PHYSICS Part - I

CHAPTER 1

1, In high energy physics scientist study:

a, matter b, big particles
c, elementary d, ions

2, Wave theory of light was presented by:

a, Newton b, Maxwell
c, Compton d, Huygens

3, Natural Radioactivity was disobeyed by Decree in.

a, 1976. b, 1896.
c, 1996. d, 1916.

4, X – rays were discovered by,

a, J.J. Thomson.
b, Crooks.
c, Lorenz.
d, Roentgen.

5, The circumference of the earth was determined by,

a, Albernie.
b, Al – Khawririmi.
c, Omer Khayyam,
d, Ibn – al – Haitiam.

6, The pioneers of physics are

a, Greeks
b, Egyptians
c, Babylonians
d, Chinese
.
7, which one of the following is not a unit of length

a, Angstrom
b, Micron
c, Radian
d, Light year

8, Which one of the following is not regarded as a fundamental quantity in physics

a, Length
b, Mass
c, Time
d, Weight

9, Zero is significant only if it

a, Lies to the left of a significant digit

b, is between two digits
c, is to the right of a significant digit
d, is before the decimal point
10, A Second is defined as the duration of vibration of

a, Carbon atom
b, Cesium atom
c, Radium atom
d, Nitrogen atom

11, The dimension of the following pair is not the same

a, work & energy

b, work and torque
c, Momentum & impulse
d, Mass & moment of inertia

10, The decimal system was introduced by

a, Greeks
b, Egyptians
c, Chinese
d, Indians

11, The unit of Plank’s constant is

a, Joule /sec
b, Joule x sec
c, Joule x m
d, Joule / m

12, The error in measurement may occur due to

a, inexperience of a person
b, The faulty apparatus
c, Inappropriate method
d, Due to all reasons in a, b and c

13, In any measurement the significant figures are

a, all accurately known and all doubtful digits

b, only accurately known digits
c, only doubtful digits
d, all accurately know digits and the first doubtful digit

14, A digit zero in a measurement

a, may be significant may not significant

b, always significant
c, always insignificant
d, significant only if left to a significant figure

15. Which one is the highest power multiple?

a, giga b, beta
c, mega d, deca

16, Unit of G is ?
 a, Nm2 kg2 b, N m2 kg
c, N m2 kg-2 d, none

17, The unit of force is ___________ and its symbol is _____________ which is the correct pair?

a, Newton, n b, Newton, N
c, newton, n d, newton, N

.18, Which one is the correct representation of the unit of pressure?

a Newton/Meter2
b, newton/meter2
c, Newton/meter2
d, Newton/Meter2

19, 1024 can be written in scientific notation as

a, 1.024x 103 b, 210

c, 0.000976 d, 1/0300097

20. Number of significant figures in 0.0173 are

a, Three b, four
c, five d, two

21. The dimension of force is

a, MLT-1 b, MLT-2
c, ML-1T d, ML-1T2

22. ML-1T-2 is the dimension of

a, force b, pressure
c, momentum d, energy

23. Which equation is not dimensionally correct?

(a) E = mc2
(b) Vf = Vi + at
(c) S = Vt2
(d) S = 1/2at2

24. Three students measured length of a needle with meter rod and recorded as:

(i) 0.2145m (ii) 0.21m

(iii) 0.214m

25, Which one is correct record?

a, only (i) b, only (ii)

c, only (iii) d, both (i) and (ii)

26. Which one is the dimensionally correct equation?

a, f = vt
b, S = Vit+1/2at2
c, V = St
 d, V= f/t

27. A metal sphere of radius r is dropped into a tank of water. As it sinks at speed v, it experiences a drag force F
given by F = kr v, where k is a constant. What are the SI base units of k?

a, kg m2 s–1 b, kg m–2s–2
c, kg m–1s–1 d, kg m s–2
A.
28, Wave theory of light was presented by:

a Newton b, Maxwell
c, Compton d, Huygens

29, Einstein presented his famous theory of relativity in:

a, 1975 b, 1955
c, 1905 d, 1805

20, Muslims in the early ages translated science books into Arabic from which language?

