003-013-001 (B) B-003-013-005 (D)
What may happen if an FM transmitter is Why is FM voice best for local VHF/UHF
operated with the microphone gain or radio communications?
deviation control set too high?
A The carrier is not detectable
A It may cause interference to other B It is more resistant to distortion caused
stations operating on a higher frequency by reflected signals
band
C Its RF carrier stays on frequency better
B It may cause interference to other than the AM modes
stations operating near its frequency D It provides good signal plus noise to
C It may cause digital interference to noise ratio at low RF signal levels
computer equipment
D It may cause atmospheric interference in B-003-013-006 (A)
the air around the antenna
What is the usual bandwidth of a frequency-
modulated amateur signal for +/- 5kHz
B-003-013-002 (D)
deviation?
What may your FM hand-held or mobile
A Between 10 and 20 kHz
transceiver do if you shout into its
microphone and the deviation adjustment is B Less than 5 kHz
set too high? C Between 5 and 10 kHz
A It may cause digital interference to D Greater than 20 kHz
computer equipment
B It may cause atmospheric interference in B-003-013-007 (A)
the air around the antenna What is the result of overdeviation in an FM
C It may cause interference to other transmitter?
stations operating on a higher frequency
A Out-of-channel emissions
band
D It may cause interference to other B Increased transmitter power
stations operating near its frequency C Increased transmitter range
D Poor carrier suppression
B-003-013-003 (B)
What can you do if you are told your FM B-003-013-008 (D)
hand-held or mobile transceiver is What emission is produced by a reactance
overdeviating? modulator connected to an RF power
A Change to a higher power level amplifier?
B Talk farther away from the microphone A Multiplex modulation
C Talk louder into the microphone B Amplitude modulation
D Let the transceiver cool off C Pulse modulation
D Phase modulation
B-003-013-004 (A)
What kind of emission would your FM B-003-013-009 (A)
transmitter produce if its microphone failed Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone
to work? used below 28.0 MHz?
A An unmodulated carrier A The bandwidth would exceed limits in the
B A frequency-modulated carrier Regulations
C An amplitude-modulated carrier B The transmitter efficiency for this mode is
D A phase-modulated carrier low
C Harmonics could not be attenuated to
practical levels
D The frequency stability would not be
adequate
B-003-013-010 (B) B-003-014-004 (C)
You are transmitting FM on the 2 metre Why might a dummy antenna get warm
band. Several stations advise you that your when in use?
transmission is loud and distorted. A quick
A Because it stores radio waves
check with a frequency counter tells you
that the transmitter is on the proper B Because it stores electric current
frequency. Which of the following is the C Because it changes RF energy into heat
most probable cause of the distortion? D Because it absorbs static electricity
A The frequency counter is giving an
incorrect reading and you are indeed off B-003-014-005 (A)
frequency
What is the circuit called which causes a
B The frequency deviation of your transmitter to automatically transmit when
transmitter is set too high an operator speaks into its microphone?
C The power supply output voltage is low
A VOX
D The repeater is reversing your sidebands
B VXO
B-003-013-011 (D)
C VCO
D VFO
FM receivers perform in an unusual manner
when two or more stations are present. The
strongest signal, even though it is only two B-003-014-006 (A)
or three times stronger than the other What is the reason for using a properly
signals, will be the only transmission adjusted speech processor with a single-
demodulated. This is called: sideband phone transmitter?
A attach effect A It improves signal intelligibility at the
B interference effect receiver
C surrender effect B It reduces average transmitter power
D capture effect requirements
C It reduces unwanted noise pickup from
B-003-014-001 (A) the microphone
D It improves voice frequency fidelity
What do many amateurs use to help form
good Morse code characters?
B-003-014-007 (D)
A An electronic keyer
If a single-sideband phone transmitter is
B A key-operated on/off switch 100% modulated, what will a speech
C A notch filter processor do to the transmitter's power?
D A DTMF keypad A It will increase the output PEP
B It will decrease the peak power output
B-003-014-002 (A)
C It will decrease the average power output
Where would you connect a microphone for D It will add nothing to the output Peak
voice operation? Envelope Power (PEP)
A To a transceiver
B To a power supply B-003-014-008 (A)
C To an antenna switch When switching from receive to transmit:
D To an antenna
A the receiver should be muted
B-003-014-003 (A) B the transmit oscillator should be turned
off
What would you connect to a transceiver for
C the receiving antenna should be
voice operation?
connected
A A microphone D the power supply should be off
B A receiver audio filter
C A terminal-voice controller
D A splatter filter
B-003-014-009 (B) B-003-015-002 (C)
A switching system to enable the use of one What does "monitoring" mean on a packet-
antenna for a transmitter and receiver should radio frequency?
also:
A A receiving station is displaying all
A disconnect the antenna tuner messages sent to it, and replying that
B disable the unit not being used the messages are being received
correctly
C ground the antenna on receive
B Industry Canada is monitoring all
D switch between meters
messages
C A receiving station is displaying
B-003-014-010 (A)
messages that may not be sent to it, and
An antenna changeover switch in a is not replying to any message
transmitter-receiver combination is D A member of the Amateur Auxiliary is
necessary: copying all messages
A so that one antenna can be used for
transmitter and receiver B-003-015-003 (B)
B to change antennas for operation on other What is a digipeater?
frequencies
C to prevent RF currents entering the A A station that retransmits any data that it
receiver circuits receives
D to allow more than one transmitter to be B A station that retransmits only data that
used is marked to be retransmitted
C A repeater built using only digital
B-003-014-011 (C) electronics parts
Which of the following components could be D A repeater that changes audio signals to
used as a dynamic microphone? digital data

A Resistor B-003-015-004 (D)

B Capacitor
What does "network" mean in packet radio?
C Loudspeaker
D Crystal earpiece A A way of connecting terminal-node
controllers by telephone so data can be
B-003-015-001 (A) sent over long distances

What does "connected" mean in an AX.25

B The connections on terminal-node
packet-radio link? controllers
C The programming in a terminal-node
A A transmitting station is sending data to controller that rejects other callers if a
only one receiving station, it replies that station is already connected
the data is being received correctly
D A way of connecting packet-radio
B A telephone link is working between two stations so data can be sent over long
stations distances
C A message has reached an amateur
station for local delivery B-003-015-005 (B)
D A transmitting and receiving station are
In AX.25 packet-radio operation, what
using a digipeater, so no other contacts
equipment connects to a terminal-node
can take place until they are finished
controller?
A A DTMF microphone, a monitor and a
transceiver
B A transceiver, a computer and possibly a
GPS receiver
C A transceiver and a modem
D A DTMF keypad, a monitor and a
transceiver
B-003-015-006 (C) B-003-015-010 (D)
How would you modulate a 2 meter FM When using AMTOR transmissions, there
transceiver to produce packet-radio are two modes that may be utilized. Mode A
emissions? uses Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ)
protocol and is normally used:
A Connect a keyboard to the transceiver's
microphone input A at all times. Mode B is for test purposes
B Connect a DTMF key pad to the only
transceiver's microphone input B only when communications have been
C Connect a terminal-node controller to the completed
transceiver's microphone input C when making a general call
D Connect a terminal-node controller to D for communications after contact has
interrupt the transceiver's carrier wave been established

B-003-015-007 (D) B-003-015-011 (D)

When selecting a RTTY transmitting With a digital communication mode based
frequency, what minimum frequency on a computer sound card, what is the result
separation from a contact in progress should of feeding too much audio in the transceiver?
you allow (center to center) to minimize
A Higher signal-to-noise ratio
interference?
B Lower error rate
A Approximately 6 kHz
C Power amplifier overheating
B Approximately 3 kHz D Splatter or out-of-channel emissions
C 60 Hz
D 250 to 500 Hz B-003-016-001 (D)
How much voltage does a standard
B-003-015-008 (A)
automobile battery usually supply?
Digital transmissions use signals called
A About 240 volts
__________ to transmit the states 1 and 0:
B About 120 volts
A mark and space
C About 9 volts
B packet and AMTOR D About 12 volts
C Baudot and ASCII
D dot and dash B-003-016-002 (A)
Which component has a positive and a
B-003-015-009 (A)
negative side?
Which of the following terms does not apply
A A battery
to packet radio?
B A potentiometer
A Baudot
C A fuse
B ASCII D A resistor
C Automatic Packet Reporting System
(APRS)
B-003-016-003 (A)
D AX.25
A cell, that can be repeatedly recharged by
supplying it with electrical energy, is known
as a:
A storage cell
B low leakage cell
C memory cell
D primary cell
B-003-016-004 (B) B-003-016-009 (C)
Which of the following is a source of To increase the current capacity of a cell,
electromotive force (EMF)? several cells should be connected in:
A carbon resistor A parallel resonant
B lithium-ion battery B series resonant
C germanium diode C parallel
D P channel FET D series

B-003-016-005 (D) B-003-016-010 (A)

An important difference between a To increase the voltage output, several cells
conventional flashlight battery and a lead are connected in:
acid battery is that only the lead acid
A series
battery:
B parallel
A has two terminals
C series-parallel
B can be completely discharged D resonance
C contains an electrolyte
D can be repeatedly recharged B-003-016-011 (C)
A lithium-ion battery should never be:
B-003-016-006 (C)
An alkaline cell has a nominal voltage of 1.5 A left disconnected
volts. When supplying a great deal of B left overnight at room temperature
current, the voltage may drop to 1.2 volts.
This is caused by the cell's:
C short-circuited
D recharged
A current capacity
B voltage capacity B-003-017-001 (C)
C internal resistance
If your mobile transceiver works in your car
D electrolyte becoming dry but not in your home, what should you
check first?
B-003-016-007 (B)
A The microphone
An inexpensive primary cell in use today is B The SWR meter
the carbon-zinc or flashlight cell. This type of
cell can be recharged:
C The power supply
D The speaker
A once
B never B-003-017-002 (B)
C twice
What device converts household current to
D many times 12 volts DC?
A A catalytic converter
B-003-016-008 (C)
B A power supply
Battery capacity is commonly stated as a
value of current delivered over a specified
C A low pass filter
period of time. What is the effect of D An RS-232 interface
exceeding that specified current?
B-003-017-003 (D)
A The battery will accept the subsequent
charge in shorter time Which of these usually needs a high current
B The voltage delivered will be higher capacity power supply?
C A battery charge will not last as long A An antenna switch
D The internal resistance of the cell is B A receiver
short-circuited C An SWR meter
D A transceiver
B-003-017-004 (D) B-003-017-009 (A)
What may cause a buzzing or hum in the Your mobile HF transceiver draws 22
signal of an AC-powered transmitter? amperes on transmit. The manufacturer
suggests limiting voltage drop to 0.5 volt and
A Using an antenna which is the wrong
the vehicle battery is 3 metres (10 feet)
length
away. Given the losses below at that
B Energy from another transmitter current, which minimum wire gauge must
C Bad design of the transmitter's RF power you use?
output circuit A Number 10, 0.07 V per metre (0.02 V per
D A bad filter capacitor in the transmitter's foot)
power supply
B Number 14, 0.19 V per metre (0.06 V per
foot)
B-003-017-005 (D)
C Number 12, 0.11 V per metre (0.03 V per
A power supply is to supply DC at 12 volts foot)
at 5 amperes. The power transformer should D Number 8, 0.05 V per metre (0.01 V per
be rated higher than: foot)
A 17 watts
B 2.4 watts B-003-017-010 (A)
C 6 watts Why are fuses needed as close as possible
D 60 watts to the vehicle battery when wiring a
transceiver directly to the battery?
B-003-017-006 (A) A To prevent an overcurrent situation from
starting a fire
The diode is an important part of a simple
power supply. It converts AC to DC, since it: B To prevent interference to the vehicle's
electronic systems
A allows electrons to flow in only one C To reduce the voltage drop in the radio's
direction from cathode to anode
DC supply
B has a high resistance to AC but not to D To protect the radio from transient
DC voltages
C has a high resistance to DC but not to
AC B-003-017-011 (A)
D allows electrons to flow in only one
You have a very loud low-frequency hum
direction from anode to cathode
appearing on your transmission. In what part
of the transmitter would you first look for the
B-003-017-007 (D) trouble?
To convert AC to pulsating DC, you could A The power supply
use a:
B The variable-frequency oscillator
A transformer C The driver circuit
B capacitor D The power amplifier circuit
C resistor
D diode B-003-018-001 (A)
How could you best keep unauthorized
B-003-017-008 (A) persons from using your amateur station at
Power-line voltages have been made home?
standard over the years and the voltages A Use a key-operated on/off switch in the
generally supplied to homes are
main power line
approximately:
B Use a carrier-operated relay in the main
A 120 and 240 volts power line
B 110 and 220 volts C Put a "Danger - High Voltage" sign in the
C 100 and 200 volts station
D 130 and 260 volts D Put fuses in the main power line
B-003-018-002 (D) B-003-018-006 (B)
How could you best keep unauthorized Which body organ can be fatally affected by
persons from using a mobile amateur station a very small amount of electrical current?
in your car?
A The lungs
A Tune the radio to an unused frequency B The heart
when you are done using it
C The brain
B Turn the radio off when you are not using D The liver
it
C Put a "Do not touch" sign on the radio
B-003-018-007 (B)
D Disconnect the microphone when you are
not using it What is the minimum voltage which is
usually dangerous to humans?
B-003-018-003 (C) A 2000 volts
Why would you use a key-operated on/off B 30 volts
switch in the main power line of your C 100 volts
station? D 1000 volts
A To keep the power company from turning
off your electricity during an emergency B-003-018-008 (B)
B For safety, to turn off the station in the What should you do if you discover
event of an emergency someone who is being burned by high
C To keep unauthorized persons from using voltage?
your station
A Run from the area so you won't be burned
D For safety, in case the main fuses fail
too
B Turn off the power, call for emergency
B-003-018-004 (C)
help and provide first-aid if needed
Why would there be a switch in a high- C Wait for a few minutes to see if the
voltage power supply to turn off the power if person can get away from the high
its cabinet is opened? voltage on their own, then try to help
A To keep dangerous RF radiation from D Immediately drag the person away from
coming in through an open cabinet the high voltage
B To turn the power supply off when it is not
being used B-003-018-009 (D)
C To keep anyone opening the cabinet from What is the safest method to remove an
getting shocked by dangerous high unconscious person from contact with a high
voltages voltage source?
D To keep dangerous RF radiation from A Wrap the person in a blanket and pull
leaking out through an open cabinet him to a safe area
B Call an electrician
B-003-018-005 (B)
C Remove the person by pulling an arm or a
How little electrical current flowing through leg
the human body can be fatal? D Turn off the high voltage switch before
A Current flow through the human body is removing the person from contact with
never fatal the source
B As little as 20 milliamperes
C Approximately 10 amperes
D More than 20 amperes
B-003-018-010 (A) B-003-019-004 (B)
Before checking a fault in a mains operated Which of these materials is best for a
power supply unit, it would be safest to first: ground rod driven into the earth?
A turn off the power and remove power plug A Fiberglass
B short out leads of filter capacitor B Copper-clad steel
C check action of capacitor bleeder C Hard plastic
resistance D Iron or steel
D remove and check fuse from power
supply B-003-019-005 (D)

