CBT
CBT
CBT
TABLE OF CONTENT
QUESTIONS
2. The UK regulator for nursing & midwifery professions within the UK with a
started aim to protect the health & well-being of the public is:
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a) GMC
b) NMC
c) BMC
d) WHC
3. Which of the following agency set the standards of education, training and
conduct and performance for nurses and midwives in the UK?
a) NMC
b) DH
c) CQC
d) RCN
6. The Code contains the professional standards that registered nurses and
midwives must uphold. UK nurses and midwives must act in line with the
Code, whether they are providing direct care to individuals, groups or
communities or bringing their professional knowledge to bear on nursing
and midwifery practice in other roles; such as leadership, education or
research.
What 4 Key areas does the code cover:
a) 35 Units
b) 45 Units
c) 55 Units
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d) 65 Units
a) Dress code
b) Personal document
c) Good nursing & midwifery practice & a key tool in safeguarding the health &
wellbeing of the public
d) Hospital administration
10. A nurse delegates duty to a health assistant, what NMC standard she
should keep in mind while doing this?
11. Which of the following is NOT one of the six fundamental values for
nursing, midwifery and care staff set out in compassion in Practice
Nursing, Midwifery & care staff?
a) Care
b) Consideration
c) Communication
d) Compassion
13. A patient has been assessed as lacking capacity to make their own
decisions, what government legislation or act should be referred to:
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a) Health and Social Care Act (2012)
b) Mental capacity Act (2005)
c) Carers (Equal opportunities) Act (2004)
d) All of the above
14. Under the Carers (Equal opportunities) Act (2004) what are carers entitled
to?
15. How many steps to discharge planning were identified by the Department
of Health (DH 2010)?
a) 5 steps
b) 8 steps
c) 10 steps
d) 12 steps
16. The single assessment process was introduced as part of the National
Service Framework for Older People (DH 2001) in order to improve care for
this groups of patients.
a) *True
b) False
17. Under the Carers (Equal opportunities)Act (2004) what are carers entitled
to?
18. What is the main aim of the End of Life Care Strategy (DH 2008)?
a) communication act
b) mental capacity act
c) children and family act.
d) Equality Act
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20. Mental Capacity Act 2005 explores which of the following concepts:
21. An enquiry was launched involving death of one of your patients. The
police visited your unit to investigate. When interviewed, which of the
following framework will best help assist the investigation?
23. A person supervising a nursing student in the clinical area is called as:
a) mentor
b) preceptor
c) interceptor
d) supervisor
A) Ward incharge
B) Senior nurses
C) Team leaders
D) All RNS
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c) Inform to the principal
d) Talk to her in private and make her aware that such behaviours could
actually belittle the profession
26. A nurse preceptor is working with a new nurse and notes that the new
nurse is reluctant to delegate tasks to members of the care team. The
nurse preceptor recognizes that this reluctance most likely is due to
27. Being a student, observe the insertion of an ICD in the clinical setting.
This is
a) Formal learning
b) Informal learning
28. You are mentoring a 3rd year student nurse, the student request that she
want to assist a procedure with tissue viability nurse, how can you deal
with this situation
A) Continuously
B) daily during hospitalization
C) every third day of hospitalization
D) every other day of hospitalization
30. you have assigned a new student to an experienced health care assistant
to gain some knowledge in delivering patient care. The student nurse tells
you that the HCA has pushed the client back to the chair when she was
trying to stand up. What is your action
A. As soon as possible after an event has happened (to provide current (up to date)
information about the care and condition of the patient or client)
B. Every hour
C. When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition
D. At the end of the shift
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31. In supervising a student nurse perform a drug rounds, the NMC expects
you to do the following at all times:
32. Who is responsible for the overall assessment of the student’s fitness to
practice and documentation of initial, midterm and final assessments in
the Ongoing Achievement Record (OAR)?
a) The mentor
b) The charge nurse/manager
c) Any registered nurse on same part of the register
33. What is the minimum length of time that a student must be supervised
(directly/indirectly) by the mentor on placement?
a) 40%
b) 60%
c) Not specified, but as much as possible
d) Depends on the student capabilities
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36. To whom should you delegate a task?
a) Taking a public stand on quality issues and educating the public on ”public
interest” issues
b) Teaching in a school of nursing to help decrease the nursing shortage
c) Engaging in nursing research to justify nursing care delivery
d) Supporting the status quo when changes are pending
39. In the role of patient advocate, the nurse would do which of the following?
40. A nurse is caring for a patient with end-stage lung disease. The patient
wants to go home on oxygen and be comfortable. The family wants the
patient to have a new surgical procedure. The nurse explains the risk and
benefits of the surgery to the family and discusses the patient's wishes
with the family. The nurse is acting as the patient's:
a) Educator
b) Advocate
c) Care giver
d) Case manager
41. Which of the following is NOT one of the six fundamental values for
nursing, midwifery and care staff set out in compassion in Practice
Nursing, Midwifery & care staff?
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a) Care
b) Consideration
c) Communication
d) Compassion
a) Assault
b) Slander
c) Negligence
d) Tort
43. The client is being involuntary committed to the psychiatric unit after
threatening to kill his spouse and children. The involuntary commitment is
an example of what bioethical principle?
a) Fidelity
b) Veracity
c) Autonomy
d) Beneficence
a) Taking a public stand and quality issues and educating the public on “public
interest” issues.
b) Teaching in school of nursing to help decrease the nursing shortage
c) Engaging in nursing research to justify nursing care delivery
d) Supporting the status quo when changes are pending
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47. According to the nursing code of ethics, the nurse’s first allegiance is to
the:
48. The measurement and documentation of vital signs is expected for clients
in a long-term facility. Which staff type would it be a priority to delegate
these tasks to?
a) Practical Nurse
b) Registered Nurse
c) Nursing assistant
d) Volunteer
49. Which option best illustrates a positive outcome for managed care?
50. While at outside setup what care will you give as a Nurse if you are
exposed to a situation?
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53. A staff nurse has delegated the ambulating of a new post-op patient to a
new staff nurse. Which of the following situations exhibits the final stage
in the process of delegation?
a) Having the new nurse tell the physician the task has been completed
b) Supervising the performance of the new nurse
c) Telling the unit manager, the task has been completed
d) Documenting that the task has been completed.
55. Which strategy could the nurse use to avoid disparity in health care
delivery?
A) Don't do it as you are not competent or trained for that & write incident report
& inform the supervisor
B) What is the purpose of clinical audit?
C) Do it
D) Ask your colleague to do it
E) Complain to the supervisor that doctor left you in middle of the procedure
a) attention to detail
b) sound problem-solving skills and strong people skills
c) emphasis on consistent job performance
d) all of the above
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59. What are essential competencies for today's nurse manager?
60. A very young nurse has been promoted to nurse manager of an inpatient
surgical unit. The nurse is concerned that older nurses may not respect
the manager's authority because of the age difference. How can this nurse
manager best exercise authority?
61. What statement, made in the morning shift report, would help an effective
manager develop trust on the nursing unit?
A. “I know I told you that you could have the weekend off, but I really need you to
work.”
B. “The others work many extra shifts, why can’t you?”
C. “I’m sorry, but I do not have a nurse to spare today to help on your unit. I cannot
make a change now, but we should talk further about schedules and needs.”
D. “I can’t believe you need help with such a simple task. Didn’t you learn that in
school?”
62. The nurse has just been promoted to unit manager. Which advice, offered
by a senior unit manager, will help this nurse become inspirational and
motivational in this new role?
A. "If you make a mistake with your staff, admit it, apologize, and correct the error if
possible."
B. "Don't be too soft on the staff. If they make a mistake, be certain to reprimand
them immediately."
C. "Give your best nurses extra attention and rewards for their help."
D. "Never get into a disagreement with a staff member.
63. The nurse executive of a health care organization wishes to prepare and
develop nurse managers for several new units that the organization will
open next year. What should be the primary goal for this work?
A. Focus on rewarding current staff for doing a good job with their assigned tasks by
selecting them for promotion.
B. Prepare these managers so that they will focus on maintaining standards of care.
C. Prepare these managers to oversee the entire health care organization.
D. Prepare these managers to interact with hospital administration.
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64. A nurse manager is planning to implement a change in the method of the
documentation system for the nursing unit. Many problems have occurred
as a result of the present documentation system, and the nurse manager
determines that a change is required. The initial step in the process of
change for the nurse manager is which of the following?
65. What are the key competencies and features for effective collaboration?
66. All of the staff nurses on duty noticed that a newly hired staff nurse has
been selective of her tasks. All of them thought that she has a limited
knowledge of the procedures. What should the manager do in this
situation?
A. Reprimand the new staff nurse in front of everyone that what she is doing is
unacceptable.
B. Call the new nurse and talk to her privately; ask how the manager can be of help
to improve her situation.
C. Ignore the incident and just continue with what she was doing.
D. Assign someone to guide the new staff nurse until she is competent in doing her
tasks.
67. Which option best illustrates a positive outcome for managed care?
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C. Routine work.
D. Understanding the history of the organization.
69. There have been several patient complaints that the staff members of the
unit are disorganized and that “no one seems to know what to do or when
to do it.” The staff members concur that they don’t have a real sense of
direction and guidance from their leader. Which type of leadership is this
unit experiencing?
a) Autocratic.
b) Bureaucratic.
c) Laissez-faire.
d) Authoritarian.
a) Organization Man
b) Impoverished Management
c) Country Club Management
d) Team Management
71. Ms. Jones is newly promoted to a patient care manager position. She
updates her knowledge on the theories in management and leadership in
order to become effective in her new role. She learns that some managers
have low concern for services and high concern for staff. Which style of
management refers to this?
72. When group members are unable and unwilling to participate in making a
decision, which leadership style should the nurse manager use?
a) Participative
b) Authorian
c) Laissez faire
d) Democratic
73. What is the most important issue confronting nurse managers using
situational leadership?
a) Leaders can choose one of the four leadership styles when faced with a
new situation.
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b) Personality traits and leader’s power base influence the leader’s choice of
style
c) Value is placed on the accomplished of tasks and on interpersonal
relationships between leader and group members and among group
members
d) Leadership style differs for a group whose members are at different levels
of maturity
74. The nursing staff communicates that the new manager has a focus on the
"bottom line,” and little concern for the quality of care. What is likely true
of this nurse manager?
78. The nurse has just been promoted to unit manager. Which advice, offered
by a senior unit manager, will help this nurse become inspirational and
motivational in this new role?
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a) "Don't be too soft on the staff, if they make a mistake, be certain to reprimand
them immediately."
b) "Give your best nurses extra attention and rewards for their help."
c) "Never gets into a disagreement with a staff member."
d) "If you make a mistake with your staff, admit it, apologize, and correct the
error if possible."
A) James Watt
B) Adam Smith
C) Henri Fayol
D) Elton Mayo
81. You are a new and inexperienced staff, which of the following actions will
you do during your first day on the clinical area?
82. A patient has sexual interest in you. What would you do?
a) Just avoid it, because the problem can be the manifestation of the underlying
disorder, and it will be resolved by its own as he recovers
b) Never attend that patient
c) Try to re-establish the therapeutic communication and relationship with patient
and inform the manager for support
d) Inform police
83. One of your young patient displayed an overt sexual behaviour directly to
you. How will you best respond to this?
a) Talk to the patient about the situation, to re- establish and maintain
professional boundaries and relationship
b) ignore the behaviour as this is part of the development process
c) report the patient to their relatives
d) inform line manager of the incident
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84. A nurse from Medical-surgical unit asked to work on the orthopedic unit.
The medical-surgical nurse has no orthopedic nursing experience. Which
client should be assigned to the medical-surgical nurse?
a) A client with a cast for a fractured femur & who has numbness &
discoloration of the toes
b) A client with balanced skeletal traction & who needs assistance with
morning care
c) A client who had an above-the-knee amputation yesterday & has a
temperature of 101.4F
d) A client who had a total hip replacement 2 days ago & needs blood
glucose monitoring
a) A newly diagnosed client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is learning foot
care
b) A client from a motor vehicle accident with an external fixation device on
the leg
c) A client admitted for a barium swallow after a transient ischemic attack
d) A newly admitted client with a diagnosis of pancreatic cancer
86. Which of the following client should the nurse deal with first
A. Incomplete data
B. Generalize from experience
C. Identifying with the client
D. Lack of clinical experience
a) “I can never have sex again, so I guess I will always be a single parent.”
b) b) “I will wear gloves when I’m caring for my baby, because I could infect my
baby with AIDS.”
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c) “My CD4 count is 200 and my T cells are less than 14%. I need to stay at these
levels by eating and sleeping well and staying healthy.”
d) “My CD4 count is 800 and my T cells are greater than 14%. I need to stay at
these levels by eating and sleeping well and staying healthy.”
89. A young woman who has tested positive for HIV tells her nurse that she has
had many sexual partners. She has been on an oral contraceptive &
frequently had not requested that her partners use condoms. She denies IV
drug use she tells her nurse that she believes that she will die soon. What
would be the best response for the nurse to make.
91. On checking the stock balance in the controlled drug record book as a
newly qualified nurse, you and a colleague notice a discrepancy. What
would you do?
A. Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren’t
found, contact pharmacy to resolve the issue. Make sure to fill out an incident form.
B. Document the discrepancy on an incident form and contact the senior pharmacist
on duty.
C. Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren’t
found the police need to be informed.
D. Check the cupboard, record book and order book and inform the registered nurse
or person in charge of the clinical area. If the missing drugs are not found then
inform the most senior nurse on duty. Make sure to fill out an incident form.
A. You should provide a written statement and also complete a Trust incident form.
B. You should inform the doctor.
C. You should report this immediately to the nurse in charge.
D. You should inform the patient.
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93. A nurse documented on the wrong chart. What should the nurse do?
A. Immediately inform the nurse in charge and tell her to cross it all off.
B. Throw away the page
C. Write line above the writing; put your name, job title, date, and time.
D. Ignore the incident.
94. One busy day on your shift, a manager told you that all washes should be
done by 10am. What would you do?
95. You noticed medical equipment not working while you joined a new team
and the team members are not using it. Your role?
96. When developing a program offering for patients who are newly
diagnosed with diabetes, a nurse case manager demonstrates an
understanding of learning styles by:
97. The patient is being discharged from the hospital after having a coronary
artery bypass graft (CABG). Which level of the health care system will best
serve the needs of this patient at this point?
a) Primary care.
b) Secondary care.
c) Tertiary care.
d) Public health care.
98. An adult has signed the consent form for a research study but has
changed her mind. The nurse tells the patient that she has the right to
change her mind based upon which of the following principles.
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d) Competence & right to know
99. A famous actress has had plastic surgery. The media contacts the nurse
on the unit and asks for information about the surgery. The nurse knows:
100. When will you disclose the identity of a patient under your care?
A. By adopting a culture of openness & transparency & exploring the root causes of
patient safety incidents.
B. Healthcare will always involve risks so incidents will always occur .we need to
accept this
C. Healthcare professionals should be encouraged to fill in incident forms ; this will
create a culture of “no blame”
D. By setting targets which measure quality
A. Taking precautions when handling blood & ‘high risk’ body fluids so that you don’t
pass on any infection to the patient.
B. Wearing gloves, aprons & mask when caring for someone in protective isolation to
protect yourself from infection
C. Asking relatives to wash their hands when visiting patients in the clinical setting
D. Using appropriate hand hygiene, wearing gloves & aprons when necessary,
disposing of used sharp instruments safely & providing care in a suitably clean
environment to protect yourself & the patients
103. Today many individuals are seeking answers for acute and chronic
health problems through non-traditional approaches to health care. What
are two popular choices being selected by health consumers?
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104. The client reports nausea and constipation. Which of the following
would be the priority nursing action?
107. Role conflict can occur in any situation in which individuals work
together. The predominant reason that role conflict will emerge in
collaboration is that people have different
109. A patient with antisocial personality disorder enters the private meeting
room of a nursing unit as a nurse is meeting with a different patient.
Which of the following statements by the nurse is BEST?
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110. A client on your medical surgical unit has a cousin who is physician &
wants to see the chart. Which of the following is the best response for the
nurse to take
a) Ask the client to sign an authorization & have someone review the chart
with cousin
b) Hand the cousin the client chart to review
c) Call the attending physician & have the doctor speak with the cousin
d) Tell the cousin that the request cannot be granted
111. As an RN in charge you are worried about a nurse's act of being very
active on social media site, that it affect the professionalism. Which one of
these is the worst advice you can give her?
113. You walk onto one of the bay on your ward and noticed a colleague
wrongly using a hoist in transferring their patient. As a nurse you will:
a) let them continue with their work as you are not in charge of that bay
b) report the event to the unit manager
c) call the manual handling specialist nurse for training
d) inform the relatives of the mistake
114. Adequate record keeping for a medical device should provide evidence
of:
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e) Schedule and details of maintenance and repairs
f) The end-of-life date, if specified
g) All of the above
115. A registered nurse had a very busy day as her patient was sick, got
intubated & had other life saving procedures. She documented all the
events & by the end of the shift recognized that she had documented in
other patient's record. What is best response of the nurse?
