Iseb SWT2
Iseb SWT2
Iseb SWT2
QUESTION NO: 1
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
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Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
A. a and c
B. b and c
C. a and b
D. b and d
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
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Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage, respectively?
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A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.
C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.
D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
e) Decision testing
A. a and c.
B. b and d.
C. b and e.
D. c and e.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
The digital ainbow Thermometer uses 7 colours to show the ambient temperature. Each colour
spans a range of just 5, with an operating minimum and maximum of minus 5 and 30. Which of
the following values is minimum and maximum of minus 5? and 30?. Which of the following
values is LEAST likely to have been identified when applying the boundary value test design
technique?
A. 3030?
B. 00?
C. 8?8
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D. 15 15?
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either
upper or lower case. Which of the following test cases is from an INVALID equivalence partition?
A. Feeds
B. F33ds
C. FEEDS
D. fEEDs
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed
as high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application
domain. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique
for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
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B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
c) Plan tests.
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Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and z):
i)Exploratory Testing
ii)Equivalence Partitioning
iii)Decision Testing
v)Condition coverage
x) Specification-based
y)Structure-based
z)Experienced-based
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a
testing tool?
d) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool
A. a, b and c.
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B. b, c and d.
C. a, c and d.
D. a, b and d.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the
User log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below
describes the four defect reports submitted.
Which Tester has reported the incident MOST effectively, considering the information and priority
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they have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
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- Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
- Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?
Answer: B
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
A. a, b and c
B. b, c and d
C. a, b and d.
D. a, c and d
Answer: C
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Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
01 Input number of male rabbits 02 Input number of female rabbits 03 If male rabbits > 0 and
female rabbits > 0 then 04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No) 05 If breed = o?05 If breed =
?o 06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart!?06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart! 07
End if 08 End If.
Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement ?6?is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed =
Yes?
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed =
No?
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed =
Yes?
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed =
No?
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
Which of the following statements describe why experience-based test design techniques are
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useful?
a) They can help derive test cases based on analysis of specification documents.
A. a and b.
B. b and d
C. c and d
D. b and c.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
Answer: A
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following activities would improve how a tool is deployed within an organisation?
b) Roll out the tool across the organisation as quickly as possible to all users.
c) Provide technical support to the test team for each type of tool.
e) Ensure that the test process is not changed as result of the tool introduction.
A. a, b and c.
B. a, c and d.
C. c, d and e.
D. b, d and e.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following types of defect are typically found in reviews rather than in dynamic testing?
e) Defects in requirements.
A. a, c and e.
B. a, b and d.
C. b, d and e.
D. a, c and d.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you review the test basis?
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
A. Scope is related to the risk, size of the changes and size of the system under test
B. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
C. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
D. Scope is related to the number of system users affected by the change.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following BEST describes a data-driven approach to the use of test execution tools?
A. Monitoring response times when the system contains a specified amount of data
B. Manipulation of databases and files to create test data
C. Using a generic script that reads test input data from a file
D. Recording test scripts and playing them back
Answer: C
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 34
From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?
A. b, d and e.
B. b, c and d.
C. a, b and d.
D. a, c and e.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Fundamental Test
Process?
A. d, a, c, b
B. a, d, b, c
C. a, b, c, d
D. a, b, d, c
Answer: B
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 36
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
Which ADDITIONAL test level could be introduced into a standard V-model after system testing?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
The above table shows 6 test procedures (P to U) that must now be entered into a test execution
schedule. Business severity is regarded as the most important element in determining the
sequence of the test procedures, but other dependencies must also be taken into consideration.
Regression testing can only be run once all other tests have completed.
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Which of the following represents the MOST effective sequence for the test execution schedule
(where the first entry in the sequence is the first procedure to be run, the second entry is the
second to be run and so on)?