B-003-018-011 (B) If you ground your station equipment to a

ground rod driven into the earth, what is the
Fault finding in a power supply of an amateur shortest length the rod should be?
transmitter while the supply is operating is
not a recommended technique because of A 1.2 metre (4 ft)
the risk of: B 2.5 metres (8 ft)
A blowing the fuse C 3 metres (10 ft)
D The station ground system must conform
B electric shock
to applicable electrical code requirements
C damaging the transmitter
D overmodulation B-003-019-006 (A)
Where should the green wire in a three-wire
B-003-019-001 (A)
AC line cord be connected in a power
For best protection from electrical shock, supply?
what should be grounded in an amateur
A To the chassis
station?
B To the white wire
A All station equipment
C To the "hot" side of the power switch
B The antenna transmission line D To the fuse
C The AC power line
D The power supply primary B-003-019-007 (D)
If your third-floor amateur station has a
B-003-019-002 (B)
ground wire running 10 metres (33 feet)
If a separate ground system is not possible down to a ground rod, why might you get an
for your amateur station, an alternative RF burn if you touch the front panel of your
indoor grounding point could be: HF transceiver?
A a metallic natural gas pipe A Because of a bad antenna connection,
B a metallic cold water pipe allowing the RF energy to take an easier
path out of the transceiver through you
C a plastic cold water pipe
B Because the transceiver's heat-sensing
D a window screen
circuit is not working to start the cooling
fan
B-003-019-003 (C)
C Because the ground rod is not making
To protect you against electrical shock, the good contact with moist earth
chassis of each piece of your station D Because the ground wire has significant
equipment should be connected to: reactance and acts more like an antenna
A insulated shock mounts than an RF ground connection
B the antenna
C a good ground connection
D a dummy load
B-003-019-008 (D) B-003-020-001 (A)
What is one good way to avoid stray RF Why should you ground all antenna and
energy in your amateur station? rotator cables when your amateur station is
not in use?
A Make a couple of loops in the ground wire
where it connects to your station A To help protect the station equipment and
B Drive the ground rod at least 4m (14 feet) building from lightning damage
into the ground B To lock the antenna system in one
C Use a beryllium ground wire for best position
conductivity C To avoid radio frequency interference
D Keep the station's ground wire as short D To make sure everything will stay in
as possible place

B-003-019-009 (C) B-003-020-002 (C)

Which statement about station grounding is You want to install a lightning arrestor on
true? your antenna transmission line, where
should it be inserted?
A If the chassis of all station equipment is
connected with a good conductor, there A Behind the transceiver
is no need to tie them to an earth ground B Anywhere on the line
B The chassis of each piece of station C Outside, as close to earth grounding as
equipment should be tied together with possible
high-impedance conductors D Close to the antenna
C RF hot spots can occur in a station
located above the ground floor if the
B-003-020-003 (A)
equipment is grounded by a long ground
wire How can amateur station equipment best be
D A ground loop is an effective way to protected from lightning damage?
ground station equipment A Disconnect all equipment from the power
lines and antenna cables
B-003-019-010 (D)
B Use heavy insulation on the wiring
On mains operated power supplies, the C Never turn off the equipment
ground wire should be connected to the D Disconnect the ground system from all
metal chassis of the power supply. This
radios
ensures, in case there is a fault in the power
supply, that the chassis:
B-003-020-004 (C)
A does not become conductive to prevent
What equipment should be worn for working
electric shock
on an antenna tower?
B becomes conductive to prevent electric
shock A A flashing red, yellow or white light
C develops a high voltage compared to the B A grounding chain
ground C Approved equipment in accordance with
D does not develop a high voltage with applicable standards concerning fall
respect to the ground protection
D A reflective vest of approved colour
B-003-019-011 (D)
The purpose of using a three-wire power cord
and plug on amateur radio equipment is to:
A prevent the plug from being reversed in
the wall outlet
B prevent internal short circuits
C make it inconvenient to use
D prevent the chassis from becoming live
B-003-020-005 (D) B-003-020-009 (B)
Why should you wear approved fall arrest Why should you make sure that no one can
equipment if you are working on an antenna touch an open wire transmission line while
tower? you are transmitting with it?
A To safely bring any tools you might use A Because contact might cause a short
up and down the tower circuit and damage the transmitter
B To keep the tower from becoming B Because high-voltage radio energy might
unbalanced while you are working burn the person
C To safely hold your tools so they don't fall C Because contact might break the
and injure someone on the ground transmission line
D To prevent you from accidentally falling D Because contact might cause spurious
emissions
B-003-020-006 (C)
B-003-020-010 (C)
For safety, how high should you place a
horizontal wire antenna? What safety precautions should you take
before beginning repairs on an antenna?
A Just high enough so you can easily reach
it for adjustments or repairs A Inform your neighbours so they are aware
of your intentions
B As close to the ground as possible
C High enough so that no one can touch
B Turn off the main power switch in your
any part of it from the ground house
D Above high-voltage electrical lines C Be sure to turn off the transmitter and
disconnect the transmission line
D Be sure you and the antenna structure
B-003-020-007 (B)
are grounded
Why should you wear a hard hat if you are
on the ground helping someone work on an B-003-020-011 (D)
antenna tower?
What precaution should you take when
A So someone passing by will know that installing a ground-mounted antenna?
work is being done on the tower and will
stay away A It should be painted so people or animals
do not accidentally run into it
B To protect your head from something
dropped from the tower B It should not be installed in a wet area
C So you won't be hurt if the tower should C It should not be installed higher than you
accidentally fall can reach
D To keep RF energy away from your head D It should be installed so no one can
during antenna testing come in contact with it

B-003-020-008 (B) B-003-021-001 (D)

Why should your outside antennas be high What should you do for safety when
enough so that no one can touch them while operating at UHF and microwave
you are transmitting? frequencies?

A Touching the antenna might cause A Make sure that an RF leakage filter is
television interference installed at the antenna feed point
B Touching the antenna might cause RF B Make sure the standing wave ratio is low
burns before you conduct a test
C Touching the antenna might reflect the C Never use a horizontally polarized
signal back to the transmitter and cause antenna
damage D Keep antenna away from your eyes when
D Touching the antenna might radiate RF is applied
harmonics
B-003-021-002 (D) B-003-021-006 (B)
What should you do for safety if you put up How can exposure to a large amount of RF
a UHF transmitting antenna? energy affect body tissue?
A Make sure the antenna is near the A It causes hair to fall out
ground to keep its RF energy pointing in B It heats the tissue
the correct direction
C It lowers blood pressure
B Make sure you connect an RF leakage D It paralyzes the tissue
filter at the antenna feed point
C Make sure that RF field screens are in
B-003-021-007 (A)
place
D Make sure the antenna will be in a place Which body organ is the most likely to be
where no one can get near it when you damaged from the heating effects of RF
are transmitting radiation?
A Eyes
B-003-021-003 (C)
B Heart
What should you do for safety, before C Liver
removing the shielding on a UHF power D Hands
amplifier?
A Make sure the antenna transmission line B-003-021-008 (A)
is properly grounded
Depending on the wavelength of the signal,
B Make sure all RF screens are in place at the energy density of the RF field, and other
the antenna transmission line factors, in what way can RF energy affect
C Make sure the amplifier cannot body tissue?
accidentally be turned on
A It heats the tissue
D Make sure that RF leakage filters are
connected B It causes ionizing radiation poisoning
C It causes blood flow to stop
B-003-021-004 (C) D It has no effect on the body
Why should you make sure the antenna of a
hand-held transceiver is not close to your B-003-021-009 (A)
head when transmitting? If you operate your amateur station with
A To keep static charges from building up indoor antennas, what precautions should
you take when you install them?
B To help the antenna radiate energy
equally in all directions A Locate the antennas as far away as
C To reduce your exposure to the radio- possible from living spaces that will be
frequency energy occupied while you are operating
D To use your body to reflect the signal in B Position the antennas parallel to
one direction electrical power wires to take advantage
of parasitic effects
B-003-021-005 (B) C Position the antennas along the edge of a
wall where it meets the floor or ceiling to
How should you position the antenna of a
reduce parasitic radiation
hand-held transceiver while you are
transmitting? D Locate the antennas close to your
operating position to minimize
A Pointed down to bounce the signal off the transmission line length
ground
B Away from your head and away from
others
C Pointed towards the station you are
contacting
D Pointed away from the station you are
contacting
B-003-021-010 (C) B-004-001-004 (A)
Why should directional high-gain antennas To increase the level of very weak signals
be mounted higher than nearby structures? from a microphone you would use:
A So they will not damage nearby A an audio amplifier
structures with RF energy B an RF oscillator
B So they will receive more sky waves and C an RF amplifier
fewer ground waves D an audio oscillator
C So they will not direct RF energy toward
people in nearby structures
B-004-001-005 (B)
D So they will be dried by the wind after a
heavy rain storm The range of frequencies to be amplified by a
speech amplifier is typically:
B-003-021-011 (B) A 40 to 40 000 Hz
For best RF safety, where should the ends B 300 to 3000 Hz
and center of a dipole antenna be located? C 3 to 300 Hz
A Close to the ground so simple D 300 to 1000 Hz
adjustments can be easily made without
climbing a ladder B-004-001-006 (B)
B As high as possible to prevent people Which of the following is not amplified by an
from coming in contact with the antenna amplifier?
C Near or over moist ground so RF energy
will be radiated away from the ground A Voltage
D As close to the transmitter as possible B Resistance
so RF energy will be concentrated near C Current
the transmitter D Power

B-004-001-001 (C) B-004-001-007 (A)

A circuit designed to increase the level of its The increase in signal level by an amplifier is
input signal is called: called:
A an oscillator A gain
B a receiver B attenuation
C an amplifier C amplitude
D a modulator D modulation

B-004-001-002 (D) B-004-001-008 (B)

If an amplifier becomes non-linear, the A device with gain has the property of:
output signal would:
A be saturated A modulation
B cause oscillations B amplification
C overload the power supply C attenuation
D become distorted D oscillation

B-004-001-003 (A) B-004-001-009 (B)

To increase the level of very weak radio A device labelled "Gain = 10 dB" is likely to
signals from an antenna, you would use: be an:
A an RF amplifier A audio fader
B an RF oscillator B amplifier
C an audio oscillator C attenuator
D an audio amplifier D oscillator
B-004-001-010 (A) B-004-002-005 (C)
Amplifiers can amplify: The electrodes of a semiconductor diode are
known as:
A voltage, current, or power
A collector and base
B current, power, or inductance
B cathode and drain
C voltage, power, or inductance
C anode and cathode
D voltage, current, or inductance
D gate and source

B-004-001-011 (B)
B-004-002-006 (B)
Which of the following is not a property of an
If alternating current is applied to the anode
amplifier?
of a diode, what would you expect to see at
A Distortion the cathode?
B Loss A Pulsating alternating current
C Gain B Pulsating direct current
D Linearity C No signal
D Steady direct current
B-004-002-001 (D)
Zener diodes are used as: B-004-002-007 (B)
In a semiconductor diode, electrons flow
A current regulators
from:
B RF detectors
A grid to anode
C AF detectors
B cathode to anode
D voltage regulators
C anode to cathode
B-004-002-002 (D) D cathode to grid

One important application for diodes is

B-004-002-008 (C)
recovering information from transmitted
signals. This is referred to as: What semiconductor device glows different
colours, depending upon its chemical
A regeneration
composition?
B ionization
A A neon bulb
C biasing
B A vacuum diode
D demodulation
C A light-emitting diode
B-004-002-003 (C) D A fluorescent bulb

The primary purpose of a Zener diode is to:

B-004-002-009 (A)
A to boost the power supply voltage Voltage regulation is the principal application
B provide a path through which current can of the:
flow A Zener diode
C regulate or maintain a constant voltage B junction diode
D provide a voltage phase shift C light-emitting diode
D vacuum diode
B-004-002-004 (C)
The action of changing alternating current to B-004-002-010 (C)
direct current is called:
In order for a diode to conduct, it must be:
A transformation
B modulation A enhanced
C rectification B reverse-biased
D amplification C forward-biased
D close coupled
B-004-003-001 (D) B-004-003-007 (B)
Which component can amplify a small The two basic types of bipolar transistors
signal using low voltages? are:
A A variable resistor A P and N channel types
B An electrolytic capacitor B NPN and PNP types
C A multiple-cell battery C diode and triode types
D A PNP transistor D varicap and Zener types

B-004-003-002 (C) B-004-003-008 (B)

The basic semiconductor amplifying device A transistor can be destroyed in a circuit by:
is the:
A cut-off
A P-N junction
B excessive heat
B diode
C excessive light
C transistor
D saturation
D tube

B-004-003-009 (B)
B-004-003-003 (A)
In a bipolar transistor, the
The three leads from a PNP transistor are
_____________compares closest to the
named:
control grid of a triode vacuum tube.
A collector, emitter and base
A collector
B drain, base and source
B base
C collector, source and drain
C emitter
D gate, source and drain
D source

B-004-003-004 (C)
B-004-003-010 (B)
If a low level signal is placed at the input to a
In a bipolar transistor, the
transistor, a higher level of signal is
_____________compares closest to the
produced at the output lead. This effect is
plate of a triode vacuum tube.
known as:
A base
A modulation
B collector
B rectification
C gate
C amplification
D emitter
D detection

B-004-003-011 (B)
B-004-003-005 (A)
In a bipolar transistor, the _____________
Bipolar transistors usually have:
compares closest to the cathode of a triode
vacuum tube.
A 3 leads
B 1 lead A drain
C 2 leads B emitter
D 4 leads C collector
D base
B-004-003-006 (B)
A semiconductor is described as a "general
purpose audio NPN device". This would be:
A an audio detector
B a bipolar transistor
C a silicon diode
D a triode
B-004-004-001 (B) B-004-004-006 (A)
The two basic types of field effect transistors Which semiconductor device has
(FET) are: characteristics most similar to a triode
vacuum tube?
A inductive and capacitive
B N and P channel A Field effect transistor
C NPN and PNP B Junction diode
D germanium and silicon C Zener diode
D Bipolar transistor
B-004-004-002 (D)
B-004-004-007 (C)
A semiconductor having its leads labelled
gate, drain, and source is best described as The control element in the field effect
a: transistor is the:
A gated transistor A drain
B bipolar transistor B base
C silicon diode C gate
D field-effect transistor D source

B-004-004-003 (C) B-004-004-008 (C)

In a field effect transistor, the ___________ If you wish to reduce the current flowing in a
is the terminal that controls the conductance field effect transistor, you could:
of the channel.
A increase the forward bias voltage
A source B increase the forward bias gain
B collector C increase the reverse bias voltage
C gate D decrease the reverse bias voltage
D drain
B-004-004-009 (B)
B-004-004-004 (C)
The source of a field effect transistor
In a field effect transistor, the ___________is corresponds to the _______ of a bipolar
the terminal where the charge carriers enter transistor.
the channel.
A collector
A drain B emitter
B emitter C base
C source D drain
D gate
B-004-004-010 (B)
B-004-004-005 (C)
The drain of a field effect transistor
In a field effect transistor, the __________ is corresponds to the _______ of a bipolar
the terminal where the charge carriers leave transistor.
the channel.
A emitter
A source B collector
B gate C base
C drain D source
D collector
B-004-004-011 (A) B-004-005-005 (D)
Which two elements in a field effect In a vacuum tube, the electrode that is
transistor exhibit fairly similar usually a cylinder of wire mesh is the
characteristics? _______.
A Source and drain A filament (heater)
B Source and gate B cathode
C Gate and drain C plate
D Source and base D grid

B-004-005-001 (C) B-004-005-006 (C)

What is one reason a triode vacuum tube In a vacuum tube, the element that is
might be used instead of a transistor in a furthest away from the plate is the
circuit? __________.
A It is much smaller A emitter
B It uses lower voltages B cathode
C It may be able to handle higher power C filament (heater)
D It uses less current D grid

B-004-005-002 (C) B-004-005-007 (A)

Which component can amplify a small In a vacuum tube, the electrode that emits
signal but must use high voltages? electrons is the __________.
A An electrolytic capacitor A cathode
B A multiple-cell battery B grid
C A vacuum tube C collector
D A transistor D plate

B-004-005-003 (B) B-004-005-008 (A)

A feature common to triode tubes and What is inside the envelope of a triode tube?
transistors is that both:
A A vacuum
A use heat to cause electron movement
B Argon
B can amplify signals
C Air
C have electrons drifting through a vacuum
D Neon
D convert electrical energy to radio waves

