MCQ IT BLOK 19 2006

1. Which one of the following test is not belong to subjective audiometric test?
A. Pure tone audiometric
B. Tympanometri
C. Bekesy self recording Audiometry
D. Recruitment test
E. Peep show audiometric

2. A man with 50 dB hearing level on 500, 1000 and 2000 Hz, degree of hearing loss is:
A. Total
B. Very severe
C. Severe
D. Moderate
E. Mild

3. Sensorineural neural hearing loss:

A. Negative Rinne test result
B. Lateralization to impairment ear
C. Shortened Swabach test result
D. Air Bone Gap more than 20 dB in audiometric test
E. Bone conduction decrease more than 20 dB

4. Auditory frequency limit of human being is

A. 18-2.102 Hz
B. 18-2.103 Hz
C. 18-2.104 Hz
D. 250-8000 Hz
E. 250-2.105 Hz

5. Negative Rinne test result mean:

A. Normal hearing
B. Conductive hearing impairment
C. Sensorineural hearing impairment
D. Retrokochlear hearing impairment
E. All choices are correct

6. Conductive hearing loss:

A. Medication or operation therapy usually can be done
B. There is a gap between bone conduction and air conduction on audiometric test
C. ‘B’ type on tympanogram
D. Lateralization to the impairment ear
E. All the choices are correct

7. Ototoxic medication are:

A. Streptomisin
B. Kinin
C. Furosemid
D. Gentamisin
E. All the choices are correct

8. Recruitment in patient with hearing impairment, it is a phenomenon following condition, except:

A. More sensitive hearing level
B. Specific foe sensorineural hearing loss
C. Specific for cochlear impairment
D. Specific for conductive hearing loss
E. The patient could differentiate 1 dB sound

9. The following choices are the signs of presbicusis except:

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 A. Appear on 50 – 60 age
B. Sensorineural
C. Simetric bilateral
D. The impairment arise on low frequency
E. Consist of three type: sensoris, central, and metabolic

10. The following statement are mix hearing loss, except:

A. Descending air conduction
B. There is a gap between bone conduction and air conduction
C. There is no a gap between bone conduction and air conduction (normal
sensorineural)
D. Descending bone conduction
E. Air bone gap more than 15 dB

11. Mechanism of air conduction:

A. AEC – tympanic memb. – ossicle – basic stapes
B. AEC – tympanic memb. – ossicle – for. Ovale – cochlea
C. AEC – tympanic memb. – ossicle – cochlea – N. acusticus
D. AEC – tympanic memb. – ossicle – cochlea – N. statocusticus
E. AEC – tympanic memb. – ossicle – cochlea – N. statocusticus - brain

12. Mechanism of bone conduction:

A. Maleus – incus – stapedius – for. Ovale
B. Maleus – incus – stapedius – labirintus osseus
C. Os mastoid – tympanic memb - Maleus – incus – stapedius
D. Os mastoid – tympanic memb. - Maleus – incus – stapedius – labirintus osseus
E. Os mastoid – labirintus

13. Positive Rinne test, and shortened Swabach test means:

A. Normal hearing
B. Sensorineural hearing loss
C. Conductive hearing loss
D. Eustachius tube impairment
E. Sensorineural hearing loss or mix hearing loss

14. Congenital hearing impairment:

A. Early detection by using BERA test
B. Management patient when they are 3 year old
C. Incidence 1-3 patient in 1000 birth
D. Genetically
E. All the choices are correct

15. Trias meniere’s disease

A. Vertigo – tinnitus – sensorineural hearing loss
B. Vertigo – nausea and vomitus - sensorineural hearing loss
C. Tinitus – vertigo – nausea and vomitus
D. Vertigo – nausea and vomitus– conductive hearing loss
E. Vertigo – nystagmus – tinnitus

16. Which one of the following statement is not belong to objective audiometric test:
A. BERA
B. Pure ToneAudiometric
C. Speech reception test
D. Audiometric tutur
E. Tympanometri

17. Conductive hearing loss could be found in patient with:

A. Labyrinthitis
B. Acoustic trauma

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 C. Hemotimpanum
D. Intoksikasi streptomisin
E. Acoustic neuroma