A) She should continue documenting in the same file as the medical document
cannot be corrected
B) She should tear the page from the file & start documenting in the correct record
C) She should put a straight cut over her documentation & write as wrong, sign it
with her NMC code, date & time
D) She should write as wrong documentation in a bracket & continue
116. You are to take charge of the next shift of nurses. Few minutes before
your shift, the in charge of the current shift informed you that two of your
nurses will be absent. Since there is a shortage of staff in your shift, what
will you do?
a) encourage all the staff who are present to do their best to attend to the needs of
the patients
b) ask from your manager if there are qualified staff from the previous shift that can
cover the lacking number for your shift while you try to replace new nurses to cover
c) refuse to take charge of the next shift
117. Who will you inform first if there is a shortage in supplies in your shift?
a) Nursing assistant
b) Purchasing personnel
c) Immediate nurse manager
d) Supplier
118. The supervisor reprimands the charge nurse because the nurse has not
adhered to the budget. Later the charge nurse accuses the nursing staff of
wasting supplies. This is an example of
a) Denial
b) Repression
c) Suppression
d) Displacement
119. A nurse is having trouble with doing care plans. Her team members are
already noticing this problem and are worried of the consequences this
may bring to the quality of nursing care delivered. The problem is already
brought to the attention of the nurse. The nurse should:
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a) Accept her weakness and take this challenge as an opportunity to improve
her skills by requesting lectures from her manager
b) Ignore the criticism as this is a case of a team issue
c) Continue delivering care as this will not affect the quality of care you are
rendering your patient
120. On checking the stock balance in the controlled drug record book as a
newly qualified nurse, you and a colleague notice a discrepancy. What
would you do?
a) Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren't
found, contact pharmacy to resolve the issue. You will also complete an
incident form.
b) Document the discrepancy on an incident form and contact the senior
pharmacist on duty.
c) Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren't
found the police need to be informed.
d) Check the cupboard, record book and order book and inform the registered
nurse or person in charge of the clinical area. If the missing drugs are not
found then inform the most senior nurse on duty. You will also complete an
incident form
122. You are the nurse on Ward C with 14 patients. Your fellow incoming
nurses called in sick and cannot come to work on your shift. What will be
your best action on this situation?
a) Review patient intervention, set priorities, ask the supervisor to hand over
extra staff
b) continue with your shift and delegate some responsibilities to the nursing
assistant
c) fill out an incident form about the staffing condition
d) ask the colleague to look for someone to cover
123. A client requests you that he wants to go home against medical advice,
what should you do?
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d) Allow the client to go home as he won't pose any threat to self or others
124. The nurse is leading an in service about management issues. The nurse
would intervene if another nurse made which of the following statements?
A. “It is my responsibility to ensure that the consent form has been signed and
attached to the patient’s chart prior to surgery.”
B. “It is my responsibility to witness the signature of the client before surgery is
performed.”
C. “It is my responsibility to answer questions that the patient may have prior to
surgery.”
D. “It is my responsibility to provide a detailed description of the surgery and ask the
patient to sign the consent form.”
125. After finding the patient, which statement would be most appropriate for
the nurse to document on a datix/incident form?
A. “The patient climbed over the side rails and fell out of bed.”
B. “The use of restraints would have prevented the fall.”
C. “Upon entering the room, the patient was found lying on the floor.”
D. “The use of a sedative would have helped keep the patient in bed.”
126. A nurse documents vital signs without actually performing the task.
Which action should the charge nurse take after discussing the situation
with the nurse?
127. A patient in your care knocks their head on the bedside locker when
reaching down to pick up something they have dropped. What do you do?
A. Let the patient’s relatives know so that they don’t make a complaint & write an
incident report for yourself so you remember the details in case there are problems
in the future
B. Help the patient to a safe comfortable position, commence neurological
observations & ask the patient’s doctor to come & review them, checking the injury
isn’t serious. when this has taken place , write up what happened & any future care
in the nursing notes
C. Discuss the incident with the nurse in charge , & contact your union
representative in case you get into trouble
D. Help the patient to a safe comfortable position, take a set of observations & report
the incident to the nurse in charge who may call a doctor. Complete an incident form.
At an appropriate time, discuss the incident with the patient & if they wish, their
relatives
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128. Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when
stating the “problem” part of a nursing diagnosis?
a) Grimacing
b) *Anxiety
Oxygenation saturation 93%
c) Output 500 mL in 8 hours
129. The rehabilitation nurse wishes to make the following entry into a
client’s plan of care: “Client will re-establish a pattern of daily bowel
movements without straining within two months.” The nurse would write
this statement under which section of the plan of care?
130. A nurse delegates duty to a health assistant. What NMC standard she
should keep in mind while doing this?
131. A registered nurse identifies a care assistant not washing hands hand
before caring an immunocompromised client. Your response?
132. The bystander of a muslim lady wishes that a lady doctor only should
check the patient. Best response
133. Bystander informs you that the patient is in severe pain. Ur response
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b) Record in the chart and inform doc and in charge
c) Tell that she would give the next dose of analgesic when it’s time
d) Go instantly to the patient and assess the condition
134. The nurse restraints a client in a locked room for 3 hours until the client
acknowledges who started a fight in the group room last evening. The
nurse’s behaviour constitutes:
a) False imprisonment
b) Duty of care
c) Standard of care practice
d) Contract of care
100. Role conflict can occur in any situation in which individuals work
together. The predominant reasons that role conflict will emerge in
collaboration is that people have different:
102. A client has been voluntarily admitted to the hospital. The nurse knows
that which of the following statements is inconsistent with this type of
hospitalization?
103. If you were explaining anxiety to a patient, what would be the main
points to include?
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c) Anxiety is all in the mind, if they learn to think differently, it will go away
d) Anxiety has three aspects: physical – such as running away, behavioural –
such as imagining the worse (catastrophizing) , & cognitive ( thinking) – such
as needing to urinate.
(A) The nurse should explain the procedure to the patient and ask her to sign the
consent form.
(B) The nurse should verify that the consent form has been signed by the patient and
that it is attached to her chart.
(C) The nurse should tell the physician that the patient agrees to have the
examination.
(D) The nurse should verify that the patient or a family member has signed the
consent form.
(A) She has already moved through the stages of the grieving process.
(B) She is repressing anger related to her husband’s death.
(C) She is experiencing shock and disbelief related to her husband’s death.
(D) She is demonstrating resolution of her husband’s death.
106. The nurse works on a medical/surgical unit that has a shift with an
unusually high number of admissions, discharges, and call bells ringing. A
nurse’s aide, who looks increasingly flustered and overwhelmed with the
workload, finally announces “This is impossible! I quit!” and stomps
toward the break room. Which of the following statements, if made by the
nurse to the nurse’s aide, is BEST?
107. The nurse cares for a client diagnosed with conversion reaction. The
nurse identifies the client is utilizing which of the following defence
mechanisms?
a) Introjection
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b) Displacement
c) Identification
d) Repression
109. A young woman has suffered fractured pelvis in an accident , she has
been hospitalized for 3 days , when she tells her primary nurse that she
has something to tell her but she does not want the nurse to tell anyone.
she says that she had tried to donate blood & tested positive for HIV. what
is best action of the nurse to take?
110. The nurse is in the hospitals public cafeteria & hears two nursing
assistants talking about the patient in 406. they are using her name &
discussing intimate details about her illness which of the following actions
are best for the nurse to take?
a) Go over & tell the nursing assistants that their actions are inappropriate
especially in a public place
b) Wait & tell the assistants later that they were overheard discussing the patient
otherwise they might be embarrassed
c) Tell the nursing assistant’s supervisor about the incident. It is the supervisor’s
responsibility to address the issue
d) Say nothing. it is not the nurses job, he or she is not responsible for the
assistant’s action
111. A young woman who has tested positive for HIV tells her nurse that she
has had many sexual partners. She has been on an oral contraceptive &
frequently had not requested that her partners use condoms. She denies
IV drug use she tells her nurse that she believes that she will die soon.
What would be the best response for the nurse to make.
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112. In the role of patient advocate, the nurse would do which of the
following:
114. A staff nurse has delegated the ambulating of a new post-op patient to a
new staff nurse. Which of the following situations exhibits the final stage
in the process of delegation?
a) Having the new nurse tell the physician the task has been completed.
b) Supervising the performance of the new nurse
c) Telling the unit manager, the task has been completed
d) Documenting that the task has been completed.
116. One of your patient was pleased with the standard of care you have
provided him. As a gesture, he is giving you a £50 voucher to spend. What
is your most appropriate action on this situation?
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a) Ensure that the nursing process is complete and includes active
participation by the patient and family
b) Become creative in meeting patient’s needs.
c) Empower the patient by providing needed information and support.
d) Help the patient understand the need for preventive health care.
118. The nurse manager of 20 bed coronary care is not on duty when a staff
nurse makes serious medication error. The client who received an over
dose of the medication nearly dies. Which statement of the nurse manager
reflects accountability?
a) The nurse supervisor on duty will call the nurse manager at home and apprise
about the problem
b) Because the nurse manager is not on duty therefore she is not accountable to
anything which happens on her absence
c) The nurse manager will be informed of the incident when returning to the work
on Monday because the nurse manager was officially off duty when the
incident took place.
d) Although the nurse manager was on off duty but the nurse supervisor decides
to call nurse manager if the time permits the nurse supervisor thinks that the
nurse manager has no responsibility of what has happened in manager’s
absence
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122. Essence of Care benchmarking is a process of -------?
a) tell her that any information related to her wellbeing will need to be share to
the health care team
b) inform her parents about this so she can be advised appropriately
c) keep the information a secret in view of confidentiality
d) report her boyfriend to social services
124. When trying to make a responsible ethical decision, what should the
nurse understand as the basis for ethical reasoning?
125. A mentally competent client with end stage liver disease continues to
consume alcohol after being informed of the consequences of this action.
What action best illustrates the nurse’s role as a client advocate?
a) Asking the spouse to take all the alcohol out of the house
b) Accepting the patient’s choice & not intervening
c) Reminding the client that the action may be an end-of life decision
d) Refusing to care for the client because of the client’s noncompliance
126. While at outside setup what care will you give as a Nurse if you are
exposed to a situation?
127. when breaking bad news over phone which of the following statement is
appropriate
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b) I am sorry to tell you that your mother has gone to heaven
c) I am sorry to tell you that your mother is no more
d) I am sorry to tell you that your mother passed away
a) Clinical practice based on clinical expertise and reasoning with the best
knowledge available
b) Provision of computers at every nursing station to search for best
evidence while providing care
c) Practice based on ritualistic way
d) Practice based on what nurse thinks is the best for patient
n adult has just returned to the unit from surgery. The nurse transferred
him to his bed but did not put up the side rails.
130. The client fell and was injured. What kind of liability does the nurse
have?
a) None
b) Negligence
c) Intentional tort
d) Assault & battery
A. It is taking action to help people say what they want, secure their rights, represent
their interests and obtain the services they need.
B. This is the divulging or provision of access to data.
C. It is the response to the suffering of others that motivates a desire to help.
D. It is a set of rules or a promise that limits access or places restrictions on certain
types of information.
132. A new RN have problems with making assumptions. Which part of the
code she should focus to deliver fundamentals of care effectively
a) Prioritise people
b) Practice effective
c) Preserve safety
d) Promote professionalism and trust
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133. a patient with learning disability is accompanied by a voluntary
independent mental capacity advocate. What is his role?
134. When you find out that 2 staffs are on leave for next duty shift and its of
staff shortage what to do with the situation?
a) Inform the superiors and call for a meeting to solve the issue
b) Contact a private agency to provide staff
c) Close the admission until adequate staffs are on duty.
a) Appreciate intuitiveness
b) Appreciate better work
c) Reward poor performance
136. A young woman has suffered fractured pelvis in an accident, she has
been hospitalized for 3 days , when she tells her primary nurse that she
has something to tell her but she does not want the nurse to tell anyone.
she says that she had tried to donate blood & tested positive for HIV. what
is best action of the nurse to take?
A. It is asking action to help people say what they want, secure their rights, represent
their interests and obtain the services they need.
B. This is the divulging or provision of access to data.
C. It is the response to the suffering of others that motivates a desire to help.
D. It is a set of rules or a promise that limits access or places restrictions on certain
types of information.
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138. A patient is being discharged form the hospital after having coronary
artery bypass graft (CABG). Which level of the health care system will best
serve the needs of this patient at this point?
a) Primary care
b) Secondary care
c) Tertiary care
d) Public health care
139. You are told a patient is in ‘source isolation’. What would you do & why?
140. Wound care management plan should be done with what type of
wound?
a) Complex wound
b) Infected wound
c) Any type of wound
a) 1-5 days
b) 3-24 days
c) 24 days
142. Which are not the benefits of using negative pressure wound therapy?
143. How long does the ‘inflammatory phase’ of wound healing typically last?
a) 24 hours
b) Just minutes
c) 1-5 days
d) 3-24 days
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a) 3-24 days
b) 24-26 days
c) 1-7 days
d) 24 hours
145. What functions should a dressing fulfil for effective wound healing?
148. Which one of the following types of wound is NOT suitable for negative
pressure wound therapy?
150. Proper Dressing for wound care should be? (Select x 3 correct answers)
a) High humidity
b) Low humidity
c) Non Permeable/ Conformable
d) Absorbent / Provide thermal insulation
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151. Waterlow score of 20 indicates what type of mattress to use? Select x 2
152. For a client with Water Score >20 which mattress is the most suitable
a. Water Mattress
b. Air Mattress
c. Dynamic Mattress
d. Foam Mattress
153. A patient has been confined in bed for months now and has developed
pressure ulcers in the buttocks area. When you checked the waterlow it is
at level 20. Which type of bed is best suited for this patient?
A. water mattress
B. Egg crater mattress
C. air mattresses
D. Dynamic mattress
155. You notice an area of redness on the buttock of an elderly patient and
suspect they may be at risk of developing a pressure ulcer. Which of the
following would be the most appropriate to apply?
156. How would you care for a patient with a necrotic wound?
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a) In the inflammation phase of healing.
b) In the haemostasis phase of healing.
c) In the reconstructive phase of wound healing.
d) As an infected wound
158. What are the four stages of wound healing in the order they take place?
159. Breid, 76 years old, developed a pressure ulcer whilst under your care.
On assessment, you saw some loss of dermis, with visible redness, but
not sloughing off. Her pressure ulcer can be categorised as:
a) moisture lesion
b) 2nd stage partial skin thickness
c) 3rd stage
d) 4th stage
160. What stage of pressure ulcer includes tissue involvement and crater
formation?
a) stage 1
b) stage 2
c) stage 3
d) stage 4
161. Joshua, son of Breid went to the station to see the nurse as she was
complaining of severe pain on her pressure ulcer. What will be your initial
action?
162. The nurse cares for a patient with a wound in the late regeneration
phase of tissue repair. The wound may be protected by applying a:
a) Transparent film
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b) Hydrogel dressing
c) Collagenases dressing
d) Wet dry dressing
163. A clients wound is draining thick yellow material. The nurse correctly
describes the drainage as:
a) Sanguineous
b) Serous sanguineous
c) Serous
d) Purulent
164. Black wounds are treated with debridement. Which type of debridement is
most selective and least damaging?
a) Abrasion
b) Unapproxiamted
c) Laceration
d) Eschar
a) High humidity
b) Low humidity
c) Non Permeable
d) Conformable
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e) Adherent
f) Absorbent
g) Provide thermal insulation
169. If an elderly immobile patient had a "grade 3 pressure sore", what would
be your management?
170. A patient has been confined in bed for months now and has developed
pressure ulcers in the buttocks area. When you checked the waterlow it is
at level 20. Which type of bed is best suited for this patient?
a) water mattress
b) Egg crater mattress
c) air mattresses
d) Dynamic mattress
171. A nurse notices a bedsore. It’s a shallow wound, red coloured with no
pus. Dermis is lost. At what stage this bedsore is?
172. Which solution use minimum tissue damage while providing wound
care?
a) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Povidine iodine
c) Saline
d) Gention violet
173. A client has a diabetic stasis ulcer on the lower leg. The nurse uses a
hydrocolloid dressing to cover it. The procedure for application includes:
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a) Cleaning the skin and wound with betadine
b) Removing all traces of residues for the old dressing
c) Choosing a dressing no more than quarter-inch larger than the wound size
d) Holding it in place for a minute to allow it to adhere
174. A patient developed pressure ulcer. The wound is round, extends to the
dermis, is shallow, there is visible reddish to pinkish tissue. What stage is the
pressure ulcer?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
175. The client at greatest risk for postoperative wound infection is:
a) surgical asepsis
b) aseptic non-touch technique
c) medical asepsis
d) dip-tip technique
177. You have just finished dressing a leg ulcer. You observe patient is
depressed and withdrawn. You ask the patient whether everything is okay.
She says yes. What is your next action?
a) Say " I observe you don't seem as usual. Are you sure you are okay?"
b) Say "Cheer up , Shall I make a cup of tea for you?"
c) Accept her answer & leave. attend to other patients
d) Inform the doctor about the change of the behaviour.
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d) 50mls
A) Polyuria
B) Oliguria
C) Nocturia
A) tell her that any information related to her well being will need to be share to
the health care team
B) inform her parents about this so she can be advised appropriately
C) keep the information a secret in view of confidentiality
D) report her boyfriend to social services
181. On removing your patient’s catheter, what should you encourage your
patient to do ?
183. What is the most important guiding principle when choosing the correct
size of catheter?
184. When carrying out a catheterization, on which patients would you use
anaesthetic lubricating gel prior to catheter insertion?
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b) Female patients as there is an absence of lubricating glands in the female
urethra , unlike the male urethra
c) Male & female patients require anaesthetic lubricating gel
d) The use of anaesthetic lubricating gel is not advised due to potential adverse
reactions
a) Above the level of the bladder to improve visibility & access for the health
professional
b) Above the level of the bladder to avoid contact with the floor
c) Below the level of the patient’s bladder to reduce backflow of urine
d) Where the patient finds it most comfortable
186. What would make you suspect that a patient in your care had a urinary
tack infection?
a) The patient has spiked a temperature, has a raised white cell count (WCC),
has new-onset confusion & the urine in the catheter bag is cloudy
b) The doctor has requested a midstream urine specimen
c) The patient has a urinary catheter in situ & the patient's wife states that he
seems more forgetful than usual
d) The patient has complained of frequency of faecal elimination & hasn't been
drinking enough
187. While having lunch at the cafeteria, your co-worker suddenly collapsed.
As a nurse, what would you do?