B-004-005-009 (C)
B-004-005-004 (B)
How many grids are there in a triode vacuum
In a vacuum tube, the electrode that is
tube?
operated with the highest positive potential
is the _________. A Three
A grid B Three plus a filament
B plate C One
C filament (heater) D Two
D cathode
B-004-006-001 (B)
How do you find a resistor's tolerance
rating?
A By using a voltmeter
B By reading the resistor's colour code
C By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors
D By reading its Baudot code
B-004-006-002 (D) B-004-006-007 (D)
What do the first three-colour bands on a You need a current limiting resistor for a
resistor indicate? light-emitting diode (LED). The actual
resistance is not critical at all. Out of the list
A The resistance material
below, which resistor tolerance would you
B The power rating in watts select?
C The resistance tolerance in percent A 0.1%
D The value of the resistor in ohms
B 5%
C 10%
B-004-006-003 (C)
D 20%
What would the fourth colour band on a 47
ohm resistor indicate?
B-004-006-008 (B)
A The power rating in watts
If a carbon resistor's temperature is
B The resistance material increased, what will happen to the
C The resistance tolerance in percent resistance?
D The value of the resistor in ohms A It will increase by 20% for every 10
degrees centigrade
B-004-006-004 (C) B It will change depending on the resistor's
What are the possible values of a 100 ohm temperature coefficient rating
resistor with a 10% tolerance? C It will stay the same
A 10 to 100 ohms
D It will become time dependent
B 80 to 120 ohms
B-004-006-009 (C)
C 90 to 110 ohms
D 90 to 100 ohms A gold tolerance band on a resistor indicates
the tolerance is:
B-004-006-005 (B) A 10%
How do you find a resistor's value? B 1%
C 5%
A By using the Baudot code D 20%
B By using the resistor's colour code
C By using a voltmeter B-004-006-010 (C)
D By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors Which colour band would differentiate a 120-
ohm from a 1200-ohm resistor?
B-004-006-006 (B) A Second band
A club project requires that a resistive B Fourth band
voltage divider provide a very accurate and
C Third band
predictable ratio. Out of the list below, which
resistor tolerance would you select? D First band

A 20%
B-004-006-011 (B)
B 0.1%
Given that red=2, violet=7 and yellow=4,
C 5% what is the nominal value of a resistor whose
D 10% colour code reads "red", "violet" and
"yellow"?
A 27 megohms
B 270 kilohms
C 274 ohms
D 72 kilohms
B-005-001-001 (D) B-005-001-006 (B)
If a dial marked in megahertz shows a A kilohm is:
reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if
it were marked in kilohertz? A 10 ohms
A 35.25 kHz B 1000 ohms
B 3 525 000 kHz C 0.1 ohm
C 0.003525 kHz D 0.001 ohm
D 3525 kHz
B-005-001-007 (D)
B-005-001-002 (C) 6.6 kilovolts is equal to:
If an ammeter marked in amperes is used to
A 660 volts
measure a 3000 milliampere current, what
reading would it show? B 66 volts
C 66 000 volts
A 0.3 ampere
D 6600 volts
B 3 000 000 amperes
C 3 amperes
B-005-001-008 (A)
D 0.003 ampere
A current of one quarter ampere may be
written as:
B-005-001-003 (B)
A 250 milliamperes
If a voltmeter marked in volts is used to
measure a 3500 millivolt potential, what B 0.5 amperes
reading would it show? C 0.25 milliampere
A 350 volts D 250 microamperes
B 3.5 volts
B-005-001-009 (B)
C 0.35 volt
D 35 volts How many millivolts are equivalent to two
volts?
B-005-001-004 (D) A 0.002
How many microfarads is 1 000 000 B 2 000
picofarads? C 0.000002
A 1 000 000 000 microfarads D 2 000 000
B 1000 microfarads
B-005-001-010 (C)
C 0.001 microfarad
D 1 microfarad One megahertz is equal to:

A 0.001 Hz
B-005-001-005 (A)
B 10 Hz
If you have a hand-held transceiver which
puts out 500 milliwatts, how many watts
C 1 000 kHz
would this be? D 100 kHz

A 0.5
B-005-001-011 (B)
B 5
An inductance of 10 000 microhenrys may
C 50
be stated correctly as:
D 0.02
A 1 000 henrys
B 10 millihenrys
C 100 millihenrys
D 10 henrys
B-005-002-001 (D) B-005-002-006 (A)
Name three good electrical conductors. A length of metal is connected in a circuit
and is found to conduct electricity very well.
A Gold, silver, wood It would be best described as having a:
B Copper, aluminum, paper A low resistance
C Copper, gold, mica B high resistance
D Gold, silver, aluminum C high wattage
D low wattage
B-005-002-002 (C)
Name four good electrical insulators. B-005-002-007 (D)
The letter "R" is the symbol for:
A Paper, glass, air, aluminum
B Glass, wood, copper, porcelain A impedance
C Glass, air, plastic, porcelain B reluctance
D Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon C reactance
D resistance
B-005-002-003 (D)
Why do resistors sometimes get hot when B-005-002-008 (C)
in use?
The reciprocal of resistance is:
A Their reactance makes them heat up
B Hotter circuit components nearby heat A reluctance
them up B permeability
C They absorb magnetic energy which C conductance
makes them hot D reactance
D Some electrical energy passing through
them is lost as heat B-005-002-009 (B)

B-005-002-004 (C) Voltage drop means:

What is the best conductor among the A the voltage which is dissipated before
following materials? useful work is accomplished
A silicon B the voltage developed across the
B aluminium terminals of a component
C copper
C any point in a radio circuit which has zero
voltage
D carbon
D the difference in voltage at output
terminals of a transformer
B-005-002-005 (A)
Which type of material listed will most B-005-002-010 (B)
readily allow an electric current to flow?
The resistance of a conductor changes with:
A a conductor
B an insulator A humidity
C a semiconductor B temperature
D a dielectric C voltage
D current
B-005-002-011 (A) B-005-003-006 (D)
The most common material used to make a Power is expressed in:
resistor is:
A volts
A carbon
B amperes
B gold
C ohms
C mica
D watts
D lead

B-005-003-007 (B)
B-005-003-001 (A)
Which of the following two quantities should
What is the word used to describe the rate
be multiplied together to find power?
at which electrical energy is used?
A Resistance and capacitance
A Power
B Voltage and current
B Current
C Inductance and capacitance
C Voltage
D Voltage and inductance
D Resistance

B-005-003-008 (D)
B-005-003-002 (B)
Which two electrical units multiplied
If you have light bulbs marked 40 watts, 60
together give the unit "watts"?
watts and 100 watts, which one will use
electrical energy the fastest? A Volts and farads
A The 60 watt bulb B Farads and henrys
B The 100 watt bulb C Amperes and henrys
C They will all be the same D Volts and amperes
D The 40 watt bulb
B-005-003-009 (D)
B-005-003-003 (D) A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and
starts to burn. This is because the resistor
What is the basic unit of electrical power?
is dissipating too much:
A The ampere A voltage
B The volt B resistance
C The ohm C current
D The watt D power

B-005-003-004 (A) B-005-003-010 (D)

Which electrical circuit will have no current? High power resistors are usually large with
heavy leads. The size aids the operation of
A An open circuit the resistor by:
B A short circuit A allowing higher voltage to be handled
C A complete circuit B increasing the effective resistance of the
D A closed circuit resistor
C making it shock proof
B-005-003-005 (B) D allowing heat to dissipate more readily
Which electrical circuit draws too much
current?
A An open circuit
B A short circuit
C A dead circuit
D A closed circuit
B-005-003-011 (C) B-005-004-005 (A)
The resistor that could dissipate the most If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.25 ampere to a
heat would be marked: circuit, what is the circuit's resistance?
A 2 ohms A 48 ohms
B 0.5 watt B 3 ohms
C 20 watts C 12 ohms
D 100 ohms D 0.25 ohm

B-005-004-001 (A) B-005-004-006 (B)

If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50- Calculate the value of resistance necessary
ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the to drop 100 volts with current flow of 0.8
resistor? milliamperes:
A 100 volts A 1.25 kilohms
B 48 volts B 125 kilohms
C 52 volts C 125 ohms
D 25 volts D 1250 ohms

B-005-004-002 (A) B-005-004-007 (D)

How is the current in a DC circuit calculated The voltage required to force a current of 4.4
when the voltage and resistance are known? amperes through a resistance of 50 ohms is:
A Current equals voltage divided by A 2220 volts
resistance B 22.0 volts
B Current equals resistance multiplied by C 0.220 volt
voltage D 220 volts
C Current equals resistance divided by
voltage
B-005-004-008 (B)
D Current equals power divided by voltage
A lamp has a resistance of 30 ohms and a 6
volt battery is connected. The current flow
B-005-004-003 (A)
will be:
How is the resistance in a DC circuit
A 0.005 ampere
calculated when the voltage and current are
known? B 0.2 ampere
C 2 amperes
A Resistance equals voltage divided by
current D 0.5 ampere
B Resistance equals current multiplied by
voltage B-005-004-009 (C)
C Resistance equals power divided by What voltage would be needed to supply a
voltage current of 200 milliamperes, to operate an
D Resistance equals current divided by electric lamp which has a resistance of 25
voltage ohms?
A 175 volts
B-005-004-004 (C)
B 225 volts
How is the voltage in a DC circuit calculated C 5 volts
when the current and resistance are known? D 8 volts
A Voltage equals resistance divided by
current
B Voltage equals power divided by current
C Voltage equals current multiplied by
resistance
D Voltage equals current divided by
resistance
B-005-004-010 (B) B-005-005-003 (D)
The resistance of a circuit can be found by Total resistance in a parallel circuit:
using one of the following:
A depends upon the voltage drop across
A R=ExI
each branch
B R = E/I
B could be equal to the resistance of one
C R = I/E branch
D R = E/R C depends upon the applied voltage
D is always less than the smallest
B-005-004-011 (B) resistance
If a 3 volt battery supplies 300 milliamperes
to a circuit, the circuit resistance is: B-005-005-004 (B)
A 3 ohms Two resistors are connected in parallel and
are connected across a 40 volt battery. If
B 10 ohms
each resistor is 1000 ohms, the total current
C 9 ohms is:
D 5 ohms
A 40 amperes

B-005-005-001 (A)
B 80 milliamperes
C 40 milliamperes
In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and
D 80 amperes
several branch resistors, how is the total
current related to the current in the branch
resistors? B-005-005-005 (A)
A It equals the sum of the branch current The total resistance of resistors connected
through each resistor in series is:
B It equals the average of the branch A greater than the resistance of any one
current through each resistor resistor
C It decreases as more parallel resistors B less than the resistance of any one
are added to the circuit resistor
D It is the sum of each resistor's voltage C equal to the highest resistance present
drop multiplied by the total number of D equal to the lowest resistance present
resistors

B-005-005-006 (A)
B-005-005-002 (A)
Five 10 ohm resistors connected in series
Three resistors, respectively rated at 10, 15
equals:
and 20 ohms are connected in parallel
across a 6-volt battery. Which statement is A 50 ohms
true? B 5 ohms
A The current through the 10 ohms, 15 C 10 ohms
ohms and 20 ohms separate resistances, D 1 ohm
when added together, equals the total
current drawn from the battery
B-005-005-007 (C)
B The current flowing through the 10 ohm
resistance is less than that flowing Which series combination of resistors would
through the 20 ohm resistance replace a single 120 ohm resistor?
C The voltage drop across each resistance A Two 62 ohm
added together equals 6 volts B Five 100 ohm
D The voltage drop across the 20 ohm C Five 24 ohm
resistance is greater than the voltage
across the 10 ohm resistance
D Six 22 ohm
B-005-005-008 (D) B-005-006-002 (D)
If ten resistors of equal value were wired in How many watts of electrical power are used
parallel, the total resistance would be: by a 12 volt DC light bulb that draws 0.2
ampere?
A 10 / R
B 10 x R A 60 watts
C 10 + R B 24 watts
D R / 10 C 6 watts
D 2.4 watts
B-005-005-009 (B)
B-005-006-003 (D)
The total resistance of four 68 ohm resistors
wired in parallel is: The DC input power of a transmitter
operating at 12 volts and drawing 500
A 272 ohms
milliamperes would be:
B 17 ohms
A 20 watts
C 12 ohms
B 500 watts
D 34 ohms
C 12 watts
B-005-005-010 (D) D 6 watts

Two resistors are in parallel. Resistor A

B-005-006-004 (C)
carries twice the current of resistor B, which
means that: When two 500 ohm 1 watt resistors are
connected in series, the maximum total
A the voltage across B is twice that across
power that can be dissipated by the
A
resistors is:
B the voltage across A is twice that across
B A 1/2 watt
C B has half the resistance of A B 4 watts
D A has half the resistance of B C 2 watts
D 1 watt
B-005-005-011 (C)
B-005-006-005 (A)
The total current in a parallel circuit is equal
to the: When two 500 ohm 1 watt resistors are
connected in parallel, they can dissipate a
A source voltage divided by the sum of the
maximum total power of:
resistive elements
B current in any one of the parallel A 2 watts
branches B 1/2 watt
C sum of the currents through all the C 1 watt
parallel branches D 4 watts
D source voltage divided by the value of one
of the resistive elements B-005-006-006 (A)

B-005-006-001 (C) If the voltage applied to two resistors in

series is doubled, how much will the total
Why would a large size resistor be used power change?
instead of a smaller one of the same
resistance? A Increase four times
B Decrease to half
A For a higher current gain
C Double
B For less impedance in the circuit
D No change
C For greater power dissipation
D For better response time
B-005-006-007 (A) B-005-007-001 (C)
Which combination of resistors could make What term means the number of times per
up a 50 ohms dummy load capable of safely second that an alternating current flows
dissipating 5 watts? back and forth?
A Four 2-watt 200 ohms resistors in parallel A Pulse rate
B Two 5-watt 100 ohms resistors in series B Inductance
C Two 2-watt 25 ohms resistors in series C Frequency
D Ten quarter-watt 500 ohms resistors in D Speed
parallel
B-005-007-002 (A)
B-005-006-008 (C)
Approximately what frequency range can
A 12 volt light bulb is rated at a power of 30 most humans hear?
watts. The current drawn would be:
A 20 - 20 000 Hz
A 360 amperes B 20 000 - 30 000 Hz
B 12/30 amperes C 200 - 200 000 Hz
C 30/12 amperes D 0 - 20 Hz
D 18 amperes
B-005-007-003 (D)
B-005-006-009 (C)
Why do we call signals in the range 20 Hz
If two 10 ohm resistors are connected in to 20 000 Hz audio frequencies?
series with a 10 volt battery, the power
consumption would be: A Because the human ear cannot sense
anything in this range
A 20 watts B Because this range is too low for radio
B 100 watts energy
C 5 watts C Because the human ear can sense radio
D 10 watts waves in this range
D Because the human ear can sense
B-005-006-010 (B) sounds in this range

One advantage of replacing a 50 ohm

B-005-007-004 (A)
resistor with a parallel combination of two
similarly rated 100 ohm resistors is that the Electrical energy at a frequency of 7125 kHz
parallel combination will have: is in what frequency range?
A lesser resistance and similar power rating A Radio
B the same resistance but greater power B Audio
rating C Hyper
C the same resistance but lesser power D Super-high
rating
D greater resistance and similar power B-005-007-005 (D)
rating
What is the name for the distance an AC
B-005-006-011 (D) signal travels during one complete cycle?

