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in

HARYANA JUDICIARY TEST SERIES

INSTRUCTIONS TO BE READ CAREFULLY
 All questions are compulsory.
 Duration 2 hours.
 Total number of questions are 125 and each question shall
carry 4 marks.
 There is negative marking of 0.80 marks i.e.., 1/5th for wrong
answer, no negative marking for un-attempted questions.
 Total marks : 500 M
 Usage of calculator, mobile or any other unfair means is
prohibited in Examination Hall.

NAME_____________________________________________
NAME OF EXAMINATION ____TEST.1 IPC SECTION 1-298____
CENTRE OPTION ____________________________________
CONTACT NO. _____________________________________
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1. In which of the following, the offence of abetment could be committed.
(a) Threat
(b) Attempt
(c) Conspiracy
(d) Preparations

2. Five persons concert to loot a bank. Two of them, M and N, stay in the car, with the engine running on, at the
entrance of the bank. Three of them X, Y, and Z enter the bank. X shoots the cashier and Y and Z loot the cash.
Police suddenly reaches the bank and apprehends Y and Z but X escapes. On seeing the police enter the bank, M
and N also run away in the car. Later on, all the five are arrested and charged with the offences of dacoity, looting
and murder. M and N plead that they are not guilty of any offence, certainly not of murder and looting, as they did
not participate in any of these offences.
Should their plea prevail?
(a) M and N are not liable for committing robbery and murder
(b) M and N are liable for abetting robbery, but not of committing it
(c) Since the looting of the bank was committed in furtherance of the common intention of all the five, M and N
are equally liable for looting and murder along with X, Y and Z and thus their defense will not prevail
(d) M and N has no Complicity in any of the offense.
3. X and Y agreed to commit murder of Z by poisoning and Y was to procure poison but he did not procure it, X
and Y are guilty of:-

(a) Attempt to murder by conspiracy

(b) Attempt to murder under section 34
(c) Criminal conspiracy to murder Z
(d) No offence

4. Y, a small boy was guarding the field. Z and M outsiders trespassed and started harvesting. On protest by Y
they beat him up and on hearing his cries, X and P, Uncles of Y who were working in different directions, rushed
in, one of them X, fired at the trespassers killing one of them and ran away. P was arrested and charged under
section 302 of the IPC for murder read with section 34. Which of the following Statements is correct?
(a) He is liable for murder because of the similar intention of both the brothers
(b) He is liable for murder because of the same intention of both the brothers
(c) He is liable for murder because he was present when his brother forced at the trespassers
(d) He is not liable because there was no common intention to kill.
5. A instigates B to murder C. B stabbed C but C recovers from the wound.

(a) A is not guilty of instigation as desired result not obtained.

(b) A is guilty of abetting B to commit murder.
(c) A is guilty of abetting B to commit grievous hurt.
(d) None of these.

6. A, an Indian citizen with a wife and two children marries a British girl in U.K.

(a) He can be tried in India for bigamy on his return to India

(b) He cannot be tried in India
(c) Depends
(d) None of the above
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7. Which one of the following will amount to criminal conspiracy?

(a) Two or more persons agreed to commit, criminal act in furtherance of their common intention.
(b) Intention of each of the accused persons is known to rest of them and is shared.
(c) Unity of criminal behavior actuated by common consent.
(d) Agreement to commit an offence even if no step is taken on to carry out that agreement.

8. Assertion (A): The essence of joint liability under section 149 of IPC is that the criminal act must have been
done with a view to fulfilling the common object of an unlawful assembly

Reason(R): Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other
members of assembly liable

Codes:-

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘A’ is correct explanation of ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not a correct explanation of ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

9. X, a prisoner escapes from the jail and later he was arrested from his wife’s house. The court convicted the wife
for harboring the offender under section 212 of the Indian penal code. The conviction is
(a) Legal
(b) Illegal
(c) Proper
(d) Irregular.
10. A is found guilty of attempt to murder in furtherance of common intention. Under which of the following
situation can his offence be proved