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190. Which is the first drug to be used in cardia arrest of any aetiology?
a) Adrenaline
b) Amiodarone
c) Atropine
d) Calcium chloride
A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35
A) Decreased conscious level, reduced blood flow to vital organs and renal
failure.
B) The patient could become confused and not know who they are.
C) Decreased conscious level, oliguria and reduced coronary blood flow.
D) The patient feeling very cold
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196. In Spinal cord injury patients, what is the most common cause of
autonomic dysreflexia ( a sudden rise in blood pressure)?
a) Bowel obstruction
b) Fracture below the level of the spinal lesion
c) Pressure sore
d) Urinary obstruction
198. A patient on your ward complains that her heart is ‘racing’ and you find
that the pulse is too fast to manually palpate. What would your actions be?
a) Cardiac Arrest
b) Ventricular tach
c) Atrial Fibrillation
d) Complete blockage of the heart
a) Atrial fibrillation
b) cardiac arrest
c) ventricular tachycardia
d) asystole
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202. What is atrial fibrillation?
203. Which of the following is at a greater risk for developing coronary artery
disease?
A. Obesity
B. Smoking
C. High Blood Pressure
D. Female
a) Abdominal aorta
b) Circle of Willis
c) Intraparechymal aneurysms
d) Capillary aneurysms
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C) Administration of adrenaline every 3 minutes
D) Correction of reversible causes of hypoxia
208. Which of the following can a patient not have if they have a pacemaker
in situ?
A) MRI
B) X ray
C) Barium swallow
D) CT
209. When should adult patients in acute hospital settings have observations
taken?
210. You are looking after a postoperative patient and when carrying out their
observations, you discover that they are tachycardic and anxious, with an
increased respiratory rate. What could be happening? What would you do?
A) hypertension
B) hypotension
C) bradycardia
D) tachycardia
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213. Mrs Red’s doctor is suspecting an aortic aneurysm after her chest x-ray.
Which of the most common type of aneurysm?
A) cerebral
B) abdominal
C) femoral
D) thoracic
214. A nurse is advised one hour vital charting of a patient, how frequently it
should be recorded?
a) Every 3 hours
b) Every shift
c) Whenever the vital signs show deviations from normal
d) Every one hour
A. To aid mobility
B. To promote arterial flow
C. To aid muscle strength
D. To promote venous flow
a) increasing blood flow velocity in the legs by compression of the deep venous
system - thromboembolism-deterrent hose
b) decreasing blood flow velocity in legs by compression of the deep venous
system
218. You are looking after a 75 year old woman who had an abdominal
hysterectomy 2 days ago. What would you do reduce the risk of her
developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Give regular analgesia to ensure she has adequate pain relief so she
can mobilize as soon as possible. Advise her not to cross her legs
B. Make sure that she is fitted with properly fitting antiembolic stockings &
that are removed daily
C. Ensure that she is wearing antiembolic stockings & that she is
prescribed prophylactic anticoagulation & is doing hourly limb exercises
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D. Give adequate analgesia so she can mobilize to the chair with
assistance, give subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin as
prescribed. Make sure that she is wearing antiembolic stockings
219. A patient is being discharged form the hospital after having coronary
artery bypass graft (CABG). Which level of the health care system will best
serve the needs of this patient at this point?
e) Primary care
f) Secondary care
g) Tertiary care
h) Public health care
220. People with blood group A are able to receive blood from the following:
A. Group A only
B. Groups AB or B
C. Groups A or O
D. Groups A, B or O
221. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider prior to a
magnetic resonance imaging MRI?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
223. What is the name given to a decreased pulse rate or heart rate?
a) Tachycardia
b) Hypotension
c) Bradycardia
d) Arrhythmia
224. A patient puts out his arm so that you can take his blood pressure. What
type of consent is this?
a) Verbal
b) Written
c) Implied
d) None of the above, consent is not required.
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225. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider to a magnetic
resonance imaging MRI?
a) Hepatic Artery
b) Abdominal aorta
c) Renal arch
d) Circle of Wills
229. Mrs Smith has been assessed to have a cardiac arrest after anaphylactic
reaction to a medication. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) was
started immediately. According to the Resuscitation Council UK, which of
the following statements is true?
a) Oedema
b) Hyperpigmentation of the skin
c) Pain
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d) Cyanosis
232. A patient is prescribed methformin 1 000mg twice a day for his diabetes.
While taking with the patient he states “I never eat breakfast so I take ½
tablet at lunch and a whole tablet at supper because I don’t want my blood
sugar to drop.” As his primary care nurse you:
233. The nurse is caring for a diabetic patient and when making rounds,
notices that the patient is trembling and stating they are dizzy. The next
action by the nurse would be:
a) Feeling hungry
b) Sweating
c) Anxiety or irritability
d) Blurred vision
e) Ketoacidosis
235. Hypoglycaemia in patients with diabetes is more likely to occur when the patients
take: (Select x 3 correct answers)
a) Insulin
b) Sulphonylureas
c) Prandial glucose regulators
d) Metformin
236. What are the contraindications for the use of the blood glucose meter
for blood glucose monitoring?
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a) The patient has a needle phobia and prefers to have a urinalysis.
b) If the patient is in a critical care setting, staff will send venous samples to the
laboratory for verification of blood glucose level.
c) If the machine hasn't been calibrated
d) If peripheral circulation is impaired, collection of capillary blood is not advised
as the results might not be a true reflection of the physiological blood glucose
level.
237. What would you do if a patient with diabetes and peripheral neuropathy
requires assistance cutting his toe nails?
a) Document clearly the reason for not cutting his toe nails and refer him to a
chiropodist.
b) Document clearly the reason for not cutting his nails and ask the ward sister
to do it.
c) Have a go and if you run into trouble, stop and refer to the chiropodist.
d) Speak to the patient's GP to ask for referral to the chiropodist, but make a
start while the patient is in hospital.
a) 1 serving
b) 3 servings
c) 5 servings
d) 7 servings
240. Most of the symptoms are common in both type1 and type 2 diabetes.
Which of the following symptom is more common in typ1 than type2?
a) Thirst
b) Weight loss
c) Poly urea
d) Ketones
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241. Alone, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia (low blood sugar).
However, in rare cases, you may develop hypoglycemia if you combine
metformin with:
a) a poor diet
b) strenuous exercise
c) excessive alcohol intake
d) other diabetes medications
242. The nurse is caring for a diabetic patient and when making rounds, notices that
the patient is trembling and stating they are dizzy. The next action by the nurse
would be:
243. When developing a program offering for patients who are newly
diagnosed with diabetes, a nurse case manager demonstrates an
understanding of learning styles by:
244. Mr Cross informed you of how upset he was when you commented on
his diabetic foot during your regular home visit. He is considering to see
another tissue viability nurse. How will you best respond to him?
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a) Wear gloves and apron, mark it high risk and send the specimen to the
laboratory with your other specimens
b) Wear gloves and apron, mark it high risk and send the specimen to the
laboratory with your other specimens
c) Wear gloves and apron, inform the infection control team and complete a
datix form
d) Wear gloves and apron, place specimen in a blue bag & complete a datix
form
247. When collecting an MSU from a male patient, what should they do prior to
the specimen being collected?
a) Clean the meatus and catch a specimen from the last of the urine voided
b) Clean the meatus and catch a specimen from the first stream of urine (approx.
30mls)
c) Clean the meatus and catch a specimen of the urine midstream
d) Ask the patient to void into a bottle and pour urine specimen into the
specimen container.
248. How do you ensure the correct blood to culture ratio when obtaining a
blood culture specimen from an adult patient?
249. If blood is being taken for other tests, and a patient requires collection
of blood cultures, which should come first to reduce the risk of
contamination?
a) Clean around the urethral meatus prior to sample collection and get a
midstream/clean catch urine specimen.
b) Clean around the urethral meatus prior to sample collection and collect the
first portion of urine as this is where the most bacteria will be.
c) Do not clean the urethral meatus as we want these bacteria to analyse as
well.
d) Dip the urinalysis strip into the urine in a bedpan mixed with stool
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251. When dealing with a patient who has a biohazard specimen, how will
you ensure proper disposal? Select which does not apply:
252. What action would you take if a specimen had a biohazard sticker on it?
a) Double bag it, in a self-sealing bag, and wear gloves if handling the specimen.
b) Wear gloves if handling the specimen, ring ahead and tell the laboratory the
sample is on its way.
c) Wear goggles and underfill the sample bottle.
d) Wear appropriate PPE and overfill the bottle.
A) Wear gloves and apron and inform the laboratory that you are sending the
specimen.
B) Wear gloves and apron, mark it high risk and send the specimen to the laboratory
with your other specimens
C) Wear gloves and apron, Inform the infection control team and complete a datix
form.
D) Wear gloves and apron, place specimen in a blue bag & complete a datix form.
254. You are caring for a patient who is known to have dementia. What
particular issues should you consider prior to discharge.
255. Which of the major theories of aging suggest that older adults may
decelerate the aging process?
a) Disengagement theory
b) Activity theory
c) Immunology theory
d) Genetic theory
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b) Older people are believed to be more prone to mental illness than young
people
c) The clinical presentation of mental illness in older adults differs form that in
other age groups
d) When physical deterioration becomes a significant feature of an elder’s
life, the risk of comorbid psychiatric illness arises.
a) Intermittent incontinence
b) Concentrated urine
c) Microscopic hematuria
d) A decreased glomerular filtration rate
258. A 76 year old man who is a resident in an extended care facility is in the
late stages of Alzheimer’s disease. He tells his nurse that he has sore back
muscles from all the construction work he has been doing all day. Which
response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Increased stimuli
B) Creative environment
C) Restrict activities
260. An 86 year old male with senile dementia has been physically abused &
neglected for the past two years by his live in caregiver. He has since
moved & is living with his son & daughter-in-law. Which response by the
client’s son would cause the nurse great concern?
a) “How can we obtain reliable help to assist us in taking care of Dad? We can’t
do it alone.”
b) “Dad used to beat us kids all the time. I wonder if he remembered that when it
happened to him?”
c) “I’m not sure how to deal with Dad’s constant repetition of words.”
d) “I plan to ask my sister & brother to help my wife & me with Dad on the
weekends.”
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261. Knowing the difference between normal age- related changes &
pathologic findings, which finding should the nurse identify as pathologic
in a 74 year old patient?
262. Which of the following is a behavioural risk factor when assessing the
potential risks of falling in an older person?
263. What medications would most likely increase the risk for fall?
a) Loop diuretic
b) Hypnotics
c) Betablockers
d) Nsaid
264. Among the following drugs, which does not cause falls in an elderly?
A. Diuretics
B. NSAIDS
C. Beta blockers
D. Hypnotics
266. Mr Bond also shared with you that his gums also bleed during brushing.
Which of the following statement will best explain this?
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267. What are the principles of communicating with a patient with delirium?
a) Use short statements and closed questions in a well lit, quiet, familiar
environment.
b) Use short statements and open questions in a well lit, quiet, familiar
environment
c) Write down all questions for the patient to refer back to.
d) Communicate only through the family using short statements and closed
questions.
269. In a community hospital, an elderly man approaches you and tells you
that his neighbour has been stealing his money, saying "sometimes I give
him money to buy groceries but he didn't buy groceries and he kept the
money" what is your best course of action for this?
A. Ensure people with dementia are excluded from services because of their
diagnosis, age, or any learning disability.
B. Encourage the use of advocacy services and voluntary support.
C. Allow people with dementia to convey information in confidence.
D. Identify and wherever possible accommodate preferences (such as diet,
sexuality and religion).
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A) Aortic stenosis
B) Arrhythmias
C) Diabetes
D) Pernicious anaemia
E) Advanced heart failure
F) All of the above
273. An 83-year old lady just lost her husband. Her brother visited the lady in
her house. He observed that the lady is acting okay but it is obvious that
she is depressed. 3weeks after the husband's death, the lady called her
brother crying and was saying that her husband just died. She even said,
"I cant even remember him saying he was sick." When the brother visited
the lady, she was observed to be well physically but was irritable and
claims to have frequent urination at night and she verbalizes that she can
see lots of rats in their kitchen. Based on the manifestations, as a nurse,
what will you consider as a diagnosis to this patient?
274. Angel, 52 years old lose her husband due to some disease. 4 weeks
later, she calls her mother and says that, yesterday my husband died…I
didn’t know that he was sick…I cant sleep and I see rats and mites in the
kitchen. What is angel’s condition?
275. Why are elderly prone to postural hypotension? Select which does not
apply:
276. Why should healthcare professionals take extra care when washing and
drying an elderly patients skin?
A) As the older generation deserve more respect and tender loving care (TLC).
B) As the skin of an elder person has reduced blood supply, is thinner, less
elastic and has less natural oil. This means the skin is less resistant to
shearing forces and wound healing can be delayed.
C) All elderly people lose dexterity and struggle to wash effectively so they need
support with personal hygiene.
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D) As elderly people cannot reach all areas of their body, it is essential to ensure
all body areas are washed well so that the colonization of Gram-positive and
negative micro-organisms on the skin is avoided.
279. You are looking after an emaciated 80-year old man who has been
admitted to your ward with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive
airways disease (COPD). He is currently so short of breath that it is
difficult for him to mobilize. What are some of the actions you take to
prevent him developing a pressure ulcer?
280. You are looking after a 76-year old woman who has had a number of
recent falls at home. What would you do to try & ensure her safety whilst
she is in hospital?
A) Refer her to the physiotherapist & provide her with lots of reassurance as she
has lost a lot of confidence recently
B) Make sure that the bed area is free of clutter. Place the patient in a bed near
the nurse’s station so that you can keep an eye on her. Put her on an hourly
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toileting chart. obtain lying & standing blood pressures as postural
hypotension may be contributing to her falls
C) Make sure that the bed area is free of clutter & that the patient can reach
everything she needs, including the call bell. Check regularly to see if the
patient needs assistance mobilizing to the toilet. ensure that she has properly
fitting slippers & appropriate walking aids
D) Refer her to the community falls team who will asses her when she gets home
281. You are looking after a 75 year old woman who had an abdominal
hysterectomy 2 days ago. What would you do reduce the risk of her
developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Give regular analgesia to ensure she has adequate pain relief so she can
mobilize as soon as possible. Advise her not to cross her legs
B) Make sure that she is fitted with properly fitting antiembolic stockings & that
are removed daily
C) Ensure that she is wearing antiembolic stockings & that she is prescribed
prophylactic anticoagulation & is doing hourly limb exercises
D) Give adequate analgesia so she can mobilize to the chair with assistance,
give subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin as prescribed. Make sure
that she is wearing antiembolic stockings
282. Fiona a 70 year old has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.
You have EC devised a care plan to meet her nutritional needs. However,
you have noted that she ahs poor fitting dentures. Which of the following
is the least likely risk to the service user?
a) Malnutrition
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Dehydration
d) Hypoglycaemia
284. The nurse cares for an elderly patient with moderate hearing loss. The
nurse should teach the patient’s family to use which of the following
approaches when speaking to the patient?
(A) Raise your voice until the patient is able to hear you.
(B) Face the patient and speak quickly using a high voice.
(C) Face the patient and speak slowly using a slightly lowered voice.
(D) Use facial expressions and speak as you would formally
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285. Your nurse manager approaches you in a tertiary level old age home
where complex cases are admitted, and she tells you that today everyone
should adopt task - oriented nursing to finish the tasks by 10 am what’s
your best action
A) Discuss with the manager that task oriented nursing may ruin the holistic care
that we provide here in this tertiary level.
B) Ask the manager to re-consider the time bound, make sure that all staffs are
informed about task oriented nursing care
286. A patient with dementia is mourning and pulling the dress during night
what do you understand from this?
A) Patient is incontinent
B) Patient is having pain
C) Patient has medication toxicity.
287. An elderly client with dementia is cared by hid daughter. The daughter
locks him in a room to keep him safe when she goes out to work and not
considering any other options. As a nurse what is your action?
a) Explain this is a restrain. Urgently call for a safe guarding and arrange a
multi-disciplinary team conference
b) Do nothing as this is the best way of keeping him safe
c) Call police, social services to remove client immediately and refer to
safeguarding
d) Explain this is a restrain and discuss other possible options
289. Which of the following displays the proper use of Zimmer frame?
290. The client advanced his left crutch first followed by the right foot, then
the right crutch followed by the left foot. What type of gait is the client
using?
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A) Swing to gait
B) Three point gait
C) Four point gait
D) Swing through gait
292. After instructing the client on crutch walking technique, the nurse
should evaluate the client's understanding by using which of the following
methods?
293. A nurse is caring for a patient with canes. After providing instruction on
proper cane use, the patient is asked to repeat the instructions given.
Which of the following patient statement needs further instruction?
a) ‘The hand opposite to the affected extremity holds the cane to widen the base
of support & to reduce stress on the affected limb.’
‘b) as the cane is advanced, the affected leg is also moved forward at the same time’
b) ‘when the unaffected extremity begins the swing phase, the client should bear
down on the cane’
‘d) To go up the stairs, place the cane & affected extremity down on the step. Then
step down the unaffected extremity’
a) Mobility
b) Safety
c) Nutrition
d) Rest periods
295. To promote stability for a patient using walkers, the nurse should
instruct the patient to place his hands at:
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296. A client is ambulating with a walker. The nurse corrects the walking
pattern of the patient if he does which of the following?
297. The nurse should adjust the walker at which level to promote safety &
stability?
a) Knee
b) Hip
c) Chest
d) Armpit
298. The nurse is caring for an immobile client. The nurse is promoting
interventions to prevent foot drop from occurring. Which of the following
is least likely a cause of foot drop?
a) Bed rest
b) Lack of exercise
c) Incorrect bed positioning
d) Bedding weight that forces the toes into plantar flexion
300. The nurse is measuring the crutch using the patient’s height. How many
inches should the nurse subtract from the patient’s height to obtain the
approximate measurement?
a) 10 inches
b) 16 inches
c) 9 inches
d) 5 inches
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d) Swing through gait
302. In going up the stairs with crutches, the nurse should instruct the
patient to:
A) Advance the stronger leg first up to the step then advance the crutches & the
weaker extremity.