Resistor wattage ratings are: A Wave speed

B Waveform
A calculated according to physical size and C Wave spread
tolerance rating D Wavelength
B expressed in joules
C variable in steps of one hundred
D determined by heat dissipation qualities
B-005-007-006 (D) B-005-008-001 (A)
What happens to a signal's wavelength as A two-times increase in power results in a
its frequency increases? change of how many dB?
A It gets longer A 3 dB higher
B It stays the same B 6 dB higher
C It disappears C 12 dB higher
D It gets shorter D 1 dB higher

B-005-007-007 (C) B-005-008-002 (A)

What happens to a signal's frequency as its How can you decrease your transmitter's
wavelength gets longer? power by 3 dB?
A It stays the same A Divide the original power by 2
B It goes up B Divide the original power by 1.5
C It goes down C Divide the original power by 3
D It disappears D Divide the original power by 4

B-005-007-008 (D) B-005-008-003 (D)

What does 60 hertz (Hz) mean? How can you increase your transmitter's
power by 6 dB?
A 6000 metres per second
A Multiply the original power by 3
B 60 metres per second
B Multiply the original power by 2
C 6000 cycles per second
C Multiply the original power by 1.5
D 60 cycles per second
D Multiply the original power by 4

B-005-007-009 (D)
B-005-008-004 (B)
If the frequency of the waveform is 100 Hz,
If a signal-strength report is "10 dB over S9",
the time for one cycle is:
what should the report be if the transmitter
A 10 seconds power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150
B 0.0001 second watts?
C 1 second A S9 plus 5 dB
D 0.01 second B S9
C S9 plus 3 dB
B-005-007-010 (B) D S9 minus 10 dB
Current in an AC circuit goes through a
complete cycle in 0.1 second. This means B-005-008-005 (A)
the AC has a frequency of:
If a signal-strength report is "20 dB over S9",
A 1000 Hz what should the report be if the transmitter
B 10 Hz power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150
watts?
C 1 Hz
D 100 Hz A S9 plus 10 dB
B S9 plus 5 dB
B-005-007-011 (B) C S9 plus 3 dB
A signal is composed of a fundamental D S9
frequency of 2 kHz and another of 4 kHz.
This 4 kHz signal is referred to as:
A a dielectric signal of the main signal
B a harmonic of the 2 kHz signal
C a fundamental of the 2 kHz signal
D the DC component of the main signal
B-005-008-006 (A) B-005-008-011 (A)
The unit "decibel" is used to indicate: A local amateur reports your 100W 2M
simplex VHF transmission as 30 dB over
A a mathematical ratio S9. To reduce your signal to S9, you would
B an oscilloscope wave form reduce your power to ______ watts.
C certain radio waves A 100 mW
D a single side band signal B 1W
C 10 W
B-005-008-007 (B) D 33.3 W
The power output from a transmitter
increases from 1 watt to 2 watts. This is a B-005-009-001 (C)
dB increase of:
If two equal-value inductors are connected in
A 1 series, what is their total inductance?
B 3 A The same as the value of either inductor
C 30 B The value of one inductor times the value
D 6 of the other
C Twice the value of one inductor
B-005-008-008 (D) D Half the value of one inductor
The power of a transmitter is increased from
5 watts to 50 watts by a linear amplifier. The B-005-009-002 (A)
power gain, expressed in dB, is:
If two equal-value inductors are connected in
A 30 dB parallel, what is their total inductance?
B 40 dB A Half the value of one inductor
C 20 dB B Twice the value of one inductor
D 10 dB C The same as the value of either inductor
D The value of one inductor times the value
B-005-008-009 (B) of the other
You add a 9 dB gain amplifier to your 2 watt
handheld. What is the power output of the B-005-009-003 (C)
combination? If two equal-value capacitors are connected
A 18 watts in series, what is their total capacitance?
B 16 watts A The same as the value of either capacitor
C 11 watts B The value of one capacitor times the
D 20 watts value of the other
C Half the value of either capacitor
B-005-008-010 (B) D Twice the value of one capacitor
The power of a transmitter is increased from
2 watts to 8 watts. This is a power gain of B-005-009-004 (A)
__________ dB. If two equal-value capacitors are connected
A 9 dB in parallel, what is their total capacitance?
B 6 dB A Twice the value of one capacitor
C 3 dB B The same as the value of either capacitor
D 8 dB C The value of one capacitor times the
value of the other
D Half the value of one capacitor
B-005-009-005 (B) B-005-009-009 (C)
What determines the inductance of a coil? Three 15 microfarad capacitors are wired in
series. The total capacitance of this
A The core material, the coil diameter, the arrangement is:
length of the coil and whether the coil is
A 12 microfarads
mounted horizontally or vertically
B 18 microfarads
B The core material, the coil diameter, the
length of the coil and the number of turns C 5 microfarads
of wire used to wind the coil D 45 microfarads
C The core material, the number of turns
used to wind the coil and the frequency of B-005-009-010 (D)
the current through the coil
Which series combinations of capacitors
D The coil diameter, the number of turns of would best replace a faulty 10 microfarad
wire used to wind the coil and the type of capacitor?
metal used for the wire
A Two 10 microfarad capacitors
B-005-009-006 (B) B Twenty 2 microfarad capacitors
What determines the capacitance of a C Ten 2 microfarad capacitors
capacitor? D Two 20 microfarad capacitors
A The material between the plates, the area
of one plate, the number of plates and the B-005-009-011 (A)
material used for the protective coating The total capacitance of two or more
B The material between the plates, the capacitors in series is:
surface area of the plates, the number of A always less than the smallest capacitor
plates and the spacing between the
plates B found by adding each of the capacitors
together and dividing by the total number
C The material between the plates, the
of capacitors
number of plates and the size of the
wires connected to the plates C found by adding each of the capacitors
together
D The number of plates, the spacing
between the plates and whether the D always greater than the largest capacitor
dielectric material is N type or P type
B-005-010-001 (A)
B-005-009-007 (D) How does a coil react to AC?
If two equal-value capacitors are connected
in parallel, what is their capacitance? A As the frequency of the applied AC
increases, the reactance increases
A The same value of either capacitor
B As the amplitude of the applied AC
B The value of one capacitor times the increases, the reactance decreases
value of the other
C As the amplitude of the applied AC
C Half the value of either capacitor increases, the reactance increases
D Twice the value of either capacitor D As the frequency of the applied AC
increases, the reactance decreases
B-005-009-008 (D)
To replace a faulty 10 millihenry choke, you B-005-010-002 (B)
could use two: How does a capacitor react to AC?
A 20 millihenry chokes in series
A As the amplitude of the applied AC
B 30 millihenry chokes in parallel
increases, the reactance decreases
C 5 millihenry chokes in parallel
B As the frequency of the applied AC
D 5 millihenry chokes in series increases, the reactance decreases
C As the frequency of the applied AC
increases, the reactance increases
D As the amplitude of the applied AC
increases, the reactance increases
B-005-010-003 (A) B-005-010-008 (C)
The reactance of capacitors increases as: What property allows an RF bypass
capacitor on an audio circuit to divert an
A frequency decreases offending radio signal?
B applied voltage increases A Low reactance at audio frequencies
C applied voltage decreases B High reactance at audio frequencies
D frequency increases C Low reactance at radio frequencies
D High reactance at radio frequencies
B-005-010-004 (C)
In inductances, AC may be opposed by both B-005-010-009 (D)
resistance of winding wire and reactance
What property allows an RF bypass
due to inductive effect. The term which
capacitor to have little effect on an audio
includes resistance and reactance is:
circuit?
A inductance
A Low reactance at high frequencies
B capacitance
B High reactance at high frequencies
C impedance
C Low reactance at low frequencies
D resonance
D High reactance at low frequencies

B-005-010-005 (B)
B-005-010-010 (C)
Capacitive reactance:
What property allows an RF choke coil to
have little effect on signals meant to flow
A increases with the time constant
through the coil?
B decreases as frequency increases
A Low reactance at high frequencies
C applies only to series RLC circuits
B High reactance at high frequencies
D increases as frequency increases
C Low reactance at low frequencies
B-005-010-006 (D) D High reactance at low frequencies

Inductive reactance may be increased by:

B-005-010-011 (C)
A a decrease in the applied frequency In general, the reactance of inductors
B a decrease in the supplied current increases with:
C an increase in the applied voltage A decreasing applied voltage
D an increase in the applied frequency B increasing applied voltage
C increasing AC frequency
B-005-010-007 (B) D decreasing AC frequency
What property allows a coil wound on a
ferrite core to mitigate the effects of an B-005-011-001 (A)
offending radio signal?
If no load is attached to the secondary
A High reactance at audio frequencies winding of a transformer, what is current in
B High reactance at radio frequencies the primary winding called?
C Low reactance at radio frequencies A Magnetizing current
D Low reactance at audio frequencies B Direct current
C Latent current
D Stabilizing current
B-005-011-002 (D) B-005-011-006 (B)
A transformer operates a 6.3 volt 2 ampere Maximum induced voltage in a coil occurs
light bulb from its secondary winding. The when:
input power to the primary winding is
A the magnetic field around the coil is not
approximately:
changing
A 6 watts B current is going through its greatest rate
B 8 watts of change
C 3 watts C the current through the coil is of a DC
D 13 watts nature
D current is going through its least rate of
B-005-011-003 (B) change

A transformer has a 240 volt primary that B-005-011-007 (A)

draws a current of 250 milliamperes from the
mains supply. Assuming no losses and only The voltage induced in a conductor moving in
one secondary, what current would be a magnetic field is at a maximum when the
available from the 12 volt secondary? movement is:
A 50 amperes A perpendicular to the lines of force
B 5 amperes B made in a counter clockwise direction
C 215 amperes C parallel to the lines of force
D 25 amperes D made in a clockwise direction

B-005-011-004 (D) B-005-011-008 (D)

In a mains power transformer, the primary A 100% efficient transformer has a turns
winding has 250 turns, and the secondary ratio of 1/5. If the secondary current is 50
has 500. If the input voltage is 120 volts, the milliamperes, the primary current is:
likely secondary voltage is: A 2 500 mA
A 480 V B 0.01 A
B 610 V C 0.25 mA
C 26 V D 0.25 A
D 240 V
B-005-011-009 (B)
B-005-011-005 (C) A force of repulsion exists between two
The strength of the magnetic field around a _________ magnetic poles.
conductor in air is: A negative
A directly proportional to the diameter of the B like
conductor C unlike
B inversely proportional to the voltage on D positive
the conductor
C directly proportional to the current in the B-005-011-010 (D)
conductor
D inversely proportional to the diameter of A permanent magnet would most likely be
the conductor made from:
A copper
B aluminum
C brass
D steel
B-005-011-011 (B) B-005-012-005 (B)
The fact that energy transfer from primary to When a parallel coil-capacitor combination
secondary windings in a power transformer is supplied with AC of different frequencies,
is not perfect is indicated by: there will be one frequency where the
impedance will be highest. This is the:
A high primary voltages
B warm iron laminations A reactive frequency
C electrostatic shielding B resonant frequency
D large secondary currents C impedance frequency
D inductive frequency
B-005-012-001 (C)
B-005-012-006 (D)
Resonance is the condition that exists
when: In a parallel-resonant circuit at resonance,
the circuit has a:
A the circuit contains no resistance
B resistance is equal to the reactance A low impedance
C inductive reactance and capacitive B low mutual inductance
reactance are equal C high mutual inductance
D inductive reactance is the only opposition D high impedance
in the circuit
B-005-012-007 (B)
B-005-012-002 (D)
In a series resonant circuit at resonance, the
Parallel tuned circuits offer: circuit has:

A low impedance at resonance

A high mutual inductance
B zero impedance at resonance
B low impedance
C an impedance equal to resistance of the
C high impedance
circuit D low mutual inductance
D high impedance at resonance
B-005-012-008 (B)
B-005-012-003 (B) A coil and an air-spaced capacitor are
Resonance is an electrical property used to arranged to form a resonant circuit. The
describe: resonant frequency will remain the same if
we:
A the results of tuning a varicap (varactor)
A wind more turns on the coil
B the frequency characteristic of a coil and
capacitor circuit
B add a resistor to the circuit
C an inductor
C increase the area of plates in the
capacitor
D a set of parallel inductors
D insert Mylar sheets between the plates of
the capacitor
B-005-012-004 (C)
A tuned circuit is formed from two basic B-005-012-009 (D)
components. These are:
Resonant circuits in a receiver are used to:
A directors and reflectors
B diodes and transistors A filter direct current
C inductors and capacitors B increase power
D resistors and transistors C adjust voltage levels
D select signal frequencies
B-005-012-010 (D) B-005-013-004 (D)
Resonance is the condition that exists The correct instrument to measure plate
when: current or collector current of a transmitter
is:
A inductive reactance is the only opposition
in the circuit A an ohmmeter
B the circuit contains no resistance B a wattmeter
C resistance is equal to the reactance C a voltmeter
D inductive reactance and capacitive D an ammeter
reactance are equal and opposite in sign
B-005-013-005 (A)
B-005-012-011 (D)
Which of the following meters would you use
When a series LCR circuit is tuned to the to measure the power supply current drawn
frequency of the source, the: by a small hand-held transistorized receiver?
A line current lags the applied voltage A A DC ammeter
B line current leads the applied voltage B An RF ammeter
C impedance is maximum C An RF power meter
D line current reaches maximum D An electrostatic voltmeter

B-005-013-001 (C) B-005-013-006 (D)

How is a voltmeter usually connected to a When measuring current drawn from a DC
circuit under test? power supply, it is true to say that the meter
will act in circuit as:
A In quadrature with the circuit
B In phase with the circuit A a perfect conductor
C In parallel with the circuit B an extra current drain
D In series with the circuit C an insulator
D a low value resistance
B-005-013-002 (A)
How is an ammeter usually connected to a B-005-013-007 (B)
circuit under test? When measuring the current drawn by a
receiver from a power supply, the current
A In series with the circuit
meter should be placed:
B In quadrature with the circuit
A in parallel with one of the receiver power
C In phase with the circuit
leads
D In parallel with the circuit
B in series with one of the receiver power
leads
B-005-013-003 (C)
C in series with both receiver power leads
What does a multimeter measure? D in parallel with both receiver power supply
leads
A Resistance and reactance
B SWR and power B-005-013-008 (B)
C Voltage, current and resistance Potential difference is measured by means
D Resistance, capacitance and inductance of:
A an ammeter
B a voltmeter
C a wattmeter
D an ohmmeter
B-005-013-009 (D) B-006-001-004 (B)
The instrument used for measuring the flow The characteristic impedance of a coaxial
of electrical current is the: line:
A faradmeter A is greater for larger diameter line
B wattmeter B can be the same for different diameter
C voltmeter line
D ammeter C changes significantly with the frequency
of the energy it carries
B-005-013-010 (B) D is correct for only one size of line

In measuring volts and amperes, the

B-006-001-005 (C)
connections should be made with:
What commonly available antenna
A both voltmeter and ammeter in parallel
transmission line can be buried directly in
B the voltmeter in parallel and ammeter in the ground for some distance without
series adverse effects?
C the voltmeter in series and ammeter in A 600 ohm open-wire line
parallel
B 75 ohm twin-lead
D both voltmeter and ammeter in series
C Coaxial cable
B-006-001-001 (A) D 300 ohm twin-lead

What connects your transceiver to your

B-006-001-006 (A)
antenna?
The characteristic impedance of a
A A transmission line
transmission line is:
B The power cord
A equal to the pure resistance which, if
C A ground wire
connected to the end of the line, will
D A dummy load absorb all the power arriving along it
B the impedance of a section of the line
B-006-001-002 (D) one wavelength long
The characteristic impedance of a C the dynamic impedance of the line at the
transmission line is determined by the: operating frequency
A length of the line
D the ratio of the power supplied to the line
to the power delivered to the load
B frequency at which the line is operated
C load placed on the line B-006-001-007 (A)
D physical dimensions and relative
A transmission line differs from an ordinary
positions of the conductors
circuit or network in communications or
signalling devices in one very important way.
B-006-001-003 (D) That important aspect is:
The characteristic impedance of a 20 metre A propagation delay
piece of transmission line is 52 ohms. If 10
metres were cut off, the impedance would B capacitive reactance
be: C inductive reactance
A 26 ohms
D resistance
B 39 ohms
C 13 ohms
D 52 ohms
B-006-001-008 (D) B-006-002-001 (D)
The characteristic impedance of a parallel What is a coaxial cable?
wire transmission line does not depend on
the: A Two wires side-by-side in a plastic ribbon
A radius of the conductors B Two wires side-by-side held apart by
insulating rods
B centre to centre distance between
conductors C Two wires twisted around each other in a
spiral
C dielectric
D A center wire inside an insulating
D velocity of energy on the line
material which is covered by a metal
sleeve or shield
B-006-001-009 (B)
If the impedance terminating a transmission B-006-002-002 (D)
line differs significantly from the What is parallel-conductor transmission
characteristic impedance of the line, what line?
will be observed at the input of the line?
A Two wires twisted around each other in a
A An impedance nearly equal to the spiral
characteristic impedance
B A center wire inside an insulating
B Some value of impedance influenced by material which is covered by a metal
line length sleeve or shield
C An infinite impedance C A metal pipe which is as wide or slightly
D A negative impedance wider than a wavelength of the signal it
carries
B-006-001-010 (C) D Two wires side-by-side held apart by
insulating material
What factors determine the characteristic
impedance of a parallel-conductor antenna
transmission line? B-006-002-003 (A)