(a) ’A’ procured the weapon of offence voluntarily

(b) The weapon of offence was taken away from A’s house without his knowledge
(c) ‘A’ was made to purchase the weapon of offence under the threat to his own life
(d) When the weapon was snatched away from ‘A’ he did not report the same to police

11. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under 7 year of age since he is…

(a) Doli capax

(b) Doli incapax
(c) Both (a) or (b)
(d) None of the above

12. Who among the following cannot be held guilty for giving false evidence or using evidence known to be
false?
(a) A witness
(b) Defendant
(c) Lawyer appearing for the accused
(d) Prosecution
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13. Unlawful assembly in action is called
(a) Riot
(b) Affray
(c) Turbulence
(d) None of the above.
14. A person who commits an offence in a state of voluntary intoxication shall be liable to be dealt with as if he
has

(a) The same intention as he would have as if he has not been intoxicated
(b) The same knowledge as he would have as if he had not been intoxicated
(c) The same intention and knowledge as he would have had if he had not been intoxicated.
(d) Not the same intention and knowledge as he would have had if he had not been intoxicated

15. Which of the following is not specified to be the common object of an assembly to make it unlawful under
section 141 of IPC?

(a) Overawing the government or its office

(b) Resistance to legal process
(c) Forcible possession or dispossession of property
(d) None of the above

16. A person is said to instigate the doing of things by

(a) Willful concealment of fact.

(b) Willful misrepresentation and concealment of fact which he is bound to disclose.
(c) Willful misrepresentation and concealment.
(d) None of these.

17. The essence of sedition is

(a) Intention.
(b) Benefits for gains of the accused.
(c) Result.
(d) Both intention and result.

18. To establish section 34 of IPC

(a) Common intention to be proved but not overt act to be proved

(b) Common intention and overt act both to be proved
(c) Common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved
(d) Nothing need to be proved.

19. For application of section 149 of IPC

(a) The offender must be a member of unlawful assembly

(b) The offence must have been committed in prosecution of common object
(c) Both (a) & (c)
(d) Either (a) or (b)

20. Punishment for non-treatment of victim is provided under-

(a) S.166A
(b) S.166B
(c) S.169A
(d) S.167B
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21. A, a child aged 10 years, kills B in anger. He is liable for

(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide
(c) No offence
(d) Subjected to qualified immunity

22. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. X stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit Z at all. Y killed Z.

(a) Only Y is liable for murder of Z

(b) X and Y both are liable for murder of Z under section 302
(c) X is not liable as he did not perform any overt act
(d) X and Y both are liable for murder of Z under section 302 r.w section 34.

23. Section 34 of IPC

(a) Creates a substantive offence

(b) Is a rule of evidence
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) All of the above

24. Which of the following is a document within the meaning of section 29 of the Indian Penal Code 1860.

(a) A cheque upon a banker

(b) A power of attorney
(c) A map or plan which is intended to be used or which may be used as evidence
(d) All of the above

25. Under section 18 of the Indian Penal Code ‘India’ means

(a) All the states and union territories

(b) All the states
(c) Territory of India excluding the state of J&K
(d) None of the above

26. Which section deal with rioting, armed with deadly wepons.
(a) Sec. 147
(b) Sec. 148
(c) Sec. 146
(d) Sec. 145
27. Who among the following can take a plea of ignorance of Indian law

(a) Indian citizens

(b) Foreigners
(c) Indian citizens abroad
(d) None of the above

28. The Indian Penal Code 1860 is applicable to

(a) Indian citizens who commit an offence in India

(b) Foreigners who commit an offence in India
(c) Indian citizens who commits an offence under the code beyond India
(d) All of the above
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29. For the purpose of section 193 of the Indian penal code, an instigation directed by law preliminary to
proceeding before a court of Justice, is a stage of judicial proceeding, though that investigation may not take place
before a court of justice. The statement is:-