18. If you only have one tuning fork, which frequency will you choose?
A. 128 Hz
B. 256 Hz
C. 1024 Hz
D. 512 Hz
E. 2048 Hz

19. Conductive hearing loss usually can cause by:

A. Round window function impairment
B. Promontorium impairment
C. Ossicles hearing impairment
D. Endolymph impairment
E. Basalis membrane impairment

20. False negative Rinne test result could be found in patient with
A. Otosklerosis
B. Atresia of canalis auricular externus
C. Severe Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss
D. Total perforation of tympanic membrane
E. Dislocation of ossicles hearing

21. The cellular immunity to M.leprae has an important role in the clinical spectrum of leprosy:
A. Tuberculoid leprosy (TT) has a high/ strong cellular immunity
B. Boderline tuberculoid (BT) don’t have any celluler immunity
C. Lepromatous leprosy (LL) has a good celluler immunity
D. Boderline lepromatous leprosy (BL) has a very strong celluler immunity and very few
acid fast bacilli.

22. The course after infection with M.leprae:

A. Almost always progress as a lepromatous leprosy
B. Only a few proportion will progress as a leprosy
C. Subclinical infection never happened.
D. The majority of subclinical infection will progress to leprosy

23. leprosy can be diagnosed if

A. Skin lesion without anesthesia and the Acid Fast Bacilli (AFB) negative
B. Characteristic skin lesion such as edema and erythema
C. Anesthetic skin lesion and pheripheral nerve enlargement
D. Hypopigmented skin lesion without anesthesia

24. Pausibasillary leprosy can be diagnosed if:

A. Many symmetrical skin lesions (more than 5), Acid Fast Bacilli (AFB) is negative
B. Many symmetrical skin lesions (more than 5), Acid Fast Bacilli (AFB) is positive
C. A few asymmetrical lesions ( less then 5), anesthetic skin lesions, AFB is positif
D. A few asymmetrical lesions ( less then 5), anesthetic skin lesions, AFB is negative

25. Management for leprosy reaction with neuritis and muscle weakness are:
A. Prednisone 1 mg/ kg BB + immobilization in the acute phase + exercise later on
B. Prednison 0,1 mg/kg BB + immobilization in the acute phase + exercise later on
C. Analgetika + immobilization in the acute phase + exercise later on
D. Clofazimin 300 mg/ day + immobilization in the acute phase + exercise later on

26. Scrofuloderma is
A. A non tuberculuos mycobacterial infection
B. Happened after a direct inoculation of mycobacterium infection

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 C. Spreading to skin from underlying tuberculsosis infection such tuberculosis of the
lymphnode, bone .
D. Not responsive to antituberculosis drugs.

27. Among these therapy, the best treatment for tinea capitis tipe gray patch ring worm is …
A. Selenium sulfide 2,5 % shampoo
B. ketokonazol 2 % shampoo
C. terbinafin tablet
D. miconazole. cream

28. A 35 years old patient, since 2 months ago he complained of itching in his groin. Clinically: an
erythematous plaque, macerated, vesicopustules satellite lesion (+). He suffer diabetes mellitus
for 2 years. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Tineackruris
B. Tinera corporis
C. candidiasis
D. seborhoic dermatitis

29. A lady 50 years old, suffer an itching in her inframamary fold since a month ago. Her body
weight is 100 kg, height 1,6 m. Clinically: erythematous plaque with a coribiformis (+). The
right medication for this lady is
(Obat yang paling tepat untuk ibu tersebut adalah …)
A. itrakonazol capsule
B. terbinafin tablet
C. griseofulvin tablet
D. selenium sulfide 2,5 % shampoo

30. The most frequent of tinea pedis is …… type

A. chronci hyperkeratotic / moccasin
B. Interdigital/ chronic intertrigineous
C. Vesicobulous
D. Ulcerative

31. To differentiate tinea cruris and candidiasis in the groin, there is …….
A. Erithyematous lesions
B. Pustules
C. Skuama type
D. Satellite lesions

32. Re-activated virus can no longer be contained if….. falls below some critical level
A. Humoral immunity
B. Celluler immunity
C. Celluler and humoral immunity
D. Imunosuspressi