A The radius of the conductors and the What kind of antenna transmission line is
frequency of the signal made of two conductors held apart by
insulated rods?
B The frequency of the signal and the
length of the line A Open wire line
C The distance between the centres of the B Coaxial cable
conductors and the radius of the C Twin lead in a plastic ribbon
conductors D Twisted pair
D The distance between the centres of the
conductors and the length of the line
B-006-002-004 (C)
B-006-001-011 (A) What does the term "balun" mean?
What factors determine the characteristic A Balanced unmodulator
impedance of a coaxial antenna
transmission line? B Balanced antenna network
C Balanced to unbalanced
A The ratio of the diameter of the inner
conductor to the diameter of the outer
D Balanced unloader
shield
B The diameter of the shield and the length
of the line
C The diameter of the shield and the
frequency of the signal
D The frequency of the signal and the
length of the line
B-006-002-005 (A) B-006-002-010 (D)
Where would you install a balun to feed a A 75 ohm transmission line could be
dipole antenna with 50-ohm coaxial cable? matched to the 300 ohm feed point of an
antenna:
A Between the coaxial cable and the
antenna A with an extra 250 ohm resistor
B Between the transmitter and the coaxial B by using a 4 to 1 trigatron
cable C by inserting a diode in one leg of the
C Between the antenna and the ground antenna
D Between the coaxial cable and the D by using a 4 to 1 impedance transformer
ground
B-006-002-011 (D)
B-006-002-006 (A)
What kind of antenna transmission line can
What is an unbalanced line? be constructed using two conductors which
are maintained a uniform distance apart
A Transmission line with one conductor using insulated spreaders?
connected to ground
A Coaxial cable
B Transmission line with neither conductor
connected to ground
B 75 ohm twin-lead
C Transmission line with both conductors
C 300 ohm twin-lead
connected to ground D 600 ohm open wire line
D Transmission line with both conductors
connected to each other B-006-003-001 (B)
Why does coaxial cable make a good
B-006-002-007 (D) antenna transmission line?
What device can be installed to feed a A You can make it at home, and its
balanced antenna with an unbalanced impedance matches most amateur
transmission line? antennas
A A triaxial transformer B It is weatherproof, and its impedance
B A wave trap matches most amateur antennas
C A loading coil C It is weatherproof, and its impedance is
higher than that of most amateur
D A balun
antennas
D It can be used near metal objects, and its
B-006-002-008 (A)
impedance is higher than that of most
A flexible coaxial line contains: amateur antennas

A braided shield conductor and insulation B-006-003-002 (B)

around a central conductor
What is the best antenna transmission line
B four or more conductors running parallel to use, if it must be put near grounded metal
C only one conductor objects?
D two parallel conductors separated by A Twin lead
spacers
B Coaxial cable
B-006-002-009 (D) C Ladder-line
D Twisted pair
A balanced transmission line:

A has one conductor inside the other

B carries RF current on one wire only
C is made of one conductor only
D is made of two parallel wires
B-006-003-003 (B) B-006-003-008 (A)
What are some reasons not to use parallel- Why should you regularly clean and tighten
conductor transmission line? all antenna connectors?
A It is difficult to make at home, and it does A To help keep their contact resistance at a
not work very well with a high SWR minimum
B It does not work well when tied down to B To keep them looking nice
metal objects, and you should use a C To keep them from getting stuck in place
balun and may have to use an D To increase their capacitance
impedance-matching device with your
transceiver
B-006-003-009 (A)
C You must use an impedance-matching
device with your transceiver, and it does What commonly available antenna
not work very well with a high SWR transmission line can be buried directly in
D It does not work well when tied down to the ground for some distance without
metal objects, and it cannot operate adverse effects?
under high power A Coaxial cable
B 75 ohm twin-lead
B-006-003-004 (C)
C 600 ohm open wire line
What common connector type usually joins D 300 ohm twin-lead
RG-213 coaxial cable to an HF transceiver?
A A banana plug connector B-006-003-010 (B)
B A binding post connector When antenna transmission lines must be
C A PL-259 connector placed near grounded metal objects, which
D An F-type cable connector of the following transmission lines should be
used?
B-006-003-005 (A) A 75 ohm twin-lead
What common connector usually joins a B Coaxial cable
hand-held transceiver to its antenna? C 300 ohm twin-lead
A An SMA connector D 600 ohm open wire line
B A PL-259 connector
C An F-type cable connector B-006-003-011 (A)
D A binding post connector TV twin-lead transmission line can be used
for a transmission line in an amateur station.
B-006-003-006 (D) The impedance of this line is approximately:

Which of these common connectors has the A 300 ohms

lowest loss at UHF? B 600 ohms
A An F-type cable connector C 50 ohms
D 70 ohms
B A BNC connector
C A PL-259 connector
B-006-004-001 (C)
D A type-N connector
Why should you use only good quality
B-006-003-007 (A) coaxial cable and connectors for a UHF
antenna system?
If you install a 6 metre Yagi on a tower 60
metres (200 ft) from your transmitter, which A To keep the power going to your antenna
of the following transmission lines provides system from getting too high
the least loss? B To keep the standing wave ratio of your
antenna system high
A RG-213
C To keep RF loss low
B RG-174
D To keep television interference high
C RG-59
D RG-58
B-006-004-002 (A) B-006-004-006 (A)
What are some reasons to use parallel- Losses occurring on a transmission line
conductor transmission line? between transmitter and antenna results in:
A It will operate with a high SWR, and has A less RF power being radiated
less loss than coaxial cable B an SWR reading of 1:1
B It has low impedance, and will operate C reflections occurring in the line
with a high SWR D the wire radiating RF energy
C It will operate with a high SWR, and it
works well when tied down to metal
B-006-004-007 (D)
objects
D It has a low impedance, and has less The lowest loss transmission line on HF is:
loss than coaxial cable
A 75 ohm twin-lead
B-006-004-003 (A) B coaxial cable
If your transmitter and antenna are 15 C 300 ohm twin-lead
metres (50 ft) apart, but are connected by 60 D open wire line
metres (200 ft) of RG-58 coaxial cable, what
should be done to reduce transmission line B-006-004-008 (A)
loss?
In what values are RF transmission line
A Shorten the excess cable losses expressed?
B Shorten the excess cable so the A dB per unit length
transmission line is an odd number of
wavelengths long B Ohms per MHz
C Roll the excess cable into a coil which is C dB per MHz
as small as possible D Ohms per metre
D Shorten the excess cable so the
transmission line is an even number of B-006-004-009 (B)
wavelengths long
If the length of coaxial transmission line is
increased from 20 metres (66 ft) to 40
B-006-004-004 (C) metres (132 ft), how would this affect the line
As the length of a transmission line is loss?
changed, what happens to signal loss? A It would be reduced to 50%
A Signal loss is the least when the length B It would be increased by 100%
is the same as the signal's wavelength C It would be reduced by 10%
B Signal loss is the same for any length of D It would be increased by 10%
transmission line
C Signal loss increases as length B-006-004-010 (A)
increases
D Signal loss decreases as length If the frequency is increased, how would this
increases affect the loss on a transmission line?
A It would increase
B-006-004-005 (D) B It is independent of frequency
As the frequency of a signal is changed, C It depends on the line length
what happens to signal loss in a D It would decrease
transmission line?
A Signal loss increases with decreasing
frequency
B Signal loss is the least when the signal's
wavelength is the same as the
transmission line's length
C Signal loss is the same for any frequency
D Signal loss increases with increasing
frequency
B-006-005-001 (A) B-006-005-005 (B)
What does an SWR reading of 1:1 mean? What does standing-wave ratio mean?

A The best impedance match has been A The ratio of maximum to minimum
attained impedances on a transmission line
B An antenna for another frequency band is B The ratio of maximum to minimum
probably connected voltages on a transmission line
C No power is going to the antenna C The ratio of maximum to minimum
D The SWR meter is broken inductances on a transmission line
D The ratio of maximum to minimum
B-006-005-002 (B) resistances on a transmission line

What does an SWR reading of less than B-006-005-006 (B)

1.5:1 mean?
If your antenna transmission line gets hot
A An antenna gain of 1.5 when you are transmitting, what might this
B A fairly good impedance match mean?
C An impedance match which is too low A The transmission line is too long
D A serious impedance mismatch, B The SWR may be too high, or the
something may be wrong with the
transmission line loss may be high
antenna system
C You should transmit using less power
B-006-005-003 (B) D The conductors in the transmission line
are not insulated very well
What kind of SWR reading may mean poor
electrical contact between parts of an B-006-005-007 (B)
antenna system?
If the characteristic impedance of the
A A very low reading transmission line does not match the
B A jumpy reading antenna input impedance then:
C A negative reading A the antenna will not radiate any signal
D No reading at all B standing waves are produced in the
transmission line
B-006-005-004 (B) C heat is produced at the junction
What does a very high SWR reading mean? D the SWR reading falls to 1:1

A The signals coming from the antenna are B-006-005-008 (A)

unusually strong, which means very good
radio condition The result of the presence of standing waves
on a transmission line is:
B The antenna is the wrong length for the
operating frequency, or the transmission A reduced transfer of RF energy to the
line may be open or short circuited antenna
C The transmitter is putting out more power B perfect impedance match between
than normal, showing that it is about to transmitter and transmission line
go bad C maximum transfer of energy to the
D There is a large amount of solar radiation, antenna from the transmitter
which means very poor radio conditions D lack of radiation from the transmission
line
B-006-005-009 (A) B-006-006-003 (D)
An SWR meter measures the degree of What would you use to connect a coaxial
match between transmission line and cable of 50 ohms impedance to an antenna
antenna by: of 17 ohms impedance?
A comparing forward and reflected voltage A An SWR meter
B measuring radiated RF energy B A low pass filter
C measuring the conductor temperature C A terminating resistor
D inserting a diode in the transmission line D An impedance-matching device

B-006-005-010 (D) B-006-006-004 (D)

A resonant antenna having a feed point When will a power source deliver maximum
impedance of 200 ohms is connected to a output to the load?
transmission line which has an impedance
A When air wound transformers are used
of 50 ohms. What will the standing wave
instead of iron-core transformers
ratio of this system be?
B When the power-supply fuse rating
A 6:1 equals the primary winding current
B 3:1 C When the load resistance is infinite
C 5:1 D When the impedance of the load is equal
D 4:1 to the impedance of the source

B-006-005-011 (A) B-006-006-005 (A)

The type of transmission line best suited to What happens when the impedance of an
operating at a high standing wave ratio is: electrical load is equal to the internal
impedance of the power source?
A 600 ohm open wire line
A The source delivers maximum power to
B 75 ohm twin-lead
the load
C coaxial line
B The electrical load is shorted
D 300 ohm twin-lead
C No current can flow through the circuit
D The source delivers minimum power to
B-006-006-001 (C)
the load
What device might allow use of an antenna
on a band it was not designed for? B-006-006-006 (C)
A A low pass filter Why is impedance matching important?
B A high pass filter
C An antenna tuner A To ensure that there is less resistance
than reactance in the circuit
D An SWR meter
B To ensure that the resistance and
reactance in the circuit are equal
B-006-006-002 (C)
C So the source can deliver maximum
What does an antenna tuner do? power to the load
D So the load will draw minimum power
A It switches an antenna system to a from the source
transmitter when sending, and to a
receiver when listening
B-006-006-007 (D)
B It switches a transceiver between different
kinds of antennas connected to one To obtain efficient power transmission from a
transmission line transmitter to an antenna requires:
C It matches a transceiver to a mismatched A high load impedance
antenna system B low load resistance
D It helps a receiver automatically tune in C inductive impedance
stations that are far away
D matching of impedances
B-006-006-008 (A) B-006-007-002 (C)
To obtain efficient transfer of power from a What does vertical wave polarization mean?
transmitter to an antenna, it is important that
there is a: A The electric and magnetic lines of force of
a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's
A matching of impedance
surface
B high load impedance
B The electric lines of force of a radio wave
C proper method of balance are parallel to the Earth's surface
D low load resistance C The electric lines of force of a radio wave
are perpendicular to the Earth's surface
B-006-006-009 (D) D The magnetic lines of force of a radio
If an antenna is correctly matched to a wave are perpendicular to the Earth's
transmitter, the length of transmission line: surface

A must be a full wavelength long B-006-007-003 (D)

B must be an odd number of quarter-wave
What electromagnetic wave polarization
C must be an even number of half-waves does a Yagi antenna have when its elements
D will have no effect on the matching are parallel to the Earth's surface?
A Helical
B-006-006-010 (A)
B Vertical
The reason that an RF transmission line C Circular
should be matched at the transmitter end is
D Horizontal
to:
A transfer the maximum amount of power to B-006-007-004 (C)
the antenna
What electromagnetic wave polarization
B ensure that the radiated signal has the
does a half-wavelength antenna have when it
intended polarization
is perpendicular to the Earth's surface?
C prevent frequency drift
D overcome fading of the transmitted signal
A Horizontal
B Parabolical
B-006-006-011 (D) C Vertical
D Circular
If the centre impedance of a folded dipole is
approximately 300 ohms, and you are using
RG8U (50 ohms) coaxial lines, what is the B-006-007-005 (A)
ratio required to have the line and the Polarization of an antenna is determined by:
antenna matched?
A 2:1 A the orientation of the electric field relative
to the Earth's surface
B 4:1
C 10:1
B the height of the antenna
D 6:1 C the type of antenna
D the magnetic field
B-006-007-001 (D)
B-006-007-006 (C)
What does horizontal wave polarization
mean? An isotropic antenna is:
A The electric and magnetic lines of force of A a dummy load
a radio wave are perpendicular to the
Earth's surface B a half-wave reference dipole
B The electric lines of force of a radio wave
C a hypothetical point source
are perpendicular to the Earth's surface D an infinitely long piece of wire
C The magnetic lines of force of a radio
wave are parallel to the Earth's surface
D The electric lines of force of a radio wave
are parallel to the Earth's surface
B-006-007-007 (C) B-006-008-001 (B)
What is the antenna radiation pattern for an If an antenna is made longer, what happens
isotropic radiator? to its resonant frequency?
A A cardioid A It disappears
B A unidirectional cardioid B It decreases
C A sphere C It increases
D A parabola D It stays the same

B-006-007-008 (B) B-006-008-002 (C)

VHF signals from a mobile station using a If an antenna is made shorter, what happens
vertical whip antenna will normally be best to its resonant frequency?
received using a:
A It disappears
A horizontal dipole antenna B It decreases
B vertical ground-plane antenna C It increases
C random length of wire D It stays the same
D horizontal ground-plane antenna
B-006-008-003 (B)
B-006-007-009 (B)
The wavelength for a frequency of 25 MHz is:
A dipole antenna will emit a vertically
polarized wave if it is: A 32 metres (105 ft)
A parallel with the ground B 12 metres (39.4 ft)
B mounted vertically C 15 metres (49.2 ft)
C fed with the correct type of RF D 4 metres (13.1 ft)
D too near to the ground
B-006-008-004 (A)
B-006-007-010 (B) The velocity of propagation of radio
frequency energy in free space is:
If an electromagnetic wave leaves an
antenna vertically polarized, it will arrive at A 300 000 kilometres per second
the receiving antenna, by ground wave: B 3000 kilometres per second
A polarized in any plane C 150 kilometres per second
B vertically polarized D 186 000 kilometres per second
C polarized at right angles to original
D horizontally polarized B-006-008-005 (D)
Adding a series inductance to an antenna
B-006-007-011 (B) would:
Compared with a horizontal antenna, a A increase the resonant frequency
vertical antenna will receive a vertically B have little effect
polarized radio wave:
C have no change on the resonant
A if the antenna changes the polarization frequency
B at greater strength D decrease the resonant frequency
C at weaker strength
D without any comparative difference B-006-008-006 (B)
The resonant frequency of an antenna may
be increased by:
A lengthening the radiating element
B shortening the radiating element
C lowering the radiating element
D increasing the height of the radiating
element
B-006-008-007 (A) B-006-009-001 (D)
The speed of a radio wave: What is a parasitic beam antenna?