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) None of the above
30. In order to attract an offence under section…. Of the Indian penal code there must be another offence actually
committed.
(a) 149
(b) 109
(c) 201
(d) 188
31. A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. Here, if there was no want of
proper caution on the part of A, he is
(a) Liable for murder
(b) Liable for negligence
(c) Liable for hurt
(d) Not liable for any offence.
32. The word ‘wrong’ in a defence of insanity refers to
(a) A legal wrong
(b) A civil wrong
(c) A moral wrong
(d) Moral as well as legal wrong.
33. ‘X’ with intention of murdering Z, instigates Y, a child of 6 years, to do an act which causes Z’s death. Y in
the absence of ‘X’ in consequence of abetment does the act and thereby causes Z’s death. Now
(a) Y is liable for murder and X is liable for abetment.
(b) Y is not liable for murder but ‘X’ is liable for abetment.
(c) ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable under section 302/304, IPC.
(d) ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for conspiracy to murder of Z.
34. In which of the following case(s), the offence of abetment is committed:
(a) X widow prepares herself for sati and proceeds towards the pyre of her husband. Y and Z follow her by
shouting repeatedly: “Ram, Ram.”
(b) X and Y attend reception of bride who was only of 13 years
(c) M officiates as Priest or Pandit in the marriage of a girl aged 15 years and a boy aged 18 years
(d) Only in (a) and (c).
35. The expression ‘harm’ is used in section 81 of the Indian penal code in the sense of
(a) Hurt
(b) Injury or damage
(c) Physical injury
(d) Moral wrong or evil
36. The difference between section 34 and section 149 of Indian penal code is
(a) That whereas in section 34 there must at least five persons, section 149 requires only two persons
(b) That section 149 is only a rule of evidence whereas section 34 creates a specific offence and provides for its
punishment
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(c) That section 34 requires active participation in action whereas 149 requires membership of the unlawful
assembly
(d) That section 34 need not be joined with the principle offence, whereas section 149 must be combined with the
principle offence
37. Right of private defence of property extends to causing death when offence apprehended is

(a) Theft
(b) Mischief
(c) Robbery per se
(d) Criminal misappropriation

38. In which case for the first time a distinction between the common intention and similar intention was made by
the Privy Council.

(a) Shankari Tola Post office murder case

(b) Pandurang Vs State
(c) Mahbub Shah Vs Emperor
(d) Ram Nath Vs State

39. The right of private defense does not extend to the inflicting of more harm than

(a) Causing death

(b) Causing grievous hurt
(c) Necessary for the purpose
(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)

40. An abetment is an offence committed.

(a) At the time of commission of an act

(b) Prior to commission of an act
(c) Either prior or after the commission of an act
(d) Either at the time or prior to the time of commission of an act

41. When any person is present at the spot and the act for which he would be punishable in consequence of the
abetment, is committed.

(a) He shall not be deemed to have committed such act

(b) He shall be deemed to have abetted the act in his presence
(c) He shall be deemed to have committed such act
(d) Depends upon the circumstances of the each case

42. Disaffection within section 124A of Indian Penal Code includes.

(a) Disapprobation of measures of government not exciting any contempt

(b) Disapprobation of the administrative measures
(c) Disloyalty and all feeling of enmity
(d) All of the above

43. Section 149 of Indian Penal code deals with rule of.

(a) Strict liability

(b) Vicarious liability
(c) Different liability
(d) Absolute liability
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44. The Indian Penal Code was drafted by

(a) Macaulay
(b) Lord Stephen
(c) Lord Ripon
(d) Lord Canning

45. The word Government denotes

(a) Central Govt. or the Govt. of a State

(b) Central, State Govt. and Corporation
(c) Central, State Govt. and Municipality
(d) All of the above

46. Which of the following is the correct group of offence against which the right of private defence relating to
property can be exercised?

