Brock Biology of Microorganisms, 11e (Madigan/Martinko)

Chapter 26: Person-to-Person Microbial Diseases

Chapter 33 (13ed)
1) What type of pathogens cause many respiratory diseases?
A) Gram-positive
B) Gram-negative
C) Gram-variable
D) Mycoplasmas
Answer:

2) The causative agent of streptococcal pharyngitis, also known as strep throat, is

A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Streptococcus mutans.
D) Streptococcus lactis.
Answer:

3) Impetigo is due to an infection caused by

A) Staphylococcus aureus but not Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes but not Staphylococcus aureus.
C) both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) neither Staphylococcus aureus nor Streptococcus pyogenes.
Answer:

4) Rheumatic fever is
A) an autoimmune disease.
B) one of the delayed sequelae diseases.
C) triggered by surface antigens on Streptococcus pyogenes cells.
D) all of the above.
Answer:

5) Which of the following diseases is streptococcal in origin?

A) Impetigo
B) Scarlet fever
C) Rheumatic fever
D) All of the above
Answer:

6) Encapsulated strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae are particularly pathogenic because

A) they produce exotoxin A.
B) they produce exotoxin B.
C) they are potentially very invasive.
D) they produce M protein surface antigens.
Answer:

7) Which of the following is true about tuberculosis?

A) Although good chemotherapy is available, mycobacterial resistance to isoniazid and other drugs is
increasing.
B) For most individuals, cell-mediated immunity is life-long.
C) The disease agent infects about one-third of the world's population.
D) All of the above
Answer:

8) Which of the following viruses may cause the common cold?

A) Rhinoviruses
B) Coronaviruses
C) Adenoviruses
D) All of the above
Answer:

9) Once a person has been infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, that person
A) acquires transient immunity, which prevents subsequent infection for about a year
B) acquires no immunity, and thus could be reinfected immediately.
C) requires immunization by a vaccine.
D) requires immunization by an antiserum.
Answer: B

10) Despite the availability of chemotherapy for treating gonorrhea, the incidence of this disease remains
high because
A) the use of oral contraceptives increases colonization by N. gonorrhoeae.
B) symptoms in females are often not easily recognized.
C) antigenic switches are common.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D

11) Which of the following statements about chlamydial infections is true?

A) Chlamydial diseases are not reportable diseases.
B) Chlamydial diseases are less prevalent than gonorrhea.
C) Chlamydial diseases can lead to acute complications in both males and females.
D) All of the above.
Answer:

12) The CD4 molecule

A) is an HIV surface glycoprotein.
B) is a cell surface receptor for HIV.
C) is only found on T-helper cells.
D) all of the above.
Answer:

13) Which of the following drugs, chemotherapeutic agents against HIV, inhibits reverse transcriptase?
A) Ampligen
B) Azidothymidine
C) Alpha interferon
D) Soluble CD4
Answer:

14) Which statement is true about Streptococcus pneumoniae and the lung infection it causes?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae can spread from the focus of infection as a bacteremia.
B) Penicillin and erythromycin are the "last chance" drugs for treatment of streptococcal pneumonia.
C) Infection with any strain of encapsulated virulent Streptococcus pneumoniae provides long lasting
immunity to all encapsulated virulent strains.
D) Streptococcal pneumonia is not as serious as most people consider it to be and left untreated, it usually
runs its course in about a week to ten days.
Answer:
15) Which of the following toxins or extracellular enzymes is/are produced by Staphylococcus
epidermidis?
A) Hemolysins
B) Enterotoxin
C) Coagulase
D) None of the above
Answer:

16) Which of the following statements apply to diphtheria?

A) The diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis in the host.
B) Toxigenicity is associated with lysogenization by bacteriophage β.
C) Previous infection provides resistance to reinfection.
D) All of the above
Answer:

17) The diphtheria component of the DTP vaccine is a(n)

A) toxin.
B) toxoid.
C) antitoxin.
D) antitoxoid.
Answer:

18) Which of the following is true about whooping cough?