a, English b, Spanish
c, French d, Greek

31, Al-Beruni determined

a, Area of the moon

b, Circumference of earth
c, Modern electronics
d, Radioactivity

32, The unit of Luminous Intensity is:

a, cadela b, candela
c, cdanela d, caladela

33, Which of the following us SI base unit?

a, gram b, slug
c, Newton d, Kilogram

34, Which one of the following shows only unit of length:

a, Ao , kg, gm b, M, m3 , s
c, Ao km , m d, Gm, m2, deci-m

35, Meter is defined as the distance traveled by light in vacuum in:

a, 1 second
b, 299792458 second
c, 1/299792458 second
d, 165076373 second

36, The dimensions of stain are

a, [MLT2]b, [ML-2T]
c, [Mo Lo To] d, [M-1L-1T-1]

37, Which of the following physical quantities is represented by dimensions M -1 L1 T2

 a, gravitational constant G
b, coulombs constant
c, young,s modulus
d, plank,s constant

38, The dimension of angular velocity is:

a, A. Mo Lo K-1 b, ML2 L-1 K

c, Mo Lo K-1 d, T-1

39, One mile is equal to:

a, 1699m b, 1799 m
c, 1809 m d, 1609m

40, 1 mc3=

a, 0.01 mc3 b, 1000 mm3

c, 0.001 m3 d, 100 cm3

ANSWER
1 D 2 A 3 C 4 A 5 B 6 D 7 B 8 D 9 C 10 B

11 A 12 A 13 A 14 B 15 B 16 C 17 C 18 D 19 B 20 B

21 C 22 A 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 C 27 D 28 A 29 C 30 D

31 C 32 C 33 C 34 B 35 C 36 C 37 D 38 A 39 B 40 C
CHAPTER 2A,B

(1) Rectangular coordinate system is also called.

(a) polar coordinate system

(b) Cartesian coordinate system
(c) Cylindrical coordinate system
(d) Space coordinate system

(2) The direction of a vector in space is specified by.

(a) one angle

(b) two angle
(c) three angle
(d) no angle

(3) Addition of vector obeys.

(a) commutative law

(b) distributive law
(c) associative law
(d) all given laws in a, b and c.

(4) A vector can be multiplied by number. The number may be.

(a) dimensionless
(b) dimensional scalar
(c) negative
(d) all a, b and c are correct.

(5) Unit vector n̂ is along.

(a) x-axis
(b) normal on a surface
(c) y-axis
(d) z-axis

(6) cosθi^ + sinθj^ is a.

(a) vector
(b) unit vector
(c) vector in the direction at angle with x-axis
(d) unit vector in the direction at angle θ with x-axis

(7) Maximum number of rectangular components are

(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) infinite

(8) Maximum number of components of a vector may be.

(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) infinite
(9) Which one is not correct for a vector A A = √2 i^ + √2 j^ ?

(a) has direction θ=45 with x-axis

(b) has magnitude 2
(c) has magnitude 2 and direction θ=45 with y-axis
(d) has magnitude -2

(10) The resultant of two forces of equal magnitudes is also equal to the magnitude
of the forces. The angle between the two forces is.

(a) 30o
(b) 60 o
(c) 90 o
(d) 120 o

(11) What is the angle that the given vector makes with y-axis?
A = 2i^+ √ 12j^

(a) 20 o
(b) 60o
(c) 90o
(d) 120o

(12) In which quadrant the two rectangular components of a vector have same sigh?

(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) both 1st and 3rd
(d) 4th

(12) Two vectors A and B are making angle θ with each other. The scalar projection of vector B on vector A is
written as.

(a) A.B/ A
(b) A.B/ B
(c) A. cos θ
(d) Both a and b are correct.

(14) Two vectors are A = 3i^+2j^ -k^ & B = 3i^ - 2j^ + k^ , then

(a) B is antiparallel to A
(b) B is negative vector of A
(c) B has negative magnitude
(d) B is perpendicular to A

(15) If A=B which of the following is not correct?

(a) A .B = A^ .B^
(b) |A| = |B|
(c) |A^| = |B^|
(d) AB^ = BA^

(16) i^ . (j^ x k^) is equal to.