(a) Theft, Extortion, Robbery, Mischief

(b) Theft, Extortion, Mischief, Criminal Trespass
(c) Robbery, Mischief, Criminal, Trespass, Extortion
(d) Theft, Robbery, Mischief, Criminal, Trespass

47. Limit of solitary confinement shall in no case exceed

(a) One month

(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) Fourteen days

48. Crime is a

(a) Private wrong

(b) Public wrong
(c) Public as well as private wrong
(d) None of the above

49. With reference to criminal law, which of the following is true:

(a) Plaintiff to prosecute the defendant

(b) Plaintiff to sue the defendant
(c) Prosecution to prosecute the defendant
(d) Prosecution to sue the defendant

50. The term offence under IPC means

(a) A thing made punishable by IPC

(b) A things made punishable by IPC or any special or local law, in certain case
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Only (a)

51. The abetment of offence is completed as soon as

(a) The abettor has done something at the time of commission of the offence
(b) The abettor had incited another person to do an offence
(c) The offence abetted has been committed
(d) None of the above
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52. Affray is committed in

(a) Private place

(b) Public place
(c) Both private and public place
(d) none of the above

53. Both A and B went to field to protect crop being reaped forcibly by opposite party and in course of that A
killed a person

(a) A is liable for murder

(b) A and B both liable for murder
(c) Only B is liable for murder
(d) None of these

54. A intentionally causes Z’s death, partly by illegally omitting to give Z food, and partly by beating Z. A is
liable for

(a) Hurt because he beat the Z

(b) Grevious Hurt
(c) Murder
(d) Culpable homicide

55. A attacks Z under such circumstances of grave provocation that his killing of Z would be only culpable
homicide not amounting to murder. B, having ill will towards Z and intending to kill him, and not having been
subjected to the provocation, assist A in killing Z.

(a) A and B both are liable for murder because both assisted each other
(b) A is liable for culpable homicide and B is liable for murder
(c) A is liable for murder and B is liable for culpable homicide
(d) A is liable for grievous hurt and B is liable for murder

56. A person abets some crime by aiding

(a) Either prior to or at the time of the commission of the act

(b) At the time of commission of the act
(c) Prior to the act is done
(d) Either prior to or posterior or at the time of commission of the act

57. A instigates B to kidnap son of Z. B instigates C to do so and C kidnaps son of Z

(a) Only A is guilty of abetment

(b) Only B is guilty of abetting C
(c) Both A and B are guilty of abetment
(d) none is guilty of abetment

58. Homicide means killing of a human being. It may be either Lawful or unlawful. When it is Lawful, it may
either excusable or justifiable as provided

(a) Under Section 80, 82, 85 and 92 of IPC

(b) Under Section 76, 77, 78, 79, 81, and 100
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
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59. A man is presumed to be innocent until he is proved guilty” it is a maxim of

(a) Natural law

(b) Criminal law
(c) Common law
(d) Universal law

60. A person will not be liable for any act if he acts in good faith believing himself to be bound by law to do it by
reason. This is called

(a) Mistake of fact and law

(b) Mistake of fact
(c) Mistake of law
(d) Mistake of fact or law

61. Which one of the following statement correctly describes the concept of Mens rea?

(a) Mens rea need be present at stage of planning, but not at the stage of commission of the offence
(b) Mens rea should be excluded unless the statute specifically requires it to be proved
(c) Absolute prohibition is not required to negative mens rea
(d) If the statute is silent about mens rea, as a general rule, it should be read into the statute

62. Which of the following among item A and B are correct

Item A: Common intention within the meaning of Section 34 of the Penal Code means

i) Evil intention of many persons to commit the same act

ii) Implication of a pre-arrange plan prior meeting of mind, between all the persons constituting the group

iii) A desire of several person to commit an act without contemplating the consequences

Item B: Within the meaning of Section 149 in prosecution of common object of an unlawful assembly means.

i) In relation to common intention of the group

ii) In order to attain the common object

iii) In relation to a common object

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) i) and ii) of both items

(b) ii) and iii) of both items
(c) ii) alone of both items
(d) iii) alone of both items