B) Advance the crutches to the step then the weaker leg is advanced after. The
stronger leg then follows.
C) Advance both crutches & lift both feet & swing forward landing next to
crutches.
D) Place both crutches in the hand on the side of the affected extremity
303. The patient can be selected with a crutch gait depending on the
following apart from:
305. When using crutches, what part of the body should absorb the patient’s
weight?
A. Armpits
B. *Hands
C. Back
D. Shoulders
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A) move affected leg first
B) move unaffected leg
C) move both legs together
308. The nurse is giving the client with a left cast crutch walking instructions
using the three point gait. The client is
allowed touchdown of the affected leg. The nurse tells the client to
advance the:
A. Left leg and right crutch then right leg and left crutch
B. Crutches and then both legs simultaneously
C. Crutches and the right leg then advance the left leg
D. Crutches and the left leg then advance the right leg
309. Which layer of the skin contains blood and lymph vessels. Sweat and
sebaceous glands?
a) Epidermis
b) Dermis
c) Subcutaneous layer
d) All of the above
312. In the context of assessing risks prior to moving and handling, what
does T-I-L-E stand for?
313. In Spinal cord injury patients, what is the most common cause of
autonomic dysreflexia ( a sudden rise in blood pressure)?
a) Bowel obstruction
b) Fracture below the level of the spinal lesion
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c) Pressure sore
d) *Urinary obstruction
314. A client with a right arm cast for fractured humerus states, “I haven’t
been able to straighten the fingers on the right hand since this morning.”
What action should the nurse take?
315. How do the structures of the human body work together to provide
support and assist in movement?
a) 30 cm
b) 45 cm
c) 60 cm
d) 120 cm
a) Median nerve
b) Axillary nerve
c) Ulnar nerve
d) Radial nerve
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b) the triquetral bone
c) the pisiform bone
d) the hamate bone
320. Client had fractured hand and being cared at home requiring analgesia.
The medication was prescribed under PGD. Which of the following
statements are correct relating to this:
322. Patient has tibia fibula fracture. Which one of the following is not a
symptom of compartment syndrome
323. A Chinese woman has been admitted with fracture of wrist. When you
are helping her undress, you notice some bruises on her back and
abdomen of different ages. You want to talk to her and what is your action
324. After lumbar puncture, the patient experiences shock. What is the
etiology behind it?
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a) Increased ICP.
b) Headache.
c) Side effect of medications.
d) CSF leakage
a) Headache
b) Back pain
c) Swelling and bruising
d) Nausea and vomiting
a) normal reaction
b) client has brain stem herniation
c) spinal headache
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C. Interpreting absence of respiratory distress as an indicator of correct
positioning
D. Have an abdominal x-ray
330. During enteral feeding in adults, at what degree angle should the patient
be nursed at to reduce the risk of reflux and aspiration?
A) 25
B) 35
C) 45
D) 55
332. What is the best way to prevent who is receiving an enteral feed from
aspirating?
a) 1 million
b) 3 million
c) 5 million
d) 7 million
334. How can patients who need assistance at meal times be identified?
a) A red sticker
b) A colour serviette
c) A red tray
d) Any of the above
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336. Which of the following Is not a cause of gingival bleeding?
a) Lifestyle
b) Vitamin deficiency (Vitamin C and K)
c) Vigorous brushing of teeth
d) Intake of blood thinning medication (warfarin, asprin, and heparin)
338. A patient is recovering from surgery has been advanced from a clear
diet to a full liquid diet. The patient is looking forward to the diet change
because he has been "bored" with the clear liquid diet. The nurse should
offer which full liquid item to the patient
a) Custard
b) Black Tea
c) Gelatin
d) Ice pop
340. The nurse is preparing to change the parenteral nutrition (PN) solution
bag & tubing. The patient's central venous line is located in the right
subclavian vein. The nurse ask the client to take which essential action
during the tubing change?
341. A 27-year old adult male is admitted for treatment of Crohn's disease.
Which information is most significant when the nurse assesses his
nutritional health?
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a) Facial rubor
b) Dry skin
c) Bleeding gums
d) Anthropometric measurements
342. If the prescribed volume is taken, which of the following type of feed will
provide all protein, vitamins, minerals and trace elements to meet patient's
nutritional requirements?
a) Protein shakes/supplements
b) Energy drink
c) Mixed fat and glucose polymer solutions/powder
d) Sip feed
343. A patient has been admitted for nutritional support and started receiving
a hyperosmolar feed yesterday. He presents with diarrhea but no pyrexia.
What is likely to be cause?
a) An infection
b) Food poisoning
c) Being in hospital
d) The feed
344. Your patient has a bulky oesophageal tumor and is waiting for surgery.
When he tries to eat, food gets stuck and gives him heart burn. What is the
most likely route that will be chosen to provide him with the nutritional
support he needs?
a) Drugs that can be absorbed via this route, can be crushed and given
diluted or dissolved in 10-15 ml of water
b) Enteric-coated drugs to minimize the impact of gastric irritation
c) A cocktail of all medications mixed together, to save time and prevent fluid
over loading the patient
d) Any drugs that can be crushed
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a) Low risk of malnutrition
b) Medium risk of malnutrition
c) High risk of malnutrition
348. Mr Bond’s daughter rang and wanted to visit him. She told you of her
diarrhoea and vomiting in the last 24 hours. How will you best respond to
her about visiting Mr Bond?
a) allow her to visit and use alcohol gel before contact with him
b) visit him when she feels better
c) visit him when she is symptom free after 48 hours
d) allow her to visit only during visiting times only
351. The client reports nausea and constipation. Which of the following
would be the priority nursing action?
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352. What specifically do you need to monitor to avoid complications and
ensure optimal nutritional status in patients being enterally fed?
a) Blood glucose levels, full blood count, stoma site and bodyweight.
b) Eye sight, hearing, full blood count, lung function and stoma site.
c) Assess swallowing, patient choice, fluid balance, capillary refill time.
d) Daily urinalysis, ECG, protein levels and arterial pressure.
353. What is the best way to prevent a patient who is receiving an enteral
feed from aspirating?
354. Which check do you need to carry out before setting up an enteral feed
via a nasogastric tube?
a) That when flushed with red juice, the red juice can be seen when the tube is
aspirated.
b) That air cannot be heard rushing into the lungs by doing the whoosh test
c) That the pH of gastric aspirate is <5.5, and the measurement on the NG tube
is the same length as the time insertion.
d) That pH of gastric aspirate is >6.0, and the measurement on the NG tube is
the same length as the time insertion
355. Which check do you need to carry out every time before setting up a
routine enteral feed via a nasogastric tube?
a) That when flushed with red juice, the red juice can be seen when the tube is
aspirated
b) That air cannot be heard rushing into the lungs by doing the ‘whoosh test’.
c) That the pH of gastric aspirate is <4, and the measurement on the NG tube is
the same length as the time insertion
d) abdominal x-ray
356. Your patient has a bulky oesophageal tumour and is waiting for surgery.
When he tries to eat, food gets stuck and gives him heartburn. What is the
most likely route that will be chosen to provide him with the nutritional
support he needs?
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d) Continue oral food
a) Blood glucose levels, full blood count, stoma site and bodyweight
b) Eye sight, hearing, full blood count, lung function and stoma site
c) Assess swallowing, patient choice, fluid balance, capillary refill time
d) Daily urinalysis, ECG, protein levels and arterial pressure
360. A patient has been admitted for nutritional support and started receiving
a hyperosmolar feed yesterday. He presents with diarrhoea but has no
pyrexia. What is likely to be the cause?
a) The feed
b) An infection
c) Food poisoning
d) Being in hospital
361. Adam, 46 years old is of Jewish descent. As his nurse, how will you plan
his dietary needs?
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362. An adult woman asks for the best contraception in view of her holiday
travel to a diarrhoea prone areas. She is currently taking oral
contraceptives. What advice will you give her?
364. The nurse is preparing to change the parenteral nutrition (PN) solution
bag &tubing. The patient’s central venous line is located in the right
subclavian vein. The nurse asks the client to take which essential action
during the tubing change?
A. Breathe normally
B. Turn the head to the right
C. Exhale slowly & evenly
D. Take a deep breath, hold it ,& bear down
365. Obesity is one of the main problem. what might cause this?
a) supermarket
b) unequality
c) low economic class
a) planning
b) *assessment
c) implementation
d) evaluation
A. colitis
B. intestinal obstruction
C. food allergy
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D. food poisoning
368. A patient is to be subjected for surgery but the patient’s BMI is low.
Where will you refer the patient?
369. How can patients who need assistance at meal times be identified?
A. A red sticker
B. A colour serviette
C. A red tray
D. Any of the above
371. Before a gastric surgery, a nurse identifies that the patients BMI is too
low. Who she should contact to improve the patients’ health before
surgery
a) Gastro enterologist
b) Dietitian
c) Family doc of patient
d) Physio
a) Colonoscopy
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b) Gastroscopy
c) Cystoscopy
d) Arthroscopy
374. A relative of the patient was experiencing vomiting and diarrhoea and
wished to visit her mother who was admitted. As a nurse, what will you
advise to the patient's relative?
375. Nurse caring a confused client not taking fluids, staff on previous shift
tried to make him drink but were unsuccessful. Now it is the visitors
time,wife is waiting outside What to do?
a) Ask the wife to give him fluid, and enquire about his fluid preferences and
usual drinking time
b) Tell her to wait and you need some time to make him drink
c) Inform doctor to start iv fluids to prevent dehydration
376. As a nurse you are responsible for looking after patient’s nutritional
needs and to maintain good weight during hospitalization. How would you
achieve this?
377. A nurse is not allowing the client to go to bed without finishing her meal.
What is your action as a RN?
a) Do nothing as client has to finish her meal which is important for her health
b) Challenge the situation immediately as this is related to dignity of the patient
and raise your concern
c) Do nothing as patient is not under your care
d) Wait until the situation is over and speak to the client on what she wants to do
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B) Call the dietary department and ask for a new meal tray
C) Replace the whole milk with fat free milk
D) Ask the dietary department to replace the roast beef with pork
380. When doing your drug round at midday, you have noticed one of your
patient coughing more frequently whilst being assisted by a nursing
student at mealtime. What is your initial action at this situation?
a) tell the student to feed the patient slowly to help stop coughing
b) ask the student to completely stop feeding
c) ask student to allow patient some sips of water to stop coughing
d) ask student to stop feeding and assess patients swallowing
381. How many cups of fluid do we need every day to keep us well hydrated?
a) 1 to 2
b) 2 to 4
c) 4 to 6
d) 6 to 8
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
a) Potassium
b) Chloride
c) Sodium
d) Magnesium
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a) The fluid input has exceeded the output
b) The fluid balance chart can be stopped as "positive" means "good"
c) The doctor may consider increasing the IV drip rate
d) The fluid output has exceeded the input
385. Mr. James, 72 years old, is a registered blind admitted on your ward due
to dehydration. He is encouraged to drink and eat to recover. How will you
best manage this plan of care?
387. Nurse caring a confused client not taking fluids, staff on previous shift
tried to make him drink but were unsuccessful. Now it is the visitors time,
wife is waiting outside What to do?
a) Ask the wife to give him fluid, and enquire about his fluid preferences and
usual drinking time
b) Tell her to wait and you need some time to make him drink
c) Inform doctor to start iv fluids to prevent dehydration
388. If your patient is having positive balance. How will you find out
dehydration is balanced?
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390. Perdue categorizes constipation as primary, secondary or iatrogenic.
What could be some of the causes of iatrogenic constipation?
A. Potassium
B. Chloride
C. Sodium
D. Magnesium
a) Bounding pulse
b) Hypertension
c) Jugular distension
d) Hypotension
A) Review the patients notes and charts, to obtain the patients history.
B) Review the results of routine investigations.
C) Observe the patients breathing for ease and comfort, rate and pattern.
D) Perform a systematic examination and ask the relatives for the patient’s
history.
395. When using nasal cannulae, the maximum oxygen flow rate that should
be used is 6 litres/min. Why?
A) Oxygen is a very hot gas so if humidification isnt used, the oxygen will burn
the respiratory tract and cause considerable pain for the patient when they
breathe.
B) Oxygen is a dry gas which can cause evaporation of water from the
respiratory tract and lead to thickened mucus in the airways, reduction of the
movement of cilia and increased susceptibility to respiratory infection.
C) Humidification cleans the oxygen as it is administered to ensure it is free from
any aerobic pathogens before it is inhaled by the patient.
398. A COPD patient is in home care. When you visit the patient, he is
dyspnoeic, anxious and frightened. He is already on 2 lit oxygen with nasal
cannula.What will be your action
399. A COPD patient is about to be discharged from the hospital. What is the
best health teaching to provide this patient?
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a) 2-4
b) 4-6
c) 6-8
d) 8-10
A) Retching, vomiting
B) Bradycardia
C) Obstruction
D) Nasal injury
402. Your patient has bronchitis and has difficulty in clearing his chest. What
position would help to maximize the drainage of secretions?
403. What do you need to consider when helping a patient with shortness of
breath sit out in a chair?
A. They should not sit out on a chair; lying flat is the only position for someone
with shortness of breath so that there are no negative effects of gravity putting
pressure in lungs
B. Sitting in a reclining position with legs elevated to reduce the use of
postural muscle oxygen requirements, increasing lung volumes and
optimizing perfusion for the best V/Q ratio. The patient should also be kept in
an environment that is quiet so they don’t expend any unnecessary energy
C. The patient needs to be able to sit in a forward leaning position supported
by pillows. They may also need access to a nebulizer and humidified oxygen
so they must be in a position where this is accessible without being a risk to
others.
D. There are two possible positions, either sitting upright or side lying. Which
is used and is determined by the age of the patient. It is also important to
remember that they will always need a nebulizer and oxygen and the air
temperature must be below20 degree Celsius
A) Review the patient's notes and charts, to obtain the patient's history.
B) Review the results of routine investigations.
C) Observe the patient's breathing for ease and comfort, rate and pattern.
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D) Perform a systematic examination and ask the relatives for the patient's
history
406. You are caring for a 17 year old woman who has been admitted with
acute exacerbation of asthma. Her peak flow readings are deteriorating
and she is becoming wheezy. What would you do?
A. Sit her upright, listen to her chest and refer to the chest physiotherapist.
B. Suggest that the patient takes her Ventolin inhaler and continue to monitor
the patient.
C. Undertake a full set of observations to include oxygen saturations and
respiratory rate. Administer humidified oxygen, bronchodilators,
corticosteroids and antimicrobial therapy as prescribed.
D. Reassure the patient: you know from reading her notes that stress and
anxiety often trigger her asthma.
409. As a nurse, what health teachings will you give to a COPD patient?
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410. What is the most accurate method of calculating a respiratory rate?
A) Asthma
B) Pulmonary oedema
C) Drug overdose
D) Granulomatous lung disease
413. You are caring for a patient with a history of COAD who is requiring 70%
humidified oxygen via a facemask. You are monitoring his response to
therapy by observing his colour, degree of respiratory distress and
respiratory rate. The patient's oxygen saturations have been between 95%
and 98%. In addition, the doctor has been taking arterial blood gases.
What is the reason for this?
414. A client breathes shallowly and looks upward when listening to the
nurse. Which sensory mode should the nurse plan to use with this client?
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a) Touch
b) Auditory
c) Kinesthetic
d) Visual
a) The diaphragm
b) The lungs
c) The intercostal
d) All of the above
A) Oxygen therapy
B) Breathing exercise
C) Cessation of smoking
D) coughing exercise
417. While assisting a client from bed to chair, the nurse observes that the
client looks pale and is beginning to perspire heavily. The nurse would
then do which of the following activities as a reassessment?
a) 16%
b) 21%
c) 26%
d) 31%
419. Which of the following oxygen masks is able to deliver between 60-90%
of oxygen when delivered at a flow rate of 10 – 15L/min?
420. A client diagnosed of cancer visits the OPD and after consulting the
doctor breaks down in the corridor and begins to cry. What would the
nurses best action?
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a) Ignore the client and let her cry in the hallway
b) Inform the client about the preparing to come forth next appointment for
further discussion on the treatment planned
c) Take her to a room and try to understand her worries and do the needful
and assist her with further information if required
d) Explain her about the list of cancer treatments to survive
421. Your patient has bronchitis and has difficulty in clearing his chest. What
position would help to maximize the drainage of secretions?
a) Lying on his side with the area to be drained uppermost after the patient has
had humidified air
b) Lying flat on his back while using a nebulizer
c) Sitting up leaning on pillows and inhaling humidified oxygen
d) Standing up in fresh air taking deep breaths
A. the movement of air into and out of the lungs to continually refresh the
gases there, commonly called ‘breathing’
B. movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood, and carbon dioxide
from the lungs into the blood, commonly called ‘gaseous exchange’
C. movement of oxygen from blood to the cells, and of carbon dioxide from
the cells to the blood
D. the transport of oxygen from the outside air to the cells within tissues, and
the transport of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction.
a) The diaphragm
b) The lungs
c) the intercostal
d) All of the above
a) 2-4
b) 4-6
c) 6–8
d) 8 – 10
a) Airway obstruction
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b) Retching and vomiting
c) Bradycardia
d) Tachycardia
427. You are caring for a 17 year old woman who has been admitted with
acute exacerbation of asthma. Her peak flow readings are deteriorating
and she is becoming wheezy. What would you do?
a) Sit her upright, listen to her chest and refer to the chest physiotherapist.
b) Suggest that the patient takes her Ventolin inhaler and continue to monitor
the patient.
c) Undertake a full set of observations to include oxygen saturations and
respiratory rate. Administer humidified oxygen, bronchodilators,
corticosteroids and antimicrobial therapy as prescribed.
d) Reassure the patient: you know from reading her notes that stress and
anxiety often trigger her asthma.
a) Oxygen is a very hot gas so if humidification isn’t used, the oxygen will burn
the respiratory tract and cause considerable pain for the patient when they
breathe.
b) Oxygen is a dry gas which can cause evaporation of water from the
respiratory tract and lead to thickened mucus in the airways, reduction of the
movement of cilia and increased susceptibility to respiratory infection.
c) Humidification cleans the oxygen as it is administered to ensure it is free from
any aerobic pathogens before it is inhaled by the patient.
a) Review the patient’s notes and charts, to obtain the patient’s history.
b) Review the results of routine investigations.
c) Observe the patient’s breathing for ease and comfort, rate and pattern.
d) Perform a systematic examination and ask the relatives for the patient’s
history.