(a) 1
(b) i^
 (c) j^
(d) k^

(17) Which one is not a correct relation?

(a) A x B = -BxA
(b) |AxB| = - |BxA|
(c) AxB = AB Sinθn^
(d) BxA = AB Sinθ(-n^)

(18) The direction of vector product is given by.

(a) head to tail rule

(b) right hand rule
(c) left hand rule
(d) triangular rule

(19) If east, west, north, south, up and down are representing the direction of unit vectors, then east x south has
direction along.

(a) west
(b) north
(c) down
(d) up

(20) Null vector is a vector which has.

(a) zero magnitude

(b) no specified direction
(c) both a and b are correct
(d) both a and b are not correct

(21) Which one is a unit vector?

(a) √3 i^ + √3 j^ + √3 k^
(b) 1√3 i^ + 1/ √3 j^ + 1√3 k^
(c) √3/3 i^ + √3/3 j^ + √3/3 k^
(d) both b and c are correct

(22) Angle between two vectors A and B can be determined by.

(a) their dot product

(b) their cross product
(c) head to tail rule
(d) right hand rule

(23) The magnitude of cross product is equal to the dot product between the. The angle between the two vector
is.

(a) 30o
(b) 45 o
(c) 60 o
(d) 180 o

(24) Torque is defined as.

(a) turning effect of force

 (b) cross product of force and position vector
(c) product of force and moment arm
(d) all a, b and c are correct

(25) The dimension of torque is.

(a) [ML2T-2]
(b) [MLT-2]
(c) [ML2T]
(d) [ML-2T-2]

(26) SI unit of torque is.

(a) N.m
(b) Joule
(c) Both a and b are correct
(d) Neither a nor be is correct

(27) Torque acting on a body determines.

(a) acceleration
(b) linear acceleration
(c) angular acceleration
(d) direction of motion of the body

(28) A body in equilibrium.

(a) always at rest

(b) always in uniform motion
(c) may be at rest or in uniform motion
(d) may be at rest or in motion\

(29) A body will be in complete equilibrium when it is satisfying.

(a) 1st condition of equilibrium

(b) 2nd condition of equilibrium
(c) both 1st and 2nd condition of equilibrium
(d) impossible

(30) Which one is not a type of dynamic equilibrium?

(a) rotational equilibrium

(b) translational equilibrium
(c) static equilibrium
(d) both a and c are correct answer

(31) Three coplanar force acting on a body keep it in equilibrium. They should therefore be.

(a) concurrent
(b) non concurrent
(c) parallel
(d) non parallel

(32) Which of the following pairs does not have identical dimensions?

(a) torque and energy

 (b) momentum and impulse
(c) energy and work
(d) mass and moment f inertia

(33) A central force.

(a) can produce torque

(b) can’t produce torque
(c) some time can produce torque some time can’t
(d) it has no relation with torque

(34) It is easier to turn a steering wheel with both hands than with a single hand because.

(a) acceleration force increases on the wheel

(b) two forces act on the wheel
(c) two hands provide firm grip
(d) couple acts on the wheel

(35) The cross product i^ x j^ is equal to.

(a) zero
(b) one
(c) –k^
(d) k^

(36) The unit vector in the direction of vector A = 2i^ - 2j^ + k^ is.

(a) 2i^ - 2j^ + k^

(b) (2i^ - 2j^ + k^) / 9
(c) (2i^ - 2j^ + k^) / 3
(d) (2i^ - 2j^ + k^) / 5

(37) The magnitude of i^ .( j^ x k^) is.

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) i^
(38) In which quadrant, only value of ‘tan’ will be positive?
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) both 1st and 3rd
 
(39) If A = Ax i^ + Ayj^ + Azk^ , B = Bx i^ + Byj^ + BzK^ then.
 