33. Multinucleated Giant cells can be demonstrated in herpes zoster with … .

A. Stain Giemsa
B. Stain HE
C. Tzank smear
D. Papanicolou smear

34. HPV infection in wart occur through…..

A. Upper respiratory tract
B. Inoculation of virus into defect in epithelium
C. Direct contact
D. Oropharyux
35. The characteristic of HPV associated wart in histophatology is … .
A. Small keratinocyte
B. Pyknotic nucleus

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 C. Koilocyte cells
D. Mono nuclear cell

36. The management of wart are … .

A. Physical destruction
B. Cryotherapy
C. Cheimical destruction
D. The all right

37. The first line topical therapy of impetigo is ... .

A. gentamicin
B. mupirocin
C. clindamycin
D. bacitarcin

38. A 10 years old boy complaints of thickly crusted superficial ulcer and purulent discharge on
his right foot. The most possible diagnosis is ... .
A. ecthyma
B. furuncle
C. bullous impetigo
D. crusted impetigo

39. A 9 years old boy complaint with blisters containing turbid fluid on nose and around mouth.
The blisters were rapidly ruptured then become such golden yellow crust. The most possible
diagnosis is ... .
A. ecthyma
B. varicella
C. crusted impetigo
D. bullous impetigo

40. Dome shape, small pustule located in infundibulum of hair follicle and caused by S. aureus
infection is …
A. superficial folliculitis
B. furuncle
C. carbuncle
D. ecthyma

41. Acute infection of group A streptococcus beta hemolytic involed both skin and superficial
dermis lymphatic channels is called ... .
A. staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome
B. cellulitis
C. carbuncle
D. erysipelas

42. Children with AD generally are affected in all but which of the following areas ?
A. Wrists
B. Arm flexures
C. Scalp
D. Hands

43. Which of the following is not a minor criteria for diagnosing AD:
A. Keratoconus
B. Pityriasis alba
C. Xerosis
D. Asthma

44. Atopic dermatitis patients are not prone to develop which of the following as a complication
of their disease:
A. S. aureus infections

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 B. Herpes simplex infections
C. Cataracts
D. Latex sensitivity

45. Which of the following is not a minor criteria for diagnosing AD:
A. Keratoconus
B. Pityriasis alba
C. Xerosis
D. Asthma

46. Common choice of antibiotic for the treatment of secondary infection in AD patients are:
A. Cloxacillin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Erythromycin
D. Amoxicillin

47. Bagian otak yang berperan dalam pengelolaan kesadaran adalah:

A. Hipofise
B. Korteks serebri
C. ARAS
D. Amigdale
E. Hipokampus

48. Termasuk nyeri kepala primer adalah

A. Tumor otak
B. Cidera kepala
C. Migrain (cluter headache, tension headache)
D. PSA
E. Infark

49. Yang termasuk nyeri kepala sekunder, KECUALI

A. Tumor otak
B. Cidera kepala
C. Migrain
D. PSA
E. Infrak

50. Pernyataan dibawah ini benar untuk Neuritis Jebakan, kecuali

A. Nyeri akibat gesekan jaringan lunak yang berdekatan dengan tendo yang membentuk
terowongan
B. Nyeri terutama waktu aktifitas
C. Dapat terjadi baal dan kesemutan
D. Neuritis ulnaris akibat jebakan di siku
E. Neuritis radius akibat jebakan di lipatan siku

51. Indikasi operasi HNP adalah KECUALI

A. Pengobatan konservatif gagal
B. Terjadi kekambuhan
C. Gangguan vegetatif
D. Gangguan motorik berat
E. Gangguan sensorik

52. Gejala klinis CTS adalah: KECUALI

A. Nyeri dan kesemutan pada pergelangan tangan
B. Nyeri dan kesemutan pada jari I,II,III
C. Rasa nyeri lebih banyak pada malam hari
D. Test Tinnel dan Phalen positif
E. Nyeri dan kesemutan pada jari III,IV,V

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 53. Pemeriksaan penunjang yang diperlukan untuk HNP adalah: KECUALI
A. EMG
B. Myelografi
C. MRI
D. Foto polos
E. EEG

54. Pada jepitan N Medianus pada CTS dapat ditunjukan dengan pemeriksaan adalah:
A. Finkelestein
B. Tinnel
C. Distraksi
D. Lhermite
E. Test Adson