63. Point out the correct statement of the following:

(a) Crime is necessarily an immoral act

(b) Crime is necessarily an unlawful act
(c) Crime is necessarily an anti-social act
(d) Crime is necessarily an anti-religious act
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64. A instigates B to murder C who refuses to do so A is guilty of

(a) No offence
(b) Abetment to commit murder
(c) Criminal conspiracy
(d) Criminal instigation

65. Rash driving or riding on a public way is an offence punishable under …. Of the IPC

(a) Sec. 278

(b) Sec. 279
(c) Sec. 280
(d) Sec. 281

66. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code

(a) Six
(b) Five
(c) Four
(d) Three

67. A, a doctor in good faith tells the patient to call all his relatives as he is going to die and the patient died of
shock

(a) A is liable for murder

(b) A is not liable for murder
(c) A is liable for disciplinary actions as it is against his professional ethics
(d) A is liable for negligence

68. The doctrine ‘volenti non fit injuria’ is contained in

(a) Section 87 of IPC

(b) Section 88 of IPC
(c) Section 89 of IPC
(d) All of the above

69. The consent is not a valid consent under section 90

(a) If given under a fear of injury or misconception of fact

(b) If given by a person of unsound mind
(c) If given by a child below 12 years of age
(d) All the above

70. The principal ‘de minimum non curat lex’ is contained in

(a) Section 92 of IPC

(b) Section 93 of IPC
(c) Section 94 of IPC
(d) Section 95 of IPC

71. Under section 102 of IPC the right to private defence of the body

(a) Commence as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises and continues as long as that
apprehension continues
(b) Commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises and continues even after that
apprehension ceases
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(c) Commences only when the assault is actually done & continues during the period of assault
(d) Commences only when the assault is actually done & continues after the assailant has left

72. For abetment

(a) It is necessary that the act abetted should be committed successfully

(b) It is necessary that the act abetted should be committed though unsuccessfully
(c) It is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed
(d) Both (a) & (b)

73. Mark the incorrect match.

(a) CHAPTER V – deals with Abetment

(b) CHAPTER VI – deals with offences against the state
(c) CHAPTER IV – deals with General Exceptions
(d) CHAPTER X – deals with false evidences and offence against public justice

74. Which of the following shall not be an unlawful assembly within the meaning of section 141 of IPC

(a) An assembly of five or more person with the common object of only maintaining possession
(b) An assembly of five or more person to vindicate a supposed right of one or all, by show of force
(c) An assembly of five or more person to prevent arrest of a person by the court or under the orders of the court
(d) An assembly of five or more person with common object of taking possession of property

75. For rioting, which of the following is correct

(a) Actual force or violence must be used

(b) Mere show of force is sufficient
(c) Mere possession of deadly weapon is sufficient
(d) All of the above

76. Abettor is defined in which section

(a) 107
(b) 108
(c) 108A
(d) 109

77. Under section 149 of IPC if an offence is committed by a member of the unlawful assembly in furtherance of
their common object

(a) Every person who at that time was a member of that assembly shall be guilty of that offence
(b) Only the person committing the offence shall be guilty of unlawful assembly only
(c) Only that person committing the offence shall be guilty and others shall not be guilty of any offence
(d) Either (b) or (c)

78. For an affray under section 159 of IPC the minimum numbers of persons required is

(a) Five
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Seven
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79. Under the Indian Penal Code who among the following is liable for committing theft

(a) Child of 8 years steals the pen and hide it when it was being searched
(b) Insane
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above

80. The limit of solitary confinement is dealt in

(a) Section 74 of IPC

(b) Section 75 of IPC
(c) Section 73 of IPC
(d) Section 72 of IPC

81. Abetment may include: (i) abetment by instigation, (ii) abetment by conspiracy, (iii) abetment by aid, (iv)
abetment by acquiescence and (v) abetment by silence:

(a) Only the first three constitute abetment

(b) All the five constitute abetment
(c) Only the first four amount to abetment
(d) Only (ii), (iv), and (v) amount to abetment