(a) A . B = AxBx + AyBy + AzB
 
(b) A . B = AxBy + AyBz + AzBy
 
(c) A . B = AyBz + AzBy + AzBx
 
(d) A . B = AxBz + AyBy + AzBx
(40) The cross product of two vectors is a negative vector when.
(a) they are parallel vectors
(b) they are anti parallel vectors
(c) they are perpendicular vector
 (d) they are rotated through 270o
ANSWER
1 B 2 C 3 D 4 D 5 B 6 D 7 C 8 D 9 D 10 D
11 B 12 C 13 A 14 B 15 A 16 A 17 B 18 B 19 C 20 C
21 D 22 A 23 B 24 D 25 A 26 A 27 C 28 C 29 C 30 C CHAPTER
31 A 32 D 33 B 34 D 35 D 36 C 37 B 38 D 39 A 40 D
3A,B

(1) When body is in motion its ____________ always changes.

(a) Velocity
(b) Acceleration
(c) Position vector
(d) Momentum

(2) A body is moving with uniform velocity. Its,

(a) speed changes

(b) acceleration changes
(c) direction of motion changes
(d) displacement from origin changes

(3) A man is in a car is moving with velocity of 36Km/hr. his speed with respect to the car is.

(a) 10m/s
(b) 36m/s
(c) zero
(d) infinite

(4) When velocity time graph is a straight line parallel to time axis then.

(a) acceleration is const

(b) acceleration is variable
(c) acceleration is zero
(d) velocity is zero

(5) Area under velocity time graph represent.

(a) force
(b) momentum
(c) distance
(d) acceleration

(6) Slope of velocity time graph is.

(a) acceleration
(b) distance
(c) force
(d) momentum

(7) Instantaneous and average velocities become equal when body.

(a) has zero acceleration

(b) has uniform acceleration
(c) has variable acceleration
(d) moves in a circle

(8) Which law of motion is also called law of inertia?

 (a) 1st law
(b) 2nd law
(c) 3rd law
(d) 4th law

(8) Inertia of an object is quantitative measure of its.

(a) Volume
(b) Density
(c) Mass
(d) Temperature

(9) Newton’s laws do not hold good for particles.

(a) at rest
(b) moving slowly
(c) high velocity
(d) move with velocity comparable to velocity of light

(10) 1st law of motion gives the definition of.

(a) rest
(b) motion
(c) velocity
(d) force

(11) 2nd law of motion gives the definition of.

(a) force
(b) acceleration
(c) velocity
(d) both force and acceleration

(12) 3rd law of motion explains.

(a) effect of force

(b) existence of a force
(c) existence of two forces
(d) existences of pair of forces in nature

(13) Momentum depends upon.

(a) fore act on the body

(b) mass of the body
(c) velocity of the body
(d) both mass and velocity of the body

(14) The dimension of force is.

(a) MLT-2
(b) ML2T-2
(c) ML2T2
(d) ML-2T-2

(15) Which of the following pair has same direction always?

 (a) force, displacement
(b) force, velocity
(c) force, acceleration
(d) force, momentum

(16) Motorcycle safety helmet extend the time of collision hence decreasing the.

(a) chance of collision

(b) force acting
(c) velocity
(d) impulse

(17) The collision between two bodies be elastic if bodies are.

(a) solid and soft

(b) soft and elastic
(c) solid and hard
(d) hard and elastic

(18) During long jump, athlete runs before taking the jump. By doing so he.

(a) provide him a larger inertia

(b) decrease his inertia
(c) decrease his momentum
(d) increase his momentum

(19) When car takes turn around a curve road, the passengers feel a force acting on them in a
direction away from the center of the curve. It is due to.

(a) centripetal force

(b) gravitational force
(c) their inertia
(d) centrifugal force

(20) A body is falling freely under gravity. How much distance it falls during an interval of time between 1 st
and 2nd seconds of its motion, taking g = 10?

(a) 14 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 5m
(d) 25 m

(21) What is the shape of velocity time graph for constant acceleration?

(a) straight line

(b) parabola
(c) inclined curve
(d) declined curve

(22) When collision between the bodies in a system is inelastic in nature then for system.

(a) momentum changes but K.E remain conserve

(b) K.E changes but momentum remain conserve
(c) Both momentum and K.E changes
(d) Both momentum and K.E remain conserve

(23) Which shows the correct relation between time of flight T and maximum
height H?
 (a) H = gT2 / 8
(b) H = 8T2 / g
(c) H = 8g/T2
(d) H = 8/gT2

(24) The acceleration in the rocket all any instant is proportional to the nth power of the velocity of the
expelled gases. Where the value of n must be ?