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431. Position to make breathing effective?
a) left lateral
b) Supine
c) Right Lateral
d) High sidelying
a) Airway obstruction
b) Retching and vomiting
c) Bradycardia
d) Tachycardia
435. When do you gain consent from a patient and consider it valid?
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C) Communicate their decision by talking, using sign language or by any other
means
D) All the above
438. A patient has been assessed as lacking capacity to make their own
decisions, what government legislation or act should be referred to:
439. A patient puts out his arm so that you can take his blood pressure. What
type of consent is this?
a) Verbal
b) Written
c) Implied
d) None of the above, consent is not required.
a) 2-4 hours
b) 6-12 hours
c) 12-14 hours
442. Why is it important that patients are effectively fasted prior to surgery?
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a) reduce the risk of vomiting.
b) reduce the risk of reflux and inhalation of gastric contents.
c) prevent vomiting and chest infections.
d) prevent the patient gagging
444. What are the principles of gaining informed consent prior to a planned
surgery?
445. What do you have to consider if you are obtaining a consent from the
patient?
a) Understanding
b) Capacity
c) Intellect
d) Patient’s condition
447. How soon after surgery is the patient expected to pass urine?
A) 1-2 hours
B) 2-4 hours
C) 4-6 hours
D) 6-8 hours
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A) pain relief
B) blood loss
C) airway patency
449. patient just had just undergone lumbar laminectomy, what is the best
nursing intervention?
450. A patient in your care is about to go for a liver biopsy. What are the most
likely potential complications related to this procedure?
451. Which of the following is a severe complication during 24 hrs post liver
biopsy?
453. A nurse assists the physician in performing liver biopsy. After the
biopsy the nurse places the patient in which position?
a) Supine
b) Prone
c) Left-side lying
d) Right side lying
454. What position should you prepare the patient in pre-op for abdominal
Paracentesis?
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A) Supine
B) Supine with head of bed elevated to 40-50cm
C) Prone
D) Side-lying
457. Which of the following methods of wound closure is most suitable for a
good cosmetic result following surgery?
A) Skin clips
B) Tissue adhesive
C) Adhesive skin closure strips
D) Interrupted suture
458. You are looking after a postoperative patient and when carrying out their
observations, you discover that they are tachycardic and anxious, with an
increased respiratory rate. What could be happening? What would you do?
459. Who should mark the skin with an indelible pen ahead of surgery?
A) The nurse should mark the skin in consultation with the patient
B) A senior nurse should be asked to mark the patient's skin
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C) The surgeon should mark the skin
D) It is best not to mark the patient's skin for fear of distressing the patient.
A) Stroke
B) Cardiac arrest
C) Compartment syndrome
D) There are no drawbacks to the Lloyd Davies position
a) A wound dressing change for short term pain relief or the removal of a chest
drain for reduction of anxiety.
b) Turning a patient who has bowel obstruction because there is an expectation
that they may have pain from pathological fractures
c) For pain relief during the insertion of a chest drain for the treatment of a
pneumothorax.
d) For pain relief during a wound dressing for a patient who has had radical head
and neck cancer that involved the jaw.
462. An adult has been medicated for her surgery. The operating room (OR)
nurse, when going through the client's chart, realizes that the consent
form has not been signed. Which of the following is the best action for the
nurse to take?
463. A patient has just returned from theatre following surgery on their left
arm. They have a PCA infusion connected and from the admission, you
remember that they have poor dexterity with their right hand. They are
currently pain free. What actions would you take?
A) Educate the patient's family to push the button when the patient asks for it.
Encourage them to tell the nursing staff when they leave the ward so that staff
can take over.
B) Routinely offer the patient a bolus and document this clearly.
C) Contact the pain team/anaesthetist to discuss the situation and suggest that
the means of delivery are changed.
D) The patient has paracetamol q.d.s. written up, so this should be adequate
pain relief
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464. The night after an exploratory laparotomy, a patient who has a
nasogastric tube attached to low suction reports nausea. A nurse should
take which of the following actions first?
a) Be sure the patient understands the project before signing the consent form
b) Read the consent form to the patient & give him or her an opportunity to
ask questions
c) Refuse to be the one to obtain the patient’s consent
d) Give the form to the patient & tell him or her to read it carefully before
signing it.
466. Now the medical team encourages early ambulation in the post-
operative period. which complication is least prevented by this?
A) Tissue wasting
B) Thrombophlebitis
C) Wound infection
D) Pneumonia
467. A patient doesn’t sign the consent for mastectomy. But bystanders
strongly feel that she needs surgery.
468. You are the nurse assigned in recovery room or post anaesthetic care
unit. The main priority of care in such area is:
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469. Accurate postoperative observations are key to assessing a patient's
deterioration or recovery. The Modified Early Warning Score (MEWS) is a
scoring system that supports that aim. What is the primary purpose of
MEWS?
.
470. if a client is experiencing hypotension post operatively, the head is not
tilted in which of the following surgeries
a) Chest surgery
b) Abdominal surgery
c) Gynaecological surgery
d) Lower limb surgery
473. Famous actress has had plastic surgery. The media contacts the nurse
on the unit and asks for information about the surgery. The nurse knows:
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475. Early ambulation prevents all complications except:
477. Barbara, a 75-year old patient from a nursing home was admitted on
your ward because of fractured neck of femur after a trip. She will require
an open-reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) procedure to correct the
injury. Which of the following statements will help her understand the
procedure?
478. Barbara was screaming in pain later in the day despite the PCA in-situ.
You refer back to your nurse in charge for a stronger pain killer. She
refused to call the doctor because her pain relief was reassessed earlier.
What will you do next?
A) Body language
B) tone of voice
C) appearance
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D) eye contact
a) I notice you are wearing a new dress and you have washed your hair"
b) You did not attend group today. Can we talk about that?
c) I'll sit with you until it is time for your family session
d) I'm happy that you are now taking your medications. They will really help
483. The nursing staff communicates that the new manager has a focus on
the "bottom line," and little concern for the quality of care. What is likely
true of this nurse manager?
a) Your counselling session is in 30 minutes. I’ll stay with you until then."
b) You mentioned your relationship with your father. Let's discuss that further
c) I'm having a difficult time understanding what you mean
d) Describe one of the best things that happened to you this week
485. The nurse asks a newly admitted client. "What can we 4.do to help
you?" What is the purpose of this therapeutic communication technique?
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a) To explore a subject, idea, experience, or relationship
b) To communicate that the nurse is listening to the conversation
c) To reframe the client's thoughts about mental health treatment
d) To put the client at ease
486. Which therapeutic communication technique should the nurse use when
communicating with a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations?
a) I wouldn't worry about these voices,. The medication will make them
disappear
b) Why not turn up the radio so that the voices are muted
c) My sister has the same diagnosis as you and she also hears voices
d) I understand that the voices seem real to you, but i do not hear any voices
489. Which behaviours will encourage a patient to talk about their concerns?
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490. Which of the following statements by a nurse would indicate an
understanding of intrapersonal communications?
492. What are the principles of communicating with a patient with delirium?
a) Use short statements & closed questions in a well –lit, quiet , familiar
environment
b) Use short statements & open questions in a well lit, quiet, familiar
environment
c) Write down all questions for the patient to refer back to
d) Communicate only through the family using short statements & closed
questions
494. Patient has just been told by the physician that she has stage III uterine
cancer. The patient says to the nurse, “I don’t know what to do. How do I
tell my husband?” and begins to cry. Which of the following responses by
the nurse is the MOST therapeutic?
A. “It seems to be that this is a lot to handle. I’ll stay here with you.”
B. “How do you think would be best to tell your husband?”
C. “I think this will all be easier to deal with than you think.”
D. “Why do you think this is happening to you?”
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495. Which therapeutic communication technique should the nurse use when
communicating with a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations?
A. “My sister has the same diagnosis as you and she also hears voices.”
B. “I understand that the voices seem real to you, but I do not hear any voices.”
C. “Why not turn up the radio so that the voices are muted.”
D. “I wouldn’t worry about these voices. The medication will make them disappear.”
496. When communicating with someone who isn't a native English speaker,
which of the following is NOT advisable?
a) Using a translator
b) Use short, precise sentences
c) Relying on their family or friends to help explain what you mean
d) Write things down
A. "I think it would be great if you talked about that problem during our next
group session."
B. "Would you like me to accompany you to your electroconvulsive therapy
treatment?"
C. "I notice that you are offering help to other peers in the milieu."
D. "After discharge, would you like to meet me for lunch to review your
outpatient progress?"
498. Mr Khan, is visiting his son in London when he was admitted in accident
and emergency due to abdominal pain. Mr. Khan is from Pakistan and
does not speak the English language. As his nurse, what is your best
action:
499. When communicating with someone who isn't a native English speaker,
which of the following is advisable?
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500. When communicating with a client who speaks a different language,
which best practice should the nurse implement?
a) Listening, clarifying the concerns and feelings of the patient using open
questions.
b) Listening, clarifying the physical needs of the patient using closed questions
c) Listening, clarifying the physical needs of the patient using open questions
d) Listening, reflecting back the patient's concerns and providing a solution.
A. “You did not attend group today. Can we talk about that?”
B. “I’ll sit with you until it is time for your family session.”
C. “I notice you are wearing a new dress and you have washed your hair.”
D. “I’m happy that you are now taking your medications. They will really help.”
503. When a patient arrives to the hospital who speaks a different language.
Who is responsible for arranging an interpreter?
a) Doctor
b) Management
c) Registered Nurse
504. Communication is not the message that was intended but rather the
message that was received. The statement that best helps explain this is
a) Clean communication can ensure the client will receive the message intended
b) Sincerity in communication is the responsibility of the sender and the receiver
c) Attention to personal space can minimize misinterpretation of communication
d) Contextual factors, such as attitudes, values, beliefs, and self-concept,
influence communication
a) Dress
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b) Facial expression
c) Posture
d) Tone
506. When communicating with someone who isn't a native English speaker,
which of the following is NOT advisable?
a) Using a translator
b) Use short, precise sentences
c) Relying on their family or friends to help explain what you mean
d) Write things down
a) 90%
b) 50%
c) 23%
d) 7%
a) Cultural differences
b) Unfamiliar accents
c) Overly technical language and terminology
d) Hearing problems
510. A nurse has been told that a client's communications are tangential. The
nurse would expect that the client’s verbal responses to questions would
be:
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a) Dress
b) Facial expression
c) Posture
d) Tone
513. Which behaviours will encourage a patient to talk about their concerns?
514. What law should be taken into consideration when a patient has hearing
difficulties and would need hearing aids?
A) Intelligent Kindness
B) Smart confidence
C) Creative commitment
D) Gifted courage
518. Which behaviors will encourage a patient to talk about their concerns?
A. "You did not attend group today. Can we talk about that?"
B. "I'll sit with you until it is time for your family session."
C. "I notice you are wearing a new dress and you have washed your hair."
D. "I'm happy that you are now taking your medications. They will really help."
521. If you were explaining anxiety to a patient, what would be the main
points to include?
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as imagining the worse ( catastrophizing) , & cognitive ( thinking) – such as needing
to urinate.
522. What are the principles of communicating with a patient with delirium?
A. Use short statements & closed questions in a well –lit, quiet , familiar
environment
B. Use short statements & open questions in a well lit, quiet , familiar
environment
C. Write down all questions for the patient to refer back to
D. Communicate only through the family using short statements & closed
questions
524. The nurse asks a newly admitted client, "What can we do to help you?"
What is the purpose of this therapeutic communication technique?
A. Encouraging comparison
B. Exploring
C. Formulating a plan of action
D. Making observations
526. The nurse asks a newly admitted client, “What can we do to help you?”
What is the purpose of this therapeutic communication technique?
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d) To communicate that the nurse is listening to the conversation
A. “Describe one of the best things that happened to you this week.”
B. “I’m having a difficult time understanding what you mean.”
C. “Your counseling session is in 30 minutes. I’ll stay with you until then.”
D. “You mentioned your relationship with your father. Let’s discuss that
further.”
A. “I think it would be great if you talked about that problem during our next group
session.”
B. “Would you like me to accompany you to your electroconvulsive therapy
treatment?”
C. “I notice that you are offering help to other peers in the milieu.”
D. “After discharge, would you like to meet me for lunch to review your outpatient
progress?”
530. A new mother is admitted to the acute psychiatric unit with severe
postpartum depression. She is tearful and states, “I don’t know why this
happened to me! I was so excited for my baby to come, but now I don’t
know!” Which of the following responses by the nurse is MOST
therapeutic?
A. “Having a new baby is stressful, and the tiredness and different hormone levels
don’t help. It happens to many new mothers and is very treatable.”
B. “Maybe you weren’t ready for a child after all.”
C. “What happened once you brought the baby home? Did you feel nervous?”
D. “Has your husband been helping you with the housework at all?”
531. A patient with antisocial personality disorder enters the private meeting
room of a nursing unit as a nurse is meeting with a different patient. Which
of the following statements by the nurse is BEST?
A. “I’m sorry, but HIPPA says that you can’t be here. Do you mind leaving?”
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B. “You may sit with us as long as you are quiet.”
C. “I need you to leave us alone.”
D. “Please leave and I will speak with you when I am done.”
532. The wife of a client with PTSD (post traumatic stress disorder)
communicates to the nurse that she is having trouble dealing with her
husband’s condition at home. Which of the following suggestions made by
the nurse is CORRECT?
A. Sharing the information with all members of the health care team.
B. Limiting discussion about clients to the group room and hallways.
C. Summarizing the information the client provides during assessments and
documenting this summary in the chart.
D. Explaining the exact limits of confidentiality in the exchanges between the
client and the nurse.
534. When caring for clients with psychiatric diagnoses, the nurse recalls
that the purpose of psychiatric diagnoses or psychiatric labeling is to:
535. A client breathes shallowly and looks upward when listening to the
nurse. Which sensory mode should the nurse plan to use with this client?
a) Auditory
b) Kinesthetic
c) Touch
d) Visual
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a) I'm sorry, your mother died.
b) I'm sorry, your mother gone to heaven
c) I'm sorry, your mother is no longer with us.
d) I'm sorry, your mother passed away.
a) Listening, clarifying the concerns and feelings of the patient using open
questions.
b) Listening, clarifying the physical needs of the patient using closed questions.
c) Listening, clarifying the physical needs of the patient using open questions.
d) Listening, reflecting back the patient’s concerns and providing a solution.
539. Which therapeutic communication technique should the nurse use when
communicating with a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations?
A. "My sister has the same diagnosis as you and she also hears voices."
B. "I understand that the voices seem real to you, but I do not hear any voices."
C. "Why not turn up the radio so that the voices are muted."
D. "I wouldn't worry about these voices. The medication will make them
disappear."
540. Which behaviors will encourage a patient to talk about their concerns?
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on the kids."
Nurse: "I notice that you are smiling as you talk about this physical
violence."
a) Encouraging comparison
b) Exploring
c) Formulating a plan of action
d) Making observations
542. During which part of the client interview would it be best for the nurse to
ask, "What's the weather forecast for today?"
A.Introduction
B. Body
C. Closing
D. Orientation
543. The nurse is leading an in service about management issues. The nurse
would intervene if another nurse made which of the following statements?
a) “It is my responsibility to ensure that the consent form has been signed and
attached to the patient’s chart prior to surgery.”
b) “It is my responsibility to witness the signature of the client before surgery is
performed.”
c) “It is my responsibility to answer questions that the patient may have prior to
surgery.”
d) “It is my responsibility to provide detailed description of the surgery and ask
the patient to sign the consent form.”
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546. when breaking bad news over phone which of the following statement is
appropriate
547. The nurse should avoid asking the client which of the following leading
questions during a client interview.
549. A client comes to the local clinic complaining that sometimes his heart
pounds and he has trouble sleeping. The physical exam is normal. The
nurse learns that the client has recently started a new job with expanded
responsibilities and is worried about succeeding. Which of the following
responses by the nurse is BEST?
551. Mrs X is posted for CT scan. Patient is afraid cancer will reveal during
her scan. She asks “why is this test”. What will be your response as a
nurse?
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A. Understand her feelings and tell the patient that it is a normal procedure.
B. Tell her that you will arrange a meeting with doctor after the procedure.
C. Give a health education on cancer prevention
D. Ignore her question and take her for the procedure.
A. Pain
B. Bleeding
C. Vomiting
D. Diarrhoea
553. A young woman gets admitted with abdominal pain & vaginal bleeding.
Nurse should consider an ectopic pregnancy. Which among the following
is not a symptom of ectopic pregnancy?
a) Vaginal bleeding
b) Positive pregnancy test
c) Shoulder tip pain
d) Protein excretion exceeds 2 g/day
555. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy
a) Alcohol abuse
b) Smoking
c) Tubal or pelvic surgery
d) previous ectopic pregnancy
a) Floppy in appearance
b) Apnoea
c) Crying
557. An 18 year old 26 week pregnant woman who uses illicit drugs
frequently, the factors in risk for which one of the following:
a) Spina bifida
b) Meconium aspiration
c) Pneumonia
d) Teratogenicity
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558. Common minor disorder in pregnancy?
a) abdominal pain
b) heart burn
c) headache
559. An unmarried young female admitted with ectopic pregnancy with her
friend to hospital with complaints of abdominal pain. Her friend assisted a
procedure and became aware of her pregnancy and when the family
arrives to hospital, she reveals the truth. The family reacts negatively.