82. Fight under section 159 of IPC signifies

(a) Two opposite parties actively involved

(b) Two parties one of which is passive
(c) Two parties both of which are passive
(d) All the above

83. Which of the following sections have common ingredients of promoting enmity between classes.
(a) Section 124A and section 153A
(b) Section 153A and section 505(2)
(c) Section 153A and section 504(2)
(d) None of the above.
84. Which of following offence cannot be committed in a private place
(a) Rioting
(b) Affray
(c) Unlawful assembly
(d) None of the above
85. Mc Naughten rule is related to

(a) Doctrine of necessity

(b) Doctrine of insanity
(c) Doctrine of infancy
(d) None of the above

86. Sale of obscene books is punishable under

(a) Sec. 290
(b) Sec. 292
(c) Sec. 294
(d) Sec. 295
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87. Which of the following principle were emerged from R v Dudley and Stephens. (1884) 14 QBD 237?

(a) Self preservation is not an absolute necessity

(b) No person has a right to take another’s life to preserve his own
(c) There is no necessity that justified homicide
(d) All of the above

88. The accused was the producer of the film “Satyam Sivam Sundaram”. He was charged for an offence
punishment under section 292 of the Indian Penal Code alleging that the film was obscene and indecent.
Petitioner argued that he got the certificate from the censor board and therefore he had bonafide belief that
certification justified the public exhibition. In this case
(a) The accused is entitled to the protection u/s 79 of the IPC
(b) The accused is not entitled to the protection u/s 79 of the IPC
(c) Cannot determined
(d) None of the above
89. Who among the following is liable for giving false evidence?
(a) Whoever, being legally bound by an oath
(b) Whoever by an express provision of law bound to state the truth
(c) Whoever being bound by law to make a declaration upon any subject
(d) All of the above.
90. Acquittal of the accused for the main offence is no legal impediment to convict him for the offence under
section 201 the Indian penal code, the statement is….
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) None of the above
91. Section 212 shall not extend to any case in which the harbor or concealment is by
(a) The husband of the offence
(b) The wife of the offender
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
92. Disclosure of identity of the victim of certain offence is an offence punishable under…. of the Indian penal
code
(a) Section 226A
(b) Section 227A
(c) Section 228A
(d) Section 229A
93. Public nuisance is defined in…. of the Indian Penal Code
(a) Section 268
(b) Section 278
(c) Section 288
(d) Section 298
94. A, a land holder, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of his estate, unlawfully
misinforms the magistrate of the district that the death has occurred by accident in consequence of the bite of a
snake. A is guilty of offence defined in section….
(a) 177
(b) 174
(c) 175
(d) 176
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95. Six person assembled on the platform of Mumbai railway station and started fighting with each other. The
passenger present of the railway station get annoyed and felt disturbed. The public reported the matter to police.
The offence committed here is..
(a) Unlawful assembly
(b) Rioting
(c) Affray
(d) Assault

96. Which of the following is associated with common intention

(a) Similar intention

(b) Pre- mediated concert
(c) Same intention
(d) Unanimous decision in a meeting to do a particular act

97. The imprisonment in case of default of payment of fine is-

(a) Simple
(b) Rigorous
(c) Either simple or rigorous
(d) Any of the above

98. Which of the following sections places the burden on the accused to prove that the case falls within one of the
general exceptions?

(a) Section 105 of Indian penal code

(b) Section 105 of the code of criminal procedure
(c) Section 105 of the evidence Act
(d) None of the above

99. Act causing slight harm is excused by virtue of…. of the Indian penal code.

(a) Section 95
(b) Section 94
(c) Section 93
(d) Section 92

100. The principle of proximity of crime under criminal law is irrelevant while deciding the liability for

(a) Abetment
(b) Conspiracy
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above

101. ‘Good faith’ within the meaning of the IPC means

(a) An act done with due care and attention

(b) An actual belief that the act done is not contrary to law
(c) An act, in fact, done honestly
(d) An act done under bonafide belief
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102. If actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea is a cardinal principal of criminal law, then which one of the
following statement correctly reflects the above principal?