(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) -2
(d) 2

(25) Taking off rocket can be explained by.

(a) 1st law of motion

(b) 2nd law of motion
(c) law of conservation of momentum
(d) law of conservation of energy

(26) Which of the following is not an example of projectile motion.

(a) A gas filled balloon

(b) Bullet fired from gun
(c) A football kicked
(d) A base ball shot

(27) What is the angle of projection for which the range and maximum height become equal?

(a) Tan-1 1/4

(b) Tan-1 4
(c) Tan-1 1/2
(d) Tan-1 2

(28) The thrust on the rocket in the absence of gravitational force of attraction is.

(a) Constant
(b) Not constant
(c) Constant if the rate of ejected gases is constant
(d) Constant for short range rocket

(29) When two bodies move toward each other with constant speeds the distance between them deceases at the
rate of 6m/sec. if they move in the same direction the distance between them increases at the rate of
4m/sec. Then their speeds are.

(a) 5m/s, 1m/s

(b) 3m/s, 3m/s
(c) 6m/s, 1m/s
(d) 4m/s, 2m/s

(30) Distance covered by a freely falling body in 2 seconds will be.

(a) 4.9 m
(b) 19.6m
(c) 39.2m
(d) 44.1m
(31) The distance covered by a body in time ‘t’ starting from rest is.

(a) at2/2
(b) Vt
(c) a2t/2
(d) at2

(32) Flight of a rocket in the space is an example of.

(a) Second law of motion.

(b) Third law of motion
(c) First law of motion
(d) Law of gravitation
(33) The trajectory (or path) of a projectile is.

(a) Straight line

(b) Parabola
(c) Hyperbola
(d) Circle

(34) The limit of the average velocity over a path length that approaches zero but always includes the point ‘A’
is defined as

(a) speed at ‘A’

(b) instantaneous velocity at ‘A’
(c) acceleration at ‘A’
(d) average speed at ‘A’.

(35) Uniform acceleration results in a velocity which:

(a) remains constant

(b) varies linearly with time
(b) zero
(d) none of these.  
 x 2  x1
(36) Average velocity, Vav  t depends on
2  t1
 
(a) the path between the positions x 2 and x 1 ..
(b) the average speed and the average direction of the journey
 
(c) positions x 2 and x 1 and the average speed.
(d) average direction of the journey

(37). The speed of a particle at the end of four successive seconds is 20, 25, 30, 35 km/hr. The acceleration of
the particle is

(a) 5 km/sec (b) 5 km/hr2

(c) 5 km/hr (d) 5 km/sec2

(38) A rock is dropped from a high bridge. After 3 seconds of free fall the speed of the rock is:

(a) 30 m/sec (b)29.4 km/sec2

(c) 2940 cm/sec (d) 30 m/sec

(39) A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane moving horizontally with a speed of 200 mph. If the air resistance
is negligible, the bomb will reach the ground in 5 sec when the altitude is:

(a) 4 miles (b) 122.5 m

(c) 40 m (d) 10 m
(40) A particle accelerates uniformly from 10 km/hr to 20 km/hr with acceleration of 2 km./hr 2. The total
time it takes is:

(a) 20 hr (b) 10 hr
(c) 10 min (d) 5 hr.

(41) A football player will throw a football at maximum distance if the angle of projection is:

(a) 300 (b) 450

(c) 600 (d) 900

(42) The horizontal range of a projectile, at a certain place, is completely determined by

(a) the angle of projection

(b) the initial velocity of projection
(c) the mass of the projectile
(d) speed and mass of the projectile

(43) Range of a projectile on a horizontal plane is same for the following pair of angles:

(a) 300 and 600 (b) 200 and 800

(c) 00 and 450 (d) 100 and 900

(44) A cricket ball is hit at 45o to the horizontal with K.E. of E. The K.E. at the highest point is:

(a) zero (b) E/2

(c) E / 2 (d) E

(45) A man wanting to shoot at a fixed target should aim

(a) directly at the target

(b) slightly higher
(c) slightly lower
(d) slightly sideways

(46) A projectile is fired horizontally off a 490 m high cliff with a muzzle velocity of 80 m/sec. The time taken
by the projectile to reach the ground is

(a) 2.5 sec (b) 7.5 sec

(c) 5.0 sec (d) 10 sec

(47) A projectile is fired horizontally off a 490 m high cliff with a muzzle velocity of 80 m/sec. How far
from the bottom of the cliff will the projectile land ?