What could the nurse have done to protect the confidentiality of the patient
information?
a. should tell the family that they don’t have any rights to know the patient
information
b. that the friend was mistaken and the doctor will confirm the patient’s
condition
c. should insist friend on confidentiality
d. should have asked another staff nurse to be a chaperone while assisting a
procedure
560. Jenny was admitted to your ward with severe bleeding after 48 hours
following her labour. What stage of post partum haemorrhage is she
experiencing?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Emergency
561. A young mother who delivered 48hrs ago comes back to the emergency
department with post partum haemorrhage. What type of PPH is it?
562. A new mother is admitted to the acute psychiatric unit with severe
postpartum depression. She is tearful and states, "I don't know why this
happened to me I was so excited for my baby to come, but now I don't
know!" Which of the following responses by the nurse is MOST therapeutic?
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563. In a G.P clinic when you assessing a pregnant lady you observe some
bruises on her hand. When you asked her about this she remains silent.
What is your action?
565. Which of the major theories of aging suggest that older adults may decelerate
the aging process?
a) Disengagement theory
b) Activity theory
c) Immunology theory
d) Genetic theory
a) Accepting
b) Norming
c) Storming
d) Forming
a) Forming
b) Storming
c) Norming
d) Analysing
a) Martha Rogers
b) Dorothea Orem
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c) Florence Nightingale
d) Cister Callista Roy
569. The contingency theory of management moves the manager away from
which of the following approaches?
a) No perfect solution
b) One size fits all
c) Interaction of the system with the environment
d) a method of combination of methods that will be most effective in a given
situation.
a) Case management
b) Primary nursing
c) Differentiated practice
d) Functional method
573. Barrier Nursing for C.diff patient what should you not do?
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574. You are caring for a patient in isolation with suspected Clostridium
difficile. What are the essential key actions to prevent the spread of
infection?
a) Regular hand hygiene and the promotion of the infection prevention link nurse
role.
b) Encourage the doctors to wear gloves and aprons, to be bare below the elbow
and to wash hands with alcohol hand rub. Ask for cleaning to be increased
with soap-based products.
c) seek the infection prevention team to review the patient’s medication chart
and provide regular teaching sessions on the 5 moments of hand hygiene.
Provide the patient and family with adequate information.
d) Review antimicrobials daily, wash hands with soap and water before and after
each contact with the patient, ask for enhanced cleaning with chlorine-based
products and use gloves and aprons when disposing of body fluids.
575. When treating patients with clostridium difficile, how should you clean
your hands?
576. What infection control steps should not be taken in a patient with
diarrhoea caused by Clostridium Difficile?
577. Patient with clostridium deficile has stools with blood and mucus. due
to which condition?
a) Ulcerative colitis
b) Chrons disease
c) Inflammatory bowel disease
578. For which of the following modes of transmission is good hand hygiene
a key preventative measure?
a) Airborne
b) Direct & indirect contact
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c) Droplet
d) *All of the above
579. If you were asked to take ‘standard precautions’ what would you expect to
be doing?
A. Wearing gloves, aprons and mask when caring for someone in protective
isolation
B. Taking precautions when handling blood and ‘high risk’ body fluids so as not
to pass on any infection to the patient
C. Using appropriate hand hygiene, wearing gloves and aprons where
necessary, disposing of used sharp instruments safely and providing care in a
suitably clean environment to protect yourself and the patients
D. Asking relatives to wash their hands when visiting patients in the clinical
setting
580. Except which procedure must all individuals providing nursing care
must be competent at?
a) Hand hygiene
b) Use of protective equipment
c) Disposal of waste
d) Aseptic technique
583. When disposing of waste, what colour bag should be used to dispose of
offensive/ hygiene waste?
a) Orange
b) Yellow
c) Yellow and black stripe
d) Black
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584. Before giving direct care to the patient, u should
a) Leprosy
b) Pneumocystis jirovecii
c) Norovirus
d) Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
e) None of the above
586. For which of the following modes of transmission is good hand hygiene
a key preventative measure?
A. Airborne
B. Direct contact
C. Indirect contact
D. All of the above
a) Stoma or catheter bags - The Management of Waste from health, social and
personal care -RCN
b) Unused non-cytotoxic/cytostatic medicines in original packaging
c) Used sharps from treatment using cytotoxic or cytostatic medicines
d) Empty medicine bottles
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c) Immediately after contact with body fluids, mucous membranes and non-intact
skin
590. You are told a patient is in "source isolation". What would you do &
why?
591. Under the Yellow Card Scheme you must report the following: ( Select
x 2 correct answers)
593. What would make you suspect that a patient in your care had a urinary
tract infection?
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595. A client was diagnosed to have infection. What is not a sign or symptom
of
infection?
596. Mrs. Smith is receiving blood transfusion after a total hip replacement
operation. After 15 minutes, you went back to check her vital signs and
she complained of high temperature and loin pain. This may indicate:
a) Renal Colic
b) Urine Infection
c) Common adverse reaction
d) Serious adverse reaction
a) 4.6%
b) *6.4%
c) 14%
d) 16%
600. There has been an outbreak of the Norovirus in your clinical area.
Majority of your staff have rang in sick. Which of the following is
incorrect?
a.) Do not allow visitors to come in until after 48h of the last episode
b.) Tally the episodes of diarrhoea and vomiting
c.) Staff who has the virus can only report to work 48h after last episode
d.) Ask one of the staff who is off-sick to do an afternoon shift on same day
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601. Infected linen should be placed in:
A. The client has a hard, raised, red lesion on his right hand.
B. A weight of 185 lbs. is recorded in the chart
C. The client reported an infected toe
D. The client's blood pressure is 124/70. It was 118/68 yesterday.
606. One of your patients in bay 1 having episodes of vomiting in the last 2
days now. The Norovirus alert has been enforced. The other patients look
concerned that he may spread infection. What is your next action in the
situation?
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c) Offer the patient a lot of drinks to rehydrated
d) Tell the other patients that vomiting will not cause infection to others
608. Jenny, a nursing assistant working with you in an Elderly Care Ward is
showing signs of norovirus infection. Which of the following will you ask
her to do next?
A. Go home and avoid direct contact with other people and preparing food for others
until at least 48 hours after her symptoms have disappeared
B. Disinfect any surfaces or objects that could be contaminated with the virus
C. Flush away any infected faeces or vomit in the toilet and clean the surrounding
toilet area
D. Avoid eating raw oysters
a) Flushed face
b) Headache and dizziness
c) Tachycardia and fall in blood pressure
d) Peripheral oedema
611. What are the signs and symptoms of shock during early stage (stage 1-
3)?
a) hypoxemia
b) tachycardia and hyperventilation
c) hypotension
d) acidosis
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c) hypertension and hyperthermia
d) cold and clammy skin
a) The patient will have a low blood pressure (hypotensive) and will have a fast
heart rate (tachycardia) usually associated with skin and mucosal changes.
b) The patient will have a high blood pressure (hypertensive) and will have a fast
heart rate (tachycardia).
c) The patient will quickly find breathing very difficult because of compromise to
their airway or circulation. This is accompanied by skin and mucosal changes
d) The patient will experience a sense of impending doom, hyperventilate and be
itchy all over
614. After lumbar puncture, the patient experienced shock. What is the
etiology behind it?
a) Increased ICP
b) Headache
c) Side effect of medications
d) CSF leakage
a) The patient will have a low blood pressure (hypotensive) & will have a fast
heart rate (tachycardia) usually associated with skin & mucosal changes
b) The patient will have a high blood pressure (hypertensive) & will have a fast
heart rate (tachycardia)
c) The patient will quickly find breathing very difficult because of compromise to
their airway or circulation. This is accompanied by skin & mucosal changes
d) The patient will experience a sense of impending doom, hyperventilate & be
itchy all over
616. Leonor, 72 years old patient is being treated with antibiotics for her UTI.
After three days of taking them, she developed diarrhoea with blood
stains. What is the most possible reason for this?
617. The following are signs & symptoms of hypovolemic shock, except:
A. Confusion
B. Rapid heart rate
C. Strong pulse
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D. Decrease Blood Pressure
618. While giving an IV infusion your patient develops speed shock. What is
not a sign and symptom of this?
A. Circulatory collapse
B. Peripheral oedema
C. Facial flushing
D. Headache
622. An Eight year old girl with learning disabilities is admitted for a minor
surgery, she is very restless and agitated and wants her mother to stay
with her, what will you do?
A. Children under the age of 12 who are believed to have enough intelligence,
competence and understanding to fully appreciate what's involved in their
treatment.
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*B. Children under the age of 16 who are believed to have enough
intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what's
involved in their treatment
C. Children under the age of 18 who are believed not to have enough
intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what's
involved in their treatment.
D. Children under the lawful age of consent who are believed not to have
enough intelligence, competence and understanding to
624. When communicating with children, what most important factor should
the nurse take into consideration?
a) Developmental level
b) Physical development
c) Nonverbal cues
d) Parental involvement
626. Which of the following is an average heart rate of a 1-2 year old child?
a) 110-120 bpm
b) 60-100 bpm
c) 140-160 bpm
d) 80-120 bpm
627. You are assisting a doctor who is trying to assess and collect
information from a child who does not seem to understand all that the
doctor is telling and is restless. What will be your best response?
628. Recognition of the unwell child is crucial. The following are all signs and
symptoms of respiratory distress in children EXCEPT:
a) Lying supine
b) Nasal flaring
c) Intercostal and sternal recession
d) adopting an upright position
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629. As you visit your patient during rounds, you notice a thin child who is
shy and not mingling with the group who seemed to be visitors of the
patient. You offered him food but his mother told you not to mind him as
he is not eating much while all of them are eating during that time. As a
nurse, what will you do?
630. There is a child you are taking care of at home who has a history of
anaphylactic shock from certain foods, the nurse is feeding him lunch, he
looks suddenly confused, breathless and acting different, the nurse has
access to emergency drugs access and the mobile phone, what will she
do?
a) She will keep the child awake by talking to him and call 911 for help
b) She will raise the child’s legs and administer Adrenaline and call the
emergency services
c) The nurse will keep the child in standing position and try to reassure the child
631. You are about to administer Morphine Sulfate to a paediatric patient. The
information
written on the controlled drug book was not clearly written – 15 mg or 0.15
mg. What
will you do first?
a. Not administer the drug, and wait for the General Practitioner to do his
rounds
b. Administer 0.15 mg, because 15 mg is quite a big dose for a paediatric
patient
c. Double check the medication label and the information on the controlled
drug book; ring the chemist to verify the dosage
d. Ask a senior staff to read the medication label with you
a) supplimentary nutrition
b) immediate hospitalization
c) weekly assessment
d) document intake for three days
633. You saw a relative of a client has come with her son, who looks very
thin, shy & frightened. You serve them food, but the mother of that child
says "don't give him, he eats too much". You should:
a) Raise your concern with your nurse manager about potential for child abuse
& ask for her support
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b) Ignore the mother & ask the relative if the child is abused.
c) Ignore the mother's advice & serve food to the child.
d) Ignore the situation as she is the mother & knows better about her child.
634. U just joined in a new hospital. U see a senior nurse beating a child with
learning disability. Ur role
635. A nurse finds it very difficult to understand the needs of a child with
learning disability. She goes to other nurses and professionals to seek
help. How u interpret this action
636. A nurse notices a thin emaciated child among the family members of a
patient. The child is week and withdrawn. When nurse offers some food to
child, mother says do not give as he eats too much. Nurses response
A) Temperature and Pulse before the blood transfusion begins, then every hour,
and at the end of bag/unit
B) Temperature, pulse, blood pressure and respiration before the blood
transfusion begins, then after 15 min, then as indicated in local guidelines,
and finally at the end of bag/unit.
C) Temperature, pulse, blood pressure and respiration and urinalysis before the
blood transfusion, then at end of bag.
D) Pulse, blood pressure and respiration every hour, and at the end of the bag
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c) Administer the blood product against the patients decision
d) The doctor will decide
a) Temperature and pulse before the blood transfusion begins, then every hour,
and at the end of bag/unit.
b) Temperature, pulse, blood pressure and respiration before the blood
transfusion begins, then after 15 minutes, then as indicated in local
guidelines, and finally at the end of the bag/unit.
c) Temperature, pulse, blood pressure and respiration and urinalysis before the
blood transfusion, then at end of bag.
d) Pulse, blood pressure and respiration every hour, and at the end of the bag.
640. Patient developed elevated temperature and pain in the loin during
blood transfusion. This is indicative of:
641. Mrs. Smith is receiving blood transfusion after a total hip replacement
operation. After 15 minutes, you went back to check her vital signs and
she complained of high temperature and loin pain. This may indicate:
a) Renal Colic
b) Urine Infection
c) Common adverse reaction
d) Serious adverse reaction
642. During blood transfusion, a patient develops pyrexia, and loin pain. Rn
interprets the situation as
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A. The practice of being humble enough to admit that someone else is better at
something and being wise enough to try to learn how to match and even surpass
them at it.
B. A systematic process in which current practice and care are compared to, and
amended to attain, best practice and care
C. A system that provides a structured approach for realistic and supportive practice
development
D. All of the above
a) Diagnosis
b) Planning
c) Implementation
d) Evaluation
647. A nurse documents vital signs without actually performing the task.
Which action should the charge nurse take after discussing the situation
with the nurse?
648. The nurse has made an error in documenting client care. Which
appropriate action should the nurse take?
a) Draw a line through error, initial, date and document correct information
b) Document a late addendum to the nursing note in the client’s chart
c) Tear the documented note out of the chart
d) Delete the error by using whiteout
649. Which of the following sets of needs should be included in y our service
user’s person centred care plan?
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650. A nurse explains to a student that the nursing process is a dynamic
process. Which of the following actions by the nurse best demonstrates this
concept during the work shift?
A. Nurse and client agree upon health care goals for the client
B. Nurse reviews the client's history on the medical record
C. Nurse explains to the client the purpose of each administered medication
D. Nurse rapidly reset priorities for client care based on a change in the
client's condition
652. The rehabilitation nurse wishes to make the following entry into a
client's plan of care: "Client will reestablish a pattern of daily bowel
movements without straining within two months." The nurse would write
this statement under which section of the plan of care?
A) Long-term goals
B) Short-term goals
C) Nursing orders
D) Nursing dianosis/problem list
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656. All individuals providing nursing care must be competent at which of
the following procedures?
a) Task oriented
b) Caring medical and surgical patient
c) Patient oriented, individualistic care
d) All
658. The client reports nausea and constipation. Which of the following
would be the priority nursing action?
A. Assessment
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation
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662. A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal
pain and diarrhea. The nurse takes the client's vital sign hereafter. What
phrase of nursing process is being implemented here by the nurse?
A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Implementation
663. How do you value dignity & respect in nursing care? Select which does
not apply:
A) reflective process
b) clinical bench marking
c)peer and patient response
d)all the above
A. Grimacing
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B. Anxiety
C. Oxygenation saturation 93%
D. Output 500 mL in 8 hours
669. When you tell a 3rd year student under your care to dispense
medication to your patient what will you assess?
a) Making sure that the group of patients that they are caring for receive their
medications on time. If they are not competent to administer intravenous
medications, they should ask a competent nursing colleague to do so on their
behalf.
b) The safe handling and administration of all medicines to patients in their care.
This includes making sure that patients understand the medicines they are
taking, the reason they are taking them and the likely side effects.
c) Making sure they know the names, actions, doses and side effects of all the
medications used in their area of clinical practice.
d) To liaise closely with pharmacy so that their knowledge is kept up to date.
671. Who has the overall responsibility for the safe and appropriate
management of controlled drugs within the clinical area?
672. What are the key reasons for administering medications to patients?
a) To provide relief from specific symptoms, for example pain, and managing
side effects as well as therapeutic purposes.
b) As part of the process of diagnosing their illness, to prevent an illness,
disease or side effect, to offer relief from symptoms or to treat a disease
c) As part of the treatment of long term diseases, for example heart failure, and
the prevention of diseases such as asthma.
d) To treat acute illness, for example antibiotic therapy for a chest infection, and
side effects such as nausea.
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673. What are the most common types of medication error?
a) Nurses being interrupted when completing their drug rounds, different drugs
being packaged similarly and stored in the same place and calculation errors.
b) Unsafe handling and poor aseptic technique.
c) Doctors not prescribing correctly and poor communication with the
multidisciplinary team.
d) Administration of the wrong drug, in the wrong amount to the wrong patient,
via the wrong route
675. Independent and supplementary nurse and midwife are those who are?
a) Call the prescriber. Report through yellow card scheme and document it in
patient notes
b) Let the next of kin know about this and document it
c) Document this in patient notes and inform the line manager
d) Assess for potential harm to client, inform the line manager and prescriber
and document in patient notes
A. You should provide a written statement and also complete a Trust incident
form.
B. You should inform the doctor.
C. You should report this immediately to the nurse in charge.
D. You should inform the patient.
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678. The nurses on the day shift report that the controlled drug count is
incorrect. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Right time
B. Right route
C. Right medication
D. Right reason
680. A patient approached you to give his medications now but you are
unable to give the medicine. What is your initial action?
681. On checking the stock balance in the controlled drug record book as a
newly qualified nurse, you and a colleague notice a discrepancy. What
would you do?
a) Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren't
found, contact pharmacy to resolve the issue. You will also complete an
incident form.
b) Document the discrepancy on an incident form and contact the senior
pharmacist on duty.
c) Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren't
found the police need to be informed.
d) Check the cupboard, record book and order book and inform the registered
nurse or person in charge of the clinical area. If the missing drugs are not
found then inform the most senior nurse on duty. You will also complete an
incident form.