A is the same as the speed of light A An antenna where the driven element
B is infinite in space obtains its radio energy by induction or
radiation from director elements
C is always less than half speed of light
B An antenna where all elements are driven
D varies directly with frequency
by direct connection to the transmission
line
B-006-008-008 (B)
C An antenna where wave traps are used to
At the end of suspended antenna wire, magnetically couple the elements
insulators are used. These act to: D An antenna where some elements obtain
A prevent any loss of radio waves by the their radio energy by induction or
antenna radiation from a driven element
B limit the electrical length of the antenna
B-006-009-002 (B)
C increase the effective antenna length
How can the bandwidth of a parasitic beam
D allow the antenna to be more easily held
antenna be increased?
vertically
A Use closer element spacing
B-006-008-009 (B) B Use larger diameter elements
To lower the resonant frequency of an C Use traps on the elements
antenna, the operator should: D Use tapered-diameter elements
A centre feed it with TV ribbon transmission
line B-006-009-003 (A)
B lengthen it If a parasitic element slightly shorter than a
C shorten it horizontal dipole antenna is placed parallel
D ground one end to the dipole 0.1 wavelength from it and at
the same height, what effect will this have on
the antenna's radiation pattern?
B-006-008-010 (A)
A A major lobe will develop in the horizontal
One solution to multiband operation with a
plane, from the dipole toward the
shortened radiator is the "trap dipole" or trap
parasitic element
vertical. These "traps" are actually:
B A major lobe will develop in the horizontal
A a coil and capacitor in parallel plane, parallel to the two elements
B large wire-wound resistors C A major lobe will develop in the vertical
C coils wrapped around a ferrite rod plane, away from the ground
D hollow metal cans D The radiation pattern will not be affected

B-006-008-011 (D) B-006-009-004 (A)

The wavelength corresponding to a If a parasitic element slightly longer than a
frequency of 2 MHz is: horizontal dipole antenna is placed parallel
to the dipole 0.1 wavelength from it and at
A 360 m (1181 ft) the same height, what effect will this have on
B 1500 m (4921 ft) the antenna's radiation pattern?
C 30 m (98 ft) A A major lobe will develop in the horizontal
D 150 m (492 ft) plane, from the parasitic element toward
the dipole
B A major lobe will develop in the horizontal
plane, parallel to the two elements
C A major lobe will develop in the vertical
plane, away from the ground
D The radiation pattern will not be affected
B-006-009-005 (A) B-006-009-009 (D)
The property of an antenna, which defines In free space, what is the radiation
the range of frequencies to which it will characteristic of a half-wave dipole?
respond, is called its:
A Maximum radiation from the ends,
A bandwidth minimum broadside
B front-to-back ratio B Omnidirectional
C impedance C Maximum radiation at 45 degrees to the
D polarization plane of the antenna
D Minimum radiation from the ends,
B-006-009-006 (B) maximum broadside

Approximately how much gain does a half- B-006-009-010 (C)

wave dipole have over an isotropic radiator?
The gain of an antenna, especially on VHF
A 6.0 dB and above, is quoted in dBi. The "i" in this
B 2.1 dB expression stands for:
C 1.5 dB A ionosphere
D 3.0 dB B interpolated
C isotropic
B-006-009-007 (A)
D ideal
What is meant by antenna gain?
B-006-009-011 (A)
A The numerical ratio relating the radiated
signal strength of an antenna to that of The front-to-back ratio of a beam antenna is:
another antenna
A the ratio of the maximum forward power
B The numerical ratio of the signal in the
in the major lobe to the maximum
forward direction to the signal in the back
backward power radiation
direction
C The numerical ratio of the amount of
B the forward power of the major lobe to the
power radiated by an antenna compared power in the backward direction both
to the transmitter output power being measured at the 3 dB points
D The power amplifier gain minus the C undefined
transmission line losses D the ratio of the forward power at the 3 dB
points to the power radiated in the
B-006-009-008 (B) backward direction

What is meant by antenna bandwidth? B-006-010-001 (A)

A The angle formed between two imaginary How do you calculate the length in metres
lines drawn through the ends of the (feet) of a quarter-wavelength vertical
elements antenna?
B The frequency range over which the A Divide 71.5 (234) by the antenna's
antenna may be expected to perform well operating frequency in MHz
C Antenna length divided by the number of B Divide 468 (1532) by the antenna's
elements operating frequency in MHz
D The angle between the half-power C Divide 300 (982) by the antenna's
radiation points operating frequency in MHz
D Divide 150 (491) by the antenna's
operating frequency in MHz
B-006-010-002 (C) B-006-010-007 (A)
If you made a quarter-wavelength vertical What happens to the feed point impedance
antenna for 21.125 MHz, how long would it of a ground-plane antenna when its radials
be? are changed from horizontal to downward-
sloping?
A 7.2 metres (23.6 ft)
B 6.76 metres (22.2 ft) A It increases
C 3.36 metres (11.0 ft) B It decreases
D 3.6 metres (11.8 ft) C It stays the same
D It approaches zero
B-006-010-003 (A)
B-006-010-008 (D)
If you made a half-wavelength vertical
antenna for 223 MHz, how long would it be? Which of the following transmission lines will
give the best match to the base of a quarter-
A 64 cm (25.2 in)
wave ground-plane antenna?
B 128 cm (50.4 in)
A 300 ohms balanced transmission line
C 105 cm (41.3 in)
B 75 ohms balanced transmission line
D 134.6 cm (53 in)
C 300 ohms coaxial cable
B-006-010-004 (A) D 50 ohms coaxial cable

Why is a 5/8-wavelength vertical antenna

B-006-010-009 (D)
better than a 1/4-wavelength vertical antenna
for VHF or UHF mobile operations? The main characteristic of a vertical antenna
is that it will:
A A 5/8-wavelength antenna has more gain
B A 5/8-wavelength antenna has less A be very sensitive to signals coming from
corona loss horizontal antennas
C A 5/8-wavelength antenna is easier to B require few insulators
install on a car C be easy to feed with TV ribbon
D A 5/8-wavelength antenna can handle transmission line
more power D receive signals equally well from all
compass points around it
B-006-010-005 (B)
B-006-010-010 (A)
If a magnetic-base whip antenna is placed
on the roof of a car, in what direction does it Why is a loading coil often used with an HF
send out radio energy? mobile vertical antenna?
A Most of it goes in one direction A To tune out capacitive reactance
B It goes out equally well in all horizontal B To lower the losses
directions C To lower the Q
C Most of it is aimed high into the sky D To filter out electrical noise
D Most of it goes equally in two opposite
directions B-006-010-011 (B)

B-006-010-006 (C) What is the main reason why so many VHF

base and mobile antennas are 5/8 of a
What is an advantage of downward sloping wavelength?
radials on a ground plane antenna?
A It's a convenient length on VHF
A It brings the feed point impedance closer B The angle of radiation is low
to 300 ohms
C The angle of radiation is high giving
B It lowers the radiation angle excellent local coverage
C It brings the feed point impedance closer D It is easy to match the antenna to the
to 50 ohms transmitter
D It increases the radiation angle
B-006-011-001 (C) B-006-011-006 (D)
How many directly driven elements do most What are some advantages of a Yagi with
Yagi antennas have? wide element spacing?
A Three A High gain, lower loss and a low SWR
B None B High front-to-back ratio and lower input
C One resistance
D Two C Shorter boom length, lower weight and
wind resistance
B-006-011-002 (B) D High gain, less critical tuning and wider
bandwidth
Approximately how long is the driven
element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0 MHz? B-006-011-007 (D)
A 20.12 metres (66 feet) Why is a Yagi antenna often used for
B 10.21 metres (33.5 feet) radiocommunications on the 20-metre band?
C 5.21 metres (17 feet) A It provides excellent omnidirectional
D 10.67 metres (35 feet) coverage in the horizontal plane
B It is smaller, less expensive and easier to
B-006-011-003 (A) erect than a dipole or vertical antenna
Approximately how long is the director C It provides the highest possible angle of
element of a Yagi antenna for 21.1 MHz? radiation for the HF bands
D It helps reduce interference from other
A 6.4 metres (21 feet)
stations off to the side or behind
B 5.18 metres (17 feet)
C 3.2 metres (10.5 feet) B-006-011-008 (C)
D 12.8 metres (42 feet)
What does "antenna front-to-back ratio"
mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
B-006-011-004 (B)
A The power radiated in the major radiation
Approximately how long is the reflector lobe compared to the power radiated 90
element of a Yagi antenna for 28.1 MHz? degrees away from that direction
A 2.66 metres (8.75 feet) B The number of directors versus the
B 5.33 metres (17.5 feet) number of reflectors
C 4.88 metres (16 feet)
C The power radiated in the major radiation
lobe compared to the power radiated in
D 10.67 metres (35 feet)
exactly the opposite direction
D The relative position of the driven element
B-006-011-005 (C) with respect to the reflectors and
What is one effect of increasing the boom directors
length and adding directors to a Yagi
antenna? B-006-011-009 (D)
A Weight decreases What is a good way to get maximum
B Wind load decreases performance from a Yagi antenna?
C Gain increases A Use RG-58 transmission line
D SWR increases B Use a reactance bridge to measure the
antenna performance from each direction
around the antenna
C Avoid using towers higher than 9 metres
(30 feet) above the ground
D Optimize the lengths and spacing of the
elements
B-006-011-010 (D) B-006-012-004 (A)
The spacing between the elements on a The impedances in ohms at the feed point of
three-element Yagi antenna, representing the dipole and folded dipole in free space
the best overall choice, is _____ of a are, respectively:
wavelength.
A 73 and 300
A 0.10 B 73 and 150
B 0.50 C 52 and 100
C 0.75 D 52 and 200
D 0.20
B-006-012-005 (A)
B-006-011-011 (D)
A horizontal dipole transmitting antenna,
If the forward gain of a six-element Yagi is installed at an ideal height so that the ends
about 10 dBi, what would the gain of two of are pointing North/South, radiates:
these antennas be if they were "stacked"?
A mostly to the East and West
A 7 dBi B mostly to the South and North
B 20 dBi C mostly to the South
C 10 dBi D equally in all directions
D 13 dBi
B-006-012-006 (B)
B-006-012-001 (B)
How does the bandwidth of a folded dipole
If you made a half-wavelength dipole antenna antenna compare with that of a simple dipole
for 28.150 MHz, how long would it be? antenna?
A 10.16 metres (33.26 ft) A It is 0.707 times the bandwidth
B 5.08 metres (16.62 ft) B It is greater
C 10.5 metres (34.37 ft) C It is essentially the same
D 28.55 metres (93.45 ft) D It is less than 50%

B-006-012-002 (D) B-006-012-007 (B)

What is one disadvantage of a random wire What is a disadvantage of using an antenna
antenna? equipped with traps?
A It usually produces vertically polarized A It can only be used for one band
radiation B It may radiate harmonics more readily
B It must be longer than 1 wavelength C It is too sharply directional at lower
C You must use an inverted T matching frequencies
network for multi-band operation D It must be neutralized
D You may experience RF feedback in your
station B-006-012-008 (B)

B-006-012-003 (B) What is an advantage of using a trap

antenna?
What is the low angle radiation pattern of an
ideal half-wavelength dipole HF antenna in A It minimizes harmonic radiation
free space installed parallel to the Earth? B It may be used for multi-band operation
A It is a figure-eight, off both ends of the C It has high directivity at the higher
antenna frequencies
D It has high gain
B It is a figure-eight, perpendicular to the
antenna
C It is a circle (equal radiation in all
directions)
D It is two smaller lobes on one side of the
antenna, and one larger lobe on the other
side
B-006-012-009 (A) B-006-013-005 (A)
If you were to cut a half wave dipole for 3.75 Approximately how long is each leg of a
MHz, what would be its approximate length? symmetrical delta loop antenna driven
element for 28.7 MHz?
A 38 meters (125 ft)
B 32 meters (105 ft) A 3.5 metres (11.5 feet)
C 45 meters (145 ft) B 2.67 metres (8.75 feet)
D 75 meters (245 ft) C 7.13 metres (23.4 feet)
D 10.67 metres (35 feet)
B-006-013-001 (A)
B-006-013-006 (C)
What is a cubical quad antenna?
Which statement about two-element delta
A Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops and quad antennas is true?
loops, each approximately one-electrical
A They are effective only when constructed
wavelength long
using insulated wire
B A center-fed wire 1/2-electrical
B They perform poorly above HF
wavelength long
C They compare favourably with a three-
C A vertical conductor 1/4-electrical
element Yagi
wavelength high, fed at the bottom
D They perform very well only at HF
D Four straight, parallel elements in line
with each other, each approximately 1/2-
electrical wavelength long B-006-013-007 (B)
Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the
B-006-013-002 (D) directional radiation characteristics of a
What is a delta loop antenna? cubical quad antenna?
A The quad has less directivity in both
A A large copper ring or wire loop, used in horizontal and vertical planes
direction finding B The quad has more directivity in both
B An antenna system made of three vertical horizontal and vertical planes
antennas, arranged in a triangular shape C The quad has more directivity in the
C An antenna made from several triangular horizontal plane but less directivity in the
coils of wire on an insulating form vertical plane
D An antenna whose elements are each a D The quad has less directivity in the
three sided loop whose total length is horizontal plane but more directivity in the
approximately one electrical wavelength vertical plane

B-006-013-003 (A) B-006-013-008 (B)

Approximately how long is each side of a Moving the feed point of a multi-element
cubical quad antenna driven element for 21.4 quad antenna from a side parallel to the
MHz? ground to a side perpendicular to the ground
will have what effect?
A 3.54 metres (11.7 feet)
B 0.36 metres (1.17 feet) A It will significantly increase the antenna
feed point impedance
C 14.33 metres (47 feet)
D 143 metres (469 feet) B It will change the antenna polarization
from horizontal to vertical
B-006-013-004 (A)
C It will change the antenna polarization
from vertical to horizontal
Approximately how long is each side of a D It will significantly decrease the antenna
cubical quad antenna driven element for 14.3 feed point impedance
MHz?
A 5.36 metres (17.6 feet)
B 21.43 metres (70.3 feet)
C 53.34 metres (175 feet)
D 7.13 metres (23.4 feet)
B-006-013-009 (D) B-007-001-002 (D)
What does the term "antenna front-to-back How does the range of sky-wave propagation
ratio" mean in reference to a delta loop compare to ground-wave propagation?
antenna?
A It is much shorter
A The relative position of the driven element B It is about the same
with respect to the reflectors and
C It depends on the weather
directors
D It is much longer
B The power radiated in the major radiation
lobe compared to the power radiated 90
degrees away from that direction B-007-001-003 (B)
C The number of directors versus the When a signal is returned to Earth by the
number of reflectors ionosphere, what is this called?
D The power radiated in the major radiation A Earth-Moon-Earth propagation
lobe compared to the power radiated in
exactly the opposite direction B Sky-wave propagation
C Tropospheric propagation
B-006-013-010 (B) D Ground-wave propagation
The cubical "quad" or "quad" antenna
consists of two or more square loops of wire. B-007-001-004 (C)
The driven element has an approximate How are VHF signals propagated within the
overall length of: range of the visible horizon?
A one-half wavelength A By plane wave
B one wavelength B By geometric wave
C three-quarters of a wavelength C By direct wave
D two wavelengths D By sky wave