55. Differensial diagnosis Ischialgia adalah KECUALI

A. HNP
B. Stenosis spinalis lumbalis
C. Meningioma spinalis lumbalis
D. Spondilitis TB
E. Ankylosis spondylitis

56. Pernyataan-pernyataan dibawah ini adalah benar untuk nyeri pinggang miofatik
adalah KECUALI
A. Akibat trauma pada otot, fasia, dan ligamentum
B. Nyeri timbul mendadak sehubungan dengan gerakan yang dilakukan
C. Rasa nyeri terlokalisir
D. Pemeriksaan radiologik normal
E. Bedrest selama 48 jam dapat memberikan perbaikan

57. Timolol is:

A. A selective beta 1 and beta 2 blocker
B. Soluble only in water
C. Long duration of action
D. As additional drug

58. Pilocarpine is
A. A midriatic drug
B. Sweat glands are resistance to this drug
C. Casuases diaphoresis in man
D. Acts on muscarinic receptors (M2)

59. Epinephrine is
A. A drug acts only on a receptor
B. Peak plasma more than 8 hours
C. Passes into breast milk
D. The most potent vasodilation drug

60. Carbonic anhydrase innhibitor is:

A. It’s effect on intraocular pressure does depend upon diuresis
B. Plasma protein binding is high
C. Primarily excreted unchanged in the paeces
D. Can cause blurred

61. Latanatoprost is:

A. A hydrophilic pro-drug
B. Primary mechanisme maybe the realaxation of the cilliary muscle
C. The metabolites are mainly eliminated via the kidney
D. Can be used for pregnant women

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62. Betaxolol is
A. Non selective, beta 1 and beta 2 blocker
B. Side effects on cardiovascular may resemble timolol
C. Better toleralet than timolol in asthma patients
D. Soluble in alcohol

63. This drug can caused masked symptoms of hypoglycermia in insulin dependent
Diabetes:
A. Timolol
B. Epinephrine
C. Pilocarpine
D. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

64. This drug is indicated to pigment dispersion syndrome:

A. Epinephrine
B. Latanoprost
C. Pilocarpine
D. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

65. Where constriction is undesirable such as acute uveitis and iritis ; this drug could not
Given (or contraindicated)”
A. Levobunolol
B. Acetylcholine Chlorida
C. Pilocarpine
D. Latanoprost

66. This drug can cause salicylate intoxication in patients receiving aspirin:
A. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor
B. Latonorprost
C. Timolol
D. phenyoin

67. Capablity of adding the refraction power of the eye, by Increasing the convexity of the
lens…….
A. Accomodation process
B. Emmetropia
C. Preshiopia
D. Transposition

68. What is the condition when the pararell rays focused exactly on the retina of the eye in relax
condition ? The visual acuity is maximum :
A. Emmetropia
B. Ametropia
C. Astigmatisme
D. Anisometropia

69. Refractive condition in which, with accommodation compelety relaxed , parallel rays are
brought to focus in front of the retina :
A. Anisokonia
B. Myopia
C. Astigmatism
D. Hypermetropia

70. Refractive condition of the eye in which there is a difference in degree of refraction in different
meridian , and each will focused pararel rays a different poin. The shape of the images : line ,
oval , never a point.
A. hypermetropia
B. myopia
C. Astigmatisme

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 D. Presbiopia

71. Mr.Alex 43 years old , has problem for near working this condition called presbiopia. The
power of glasses are :
A. S + 1.00 D
B. S + 2.00 D
C. S + 1.25 D
D. S + 2.50 D

[72 – 76]
Lens is a transparent, avascular, biconvex structure with a 4 mm thickness and a diameter of 9
mm . It lies between the aqueous humor and the vitreous humor

72. The viteous humor at :

A. The posterior of it
B. The anterior of it
C. The medial of it
D. The under of it

73. Lens is suspended in its position by

A. Ligamentum. suspensorium lentis
B. Zonula lentis
C. Ligamentum zinnia
D. Ciliary body

74. The most important metabolism to maintain the clarity of lens is

A. The glucose metabolism
B. The protein metabolism
C. The glucose and protein metabolism
D. The colesterol metabolism

75. One of the examination of the lens by flashlight is

A. The shadow test.
B. Slit lamp
C. Lensometer
D. Refractometer

76. The denaturation of protein in the lens caused by aging process:

A. Cataract congenital
B. Cataract traumatica
C. Catarcat senelis
D. Cataract komplikata

IN THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS ALL THE STATEMENTS ARE TRUE, EXCEPT ONE.
IDENTIFY THE INCORRECT STATEMENT:

77. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis is characterized by the following:

A. Acute follicular conjunctivitis
B. Constitutional symptoms of infection
C. Ulceration and vascularization of corneal lesions
D. Decrease in visual acuity

78. In herpes zoster :

A. Corneal lesions occur with involvement of naso-ciliary nerve
B. Uveitis is common
C. Herpes simplex my occur
D. Corneal lesions occur late

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79. In the differential diagnosis of herpes simplex, the following are important:
A. Type of lesion
B. Corneal sensitivity
C. History of previous skin lesion
D. Purulent discharge

Select the most appropriate answer :

80. Scleritis;
A. Is a lesion of the scleral coat
B. Causes scleral thinning
C. Is associated with connective tissue disease
D. All of the above

81. Episcleritis;
A. Is an inflammation of the episcleral tissue
B. Does not affect the visual acuity
C. Resolves spontaneously
D. All of the above

82. Bacteria affect the external eye by;

A. Invasion of epithelium with growth on and between cells
B. Invasion beneath epithelium and growth in stroma
C. Production of inflammation from antigen – antibody response
D. All of the above

83. This is not anterior scleritis ;

A. My develop into a staphyloma
B. My develop into an annular scleritis
C. Has a protracted course
D. Frequently ulcerates

84. The following essentials are not correct diagnosis of conjunctivitis:

A. Mucopurulent discharge
B. Exudate film pattern for microorganism
C. Positive bacterial culture
D. Clear anterior chamber

85. This is not in staphylococcal chronic conjunctivitis:

A. Cultures are important in diagnosis
B. Smears and cell scrapings are of prime importance in diagnosis
C. Blepharitis is common
D. Epithelial keratitis in lower half of cornea is characteristic

86. Viral conjunctivitis is not characterized by:

A. Scanty exudates consisting of polinuclear cells
B. Filament formation
C. Hyperemia and mild infiltration of entire conjunctiva
D. Burning ang photophobia out of proportion to conjunctival disease

87. The aquired ptosis caused by myogenic factor :

A. Progressive external ophthalmoplegia
B. Steroid eye drops
C. Myotonic trophy
D. d.Horner syndrome
.
88. Pseudoptosis can not be caused by :
A. Macropthalmus
B. Hypotropia
C. Ptysis bulbi

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 D. Contra lateral eyelids retraction

89. This is not indication of pterygium excision :

A. Discomfort feeling
B. Sight disability
C. Eye movement still good
D. Red eye

90. Which one is not of the following disease can given lagopthalmos ?:
A. Morbus hansen
B. Bell’s palsy
C. Grave’s ophthalmopathy
D. Ectropion involutional

91. A focal chronic inflamation of the meibomian gland, with the recurrent must be differential diagnose as :
A. Lentigo melanoma
B. Sebaceous cell carcinoma
C. Xantalesma
D. Dermolipoma

92. The accesorius eyelids structure include:

A. Caruncle
B. Lacrimale puncta
C. Goblet
D. Lacrimal glands

93. Which one of the instrument not be used to evaluate of poag (primer open angle glaucoma) ?
A. Tonometri schiotz
B. Ophthalmoscopy direk
C. Perimetri
D. Slit lamp biomicroscopy

94. A woman 45 year old has iop 38,5 mmhg, with hypertension since 15 years. What the
diagnose it possible :
A. Primer open angle galucoma
B. Central serous retinopathy
C. Age related macular degeneration
D. Ablatio haemoragic

95. A child was bringht by her parent to eye clinic with complaint epifora and fotofobia, the diameter cornea was
16 mm what the diagnose from this child ?
A. Cataract kongenital
B. Peter’s anomaly
C. Congenital glaucoma
D. Syndrome marfan

96. From the question above, what is the treatment must be done ?
A. Lensectomy anterior
B. Anterior capsulotomy
C. Fixation iol secundary
D. Trabeculotomy