(a) 200 m (b) 400 m

(c) 800 m (d) 1600 m

(48) A missile is fired with a speed of 98 m/sec at 30o with the horizontal. The missile is airborne for

(a) 10 sec (b) 20 sec

(c) 30 sec (d) 40 sec

(49) A missile is fired with 98 m/sec at 30o with the horizontal. It reaches a maximum height of
 (a) 196 m (b) 98 m
(c) 122.5 m (d) 2940 m

(50) The range of a projectile is 8000 m and its summit is 3000 m high. How far is the summit from the
point of projection?.

(a) 3000 m (b) 8000 m

(c) 5000 m (d) 11000 m

ANSWER
1 C 2 D 3 C 4 C 5 C 6 A 7 A 8 A 9 C 10 D
11 D 12 B 13 D 14 D 15 A 16 A 17 C 18 B 19 C 20 A
21 C 22 A 23 A 24 B 25 A 26 B 27 C 28 A 29 B 30 A
31 A 32 B 33 A 34 B 35 B 36 C 37 A 38 C 39 B 40 D
41 B 42 B 43 A 44 B 45 B 46 D 47 C 48 A 49 C 50 C

CHAPTER 4

(1) Work done will be maximum if the angle between the force F and
displacement d is.

(a) 45o
(b) 90 o
(c) 180 o
(d) 0o

(2) A field in which the work done in a moving a body along closed path is zero is called.

(a) electric field

(b) conservative field
(c) electromagnetic field
(d) maximum
(3) When a force is parallel to the direction of motion of the boyd, then work done on the body is.

(a) zero
(b) minimum
(c) infinity
(d) maximum

(4) Which of the following types of force can do no work on the particle on which it acts?

(a) frictional force

(b) gravitational force
(c) elastic force
(d) centripetal force

(5) If a body a mass of 3 kg is raised vertically through 2m, then the work done will be.

(a) 38. 2 J
(b) 392.1 J
(c) 39.2J
(d) 3.92J

(6) An elevator weighing 3.5 x 10-6 N is raised to a height of 1000 m in the absence of friction, the work done.

(a) 3.5 x 103 J

 (b) 3.5 x 104 J
(c) 3.5 x 106 J
(d) 3.5 x 109 J

(7) The average power and instantaneous power become equal if work is done at.

(a) any rate

(b) at variable rate
(c) at uniform rate
(d) at high rate

(8) The relation between horse power and watt is.

(a) 1 hp = 546 watts

(b) 1 hp = 746 watts
(c) 1 hp = 1000 watts
(d) 1 hp = 946 watts

(9) Proton, electron, neutron and  particles have same momentum. Which of them have highest K.E?

(a) proton
(b) electron
(c) neutron
(d) -particle

(10) Slope of work time graph is equal to.

(a) displacement
(b) acceleration
(c) power
(d) energy

(11) Work done by variable force is determine by dividing.

(a) force into small interval

(b) displacement into small interval
(c) both force and displacement into small intervals
(d) force into small and displacement into large intervals

(12) Work done on the body equals to the.

(a) change in its K.E always

(b) change in its P.E always
(c) change in it K.E and change in its P.E
(d) neither change in K.E nor change in its P.E

(13) The escape velocity of a body in gravitational field of earth is independent of.

(a) its mass

(b) the angle at which its is thrown
(c) both its mass and the angle at which it is thrown
(d) gravitational field of earth

(14) The tides raise the mater in the see roughly in a day.

(a) once
(b) twice
(c) four time
 (d) eight time

(15) The source of geothermal energy is.

(a) decay of radioactive element in the earth

(b) compression of material in the earth
(c) residual lost of the earth
(d) all as said in a, b and c

(16) The highest value of escape velocity in solar system is for planet .