A. Q, P, S, R, U, T.
B. R, S, U, P, Q, T.
C. R, P, S, U, T, Q.
D. P, Q, R, S, U, T
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?
b) Security vulnerabilities.
c) Poor performance.
d) Unreachable code.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
Which ordering of the list below gives increasing levels of test independence?
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d) Tests designed by different organisation.
A. c, a, b, d.
B. d, b, a, c
C. c, a, d, b.
D. a, c, d, b.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Topic 2, Volume B
QUESTION NO: 41
A. Individual preparation
B. Writing test conditions
C. Developing a test plan
D. Executing test scripts
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Which one of the following provides the BEST description of test design?
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is a 20% discount
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for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test cases using
various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered. Which of the following groups contain
three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Value Analysis?
A. 5, 6, 20
B. 4, 5, 80
C. 4, 5, 99
D. 1, 20, 100
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following matches the activity (i to iv) to its most suitable type of tool (p to s)?
p) Test management.
s) Test harness.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
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A candidate sits an exam with 40 questions. To pass, the candidate must answer at least 25
questions correctly. To gain a distinction, a mark of 32 or above must be achieved. Which of
these groups of exam scores would fall into three different equivalence classes?
A. 32, 36, 40
B. 0, 27, 36
C. 0, 24, 32
D. 25, 32, 40
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
Which of the following would result in a change of state to S2 with an action of R6?
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
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b) Acceptance testing can take place before system testing starts.
A. b and d
B. a and b
C. b and c
D. c and d
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
The above table shows 6 test procedures (P to U) that must now be entered into a test execution
schedule. Business severity is regarded as the most important element in determining the
sequence of the test procedures, but other dependencies must also be taken into consideration.
Regression testing can only be run once all other tests have completed.
Which of the following represents the MOST effective sequence for the test execution schedule
(where the first entry in the sequence is the first procedure to be run, the second entry is the
second to be run and so on)?
A. R, Q, S, T, U, P
B. S, R, P, U, Q, T
C. Q, R, S, T, P, U
D. S, R, U, P, Q, T
Answer: D
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 49
Which of the following statements describe why error guessing is a useful test design technique?
c) It can make good use of tester experience and available defect data.
A. a and b
B. b and c
C. c and d
D. a and c
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the
User log-on process, a critical component of the system. The incident reports do not follow a
prescribed template and the data needs to be entered into the project incident management tool.
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Which tester has reported the incident most effectively to enable capture in the incident
management tool, considering the information and priority they have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2C.Tester 2
D. Tester 4 D.Tester 4
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
A. A test condition specifies input values and expected results; a test case combines one or more
test conditions
B. A test condition may be derived from requirements or specifications; a test procedure specifies
the sequence of action for the execution of a test
C. A test case specifies the sequence of execution of test conditions; a test procedure specifies
test pre-conditions and post-conditions
D. A test case specifies input values and expected results; a test procedure may be derived from
requirements or specifications
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
a) It is carried out to ensure that the system will be reliable once in service.
d) It can include testing of a system after migration from one platform to another.
A. a and b
B. a and c
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C. c and d
D. b and d
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for the
following
A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage
B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be used
to provide 100% decision coverage
C. None, existing test cases can be used
D. One more test case will be required for 100% statement coverage
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
Which of the following is MOST likely to be an objective of a pilot project to introduce a test tool?
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Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
Place the stages of the Fundamental Test Process in the usual order (by time).
A. c, b, d, e, a
B. c, b, e, d, a
C. c, b, d, a, e
D. b, c, d, e, a
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
Which of the following defects would NORMALLY be identified by a static analysis tool?
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A. The response time for the search function exceeded the agreed limit
B. The design specification had many grammatical errors
C. The component code had variables that were used but had not been declaredThe component?
code had variables that were used but had not been declared
D. The component was found to be the source of the memory leak
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
Which of the following activities would improve how a tool is deployed within an organisation?
a) Roll out the tool across the organisation as quickly as possible to all users.
c) Provide technical support to the test team for each type of tool.