97. Which one of the drugs can give effect contraction of longitudinal ciliary muscle ?
A. Timolol maleat 0,5%
B. Asetazolamide 250 mg
C. Latanoprost 0.005%
D. Pilocarpin 2%

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98. The centrocecal scotoma is not a spesific and common sign of optic nerve, which the following of
disease ? :
A. Infiltrative
B. Demyelination
C. Infiltrative
D. Decompressive

99. A young men, came to eye clinic with complain decrease of vision, and metamorfosia, self
limited, what is the diagnose from this patient?
A. Edema macula
B. Central serous retinopathy
C. Degeneration of macula
D. Retinitis pigmentosa

100. From funduscopy: the retinal around the equator found “bone corpuscle”, what is the
diagnose ?
A. Retinitis rubella
B. Retinitis luetika
C. Retinitis pigmentosa
D. Retinitis toxoplasmosis.

101. If night a child look like cat eye’s, at right eye since birth, what is not the differential diagnose
from the child ?
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Phpv
C. Cataract kongenital
D. Retinopathy of prematurity

102. The grading of hypertensive retinopathy with swelling of the dics it clasification ?
A. Grade 1
B. Grade 2
C. Garde 3
D. Grade 4

103. Which of this is not subjective sign following of choroiditis exudatif ?

A. Metamorfopsia
B. Skotoma
C. Fotopsia
D. Kongesti eksudat

104. Which one of the anciallary examination is specific to chorioretinitis of syphilis ?

A. Cd 4
B. T helper
C. Vdrl
D. Elisa

105. The condition can be induced exudative retinal detachment, except:

A. Uveitis
B. Metastic tumor
C. Coats diseased
D. Sickle cell retinopathy

106. A man 35 year old complain bilateral central vision, with red grenn dyscromatopsia,
From funduscopy found: low grade optic neuritis + circumpapilary telangiectasia, and will
spontaneous improvement, what the diagnose ?
A. Optic neuritis
B. Lhon
C. Dominant optic atrophy
D. Behr optic atrophy

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107. part of the retina wich form the barier between ’choriocapillaris’ and ’neurosensory retina’ is :
A. Membran bruch’s
B. Sel ganglion
C. Rpe.
D. Inner plexiform layer

108. All folowing are signs of the severe retinopati diabetik, except
A. intra retina haemorrage at 4 quadran
B. venous dilatation at 2 quadran
C. Intraretinal micro vascular abnormalities at 1 quadran
D. Cotton wool spot

109. The following abnormalities as risk factors for the development of brvo:
A. History of systemic arterial hypertension
B. Cardiovascular desease
C. Increased body mass index at 20 years of age
D. History of glaucoma

110. The central part of foveola is call

A. Fovea centralis
B. Polus posterior
C. Umbo
D. Makula lutea

111. All following are early symptoms of armd, except

A. hard drussen
B. Soft drussen
C. Granular drussen
D. Subretina haemorrage

112. Histologic investigation showed a flat epidermis and a distinct, narrow and cell-free
subepidermal area, Below this area the markedly thickened dermis was obliterated by closely set,
elongated dense aggregates of foamy macrogafes. There were a sparse number of diffusely spread
lymphocyte,but no giant cells.The most likely diagnosis is
A. Cutaneus tuberculosis
B. Yuberculoid leprosy
C. Lepromatous leprosy
D. Reactional leprosy

113. The tumor are composed of dense masses of small round cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and
scanty cytoplasm. Trabecular and nesting formations are cammon. A sign of differentiation
toward retinal structures is provided by the presence of so-called “Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes
and fluorettes. The most likely diagnosis is :
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Pterygium
C. Chalazion
D. Cataract

114. Microscopic picture composed of multiple foci of granulomatous inflammation.In the center of
many of the focal granulomas there Is a small globul of fat. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Retionblastoma
B. Pterygium
C. Chalazion
D. Cataract

115. The gene responsible for retinoblastoma is located in chromosom:

A. 13q14
B. 13q11

13
 C. 11q13
D. 14q13

116. Macrophages with abundant foamy or vacuolated cytoplasm, they resamble xanthoma calls and,
on staining with fat stain in lepromatous leprosy, the cells are :
A. Xanthoma calls.
B. Epitheloid cells.
C. Histiocyte calls.
D. Virchow cells.