B-006-013-011 (C) B-007-001-005 (B)

The delta loop antenna consists of two or Skywave is another name for:
more triangular structures mounted on a
boom. The overall length of the driven A inverted wave
element is approximately:
B ionospheric wave
A two wavelengths C tropospheric wave
B one-half of a wavelength D ground wave
C one wavelength
D one-quarter of a wavelength B-007-001-006 (B)
That portion of the radiation which is directly
B-007-001-001 (A) affected by the surface of the Earth is called:
What type of propagation usually occurs A inverted wave
from one hand-held VHF transceiver to
another nearby?
B ground wave
C tropospheric wave
A Line-of-sight propagation
D ionospheric wave
B Tunnel propagation
C Skywave propagation B-007-001-007 (A)
D Auroral propagation
At lower HF frequencies,
radiocommunication out to 200 km is made
possible by:
A ground wave
B troposphere
C skip wave
D ionosphere
B-007-001-008 (A) B-007-002-003 (C)
The distance travelled by ground waves: Which ionospheric region is closest to the
Earth?
A is less at higher frequencies
A The F region
B depends on the maximum usable
B The A region
frequency
C The D region
C is more at higher frequencies
D The E region
D is the same for all frequencies

B-007-002-004 (C)
B-007-001-009 (D)
Which region of the ionosphere is the least
The radio wave which follows a path from the
useful for long distance radio-wave
transmitter to the ionosphere and back to
propagation?
Earth is known correctly as the:
A The F1 region
A F layer
B The E region
B surface wave
C The D region
C skip wave
D The F2 region
D ionospheric wave

B-007-002-005 (C)
B-007-001-010 (A)
What two sub-regions of ionosphere exist
Reception of high frequency (HF) radio
only in the daytime?
waves beyond 4000 km is generally made
possible by: A Electrostatic and electromagnetic
A ionospheric wave B D and E
B ground wave C F1 and F2
C skip wave D Troposphere and stratosphere
D surface wave
B-007-002-006 (B)
B-007-002-001 (A) When is the ionosphere most ionized?
What causes the ionosphere to form?
A Dusk
A Solar radiation ionizing the outer B Midday
atmosphere C Dawn
B Lightning ionizing the outer atmosphere D Midnight
C Release of fluorocarbons into the
atmosphere B-007-002-007 (B)
D Temperature changes ionizing the outer When is the ionosphere least ionized?
atmosphere
A Shortly before midnight
B-007-002-002 (C)
B Shortly before dawn
What type of solar radiation is most C Just after noon
responsible for ionization in the outer D Just after dusk
atmosphere?
A Ionized particles
B Thermal
C Ultraviolet
D Microwave
B-007-002-008 (D) B-007-003-002 (C)
Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for What is the maximum distance along the
the longest distance radio-wave Earth's surface that is normally covered in
propagation? one hop using the F2 region?
A Because it exists only at night A 2000 km (1250 miles)
B Because it is the lowest ionospheric B 300 km (190 miles)
region C 4000 km (2500 miles)
C Because it does not absorb radio waves D None, the F2 region does not support
as much as other ionospheric regions radio-wave propagation
D Because it is the highest ionospheric
region B-007-003-003 (A)
What is the maximum distance along the
B-007-002-009 (D)
Earth's surface that is normally covered in
What is the main reason the 160, 80 and 40 one hop using the E region?
metre amateur bands tend to be useful only
A 2000 km (1250 miles)
for short-distance communications during
daylight hours? B 300 km (190 miles)
C 4000 km (2500 miles)
A Because of auroral propagation
D None, the E region does not support
B Because of magnetic flux
radio-wave propagation
C Because of a lack of activity
D Because of D-region absorption B-007-003-004 (C)
Skip zone is:
B-007-002-010 (B)
During the day, one of the ionospheric layers A a zone between any two refracted waves
splits into two parts called: B a zone between the antenna and the
A A and B return of the first refracted wave
B F1 and F2
C a zone between the end of the ground
wave and the point where the first
C D1 and D2 refracted wave returns to Earth
D E1 and E2 D a zone of silence caused by lost sky
waves
B-007-002-011 (B)
The position of the E layer in the ionosphere B-007-003-005 (B)
is: The distance to Europe from your location is
A above the F layer approximately 5000 km. What sort of
propagation is the most likely to be involved?
B below the F layer
C below the D layer A Tropospheric scatter
D sporadic B Multihop
C Sporadic "E"
B-007-003-001 (C) D Back scatter
What is a skip zone?
B-007-003-006 (C)
A An area covered by sky-wave propagation For radio signals, the skip distance is
B An area covered by ground-wave determined by the:
propagation A angle of radiation
C An area which is too far away for ground-
B type of transmitting antenna used
wave propagation, but too close for sky-
wave propagation C height of the ionosphere and the angle of
radiation
D An area which is too far away for ground-
wave or sky-wave propagation D power fed to the power amplifier
B-007-003-007 (A) B-007-004-001 (C)
The distance from the transmitter to the What effect does the D region of the
nearest point where the sky wave returns to ionosphere have on lower frequency HF
the Earth is called the: signals in the daytime?
A skip distance A It refracts the radio waves back to Earth
B skip zone B It has little or no effect on 80-metre radio
C angle of radiation waves
D maximum usable frequency C It absorbs the signals
D It bends the radio waves out into space
B-007-003-008 (C)
B-007-004-002 (C)
Skip distance is the:
What causes distant AM broadcast and 160
A the minimum distance reached by a metre ham band stations not to be heard
ground-wave signal during daytime hours?
B the maximum distance a signal will travel A The splitting of the F region
by both a ground wave and reflected wave
B The weather below the ionosphere
C the minimum distance reached by a
C The ionization of the D region
signal after one reflection by the
ionosphere D The presence of ionized clouds in the E
region
D the maximum distance reached by a
signal after one reflection by the
ionosphere B-007-004-003 (A)
Two or more parts of the radio wave follow
B-007-003-009 (B) different paths during propagation and this
may result in phase differences at the
Skip distance is a term associated with
receiver. This "change" at the receiver is
signals from the ionosphere. Skip effects are
called:
due to:
A fading
A local cloud cover
B baffling
B reflection and refraction from the
ionosphere C absorption
C selective fading of local signals D skip
D high gain antennas being used
B-007-004-004 (C)
B-007-003-010 (B) A change or variation in signal strength at
the antenna, caused by differences in path
The skip distance of a sky wave will be
lengths, is called:
greatest when the:
A fluctuation
A signal given out is strongest
B path loss
B angle between the ground and the
radiation is smallest C fading
C polarization is vertical D absorption
D ionosphere is most densely ionized
B-007-004-005 (A)
B-007-003-011 (C) When a transmitted radio signal reaches a
station by a one-hop and two-hop skip path,
If the height of the reflecting layer of the
small changes in the ionosphere can cause:
ionosphere increases, the skip distance of a
high frequency (HF) transmission: A variations in signal strength
A varies regularly B consistent fading of received signal
B decreases C consistently stronger signals
C becomes greater D a change in the ground-wave signal
D stays the same
B-007-004-006 (D) B-007-004-010 (C)
The usual effect of ionospheric storms is to: Polarization change often takes place on
radio waves that are propagated over long
A produce extreme weather changes distances. Which of these does not cause
B prevent communications by ground wave polarization change?
C increase the maximum usable frequency A Passage through magnetic fields
D cause a fade-out of sky-wave signals (Faraday rotation)
B Refractions
B-007-004-007 (B) C Parabolic interaction
On the VHF and UHF bands, polarization of D Reflections
the receiving antenna is very important in
relation to the transmitting antenna, yet on B-007-004-011 (D)
HF bands it is relatively unimportant. Why is
Reflection of a SSB transmission from the
that so?
ionosphere causes:
A Greater selectivity is possible with HF
A phase-shift distortion
receivers making changes in polarization
redundant B signal cancellation at the receiver
B The ionosphere can change the C a high-pitch squeal at the receiver
polarization of the signal from moment to D little or no phase-shift distortion
moment
C The ground wave and the sky wave B-007-005-001 (A)
continually shift the polarization
How do sunspots change the ionization of
D Anomalies in the Earth's magnetic field the atmosphere?
produce a profound effect on HF
polarization but not on VHF & UHF A The more sunspots there are, the greater
frequencies the ionization
B The more sunspots there are, the less
B-007-004-008 (B) the ionization
What causes selective fading? C Unless there are sunspots, the ionization
is zero
A Large changes in the height of the D They have no effect
ionosphere at the receiving station
ordinarily occurring shortly before sunrise B-007-005-002 (A)
and sunset
How long is an average sunspot cycle?
B Phase differences between radio wave
components of the same transmission, A 11 years
as experienced at the receiving station
B 17 years
C Small changes in beam heading at the
receiving station C 5 years
D Time differences between the receiving D 7 years
and transmitting stations
B-007-005-003 (A)
B-007-004-009 (D) What is solar flux?
How does the bandwidth of a transmitted
signal affect selective fading? A The radio energy emitted by the sun
A It is the same for both wide and narrow B A measure of the tilt of the Earth's
bandwidths ionosphere on the side toward the sun
B Only the receiver bandwidth determines
C The number of sunspots on the side of
the selective fading effect the sun facing the Earth
D The density of the sun's magnetic field
C It is more pronounced at narrow
bandwidths
D It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths
B-007-005-004 (D) B-007-005-008 (B)
What is the solar-flux index? All communication frequencies throughout
the spectrum are affected in varying degrees
A Another name for the American sunspot by the:
number
A atmospheric conditions
B A measure of solar activity that compares
B sun
daily readings with results from the last
six months C ionosphere
C A measure of solar activity that is taken D aurora borealis
annually
D A measure of solar activity that is taken B-007-005-009 (C)
at a specific frequency Average duration of a solar cycle is:

B-007-005-005 (C) A 6 years

What influences all radiocommunication B 1 year
beyond ground-wave or line-of-sight ranges? C 11 years
A The F1 region of the ionosphere D 3 years
B Lunar tidal effects
C Solar radiation B-007-005-010 (A)
D The F2 region of the ionosphere The ability of the ionosphere to reflect high
frequency radio signals depends on:
B-007-005-006 (C) A the amount of solar radiation
Which two types of radiation from the sun B the power of the transmitted signal
influence propagation? C the receiver sensitivity
A Polar region and equatorial emissions D upper atmosphere weather conditions
B Infrared and gamma-ray emissions
C Electromagnetic and particle emissions B-007-005-011 (B)
D Subaudible and audio-frequency HF radio propagation cycles have a period of
emissions approximately 11:
A centuries
B-007-005-007 (C)
B years
When sunspot numbers are high, how is C months
propagation affected?
D days
A Frequencies up to 100 MHz or higher are
normally usable for long-distance B-007-006-001 (C)
communication
What happens to signals higher in frequency
B High frequency radio signals become
than the critical frequency?
weak and distorted
C Frequencies up to 40 MHz or even higher A Their frequency is changed by the
become usable for long-distance ionosphere to be below the maximum
communication usable frequency
D High frequency radio signals are B They are reflected back to their source
absorbed C They pass through the ionosphere
D They are absorbed by the ionosphere
B-007-006-002 (C) B-007-006-006 (D)
What causes the maximum usable What usually happens to radio waves with
frequency to vary? frequencies below the maximum usable
frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the
A The speed of the winds in the upper
ionosphere?
atmosphere
B The type of weather just below the A They are changed to a frequency above
ionosphere the MUF
C The amount of radiation received from the B They are completely absorbed by the
sun, mainly ultraviolet ionosphere
D The temperature of the ionosphere C They pass through the ionosphere
D They are bent back to the Earth
B-007-006-003 (C)
B-007-006-007 (A)
What does maximum usable frequency
mean? At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-
metre band usually support worldwide
A The highest frequency signal that is most
propagation during daylight hours?
absorbed by the ionosphere
B The lowest frequency signal that is most A At any point in the solar cycle
absorbed by the ionosphere B Only at the minimum point of the solar
C The highest frequency signal that will cycle
reach its intended destination C Only at the maximum point of the solar
D The lowest frequency signal that will cycle
reach its intended destination D At the summer solstice

B-007-006-004 (C) B-007-006-008 (B)

What can be done at an amateur station to If we transmit a signal, the frequency of
continue HF communications during a which is so high we no longer receive a
sudden ionospheric disturbance? reflection from the ionosphere, the signal
frequency is above the:
A Try a different antenna polarization
B Try a different frequency shift A sunspot frequency
C Try a higher frequency band B maximum usable frequency
D Try the other sideband C skip distance
D speed of light
B-007-006-005 (D)
What is one way to determine if the B-007-006-009 (D)
maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high Communication on the 80 metre band is
enough to support 28 MHz propagation generally most difficult during:
between your station and western Europe?
A evening in winter
A Listen for signals from 20-metre beacon B evening in summer
stations
C daytime in winter
B Listen for signals from 39-metre
D daytime in summer
broadcast stations
C Listen for WWVH time signals on 20
MHz B-007-006-010 (D)
D Listen for signals from 10-metre beacon The optimum working frequency provides the
stations best long range HF communication.
Compared with the maximum usable
frequency (MUF), it is usually:
A double the MUF
B half the MUF
C slightly higher
D slightly lower
B-007-006-011 (C) B-007-007-005 (D)
During summer daytime, which bands are What is a sporadic-E condition?
the most difficult for communications beyond
ground wave? A Partial tropospheric ducting at E-region
height
A 30 metres
B Variations in E-region height caused by
B 20 metres
sunspot variations
C 160 and 80 metres
C A brief decrease in VHF signals caused
D 40 metres by sunspot variations
D Patches of dense ionization at E-region
B-007-007-001 (D) height
Which ionospheric region most affects sky-
wave propagation on the 6 metre band? B-007-007-006 (D)
A The F2 region On which amateur frequency band is the
extended-distance propagation effect of
B The F1 region
sporadic-E most often observed?
C The D region
D The E region
A 160 metres
B 20 metres
B-007-007-002 (D) C 2 metres
D 6 metres
What effect does tropospheric bending have
on 2-metre radio waves?
B-007-007-007 (D)
A It causes them to travel shorter distances
In the northern hemisphere, in which
B It garbles the signal
direction should a directional antenna be
C It reverses the sideband of the signal pointed to take maximum advantage of
D It lets you contact stations farther away auroral propagation?
A East
B-007-007-003 (C)
B West
What causes tropospheric ducting of radio C South
waves?
D North
A An aurora to the north
B A very low pressure area B-007-007-008 (A)
C A temperature inversion Where in the ionosphere does auroral
D Lightning between the transmitting and activity occur?
receiving stations
A At E-region height
B-007-007-004 (B) B At F-region height
C In the equatorial band
That portion of the radiation kept close to the
Earth's surface due to bending in the D At D-region height
atmosphere is called the:
B-007-007-009 (C)
A ionospheric wave
B tropospheric wave Which emission mode is best for auroral
propagation?
C inverted wave
D ground wave A FM
B SSB
C CW
D RTTY
B-007-007-010 (B) B-007-008-004 (B)
Excluding enhanced propagation modes, What makes HF scatter signals often sound
what is the approximate range of normal distorted?
VHF tropospheric propagation?
A The state of the E-region at the point of
A 1600 km (1000 miles) refraction
B 800 km (500 miles) B Energy scattered into the skip zone
C 2400 km (1500 miles) through several radio-wave paths
D 3200 km (2000 miles) C Auroral activity and changes in the
Earth's magnetic field
B-007-007-011 (C) D Propagation through ground waves that
absorb much of the signal
What effect is responsible for propagating a
VHF signal over 800 km (500 miles)? B-007-008-005 (C)
A D-region absorption Why are HF scatter signals usually weak?
B Moon bounce (EME) Earth - Moon -
Earth A The F region of the ionosphere absorbs
C Tropospheric ducting most of the signal energy
D Faraday rotation B Auroral activity absorbs most of the
signal energy
B-007-008-001 (C) C Only a small part of the signal energy is
scattered into the skip zone
What kind of unusual HF propagation allows
D Propagation through ground waves
weak signals from the skip zone to be heard
absorbs most of the signal energy
occasionally?
A Ducting B-007-008-006 (D)
B Ground-wave What type of propagation may allow a weak
C Scatter-mode signal to be heard at a distance too far for
D Sky-wave with low radiation angle ground-wave propagation but too near for
normal sky-wave propagation?
B-007-008-002 (C) A Short-path skip
If you receive a weak, distorted signal from a B Sporadic-E skip
distance, and close to the maximum usable C Ground wave
frequency, what type of propagation is D Scatter
probably occurring?
A Line-of-sight B-007-008-007 (D)
B Ducting On the HF bands, when is scatter
C Scatter propagation most likely involved?
D Ground-wave
A When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum
and D-region absorption is high
B-007-008-003 (C)
B At night
What is a characteristic of HF scatter C When the F1 and F2 regions are
signals? combined
A Reversed sidebands D When weak and distorted signals near or
above the maximum usable frequency for
B High intelligibility
normal propagation can be heard over
C Rapid flutter or hollow sounding distortion unusual paths
D Reversed modulation
B-007-008-008 (B) B-008-001-002 (D)
Which of the following is not a scatter What is one way to tell if radio frequency
mode? interference to a receiver is caused by front-
end overload?
A Ionospheric scatter
B Absorption scatter A If grounding the receiver makes the
problem worse
C Meteor scatter
B If connecting a low pass filter to the
D Tropospheric scatter
receiver greatly cuts down the
interference
B-007-008-009 (C)
C If connecting a low pass filter to the
Meteor scatter is most effective on what transmitter greatly cuts down the
band? interference
A 15 metres
D If the interference is about the same no
matter what frequency is used for the
B 160 metres transmitter
C 6 metres
D 40 metres B-008-001-003 (A)
If a neighbour reports television interference
B-007-008-010 (C) whenever you transmit, no matter what band
Which of the following is not a scatter you use, what is probably the cause of the
mode? interference?