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683. Registrants must only supply and administer medicinal products in
accordance with one or more of the following processes, except:
a) The registrant is responsible for the safe storage of the medicinal products
and the supervision of the administration process ensuring the patient
understands the medicinal product being administered
b) The patient accepts full responsibility for the storage and administration of the
medicinal products
c) None of the above - The registrant is responsible for the safe storage of the
medicinal products. At administration time, the patient will ask the registrant to
open the cabinet or locker. The patient will then self-administer the medication
under the supervision of the registrant
a) Nurses have more time for other aspects of patient care and it therefore
reduces length of stay.
b) It gives patients more control and allows them to take the medications on
time, as well as giving them the opportunity to address any concerns with their
medication before they are discharged home.
c) Reduces the risk of medication errors, because patients are in charge of their
own medication.
d) Creates more space in the treatment room, so there are fewer medication
errors
686. A patient is rapidly deteriorating due to drug over dose what to do?
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688. A client experiences an episode of pulmonary oedema because the
nurse forgot to administer the morning dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which
legal element can the nurse be charged with?
e) Assault
f) Slander
g) Negligence
h) tort
689. As a newly qualified nurse, what would you do if a patient vomits when
taking or immediately after taking tablets?
A. Comfort the patient, check to see if they have vomited the tablets, & ask the
doctor to prescribe something different as these obviously don’t agree with the
patient
B. Check to see if the patient has vomited the tablets & if so, document this on the
prescription chart. If possible, the drugs may be given again after the administration
of antiemetics or when the patient no longer feels nauseous. It may be necessary to
discuss an alternative route of administration with the doctor
C. In the future administer antiemetics prior to administration of all tablets
D. Discuss with pharmacy the availability of medication in a liquid form or hide the
tablets in food to take the taste away.
690. A newly admitted client refusing to handover his own medications and
this includes controlled drugs. What is your action?
691. What medications would most likely increase the risk for fall?
a) Loop diuretic
b) Hypnotics
c) Betablockers
d) Nsaids
692. Tony is prescribed Lanoxin 500 mcg PO. What vital sign will you asses
prior to giving the drug?
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a) Omit dose, record why, and inform the doctor
b) Give dose and tell the doctor
c) Give dose as prescribed
a) corticosteroid
b) nsaid
a) Allergies
b) Drug interactions
c) Other interactions with food or substances like alcohol and tobacco
d) Medical problems (Thyroid problems, kidney disease, etc.
e) All of the above.
a) Diuretics
b) Corticosteroids
c) Antibiotics
d) NSAID’s
697. The nurse monitors the serum electrolyte level of a client who is taking
digoxin. Which of the following electrolytes imbalances is common cause
of digoxin toxicity?
a) Hypocalcemia
b) Hypomagnesemia
c) Hypokalaemia
d) Hyponatremia
698. Your patient has been prescribed Tramadol 50 mgs tablet for pain relief.
a. Record this in the controlled drug register book with the pharmacist witnessing
b. Put it in the patient’s medicine pod
c. Store it in ward medicine cupboard
d. Ask the pharmacist to give it to the patient
699. You have been asked to give Mrs Patel her mid-day oral metronidazole.
You have never met her before. What do you need to check on the drug
chart before you administered?
a) Her name and address, the date of the prescription and dose.
b) Her name, date of birth, the ward, consultant, the dose and route, and that it is
due at 12.00.
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c) Her name, date of birth, hospital number, if she has any known allergies, the
prescription for metronidazole: dose, route, time, date and that it is signed by
the doctor, and when it was last given
d) Her name and address, date of birth, name of ward and consultant, if she has
any known allergies specifically to penicillin, that prescription is for
metronidazole: dose, route, time, date and that it is signed by the doctor, and
when it was last given and who gave it so you can check with them how she
reacted.
700. You are caring for a Hindu client and it’s time for drug administration;
the client refuses to take the capsule referring to the animal product that
might have been used in its making, what is the appropriate action for the
nurse to perform?
a) She will not administer and document the ommissions in the patients chart
b) The nurse will ignore the clients request and administer forcebily
c) The nurse will open the capsule and administer the powdered drug
d) The nurse will establish with the pharamacist if the capsule is suitable for
vegetarians
701. John, 18 years old is for discharge and will require further dose of oral
antibiotics. As his nurse, which of the following will you advise him to do?
a) Take with food or after meals and ensure to take all antibiotics as prescribed
b) Take all antibiotics and as prescribed
c) Take medicine during the day and ensure to finish the course of medication
d) Take medicine and stop when he feels better
704. What are the key nursing observations needed for a patient receiving
opioids frequently?
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a) Respiratory rate, bowel movement record and pain assessment and score.
b) Checking the patent is not addicted by looking at their blood pressure.
c) Lung function tests, oxygen saturations and addiction levels
d) Daily completion of a Bristol stool chart, urinalysis, and a record of the
frequency with which the patient reports breakthrough pain
705. What advice do you need to give to a patient taking Allopurinol? (Select
x 3 correct answers)
a) Drink 8 to 10 full glasses of fluid every day, unless your doctor tells you
otherwise.
b) Store allopurinol at room temperature away from moisture and heat.
c) Avoid being near people who are sick or have infections
d) Skin rash is a common side effect, it will pass after a few days
706. What instructions should you give a client receiving oral Antibiotics?
A) on admission
B) when septicemia is suspected
C) when the blood culture shows positive growth of organism
708. After two weeks of receiving lithium therapy, a patient in the psychiatric
unit becomes depressed. Which of the following evaluations of the
patient’s behavior by the nurse would be MOST accurate?
(A) The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires a larger dose of lithium.
(B) This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should continue with the
current treatment plan.
(C) This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should be monitored for
suicidal behavior.
(D) The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires an antidepressant
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c) Check the stock of oral morphine sulphate in the CD cupboard with another
registered nurse and record this in the control drug book; together, check the
correct prescription and the identity of the patient.
d) Check the stock of oral morphine sulphate in the CD cupboard with another
registered nurse and record this in the control drug book; then ask the patient
to prove their identity to you
710. Which of the following drugs will require 2 nurses to check during
preparation and administration?
a. oral antibiotics
b. glycerine suppositories
c. morphine tablet
d. oxygen
A) Ptt
B) aPTT
C) ct
D) INR
714. You are the named nurse of Mr Corbyn who has just undergone an
abdominal surgery 4 hours ago. You have administered his regular
analgesia 2 hours ago and he is still complaining of pain. Your most
immediate, most appropriate nursing action?
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d) look for a heating pad
715. Mild pain after surgery and pain is reduced by taking which medicine
a) paracetamol
b) ibuprofen
c) paracetamol with codeine
d) paracetamol with morphine
716. John is also prescribed some medications for his Gout. Which of the
following health teaching will you advise him to do?
a) mood variation
b) edema
719. On which step of the WHO analgesic ladder would you place tramadol
and codeine?
720. What could be the reason why you instruct your patient to retain on its
original container and discard nitroglycerine meds after 8 weeks?
A) removing from its darkened container exposes the medicine to the light and its
potency will decrease after 8 weeks
B) it will have a greater concentration after 8weeks
721. A sexually active female , who has been taking oral contraceptives
develops diarrohea. Best advice
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b. Advice to switch to other measures like condoms, as diarrohea may
reduce the effect of oral contraceptives
722. A patient is prescribed metformin 1000mg twice a day for his diabetes.
While talking with the patient he states “I never eat breakfast so I take a ½
tablet at lunch and a whole tablet at supper because I don’t want my blood
sugar to drop.” As his primary care nurse you:
723. A Ibuprofen 200mg tablet has been prescribed. You only have a 400mg
coated ibuprofen tablet. What should you do?
725. Call for help, ensure anaphylaxis pack is available, assess ABC, dnt leave the
patient until medical help comes
726. Assesss ABC, make patient lie flat, reassure and continue observing
a) Tell the client that herbal substances are not safe & should never be used
b) Teach the client how to take their BP so that it can be monitored closely
c) Encourage the client to discuss the use of an herbal substance with the health
care provider
d)
728. Dennis was admitted because of acute asthma attack. Later on in your
shift, he complained of abdominal pain and vomited. He asked for pain
relief. Which of the following prescribed analgesia will you give him?
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729. What is the best position in applying eye medications?
A. Administer the prescribed number of drops, holding the eye dropper 1–2 cm
above the eye. If the patient
links or closes their eye, repeat the procedure
B. Ask the patient to close their eyes and keep them closed for 1–2 minutes.
C. If administering both drops and ointment, administer ointment first.
D. Ask the patient to sit back with neck slightly hyperextended or lie down.
734. Jim is to receive his eyedrops after his cataract operation. What is the
best position for Jim to assume when instilling the eyedrops?
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A. upper arm
B. stomach
C. thigh
D. buttocks
a) Registered nurse
b) Nurse assistant
c) Whoever used the sharps
d) Whoever collects the garbage
737. What steps would you take if you had sustained a needlestick injury?
a) Ask for advice from the emergency department, report to occupational health and
fill in an incident form.
b) Gently make the wound bleed, place under running water and wash thoroughly
with soap and water. Complete an incident form and inform your manager. Co-
operate with any action to test yourself or the patient for infection with a bloodborne
virus but do not obtain blood or consent for testing from the patient yourself; this
should be done by someone not involved in the incident.
c) Take blood from patient and self for Hep B screening and take samples and form
to Bacteriology. Call your union representative for support. Make an appointment
with your GP for a sickness certificate to take time off until the wound site has healed
so you dont contaminate any other patients.
Wash the wound with soap and water. Cover any wound with a waterproof dressing
to prevent entry of any other foreign material
738. One of your patient has challenged your recent practice of administering
a subcutaneous low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) without
disinfecting the injection site. The guidelines for nursing procedures do
not recommend this method. Which of the following response will support
your action?
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740. Which is the most dangerous site for intramuscular injection?
a) ventrogluteal
b) deltoid
c) rectus femoris
d) dorsogluteal
A) 45degrees
B) 40degrees
C) 25degrees
744. Which is the first drug to be used in cardiac arrest of any aetiology?
e) Adrenaline
f) Amiodarone
g) Atropine
h) Calcium chloride
745. Why would the intravenous route be used for the administration of
medications?
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746. What is the best nursing action for this insertion site. You have
observed an IV catheter insertion site w/ erythema, swelling, pain and
warm.
a) start antibiotics
b) re-site cannula
c) call doctor
d) elevate
747. What is the best way to avoid a haematoma forming when undertaking
venepuncture?
a) Tap the vein hard which will ‘get the vein up’, especially if the patient has
fragile veins. This will avoid bruising afterwards.
b) It is unavoidable and an acceptable consequence of the procedure. This
should be explained and documented in the patient's notes.
c) Choosing a soft, bouncy vein that refills when depressed and is easily
detected, and advising the patient to keep their arm straight whilst firm
pressure is applied.
d) Apply pressure to the vein early before the needle is removed, then get the
patient to bend the arm at a right angle whilst applying firm pressure
749. You have just administered an antibiotic drip to you patient. After few
minutes, your patient becomes breathless and wheezy and looks unwell.
What is your best action on this situation?
a) Stop the infusion, call for help, anaphylactic kit in reach, monitor closely
b) continue the infusion and observe further
c) check the vital signs of the patient and call the doctor
d) stop the infusion and prepare a new set of drip
750. While giving an IV infusion your patient develops speed shock. What is
not a sign and symptom of this?
A. Circulatory collapse
B. Peripheral oedema
C. Facial flushing
D. Headache
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751. What is the most common complication of venepuncture?
a) Nerve injury
b) Arterial puncture
c) Haematoma
d) Fainting
A) 30 sec
B) 60sec
C) 1-2min
D) 3-5min
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
A) septecimia
B) adverse reaction
A) Addissons disease
B) When use spironolactone
C) When use furosemide
757. A patient is on Inj. Fentanyl skin patch common side effect of the
fentanyl overdose is
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a) Fast and deep breathing, dizziness, sleepiness
b) Slow and shallow breathing, dizziness, sleepiness
c) Noisy and shallow breathing, dizziness, sleepiness
d) Wheeze and shallow breathing, dizziness, sleepiness
759. What does the term ‘breakthrough pain’ mean, and what type of
prescription would you expect for it?
a) A patient who has adequately controlled pain relief with short lived
exacerbation of pain, with a prescription that has no regular time of
administration of analgesia.
b) Pain on movement which is short lived, with a q.d.s. prescription, when
necessary.
c) Pain that is intense, unexpected, in a location that differs from that previously
assessed, needing a review before a prescription is written.
d) A patient who has adequately controlled pain relief with short lived
exacerbation of pain, with a prescription that has 4 hourly frequency of
analgesia if necessary
760. A patient is agitated and is unable to settle. She is also finding it difficult
to sleep, reporting that she is in pain. What would you do at this point?
a) Ask her to score her pain, describe its intensity, duration, the site, any
relieving measures and what makes it worse, looking for non verbal clues, so
you can determine the appropriate method of pain management.
b) Give her some sedatives so she goes to sleep.
c) Calculate a pain score, suggest that she takes deep breaths, reposition her
pillows, return in 5 minutes to gain a comparative pain score.
d) Give her any analgesia she is due. If she hasn't any, contact the doctor to get
some prescribed. Also give her a warm milky drink and reposition her pillows.
Document your action.
a) methicillin-resistant staphyloccocusaureu
b) multiple resistant staphylococcus antibiotic
762. Patient is given penicillin. After 12 hrs he develops itching, rash and
shortness of breath. what could be the reason?
n) Speed shock
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o) Allergic reaction
p) Green Card
q) Yellow Card
r) White Card
s) Blue Card
t)
764. Which drug can be given via NG tube?
a) 6
b) 4
c) 2
d) 8
a) 3 tablets
b) 1.5 tablets
c) 6 tablets
A) 3 tablets
B) 1.5 tablets
C) 6 tablets
a) 2
769. 1000 mg dose to be given thrice a day.250 mg tabs available. No. of tabs
in single dose?
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770. A drug 150g is prescribed it is available as 5 g tablets. haw many tablets
need to be administered?
30 tablets
2 tablets
772. You need to give 40mg tablet. available is 2.5mg tablets. How much
tablets will you give?
16 tablets
a) 50 ml
b) 150 ml
c) 200 ml
d) 300 ml
- 2ml
- 1.5 ml
- 0.5 ml – Dose Prescribed: Dose /ml - 25:50=0.5
775. Mr Bond will require 10 mgs of oromorph. The stock comes in 5 mg/2ml.
How much will you draw up from the bottle?
a) 4 ml
b) 10 ml
c) 6 ml
d) 8 ml
a) 20ml
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b) 2 ml
c) 0.2 ml
a) 4 mg/hr
b) 2 mg/hr
c) 3 mg/hr
d) 1 mg/hr
• 30 sec
• 60sec
• 1-2min
• 3-5min
A) 20ml
B) 2ml
C) 0.2ml
780. A drug 8.25mg is ordered, it is available as 2.75mg. Calculate the dose.
3 tablets
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 25%
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Volume ×drop per minute /time (minutes)
1000×20/4×60
20000/240=83.33333
=83
a) 83
b) 60
c) 24
783. Amitriptyline tablets are available in strengths of 10mg, 25mg, 50mg and
100mg. What combinations of whole tablets should be used for an 85mg
dose?
18 mls
1 microgram
a) Whole blood
b) Albumin
c) Blood Clotting Factors
d) Antibodies
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Volume required (ml) x drop factor
Hours 60
500ml x 20
9 60
500 x1
27
= 18.5 ml
= 19ml
120mls x 60
5 60
1000ml
80ml
= 12H30 mintes
Answer: 10:30 am
480/3 = 160mg
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792. 450 mg of asprin is required. Stock on hand is 300mg tablets. How many
tablets should be given?
= tablets
450mg
300mg
1½ tablets
120mg x 8
= 960 mg
140mg x 1ml
200mg
= 0,7 mls
795. 800ml of fluid is to be given IV. The fluid is running at 70ml/hr for the
first 5 hours than the rate is reduced to 60ml/hr. Calculate the total time
taken to give 800ml.
70ml x 5 = 350mls
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Time (hours)
1000ml
12
83,3 ml
= 83 ml
400ml x 2ml
600mg
= 800
600
= 1,3 ml
1200mg x 5mls
1000
6000mg
1000mg
120mg
200mg
0.6 mg
800. 700ml of saline solution is to be given over 8 hours. The IV set delivers
20 drops/ml. What is the required drip rate?
157
700ml x 20
8 60
87.5 x 1
1 3
= 29,1
= 29 drops per minute
801. One gram of drextrose provide 16kj of energy. How many kilojouls does
a patient receive form an infusion of half a litre of dextrose?
1g (1 000ml) = 16kg
500ml (½ a liter) = 16/2 = 8kj
175mg x 1
300mg
= 0.58 ml
= 0.6ml
350mcg
35ml
= 0,35mg
35
= 0.01 mg
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0.01mg x 1ml = 0.1mg
c) If the patient has 4 bolus doses between 11:00 and 12:00 hours on a Friday,
how much fentanyl has the patient received in that hour?
806. Medication errors account for around a quarter of the incidents that
threaten patient safety. In a study published in 2 000 it was found that 10%
of all patients admitted to hospital suffer an adverse event (incident. How
much of these incidents were preventable?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 60%
a) Not administer the drug, and wait for the General Practitioner to do his rounds
b) Administer 0.15 mg, because 15 mg is quite a big dose for a paediatric patient
c) Double check the medication label and the information on the controlled drug
book; ring the chemist the verify the dosage
d) Ask a senior staff to read the medication label for you
808. After having done your medication round, you have realised that your
patient has experienced the adverse effect of the drug. What will be your
initial intervention?