117. Sediaan obat mata tertentu disyaratkan isotonis atau hampir isotonis dengan diatur pada
penurunan titik beku yang sama dibandingkan air murni. Sediaan obat mata yang harus
memenuhi syarat isotonis adalah :
A. Oculoguttae
B. Oculenta
C. Collyria
D. Inserte

118. Atropin, skopolamin dan fenilefrin adalah bahan obat yang digunakan pada sediaan obat mata
sebagai :
A. Penyempit pupil
B. Pendilatasi pupil
C. Menghambat radang
D. Anestesi local

119. Salah satu syarat obat mata adalah isotonis. Obat tetes mata dengan bahan berkhasiat atropin
sulfat 1% (penurunan titik beku air atropin sulfat =0,136 dan penurunan titik beku air natrium
klorida sebagai pengisotoni = 0,576) bersifat :
A. Hipertonis
B. Hipotonis
C. Isotonis
D. Isotonis bila ditambah NaCl = 0,75 gram/100 ml

120. Sediaan oculoguttae dan collyria harus memenuhi persyaratan sterilitas. Adanya
mikroorganisme dalam larutan mata bila sediaan obat mata tidak dalam keadaan steril,
misalnya adanya bakteri Pseudomonas aeruginosa menyebabkan :
A. Kerusakan kolagen kornea
B. Infeksi pada kornea
C. Peradangan pada mata
D. Penyempitan pupil

121. Dasar salap yang bersifat hidrofil, dapat digunakan pada bagian tubuh yang berambut, sifat
dermatologisnya cocok untuk seboroiker, tidak merangsang, memiliki kemampuan lekat dan
distribusi yang baik pada kulit adalah :
A. Gel hidrokarbon
B. Lipogel
C. Hidrogel
D. Gel polietilenglikol

122. Faktor-faktor yang mempengaruhi pengambilan bahan obat dari suatu sediaan obat ke dalam
kulit berdasarkan sifat dan pengaruh sediaan obat antara lain adalah :
A. Konsentrasi bahan obat
B. Daya disosiasi
C. Penyebaran kulit
D. Ukuran partikel bahan obat

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123. Tingkat kedalam kerja dari sediaan obat dermatologis bergantung pada bentuk sediaan. Bentuk
sediaan obat yang mempunyai tingkat kedalaman kerja paling besar adalah :
A. Serbuk
B. Lotio
C. Larutan
D. Perban oklusif

124. Salap pelindung cahaya dengan kerja melindungi kerusakan kulit akibat cahaya matahari, akan
bekerja optimal dengan menggunakan dasar salap :
A. Adeps lanae
B. Vaselin album
C. Vaselin flavum
D. Asam stearat

125. Lotio sengoksid bekerja mengeringkan, menghambat peradangan dan adstringen lemah,
mempunyai komposisi dasar :
A. sengoksid, talk dan campuran gliserol-air
B. sengoksid, pati dan campuran gliserol-air
C. sengoksid, bolus alba dan campuran gliserol-air
D. sengoksid, kalamin dan campuran gliserol-air

126. Aqueous humor is drained from the eye by passing:

A. into the ciliary processes
B. from anterior chamber into the posterior chamber
C. through the canal of Schlemm
D. into the vitreous body

127. Which of the following statements regarding the choroid is true?

A. It has no vascularization
B. It is the posterior portion of the tunica fibrosa
C. It is tightly attached to the sclera
D. It contains many melanocytes

128. Which of the following statements about the cornea is NOT true?
A. It is the anterior transparent portion of the sclera
B. It is composed of five layers
C. It represents the anterior portion of the tunica vasculosa
D. It is rich in nerve endings

129. The bony ossicles of the middle ear cavity are arranged in a series bridging the tympanic cavity
beginning at the tympanic membrane and ending at the
A. Endolymphatic duct
B. Round window
C. Helicotrema
D. Oval window

130. Which of the following statements concerning the membranous labyrinth in NOT true?
A. It contains perilymph
B. It includes the saccule
C. It is housed with in the bony labyrinth
D. It includes the utricle

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