(a) Mens rea is an essential element of a crime and there cannot be a crime without mens rea
(b) Criminal liability under Indian Law always implies mens rea
(c) To constitute a criminal liability there should be actus reus and mens rea
(d) Actus reus is not always necessary to constitute a crime

103. Which of the following among item A and item B are correct?

The right of private defence extends, subject to Section 99, to the causing of death of the assailant or aggressor in
the following circumstances

Item A: For defence of body:

i) Against an act which reasonably causes the apprehension of an assault to outrage the modesty

ii) Against an act which reasonably causes the apprehension that the assailant will kill his children living in
another city

iii) Against an act which reasonably causes the apprehension that grievous hurt would otherwise be the
consequence

Item B: For defence of property:

i) While the trespasser is engaged in house breaking during day time.

ii) Against a thief who reasonably causes the defender to believe that he would lose his property

iii) Against a person who commits mischief under such circumstances as may reasonably cause apprehension that
grievous hurt would be a consequence.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) i) and iii) of both items `

(b) ii) and iii) of both items
(c) iii) alone of both items
(d) i) and ii) of both items

104. Harbouring of an offender is an offence punishable under section 212 of the Indian penal code. The word
‘harbour’ is defined in…… of the Indian penal code.
(a) Section 51A
(b) Section 52A
(c) Section 53A
(d) Section 54A
105. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to criminal conspiracy?

i) When two or more person agree to do an unlawful act by unlawful means then they will be guilty of criminal
conspiracy
ii) Several persons agreed to commit an offence but nothing was done in pursuance of the agreement.
iii) When two or more person agree to do a lawful act in a lawful ,manner by lawful means but an overt act is
done by one of them
iv) Criminal conspiracy to commit an offence punishable with fine alone will not entail any liability
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Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) i), iii) and iv)

(b) ii), iii) and iv)
(c) i), ii) and iv)
(d) i), ii) and iii)

106. The abetment of offence is completed as soon

(a) The offence abetted has been committed

(b) The abetter has incited another person to commit an offence
(c) The person abetted has done some overt act towards the commission of the offence
(d) All the above acts have taken place

107. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ agreed to commit murder of ‘Z’ by poisoning and ‘Y’ was to procure poison but he did not
procure it. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are guilty of

(a) Abetment of murder by conspiracy

(b) Attempt to murder with the aid of section 34 IPC
(c) No offence
(d) Criminal conspiracy to murder Z

108. A is attacked by a mob who attempt to murder him. He cannot effectually exercise his right of private
defence without firing on the mob, and he cannot fire without running risk of harming young children who are
mingled with the mob. A commits ………., if by so firing he harms any of the children

(a) Hurt
(b) Grievous hurt
(c) Culpable homicide
(d) No offence

109. A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement, while playing fairly. A hurts B of which he dies. A
commits

(a) Simple hurt

(b) Murder
(c) Grievous hurt
(d) No offence

110. A offers his child to crocodile and the belief that child would return unharmed free from evil sprits. The
child is killed by crocodile.

(a) A is guilty of murder

(b) A is guilty of culpable homicide
(c) A is guilty of grievous hurt
(d) None of the above

111. The consent referred under Section 87 should be

(a) Express
(b) Implied
(c) Express and implied
(d) Express or implied
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112. Every person in Section 2 IPC includes

(a) Legal person

(b) Natural person
(c) Both natural person and legal person
(d) None of the above

113. A sees B commit what appears to be a murder. A in the best of his judgment seize C in order to being B
before authorities. It turned out that B was acting in self- defence. What offence A has committed?