(a) Earth
(b) Neptune
(c) Jupiter
(d) Moon

(17) Work done by the force of friction is.

(a) always positive

(b) always negative
(c) positive only for small frictional force
(d) positive only for large frictional force

(18) P.E of a body has.

(a) no formula
(b) a formula mgh only
(c) a formula
(d) no general formula

(19) If velocity is double, then.

(a) momentum increase 4 times and K.E increases 2 times

(b) momentum and K.E remain same
(c) momentum increases 2 times and K.E increase constant
(d) momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases 4 times

(20) When the speed of a moving body is doubled, then.

(a) its K.E is doubled

(b) its acceleration is doubled
(c) its P.E is doubled
(d) its momentum is doubled

(21) One mega watt hour is equal to.

(a) 36x 106 J

(b) 36x 1012 J
(c) 36x 109 J
(d) 36x 108 J

(22) Which of the following is not conservative force.

(a) Friction
(b) electric
(c) gravitational
(d) magnetic
(23) Work has the dimension as that of same as that of.

(a) torque
(b) angular momentum
(c) linear momentum
(d) power

(24) The consumption of energy by a 60 watt bulb in 2 sec is.

(a) 120 J
(b) 60 J
(c) 30 J
(d) 0.02 J

(25) The relation between the escape velocity Vesc and orbital speed Vo is given by.

(a) Vesc = 1 /2Vo

(b) Vesc = √2 Vo
(c) Vesc = Vo
(d) Vesc = 2Vo

(26) The escape velocity form the earth surface in km s-1 is.

(a) 4.2 km s-1

(b) 7.5 km s-1
(c) 9.5 km s-1
(d) 11 km s-1

(27) If moon radius is 1600 km and g on its surface is 1.6 ms -2, then the escape velocity on the moon is.

(a) 1600 ms-1

(b) 50.6 ms-1
(c) 71.6 ms-1
(d) 2263 ms-1

(28) When two protons are brought together.

(a) Kinetic energy increases

(b) P.E between them increases
(c) P.E between them decreases
(d) P.E between them do not change

(29) When arrow is released from its bow, its energy is transformed from.

(a) heat energy to K.E

(b) elastic P.E to K.E
(c) chemical energy to elastic P.E
(d) K.E to elastic P.E

(30) A man lifts, vertically, a weight of 40 kg through 1m in 10s: while a child lifts, vertically, a weight of 10 kg
through a distance of 1m in 1s. What will be correct inference?

(a) man does more than child

(b) child does more work than man
(c) both do the same amount of work
(d) it is a foolish question.
(31) A man carries a 1 kg suitcase 10 m horizontally across the corridor and then goes up the stairs of total height
10 m. The work done by the man is

(a) 0 J (b) 4.9 J

(c) 196 J (d) 98 J

(32) A 100 kg car starting from rest runs down a 30 o slope. If the total length of the slope is 20 m, the speed
of the car at the bottom, ignoring friction, is

(a) 14000 3 m/sec (b) 1.4 m/sec

(c) 20 sin 30o m/sec (d) 14 m/sec

(33) A 2m tall man standing at the top of a 30 m tall tower raises a 1 kg mass 0.5 m above his head. The potential
energy of the raised mass may be considered to be

(a) 4.9 J (b) 24.5 J

(c) 316.5 J (d) all of the above

(34) A body is falling freely under gravity from point A to point B. The energy of the body at the point C is

(a) is less than its energy at A

(b) is equal to its energy at A
(b) is grater than its energy at A
(d) none of these
(35) When two protons are brought closer together, the P. E. between them

(a) remains constant (b) increases

(c) decreases (d) approaches zero

(36) If a car is moving at a constant speed of 25 m/sec and the total frictional forces acting on it amounts to 1000
N, then the engine power of the car is

(a) 250 joule sec-1 (b) 2500 watt

(c) 25 k watt (d) 500 k watt

(37) If you weigh 500 N and in 5 seconds you can run up a flight of stairs consisting of 40 steps, each 15 cm high,
what is your power?