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a) You must do the physical observations and notify the General practitioner
b) You must ring the General Practitioner and request for a home visit
c) You must administer medication from the Homely Remedy Pod after having
spoken to the General Practitioner.
d) You must observe your patient until the General Practitioner arrives at your
nursing home
809. Your patient has been prescribed Tramadol 50 mgs tablet for pain relief.
Upon receipt of the tablets from the pharmacist you will:
A.*Record this in the controlled drug register book with the pharmacist witnessing
B. Put it in the patient’s medicine pod
C. Store it in ward medicine cupboard
D. Ask the pharmacist to give it to the patient
810. The nurse is admitting a client, on initial assessment the nurse tries to
inquire the patient if he has been taking alternative therapies and OTC
drugs but the client becomes angry and refuses to answer saying the
nurse is doing so because he belongs to an ethnic minority group, what is
the nurse’s best response?
811. Independent and supplementary nurse and midwife are those who are?
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813. A nurse is caring for clients in the mental health clinic. A women comes
to the clinic complaining of insomnia and anorexia. The patient tearfully
tells the nurse that she was laid off from a job that she had held for 15
years. Which of the following responses, if made by the nurse, is MOST
appropriate?
815. An adolescent male being treated for depression arrives with his family
at the Adolescent Day Treatment Centre for an initial therapy meeting with
the staff. The nurse explains that one of the goals of the family meeting is
to encourage the adolescent to:
817. When caring for clients with psychiatric diagnoses, the nurse recalls
that the purpose of psychiatric diagnoses or psychiatric labelling to:
819. After two weeks of receiving lithium therapy, a patient in the psychiatric
unit becomes depressed. Which of the following evaluations of the
patient’s behavior by the nurse would be MOST accurate?
A) The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires a larger dose of lithium.
B) This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should continue with the
current treatment plan.
C) This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should be monitored for
suicidal behavior.
823. A new mother is admitted to the acute psychiatric unit with severe
postpartum depression. She is tearful and states, “I don’t know why this
happened to me! I was excited for my baby to come, but now I don’t
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know!” Which of the following responses by the nurse is MOST
therapeutic?
a) Having a new baby is stressful, and the tiredness and different hormones
levels don’t help. It happens to many new mothers and is very treatable.
b) Maybe you weren’t ready for a child after all
c) What happened once you brought the baby home? Did you feel nervous?
d) Has your husband been helping you with the housework at all?
A) Supression
B) Undoing
C) Regression
D) Repression
825. After the suicide of her best friend Marry feels a sense of guilt, shame
and anger because she had not answered the phone when her friend
called shortly before her death. Which of the following statements is the
most accurate when talking about Mary’s feelings?
827. Risk for health issues in a person with mental health issues
a) Inactivity
b) Sad facial expression
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c) Slow monotonous speech
d) Increased energy
829. A patient with antisocial personality disorder enters the private meeting
room of a nurse unit as a nurse is meeting with a different patient. Which
of the following statements by the nurse is BEST?
a) I’m sorry, but HIPPA says that you can’t be her. Do you mind leaving?
b) You may sit with us as long as you are quiet
c) I need you to leave us alone
d) Please leave and I will speak with you when I am done
830. A patient asking for LAMA, the medical team has concern about the
mental capacity of the patient, what decision should be made?
831. The nurse restrains a client in a client in a locked room for 3 hours until
the client acknowledge wo started a fight in the group room last evening.
The nurse’s behaviour constitutes;
a) False imprisonment
b) Duty of care
c) Standard of care practice
d) Contract of care
832. A client has been voluntary admitted to the hospital. The nurse knows
that which of the following statements is inconsistent with this type of
hospitalization
833. Risk for health issues in a person with mental health issues
a) Measles
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b) Tuberculosis
c) chicken pox
d) Swine flu
a) Chicken pox
b) Tuberculosis
c) Whooping cough
d) Influenza
836. When selecting a stoma appliance for a patient who has undergone a
formation of a loop colostomy, what factors would you consider?
838. If your patient is unable to reposition themselves, how often should their
position be changed?
a) 1 hourly
b) 2 hourly
c) 3 hourly
d) As often as possible
839. A patient got admitted to hospital with a head injury. Within 15 minutes,
GCS was assessed and it was found to be 15. After initial assessment, a
nurse should monitor neurological status
a) Every 15 minutes
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b) 30 minutes
c) 45 minutes
d) 60 minutes
840. Glasgow Coma score (GCS) is made up of 3 component parts and these
are:
841. A 27- year old adult male is admitted for treatment of Crohn’s disease.
Which information is most significant when the nurse assesses his
nutritional health?
a) Anthropometric measurements
b) Bleeding gums
c) Dry skin
d) Facial rubor
842. A patient was diagnosed to have Chron’s disease. What would the
patient be manifesting?
843. The following fruits can be eaten by a person with Crohn’s Disease
except:
A. Mango
B. Papaya
C. Strawberries
D. Cantaloupe
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a) Sexual intimacy and kissing is not allowed
b) Does require hospitalization
c) Transmitted only through blood transfusions
d) Any planned surgery need to be postponed
A) Oropharyngeal tumor
B) Laryngeal cyst
C) Obstruction of foreign body
D) Tongue falling back
847. Patients with gastric ulcers typically exhibit the following symptoms:
a) Epigastric pain worsens before meals, pain awakening patient from sleep an
melena
b) Decreased bowel sounds, rigid abdomen, rebound tenderness, and fever
c) Boring epigastric pain radiating to back and left shoulder, bluish-grey
discoloration of periumbilical area and ascites
d) *Epigastric pains worsen after eating and weight loss
848. A diabetic patient with suspected liver tumor has been prescribed with
Trphasic CT scan. Which medication needs to be on hold after the scan?
a) Furosemide
b) Metformin
c) Docusate sodium
d) Paracetamol
A) Pneumothorax
B) Tuberculosis
C) Asthma
D) Malignancy of lungs
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851. Correct position for abdominal paracentesis.
A. Lie the patient supine in bed with the head raised 45–50 cm with a backrest
B. Sitting upright at 45 to 60
C. Sitting upright at 60 to 75°
D. Sitting upright at 75 to 90°
A. Pneumothorax
B. Abnormal blood clotting screen or low platelet count
C. Malignant pleural effusion.
D. Post-operative, for example thoracotomy, cardiac surgery
853. A patient suffered from stroke and is unable to read and write. This is
called
a) Dysphasia
b) Dysphagia
c) Partial aphasia
d) Aphasia
854. A patient suffered from CVA and is now affected with dysphagia. What
should not be an intervention to this type of patient?
A. Place the patient in a sitting position / upright during and after eating.
B. Water or clear liquids should be given.
C. Instruct the patient to use a straw to drink liquids.
D. Review the patient's ability to swallow, and note the extent of facial paralysis.
A) Neurologic physiotherapist
B) Speech therapist
C) Occupation therapist
a) "I can never have sex again, so I guess I will always be a single parent."
b) "I will wear gloves when I'm caring for my baby, because I could infect my
baby with AIDS."
c) "My CD4 count is 200 and my T cells are less than 14%. I need to stay at
these levels by eating and sleeping well and staying healthy."
d) "My CD4 count is 800 and my T cells are greater than 14%. I need to stay at
these levels by eating and sleeping well and staying healthy."
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857. The term gavage indicates
861. You are monitoring a patient in the ICU when suddenly his
consciousness drops and the size of one his pupil becomes smaller what
should you do?
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b) Hyperactive, high-pitched bowel sounds and a firm abdomen
c) A soft abdomen with bowel sounds every 2 to 3 seconds
d) Ascites and increased vascular pattern on the skin
.
864. A patient was brought to the A&E and manifested several symptoms:
loss of intellect and memory; change in personality; loss of balance and
co-ordination; slurred speech; vision problems and blindness; and
abnormal jerking movements. Upon laboratory tests, the patient got tested
positive for prions. Which disease is the patient possibly having?
a) Acute Gastroenteritis
b) Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
c HIV/AIDS Fatigue
Urgent bowel
a) Dizziness
b) Dull hearing
c) Reflux cough
d) Sneezing
866. You are caring for a patient with a tracheostomy in situ who requires
frequent suctioning. How long should you suction for?
a) If you preoxygenate the patient, you can insert the catheter for 45 seconds.
b) Never insert the catheter for longer than 10-15 seconds.
c) Monitor the patient's oxygen saturations and suction for 30 seconds
d) Suction for 50 seconds and send a specimen to the laboratory if the
secretions are purulent
867. When a patient is being monitored in the PACU, how frequently should
blood pressure, pulse and respiratory rate be recorded?
*Every 5 minutes
a) Every 15 minutes
b) Once an hour
c) Continuously
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869. What would be your main objectives in providing stoma education when
preparing a patient with a stoma for discharge home?
a) That the patient can independently manage their stoma, and can get supplies
b) That the patient has had their appliance changed regularly, and knows their
community stoma nurse.
c) That the patient knows the community stoma nurse, and has a prescription.
d) That the patient has a referral to the District Nurses for stoma care.
870. What type of diet would you recommend to your patient who has a
newly formed stoma?
872. You are monitoring a patient in the ICU when suddenly his
consciousness drops and the size of one his pupil becomes smaller what
should you do?
873. According to the royal marsden manual, a staff who observe the
removal of chest drainage is considered as?
A) Official training
B) Unofficial training
C) Hours which are not calculated as training hours
D) It is calculated as prescribed training hours.
A. It provides the foundation for care that enables individuals to gain greater
control over their lives and enhance their health status.
B. An in-depth assessment of the patient’s health status, physical
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examination, risk factors, psychological and social aspects of the patient’s
health that usually takes place on admission or transfer to a hospital or
healthcare agency.
C. An assessment of a specific condition, problem, identified risks or
assessment of care; for example, continence assessment, nutritional
assessment, neurological assessment following a head injury, assessment for
day care, outpatient consultation for a specific condition.
D. It is a continuous assessment of the patient’s health status accompanied
by monitoring and observation of specific problems identified.
876. a Patient who has had Parkinson’s disease for 7 years has been
experiencing aphasia. Which health professional should make a referral to
with regards to his aphasia?
a) Occupational therapist
b) Community matron
c) Psychiatrist
d) Speech and language therapist
877. A nurse assists the physician is performing liver biopsy. After the
biopsy the nurse places the patient in which position?
a) Supine
b) Prone
c) Left-side lying
d) Right-side lying
878. The first techniques used to examine the abdomen of a client is:
a) Palpation
b) Auscultation
c) Percussion
d) Inspection
a) Ulcerative colitis
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b) Intestinal obstruction
c) Hashimotos disease
d) Food allergy
882. After lumbar laminectomy, which the appropriate method to turn the
patient?
a) Patient holds at the side of the bed, with crossed knees try to turn by own
b) Head is raised & knees bent, patient tries to make movement
c) Patient is turned as a unit
884. While changing tubing and cap change on a patient with central line on
right subclavian what should the nurse do to prevent complication
885. After finding the patient which statement would be most appropriate for
the nurse to document on a datix/incident form?
a) “The patient climbed over the side rails and fell out of bed.”
b) “The use of restraints would have prevented the fall.”
c) “Upon entering the room, the patient was found lying on the floor.”
d) “The use of a sedative would have helped keep the patient in bed.”
886. You are caring for a patient who has had a recent head injury and you
have been asked to carry out neurological observations every 15 minutes.
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You assess and find that his pupils are unequal and one is not reactive to
light. You are no longer able to rouse him. What are your actions?
887. A patient in your care knocks their head on the bedside locker when
reaching down to pick up something they have dropped. What do you do?
a) Let the patient’s relatives know so that they don’t make a complaint & write an
incident report for yourself so you remember the details in case there are
problems in the future
b) Help the patient to a safe comfortable position, commence neurological
observations & ask the patient’s doctor to come & review them, checking the
injury isn’t serious. when this has taken place , write up what happened & any
future care in the nursing notes
c) Discuss the incident with the nurse in charge , & contact your union
representative in case you get into trouble
d) Help the patient to a safe comfortable position, take a set of observations &
report the incident to the nurse in charge who may call a doctor. Complete an
incident form. At an appropriate time , discuss the incident with the patient & if
they wish , their relatives
a) it can pose as a threat to the public and when it is ordered by the court
b) requested by family members
c) asked by media personnel for broadcast and publication
d) required by employer
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unconscious. An emergency craniotomy is required, regarding informed
consent for the surgical procedure, which of the following is the best
action?
a) Call the police to identify the client and locate the family
b) Obtain a court order for the surgical procedure
c) Ask the emergency medical services team to sign the informed consent
d) Transport the victim to the operating room for surgery
A. Headache
B. Back pain
C. Swelling and bruising
D. Nausea and vomiting
892. Mrs. A is posted for CT scan. Patient is afraid cancer will reveal during
her scan. She asks "why is this test". What will be your response as a
nurse?
a) Tell her that you will arrange a meeting with a doctor after the procedure
b) Give a health education on cancer prevention
c) Ignore her question and take her for the procedure
d) Understand her feelings and tell the patient that it is normal procedure .
894. After lumbar puncture, the patient experiences shock. What is the
etiology behind it?
A. Increased ICP.
B. Headache.
C. Side effect of medications
895. A patient got admitted to hospital with a head injury. Within 15 minutes,
GCS was assessed and it was found to be 15. After initial assessment, a
nurse should monitor neurological status
a) Every 15 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 40 minutes
d) 60 minutes
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896. What is primary care?
898. Which strategy could the nurse use to avoid disparity in health care
delivery?
899. Why are physiological scoring systems or early warning scoring system
used in clinical practice?
a) These scoring systems are carried out as part of a national audit so we know
how sick patients are in the united kingdom
b) They enable nurses to call for assistance from the outreach team or the
doctors via an electronic communication system
c) They help the nursing staff to accurately predict patient dependency on a
shift by shift basis
d) The system provides an early accurate predictor of deterioration by
identifying physiological criteria that alert the nursing staff to a patient at risk
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901. Which of the following is not a component of end of life care?
902. Which of the following senses is to fade last when a person dies?
a) hearing
b) smelling
c) seeing
d) speaking
a) Rejection
b) Overload
c) Disqualification
d) Hostility
904. A newly diagnosed patient with Cancer says “I hate Cancer, why did
God give it to me”. Which stage of grief process is this?
A. Denial
B. Anger
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
905. After death, who can legally give permission for a patient's body to be
donated to medical science?
906. Sue’s passed away. Sue handled this death by crying and withdrawing
from friend and family. As A nurse you would notice that sue’s intensified
grief is most likely a sign of which type of grief?
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907. Missy is 23 years old and looking forward to being married the following
day. Missy’s mother feels happy that her daughter is starting a new phase
in her life but is feeling a little bit sad as well. When talking to Missy’s
mother you would explain this feeling to her as a sign of what?
a) Anticipated Grief
b) Lifestyle Loss
c) Situational Loss
d) Maturational Loss
e) Self Loss
f) All of the above
908. A newly diagnosed patient with Cancer says "I hate Cancer, why did
God give it to me". Which stage of grief process is this?
a) Denial
b) Bargaining
c) Depression
d) Anger
910. After the death of a 46 year old male client, the nurse approaches the
family to discuss organ donation options. The family consents to organ
donation and the nurse begins to process. Which of the following would
be most helpful to the grieving family during this difficult time?
911. A critically ill client asks the nurse to help him die. Which of the following
would be an appropriate response for the nurse to give this client?
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912. A 42 year old female has been widowed for 3 years yet she becomes
very anxious, sad, and tearful on a specific day in June. Which of the
following is this widow experiencing?
a) Preparatory depression
b) Psychological isolation
c) Acceptance
d) Anniversary reaction
913. The 4 year old son of a deceased male is asking questions about his
father. Which of the following activities would be beneficial for this young
child to participate in?
914. The hospice nurse has been working for two weeks without a day off. During
this time, she has been present at the deaths of seven of her clients. Which of
the following might be beneficial for this nurse?
a) Nothing
b) Provide her with an assistant
c) Suggest she take a few days off
d) Assign her to clients that aren’t going to die for awhile
916. While providing care to a terminally ill client, the nurse is asked
questions about death. Which of the following would be beneficial to
support the client’s spiritual needs?
a) Nothing
b) Ask if they want to die
c) Ask if they want anything special before they die
d) Provide support, compassion, and love
917. A fully alert & competent 89 year old client is in end stage liver disease.
The client says , “I’m ready to die,” & refuses to take food or fluids . The
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family urges the client to allow the nurse to insert a feeding tube. What is
the nurse’s moral responsibility?
918. A newly diagnosed patient with Cancer says “I hate Cancer, why did
God give it to me”. Which stage of grief process is this?
a) Denial
b) Anger
c) Bargaining
d) Depression
a) Take her to another room and allow her to discuss with the husband
b) Tell them to wait in the room and I will come and talk to u after my duty
a) Regression
b) Mourning
c) Denial
d) Rationalization
921. Patient says, "I hate this cancer". Nurse understands which stage
patient is in according to Kubbler Ross stages of death?
a) Anger
b) Denial
c) Depression
d) Bargaining
922. after breaking bad news of expected death to a relative over phone , she
says thanks for letting us know and becomes silent. Which of the
following statements made by nurse would be more empathetic
923. The nurse cares for a client diagnosed with conversion reaction. The
nurse identifies the client is utilizing which of the following defense
mechanisms?
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a) Introjection
b) Displacement
c) Identification
d) Repression
(A) She has already moved through the stages of the grieving process.
(B) She is repressing anger related to her husband’s death.
(C) She is experiencing shock and disbelief related to her husband’s death.
(D) She is demonstrating resolution of her husband’s death.
925. A slow and progressive disease with no definite cure, only symptomatic
Management?
a) Acute
b) Chronic
c) Terminal
a) Psychological support
b) Spiritual support
c) Resuscitation
d) Pain management
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