A. a, b and c
B. a, c and d
C. c, d and e
D. b, c and e
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
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Which of the following test cases would achieve 100% statement coverage?
A. A = 5, B = 10 and C = 2
B. A = 10, B = 10 and C = 10
C. A = 10, B =5 and C = 2
D. A = 2, B= 5 and C = 10
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following would TYPICALLY be carried out by a test leader and which by a tester?
A. a and b would be carried out by a test leader, whilst c and d would be carried out by a tester
B. b and c would be carried out by a test leader, whilst a and d would be carried out by a tester
C. a and d would be carried out by a test leader, whilst b and c would be carried out by a tester
D. a and c would be carried out by a test leader, whilst b and d would be carried out by a tester
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 61
Answer: C
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 62
If a system has been tested and only a few defects have been found, what can we conclude about
the state of the system?
a) The system may be defect free but the testing done cannot guarantee that this is true.
b) The system is defect free and further testing would therefore be a waste of resources.
d) Further testing should be considered but this should be focussed on areas of highest risk
because it would not be possible to test everything.
A. a, c and d
B. b, c and d
C. a, d and e
D. b, c and e
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle?
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
Which option BEST describes objectives for test levels within a life cycle model?
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B. Objectives are the same for each test level
C. Each test level has objectives specific to that level
D. Each test level must have different objectives
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following activities would NORMALLY be undertaken during test planning?
A. b, c and d
B. a, d and f
C. a, d and e
D. b, c and f
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66
Which one of the following statements about approaches to test estimation is true?
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based approach is based on the opinion of the most experienced tester in the organisation
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 67
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68
During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you determine the exit
criteria?
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
A. Maintenance Testing
B. Unit Testing
C. System Testing
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D. User Acceptance Testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A. P. Offer free upgrade to Business and discounted upgrade to First. Q. Offer discounted
upgrade to First
B. P. Offer free upgrade to Business but cannot upgrade to First. Q. Offer discounted upgrade to
First
C. P. Offer free upgrade to First. Q. Cannot upgrade to First
D. P. Offer discounted upgrade to First. Q. Offer free upgrade to First
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71
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A. Testing as much of the system as possible in the time available
B. Targeting testing at the more critical areas of the system
C. Making full use of formal test case design techniques
D. Fixing as many defects as possible before go-live
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
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Which of the following ADDITIONAL test cases would need to be written to provide the required
coverage?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 74
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A. Documented, includes peers and experts
B. Formal process collects metrics
C. Defined roles, led by trained moderator
D. Led by the author, may be documented
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
b) Decision coverage.
d) Error guessing.
e) Statement testing.
A. a and e
B. b and d
C. b and e
D. e and d
Answer: C
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 77
Which of the following activities should be considered before purchasing a tool for an
organization?
a) Ensure that the tool does not have a negative impact on existing test processes.
c) Determine whether the vendor will continue to provide support for the tool.
A. a and d
B. b and c
C. c and d
D. a and c
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
Which of the following would NOT NORMALLY be considered for a testing role on a project?
A. System operator
B. Developer
C. Configuration manager
D. Performance specialist
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
Which statement is a valid explanation as to why black-box test design techniques can be useful?
A. They can help to derive test data based on analysis of the requirement specification
B. They can help derive test cases based on analysis of a component code structure
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C. They can help to derive test conditions based on analysis of a system internal structure
D. They can help to reduce testing costs
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 80
Answer: C
Explanation:
Topic 3, Volume C
QUESTION NO: 81
Which of the following software work products would NOT TYPICALLY be examined using static
analysis techniques?
a) Design specification.
c) Software model.
d) Test procedure.
A. a, c and d
B. a, d and e
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and e
Answer: B
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Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83
Which of the following statements about black box and white box techniques is correct?