A Back scatter A Receiver overload

B Forward scatter B Incorrect antenna length
C Inverted scatter C Receiver VR tube discharge
D Side scatter D Too little transmitter harmonic
suppression
B-007-008-011 (C)
B-008-001-004 (A)
In which frequency range is meteor scatter
most effective for extended-range What type of filter should be connected to a
communication? TV receiver as the first step in trying to
prevent RF overload from an amateur HF
A 3 - 10 MHz station transmission?
B 100 - 300 MHz A High-pass
C 30 - 100 MHz B Low-pass
D 10 - 30 MHz C Band-pass
D No filter
B-008-001-001 (C)
What is meant by receiver overload? B-008-001-005 (C)
During a club ARRL Field Day outing,
A Too much current from the power supply
reception on the 20 m SSB station is
B Too much voltage from the power supply compromised every time the 20 m CW
C Interference caused by strong signals station is on the air. What might cause such
from a nearby transmitter interference?
D Interference caused by turning the volume A Improper station grounding
up too high
B Harmonic radiation
C Receiver desensitization
D Both stations are fed from the same
generator
B-008-001-006 (C) B-008-001-010 (D)
Inter-modulation in a broadcast receiver by a A television receiver suffers interference on
nearby transmitter would be noticed in the channel 5 (76 - 82 MHz) only when you
receiver as: transmit on 14 MHz. From your home you
see the tower of a commercial FM station
A distortion on transmitted voice peaks
known to broadcast on 92.5 MHz. Which of
B interference continuously across the dial these solutions would you try first?
C the undesired signal in the background of A Insert a low pass filter at the antenna
the desired signal
connector of the HF transmitter
D interference only when a broadcast signal
B Insert a high pass filter at the antenna
is tuned
connector of the HF transmitter
B-008-001-007 (B)
C Insert a low pass filter at the antenna
connector of the television
You have connected your hand-held VHF D Insert a high pass filter at the antenna
transceiver to an outside gain antenna. You connector of the television
now hear a mixture of signals together with
different modulation on your desired
B-008-001-011 (C)
frequency. What is the nature of this
interference? How can intermodulation be reduced?
A Audio stage intermodulation interference
A By increasing the receiver RF gain while
B Receiver intermodulation interference decreasing the AF gain
C Harmonic interference from other stations B By adjusting the passband tuning
D Audio stage overload interference C By installing a suitable filter at the
receiver
B-008-001-008 (B) D By using a better antenna
Two or more strong out-of-band signals mix
in your receiver to produce interference on a B-008-002-001 (C)
desired frequency. What is this called?
What devices would you install to reduce or
A Front-end desensitization eliminate audio-frequency interference to
B Intermodulation interference home entertainment systems?
C Receiver quieting A Metal-oxide varistors
D Capture effect B Bypass inductors
C Coils on ferrite cores
B-008-001-009 (D) D Bypass resistors
Two mobile stations are traveling along the
same road in close proximity to each other B-008-002-002 (D)
and having trouble communicating through a
What should be done if a properly operating
local repeater. Why may it be necessary to
amateur station is the cause of interference
use simplex operation to communicate
to a nearby telephone?
between these cars?
A Ground and shield the local telephone
A Simplex operation does not require the
distribution amplifier
use of CTCSS tones
B Stop transmitting whenever the telephone
B There is less time delay using simplex
is in use
operation compared to using a repeater
C Make internal adjustments to the
C There are many more simplex
telephone equipment
frequencies than repeater frequencies
available D Install a modular plug-in telephone RFI
filter close to the telephone device
D The strong signal of one mobile
transmitter may desensitize the receiver
of the other mobile receiver
B-008-002-003 (D) B-008-002-007 (A)
What sound is heard from a public-address Your SSB HF transmissions are heard
system if audio rectification of a nearby muffled on a sound system in the living room
single-sideband phone transmission occurs? regardless of its volume setting. What
causes this?
A Clearly audible speech from the
transmitter's signals A Audio rectification of strong signals
B On-and-off humming or clicking B Harmonics generated at the transmitter
C A steady hum whenever the transmitter's C Improper filtering in the transmitter
carrier is on the air D Lack of receiver sensitivity and selectivity
D Distorted speech from the transmitter's
signals B-008-002-008 (B)

B-008-002-004 (B) What device can be used to minimize the

effect of RF pickup by audio wires
What sound is heard from a public-address connected to stereo speakers, intercom
system if audio rectification of a nearby CW amplifiers, telephones, etc.?
transmission occurs?
A Diode
A A steady whistling B Ferrite core
B On-and-off humming or clicking C Magnet
C Audible, possibly distorted speech D Attenuator
D Muffled, severely distorted speech
B-008-002-009 (D)
B-008-002-005 (C)
Stereo speaker leads often act as antennas
How can you minimize the possibility of to pick up RF signals. What is one method
audio rectification of your transmitter's you can use to minimize this effect?
signals?
A Lengthen the leads
A Use CW only B Connect the speaker through an audio
B Use a solid-state transmitter attenuator
C Ensure that all station equipment is C Connect a diode across the speaker
properly grounded D Shorten the leads
D Install bypass capacitors on all power
supply rectifiers
B-008-002-010 (C)

B-008-002-006 (A) One method of preventing RF from entering a

stereo set through the speaker leads is to
An amateur transmitter is being heard wrap each of the speaker leads:
across the entire dial of a broadcast
receiver. The receiver is most probably A around an iron bar
suffering from: B around a wooden dowel
A audio rectification in the receiver C through a ferrite core
B harmonics interference from the D around a copper bar
transmitter
C poor image rejection B-008-002-011 (C)
D splatter from the transmitter Stereo amplifiers often have long leads
which pick up transmitted signals because
they act as:
A RF attenuators
B frequency discriminators
C receiving antennas
D transmitting antennas
B-008-003-001 (C) B-008-003-005 (A)
How can you prevent key-clicks? In Morse code transmission, local RF
interference (key-clicks) is produced by:
A By using a better power supply
A the making and breaking of the circuit at
B By sending CW more slowly the Morse key
C By using a key-click filter B frequency shifting caused by poor voltage
D By increasing power regulation
C the power amplifier, and is caused by
B-008-003-002 (C) high frequency parasitic oscillations
If someone tells you that signals from your D poor waveshaping caused by a poor
hand-held transceiver are interfering with voltage regulator
other signals on a frequency near yours,
what could be the cause? B-008-003-006 (B)
A Your hand-held has a chirp from weak Key-clicks, heard from a Morse code
batteries transmitter at a distant receiver, are the
result of:
B You need to turn the volume up on your
hand-held A changes in oscillator frequency on keying
C Your hand-held is transmitting spurious B too sharp rise and decay times of the
emissions keyed carrier
D You need a power amplifier for your hand- C power supply hum modulating the carrier
held D sparks emitting RF from the key contacts

B-008-003-003 (A)
B-008-003-007 (A)
If your transmitter sends signals outside the
In a Morse code transmission, broad
band where it is transmitting, what is this
bandwidth RF interference (key-clicks) heard
called?
at a distance is produced by:
A Spurious emissions
A poor shaping of the waveform
B Side tones
B shift in frequency when keying the
C Transmitter chirping transmitter
D Off-frequency emissions C sparking at the key contacts
D sudden movement in the receiver
B-008-003-004 (A) loudspeaker
What problem may occur if your transmitter
is operated without the cover and other B-008-003-008 (A)
shielding in place? What should you do if you learn your
A It may radiate spurious emissions transmitter is producing key clicks?
B It may transmit a weak signal A Check the keying filter and the
C It may interfere with other stations functioning of later stages
operating near its frequency B Turn the receiver down
D It may transmit a chirpy signal C Regulate the oscillator supply voltage
D Use a choke in the RF power output
B-008-003-009 (D) B-008-004-002 (A)
A parasitic oscillation: What is meant by harmonic radiation?

A is generated by parasitic elements of a A Unwanted signals at frequencies which

Yagi beam are multiples of the fundamental (chosen)
B does not cause any radio interference frequency
C is produced in a transmitter oscillator B Unwanted signals that are combined with
stage a 60-Hz hum
D is an unwanted signal developed in a C Unwanted signals caused by
transmitter sympathetic vibrations from a nearby
transmitter
B-008-003-010 (A) D Signals which cause skip propagation to
occur
Parasitic oscillations in the RF power
amplifier stage of a transmitter may be
B-008-004-003 (A)
found:
Why is harmonic radiation from an amateur
A at high or low frequencies
station not wanted?
B on harmonic frequencies
A It may cause interference to other
C at high frequencies only
stations and may result in out-of-band
D at low frequencies only signals
B It uses large amounts of electric power
B-008-003-011 (C)
C It may cause sympathetic vibrations in
Transmitter RF amplifiers can generate nearby transmitters
parasitic oscillations: D It may cause auroras in the air
A on the transmitter fundamental frequency
B on harmonics of the transmitter frequency B-008-004-004 (A)
C above or below the transmitter frequency What type of interference may come from a
D on VHF frequencies only multi-band antenna connected to a poorly
tuned transmitter?
B-008-004-001 (B) A Harmonic radiation
If a neighbour reports television interference B Parasitic excitation
on one or two channels only when you C Intermodulation
transmit on 15 metres, what is probably the D Auroral distortion
cause of the interference?
A Too much low pass filtering on the B-008-004-005 (B)
transmitter
If you are told your station was heard on 21
B Harmonic radiation from your transmitter 375 kHz, but at the time you were operating
C De ionization of the ionosphere near your on 7125 kHz, what is one reason this could
neighbour's TV antenna happen?
D TV receiver front-end overload A Your transmitter's power-supply filter
capacitor was bad
B Your transmitter was radiating harmonic
signals
C Your transmitter's power-supply filter
choke was bad
D You were sending CW too fast
B-008-004-006 (D) B-008-004-010 (A)
What causes splatter interference? An interfering signal from a transmitter is
found to have a frequency of 57 MHz (TV
A Keying a transmitter too fast Channel 2 is 54 - 60 MHz). This signal could
B Signals from a transmitter's output circuit be the:
are being sent back to its input circuit A second harmonic of a 10 metre
C The transmitting antenna is the wrong transmission
length B crystal oscillator operating on its
D Overmodulating a transmitter fundamental
C seventh harmonic of an 80 metre
B-008-004-007 (A) transmission
Your amateur radio transmitter appears to D third harmonic of a 15 metre transmission
be creating interference to the television on
channel 3 (60-66 MHz) when you are B-008-004-011 (B)
transmitting on the 15 metre band. Other
Harmonics may be produced in the RF
channels are not affected. The most likely
power amplifier of a transmitter if:
cause is:
A modulation is applied to a high-level
A harmonic radiation from the transmitter
stage
B no high-pass filter on the TV
B excessive drive signal is applied to it
C a bad ground at the transmitter
C the output tank circuit is tuned to the
D front-end overload of the TV fundamental frequency
D the oscillator frequency is unstable
B-008-004-008 (D)
One possible cause of TV interference by B-008-005-001 (C)
harmonics from an SSB transmitter is from
What type of filter might be connected to an
"flat topping" - driving the power amplifier into
amateur HF transmitter to cut down on
non-linear operation. The most appropriate
harmonic radiation?
remedy for this is:
A A high pass filter
A retune transmitter output
B A CW filter
B use another antenna
C A low pass filter
C reduce oscillator output
D A key-click filter
D reduce microphone gain

B-008-005-002 (D)
B-008-004-009 (C)
Why do modern HF transmitters have a
In a transmitter, excessive harmonics are
built-in low pass filter in their RF output
produced by:
circuits?
A resonant circuits
A To reduce fundamental radiation
B a linear amplifier
B To reduce low frequency interference to
C overdriven stages other amateurs
D low SWR C To reduce RF energy below a cut-off point
D To reduce harmonic radiation

B-008-005-003 (C)
What circuit blocks RF energy above and
below a certain limit?
A An input filter
B A low pass filter
C A band pass filter
D A high pass filter
B-008-005-004 (C) B-008-005-009 (D)
What should be the impedance of a low A band reject filter will:
pass filter as compared to the impedance of
the transmission line into which it is A allow only two frequencies through
inserted? B pass frequencies below 100 MHz
A Twice the transmission line impedance C stop frequencies each side of a band
B Substantially higher D pass frequencies each side of a band
C About the same
D Substantially lower B-008-005-010 (C)
A high pass filter would normally be fitted:
B-008-005-005 (D)
A at the Morse key or keying relay in a
In order to reduce the harmonic output of a
transmitter
high frequency (HF) transmitter, which of the
following filters should be installed at the B between transmitter output and
transmitter? transmission line
C at the antenna terminals of the TV
A Key click
receiver
B High pass D between microphone and speech
C Rejection amplifier
D Low pass
B-008-005-011 (C)
B-008-005-006 (D) A low pass filter suitable for a high frequency
To reduce harmonic output from a high transmitter would:
frequency transmitter, you would put a A attenuate frequencies below 30 MHz
____________ in the transmission line as
close to the transmitter as possible. B pass audio frequencies below 3 kHz
C attenuate frequencies above 30 MHz
A high pass filter
D pass audio frequencies above 3 kHz
B band reject filter
C wave trap
D low pass filter

B-008-005-007 (B)
To reduce energy from an HF transmitter
getting into a television set, you would place
a ____________ as close to the TV as
possible.
A band reject filter
B high pass filter
C low pass filter
D wave trap

B-008-005-008 (A)
A band pass filter will:

A allow only certain frequencies through

B attenuate high frequencies but not low
C pass frequencies each side of a band
D stop frequencies in a certain band