(a) Assault
(b) Voluntarily causing hurt
(c) Wrongful restraint
(d) No offence

114. Which is not an offence punishable under IPC?

(a) Taking part in a marriage which is prohibited by the Child Marriage Restraint Act by a citizen of India beyond
India
(b) An Indian citizen murdering another Indian citizen in a foreign country
(c) A foreigner commits murder of Indian citizen in India
(d) None of the above

115. A, not a qualified medical practitioner with the consent of B operates upon him for his benefit and B dies. A
has committed

(a) No offence as consent of B is there

(b) Murder
(c) Attempt to murder
(d) Hurt

116. Accused dug a hole intending to place salt in it in order that the discovery of the salt might be used in
evidence against the prosecution. He is guilty of

(a) No offence
(b) Attempt to fabricate false evidence
(c) Nuisance
(d) Mischief

117. A foreigner commits a murder in India in an aircraft registered in America. He can be tried under

(a) Public International Law

(b) Indian Penal Law
(c) American Penal Law
(d) None of the above

118. Imprisonment for life provided under the Code means

(a) Simple imprisonment for life

(b) Rigorous imprisonment for life
(c) Rigorous imprisonment for 14 years
(d) Rigorous imprisonment for 20 years
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119. The word ‘Women’ in IPC means

(a) A female human being above 18 years

(b) A female human being of any age
(c) A female human being below 7 years
(d) All of the above

120. A sets fire by night, to an inhabited house for the purpose of robbery and thus cause the death of B. A have
not intended to cause death but knew that he was likely to cause death. He has caused the death

(a) Fraudulently
(b) Knowingly
(c) Voluntarily
(d) Unknowingly

121. In which case the mistake of facts was held to be a good offence?

(a) R vs. Prince

(b) R vs. William
(c) R vs. Tolson
(d) R vs. Bailey

122. For which of the following offence common objects is not an essential ingredient?
(a) Rioting
(b) Affray
(c) Unlawful assembly
(d) None of the above.
123. ‘B’ happened to be a member of unlawful assembly. ‘A’ factional fight ensued during which ‘B’ was injured
and retired to the side later on man was killed. Now

(a) ‘B’ is guilty of murder being member of unlawful assembly

(b) ‘B’ is not guilty of murder as he ceased to be a member of unlawful assembly at the time when the murder was
committed
(c) ‘B’ is not guilty of murder though he happened to be a member unlawful assembly
(d) None of the above

124. A, an officer of a court of justice, being ordered by that court to arrest Y, and, after due enquiry, believing Z
to be Y, arrest Z. A has committed ……….

(a) Offence of wrongful restraint.

(b) Offence of wrongful confinement.
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

125. If the act abetted is committed in consequence, the abettor is punishable with punishment provided for the
offence

(a) If the offence committed is the same as abetted

(b) If the offence committed is different from the abetted one, from the offence committed
(c) If the doer commits the offence with different intention than abettor
(d) All of the above
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MEHTA LAW ACADEMY
Solution- TEST.1-IPC (01/04/2017)
1. C 26. B 51. B 76. B 101. A

2. C 27. D 52. B 77. A 102.A

3. C 28. D 53. B 78. B 103.C

4. D 29. A 54. C 79. A 104. B

5. B 30. C 55. B 80. A 105. C

6. A 31. D 56. A 81. A 106. B

7. D 32. D 57. C 82. A 107. D

8. C 33. B 58. C 83. B 108. D

9. B 34. D 59. C 84. B 109.D

10. A 35. B 60. B 85.B 110. A

11. B 36. C 61. D 86.B 111. D

12. C 37. C 62. C 87. D 112. C

13. A 38. C 63. C 88. A 113. D

14. B 39. C 64. B 89. D 114. A

15. D 40. D 65. B 90. A 115. B

16. B 41. C 66. B 91. C 116. B

17. A 42. C 67. B 92. C 117. C

18. A 43. B 68. D 93. A 118. B

19. C 44. A 69. D 94. A 119. B

20. B 45. A 70. D 95. C 120. C

21. D 46. D 71. A 96. B 121. C

22. D 47. C 72. C 97. A 122. B

23. B 48. B 73. D 98. C 123. B

24. D 49. C 74. A 99. A 124. D

25. C 50. C 75. A 100. C 125. D