A. Decision Testing, Equivalence Partitioning and Condition Coverage are all black box
techniques
B. Decision Table Testing, State Transition and Use Case Testing are all black box techniques
C. Decision Testing, Equivalence Partitioning and Statement Testing are all white box techniques
D. Boundary Value Analysis, State Transition and Statement Testing are all white box techniques
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
Answer: A
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 85
A. a and b
B. a and d
C. b and d
D. b and c
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 86
Which of the following statements describe why exploratory testing is a useful test design
technique?
a) It can help derive test cases based on the internal structure of systems.
A. b and c
B. a and c
C. b and d
D. c and d
Answer: A
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 87
A. a, c and e
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. b, c and e
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 88
Which of the following is MOST clearly a characteristic of structure based (white-box) techniques?
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 89
Which of the following would be MOST USEFUL in estimating the amount of re-testing and
regression testing likely to be required?
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c) Metrics from previous similar projects.
d) Impact analysis.
A. a and b
B. b and c
C. a and d
D. c and d
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90
Which one of the following BEST describes the purpose of a priority rating in an incident report?
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
Which of the following are characteristics of good testing in any life cycle model?
c) There are separate levels for component and system integration test.
A. a, d and e
B. b, c and e
C. a, c and d
D. a, b and d
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Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 92
A failure has occurred during system testing and incident report must be raised. The following
attributes are available for the report:
b) Date raised.
e) Expected Results.
f) Actual Results.
i) Tester recommendations.
Which attributes would be the MOST effective to enable determination of WHEN the incident
should be fixed and HOW MUCH effort might be required to apply the fix?
A. b, c, e, f, g
B. a, b, d, h, i
C. c, d, e, f, h
D. c, d, e, g, i
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93
A system requires 100% decision coverage at component testing for all modules. The following
module has been tested with a single test case.
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The test case follows the path A, B, D, E, F, G. What level of decision coverage has been
achieved?
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%C.75%
D. 90% D.90%
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 94
Arrive-and-Go airline wants to clarify its baggage handling policy, whilst maximising revenues, and
will introduce the following tariffs for all baggage per individual customer (weights are rounded up
to the nearest 0.1Kg):
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The first 2Kg will be carried free of charge. The next 10 Kg will be carried for a flat charge of 0. An
additional 15Kg will be charged a total charge of 7.
Luggage over this amount will be charged at ? per Kg, up to a maximum of 150Kg per person. No
passenger may take more that 150Kg with them. Which of the following would constitute boundary
values for baggage weights in the price calculation?
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 95
Which one of the following methods for test estimation rely on information captured from previous
projects?
A. Test point-based
B. Expert-based
C. Metrics-based
D. Development effort-based
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 96
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What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee 100% decision coverage?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97
An automated air-conditioner is programmed to turn its heating unit on when the temperature falls
below 17 and to turn its refrigeration unit on when the temperature exceeds 26. The air-
conditioner is designed to operate at temperatures between -10 and +40. Given the above
specification,the temperature exceeds 26. The air-conditioner is designed to operate at
temperatures between -10 and +40?. Given the above specification, which of the following sets of
values shows that the equivalence partition test design technique has been used correctly?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 98
Which of the following statements correctly describes the benefit of fault attacks?
A. They are more effective at finding faults than formal test design techniques
B. They are useful when there is limited experience in the test team
C. They can evaluate the reliability of a test object by attempting to force specific failures to occur
D. They are less structured than other experience-based techniques
Answer: C
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 99
A programme level Master Test Plan states that a number of best practices must be adopted for
its project life cycle models, irrespective of whether a sequential or iterative-incremental approach
is adopted for each project. Which of the following life cycle related best practices would you
expect to see in the Master Test Plan?
c) Test personnel should ensure that they are invited to review requirements and design
documents as soon as draft versions are available.
A. a and b
B. a and c
C. b and d
D. c and d
Answer: B
Explanation:
Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% statement coverage?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
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Answer: B
Explanation:
c) Testing can show that a previously present defect has been removed.
A. a, b and c
B. a, b and d
C. a, c and d
D. b, c and d
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be
fixed
B. To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met
C. To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects
D. To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time
Answer: A
Explanation:
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What is the expected action for each of the following test cases?