A) The exotoxin, which induces the synthesis of cAMP, is at least partially responsible for the events that
lead to host tissue damage.
B) The etiological agent will grow on blood-glycerol-potato extract agar.
C) A simple latex-bead agglutination test is available for diagnosis.
D) All of the above
Answer:

19) Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH) inhibits the production of

A) mycolic acid.
B) linoleic acid.
C) globular proteins of the cell membrane.
D) DNA transcription.
Answer:

20) A pyradizine derivative holds promise for preventing

A) AIDS.
B) the common cold.
C) hepatitis.
D) pneumonia.
Answer:

21) Which of the following is associated with the influenza virus?

A) Antigenic shift is the term applied to reassortment of the virion surface proteins.
B) Most infected individuals develop immunity to the infecting virus.
C) Antigenic drift is the term applied to minor antigenic changes due to genetic variations such as point
mutations.
D) All of the above
Answer:
22) Infections with which of the following bacteria are especially difficult to diagnose?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Treponema pallidum
D) All of the above
Answer:

23) Of the following, which is the most common AIDS-associated opportunistic infection?
A) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
B) Cryptosporidiosis
C) Histoplasmosis
D) Cryptococcosis
Answer:

24) Which of the following statements is true about HIV infections?

A) The infectious core of the virus enters the host cell when the viral and host membranes fuse.
B) T-helper cells are greatly reduced in number.
C) The cDNA can integrate into the host chromosome.
D) All of the above
Answer:

25) Confirmed diphtheria infections are treated with antibiotics and

A) diphtheria antitoxin.
B) diphtheria toxin.
C) diphtheria toxoid.
D) all of the above.
Answer:

26) The unique antigenic determinants of the 90 serotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae are found
A) on the cell-surface M proteins.
B) on the capsular polysaccharides.
C) in the bacterial cell wall.
D) in the inclusions in the periplasmic space.
Answer:

27) The DTaP vaccine contains

A) purified bacterial DNA.
B) bacterial endotoxin derivatives.
C) proteins derived from B. pertussis.
D) pertussis toxoid.
Answer:

28) The most serious form of Hansen's disease is

A) lepromatous.
B) tubercular.
C) paucibacillary.
D) pulmonary.
Answer:
29) Erythromycin is put in the eyes of newborns specifically to prevent
A) syphilis.
B) gonorrhea.
C) a chlamydial infection.
D) ocular herpes.
Answer:

30) Which of the following does not apply to bacterial pathogens affecting the respiratory tract?
A) Most of the pathogens only inhabit humans.
B) Most are normally transmitted person-to-person.
C) Some often initiate secondary infections that can be life-threatening.
D) Most respiratory bacterial pathogens do not respond to antibiotic therapy.
Answer:

31) The presence of gram-positive diplococci in a sputum sample most likely indicates an infection with
A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
D) Bordetella pertussis.
Answer:

32) Whooping cough is most often observed in

A) elderly residents of nursing homes.
B) individuals with compromised immunity.
C) children under five years of age.
D) health care providers.
Answer:

33) Which disease causes over 1.6 million deaths per year, which is approximately 11% of all deaths
related to infectious diseases?
A) Diphtheria
B) Whooping cough
C) Pneumococcal pneumonia
D) Tuberculosis
Answer:

34) For which disease is immunization with the BCG strain indicated in countries where the prevalence of
disease is high?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Whooping cough
C) Diphtheria
D) Pneumococcal pneumonia
Answer:

35) The most prevalent infectious diseases, especially in developed countries, are caused by
A) bacteria.
B) viruses.
C) fungi.
D) protozoans.
Answer:
36) The most common infectious diseases in developed countries are
A) genital herpes and gonorrhea.
B) strep throat and syphilis.
C) hepatitis and meningitis.
D) colds and influenza.
Answer:

37) Pus formation in skin lesions caused by Staphylococcus aureus infections is in part due to production
of
A) coagulase.
B) hemolysins.
C) leukocidin.
D) catalase.
Answer:

38) Infectious hepatitis is caused by infection with

A) Hepatitis A virus.
B) Hepatitis B virus.
C) Hepatitis C virus.
D) Hepatitis E virus.
Answer:

39) Which organism causes the highest number of sexually transmitted diseases each year?
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
Answer:

40) The pink-red rash of scarlet fever may be caused by streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins A and C which
are coded for on a lysogenic bacteriophage.
Answer:

41) Infections by "flesh-eating bacteria" can occur when exotoxins A and B and the surface M protein of
Streptococcus pyogenes act as superantigens.
Answer:

42) The organisms that cause pneumococcal pneumonia are rarely found as a part of the normal flora of
healthy adults.
Answer:

43) Pertussis is caused by a small, aerobic, gram-negative coccobacillus.

Answer:

44) Reassortment of the genes of the influenza virus is facilitated by the fact that the genome is segmented.
Answer:

45) More than one type of influenza virus can infect a given cell at a given time.
Answer:

46) The prevalence of penicillin resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae is localized almost exclusively in
North America and western Europe.
Answer:
47) A patient with AIDS often dies of a variety of infections caused by opportunistic microorganisms.
Answer: TRUE

48) A CD4 molecule interacts with gp120 of the HIV.

Answer: TRUE

49) Staphylococcal enterotoxin A is a superantigen that leads to a systemic inflammatory reaction known
as toxic shock syndrome (TSS).
Answer:

50) Most of the early cases of toxic shock syndrome in women were associated with use of high absorbent
tampons.
Answer:

51) The immune response is as important or even more important than antibiotics in the elimination of B.
pertussis from the body.
Answer:

52) Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH) is virtually a specific drug against the mycobacteria.
Answer:

53) There are at least 115 different serotypes of rhinovirus that have been identified.
Answer:

54) The influenza viral envelope is unique because it contains only one type of protein.
Answer:

55) Chickenpox is caused by a herpes virus.

Answer:

56) Chickenpox results in a systemic papular rash that quickly heals.

Answer:

57) In an HIV infection the T-helper cells and macrophages are not specifically infected.
Answer:

58) As a part of their normal life cycle, some respiratory pathogens grow in air.
Answer:

59) Both Streptococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus pneumoniae are frequently isolated from the upper
respiratory tracts of healthy adults.
Answer:

60) Clinical cases of severe sore throat caused by viruses are more easily treated with antibiotics than are
those of bacterial origin.
Answer:

61) The formation of streptococcal antigen-antibody complexes in the bloodstream during recovery from
streptococcal infections can lead to acute glomerulonephritis, which is painless but can result in permanent
kidney damage.
Answer:
62) The availability of rapid antigen detection (RAD) systems for pathogenic streptococci has eliminated
the need to culture Streptococcus pyogenes.
Answer:

63) Although staphylococci are often harmless inhabitants of the upper respiratory tract, serious disease
can result from strains that produce toxins that act as superantigens.
Answer:

64) Mycobacterium leprae has never been grown on artificial media or in an animal model.
Answer:

65) Most viral diseases are acute, self-limiting infections that are rarely fatal in healthy adults.
Answer:

66) The loss of CD4 T-helper cells leads to the overt consequences of an HIV infection.
Answer:

67) Drug resistant forms of Hansen's disease have yet to appear.

Answer:

68) The agent causing tuberculosis was identified by __________ in the year _________.
Answer: Robert Koch / 1882

69) The inflammatory response to C. diphtheriae infection results in the production of a lesion called a
_________.
Answer: pseudomembrane

70) Another name for pertussis is _________.

Answer: whooping cough

71) The causative agent of Hansen's disease is __________.

Answer: Mycobacterium leprae

72) Staphylococcus aureus produces __________, an enzyme that results in the accumulation of fibrin
around the bacterial cells.
Answer: coagulase

73) The pseudomembrane of diphtheria is composed primarily of __________ and __________.

Answer: damaged host cells / Corynebacterium diphtheriae cells (either order)

74) Lymphogranuloma venereum is a sexually transmitted disease caused by distinct strains of

__________.
Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

75) Nongonococcal urethritis may be caused by the protozoan __________.

Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

76) Most of the organisms found indoors originate from the __________.
Answer: human respiratory tract

77) About 25% of patients with untreated diphtheria develop __________, which is due to the effect of
diphtheria toxin on the heart muscle.
Answer: myocarditis
78) Individuals who have active cases of tuberculosis may spread the disease simply by __________ or
__________ near uninfected individuals.
Answer: coughing / speaking (any order)

79) Transmission of Mycobacterium leprae involves both __________ and __________ routes.
Answer: direct contact / respiratory (any order)

80) Meningitis can be caused by __________, __________, __________, or __________ infections.

Answer: viral / bacterial / fungal / protozoan (any order)

81) The most common human habitats of Staphylococcus aureus are the __________ and the __________.
Answer: upper respiratory tract / surface of the skin (any order)

82) Explain the stages of syphilis. What are the characteristics of and treatments required at each stage?
Answer: Answers will vary.

83) Explain the relationship between chickenpox and shingles.

Answer: Answers will vary.

84) Explain why, despite current available treatment, sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are still major
public health problems.
Answer: Answers will vary.

85) Present a discussion explaining the statistics of the epidemiology of gonorrhea and syphilis. Explain
the prevalence and changes in prevalence of each, as well as pertinent demographic information.
Answer: Answers will vary.

86) Discuss the molecular basis of the antigenic shift in influenza, as well as the cyclic patterns shown in
the epidemiological data.
Answer: Answers will vary.

87) What are the DTP and MMR vaccines? Why has there been a re-evaluation of the efficacy of the
program in light of the incidence and age distribution of certain childhood diseases recently?
Answer: Answers will vary.

88) Discuss the sequence of events that occur when the HIV virus dismantles the human immune system.
Include the stages where chemotherapy may be possible.
Answer: Answers will vary.

89) Using the most common sites of invasion for each, compare and contrast HSV-1 and HSV-2.
Answer: Answers will vary.

90) Consider mumps. What is the causative agent? How is this disease spread? What happens in the body
during the course of this disease? What type of immunity is conferred or used for this disease?
Answer: Answers will vary.

91) Consider rubella. What is the causative agent? How is this disease spread? What happens in the body
during the course of this disease? What type of immunity is conferred or used for this disease?
Answer: Answers will vary.
92) Describe the organism known as Neisseria meningitidis. How many pathogenic strains of this
organism are known and why are these strains different?
Answer: Answers will vary.

93) Discuss meningococcal meningitis. Include the mode of transmission, the course of the disease, the
methods of diagnosis, and the prevention and treatment regimens in common use today.
Answer: Answers will vary.

94) Consider hepatitis. Discuss the six known hepatitis viruses and the mode of transmission of each.
Answer: Answers will vary.

95) Explain the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of hepatitis.

Answer: Answers will vary.

96) Describe the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. Explain the pathology, diagnosis, and treatment of gastric
ulcers caused by this organism.
Answer: Answers will vary.

97) Consider AIDS. Describe the causative agent and its method of reproduction.
Answer: Answers will vary.

98) Describe the course of the AIDS disease from the time of infection with HIV until the disease reaches
its peak. Include diagnosis and treatment of AIDS.
Answer: Answers will vary.

99) Why is it so important that nursing home patients, especially those with underlying respiratory
problems, be vaccinated against Streptococcus pneumoniae and is this vaccination a one-time event?
Answer: Answers will vary.

100) Compare and contrast the DTP and the DTaP vaccines in terms of side effects and efficacy.
Answer: Answers will vary.

101) Explain the tuberculin test, including visual identification and immunological interpretation of
positive and negative results, and describe why a positive test does not indicate an active infection.
Answer: Answers will vary.

102) Why is vaccination with the MMR vaccine not recommended for women during their first trimester
of pregnancy?
Answer: Answers will vary.

103) Elaborate on the significance of swine in the development of pandemic strains of influenza.
Answer: Answers will vary.

104) Explain the strain selection and vaccine production processes for the influenza vaccine.
Answer: Answers will vary.

105) Why are most sexually transmitted diseases only transmitted by intimate person-to-person contact?
Answer: Answers will vary.