- Joe is a smoker who will be skiing and has an existing medical condition.
- Sue is a non-smoker who does not ski and does not have an existing medical condition.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which of the following is a TYPICAL objective of a pilot project for introducing a testing tool into an
organisation?
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Which of the following best describes the purpose of non-functional testing?
A. To measure characteristics of a system which give an indication of how the system performs its
functions
B. To ensure that a system complies with the quality standards set by ISO 9126
C. To ensure that the system deals appropriately with software malfunctions
D. To measure the extent to which a system has been tested by functional testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which of the following test activities are more likely to be undertaken by a test lead rather than a
tester?
b) Schedule tests.
A. c and d
B. a and b
C. b and d
D. b and c
Answer: D
Explanation:
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The above table shows 6 test procedures (P to U) that must now be entered into a test execution
schedule. Business severity is regarded as the most important element in determining the
sequence of the test procedures, but other dependencies must also be taken into consideration.
Regression testing can only be run once all other tests have completed.
Which of the following represents the MOST effective sequence for the test execution schedule
(where the first entry in the sequence is the first procedure to be run, the second entry is the
second to be run and so on)?
A. S, R, P, T, Q, U
B. P, R, T, Q, S, U
C. R, P, S, T, Q, U
D. P, Q, R, S, U, T
Answer: A
Explanation:
A simple gaming system has been specified as a set of use cases. It has been tested by the
supplier and is now ready for user acceptance testing. The system is assessed as low risk and
there is pressure to release the software into the market as soon as possible. Which of the
following test techniques would be most appropriate for this testing?
Answer: C
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Explanation:
Which of the following activities would improve how a tool is deployed within an organisation?
a) Roll out the tool across the organisation as quickly as possible to all users.
b) Provide technical support to the test team for each type of tool.
c) Limit communication with the tool vendor to allow users to develop their own best practice.
A. a, b and c
B. a, c and d
C. b, d and e
D. b, c and e
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which activity in the Fundamental Test Process creates test suites for efficient test execution?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The list below (a to e) describes one major task for each of the five main activities of the
fundamental test process. Which option (A to D) places the tasks in the correct order, by time?
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a) Create bi-directional traceability between test basis and test cases.
A. a, c, b, e, d
B. c, a, d, e, b
C. c, a, e, b, d
D. d, a, c, b, e
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which of the test cases below will cover the following series of state transitions?
SS S1 S2 S1 S2 ES
A. A, B, E, B, F
B. A, B, C, D
C. A, B, E, B, C, D
D. A, B, F
Answer: A
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 114
A. As early as possible
B. After the test environment is ready
C. After the requirements have been reviewed
D. Once the code is available to test
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Test input and expected results are stored in a table or spreadsheet, so that a single control
script can execute all of the tests in the table
B. Action-words are defined to cover specific interactions in system (e.g., log-on entries) which
can then be used by testers to build their tests
C. Keywords are entered into a test harness to obtain pre-defined test coverage reports
D. The test basis is searched using keywords to help identify suitable test conditions
Answer: B
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 117
A. Load testing
B. Portability testing
C. Maintenance testing
D. Maintainability testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process do you compare actual with expected
results?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Roles
1) Moderator.
2) Recorder.
3) Reviewer.
4)Manager.
Responsibilities
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q) The person who decides on the execution of inspections and determines if the inspection
objectives have been met.
s) The person who documents all the issues, problems and open points.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which of the following are key success factors to the review process?
A. Review time is allowed in the test execution schedule, process improvement is recognised in
the follow up meeting and the objective is always to find defects
B. Each review has a clear objective, the right people are involved, training is provided in the
review technique and management fully support the process
C. Participants are trained, all review meetings are time boxed and moderators are project
managers
D. Every team member will be involved, all review techniques are used on every work product and
test managers control the review process
Answer: B
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