(a) 3000 J (b) 3000 J sec-1

(c) 600 watt (d) 60 kilowatt

(38) One horsepower equals

(a) 273 W (b) 746 W

(c) 500 W (d) 1 kilowatt

(39) The horse-power required to pump up 2500 kg of water up 100 m in 5 minutes is:

(a) 10.9 hp (b) 25 hp

(c) 15 hp (d) 5 hp

(40) Water falls over a fall of 30 m at a rate of 45 106 kg/min. The power generated is:

(a) 200 MW (b) 210 MW

(c) 220 MW (d) 230 MW

ANSWER
1 D 2 B 3 D 4 D 5 C 6 D 7 C 8 B 9 B 10 C
11 B 12 C 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 C 17 B 18 D 19 D 20 D
21 D 22 A 23 A 24 A 25 B 26 D 27 B 28 B 29 B 30 B
31 D 32 D 33 D 34 B 35 B 36 C 37 C 38 B 39 A 40 C
CHAPTER 5

(1) The rotational K.E of hoop is equal to the.

(a) its translational K.E

(b) half than its translational K.E
(c) double than its translational K.E
(d) four times than its translational K.E

(2) A hoop and disc have same mass and radius. Their rotational K.E are related by an equation.

(a) K.Ehoop = K.E disc

(b) K.Ehoop = 2K.E disc
(c) K.Ehoop = 1/2K.E disc
(d) K.Ehoop = 4K.E disc

(3) The critical speed of an artificial satellite is.

(a) 6 Kms-1
(b) 8.1 Kms-1
(c) 7.9 Kms-1
(d) 8 ms-1

(4) Geo-stationary satellite completes one rotation around earth in.

(a) 3 hours
(b) 6 hours
(c) 12 hours
(d) 12 hours

(5) Radius of geo-stationary orbit form center of earth is nearly.

(a) 42000 km
(b) 36000 km
(c) 24000 km
(d) 18000 km

(6) According to Einstein, the gravity interaction is possible between.

(a) material objects only

(b) material objects and electromagnetic radiation only
(c) electromagnetic radiations.
(d) none of the above.

(7) One radian is equal to.

(a) 67.3o
(b) 57.3o
(c) 87.3o
(d) 60o

(8) The period of a circular motion is given by.

(a) T = rV
(b) T = w
(c) T = 2
(d) T = 2/
(9) The direction of linear velocity of body moving in a circle is.

(a) along the axis of rotation

(b) along the tangent
(c) directed towards the center
(d) directed away from the center

(10) When a body moves in a circle, the angle between its linear velocity and angular velocity is always.

(a) 180o
(b) 0o
(c) 90 o
(d) 45 o

(11) The circumference subtends an angle.

(a)  radian
(b) 2 radian
(c) /2 radian
(d) 4 radian

(12) The relation between linear and angular acceleration is.

  
(a)  = a x r

(b) a = r x 
  
(c) a = x r
 
(d) r =  x a

(13) When a body is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string the centripetal force is supplied by.

(a) mass of a body

(b) velocity of body
(c) tension in the string
(d) centripetal the string

(14) Centripetal force performs .

(a) maximum work

(b) minimum work
(c) negative work
(d) no work

(15) When a body moves in a circle of radius ‘r’ with linear speed ‘V’, its centripetal force is.

(a) mV / r2
(b) mV / r
(c) mV2 / r
(d) mV2 / r2

(16) A stone is whirled in a vertical circle at the end of a string. When the stone is at the highest position the
tension is the string is.

(a) maximum
(b) zero
(c) equal to the weight of the stone
 (d) less than the weight of the stone

(17) The span of broad jump depends upon.

(a) mass of the jumper

(b) height of jump
(c) angle of projection
(d) none

(18) In case planets the necessary acceleration is provided by.

(a) Gravitational force

(b) Frictional force
(c) Coulomb force
(d) Centripetal force

(19) If a car moves with a uniform speed of 2 ms -2 in a circle of radius 0.4. its angular speed is.

(a) 4 rad. s-1

(b) 5 rad s-1
(c) 1.6 rad s-1
(d) 2.8 rad s-1

(20) A body can have constant velocity when it follows a.

(a) elliptical path

(b) circular path
(c) parabolic path
(d) rectilinear path

(21) A body moving along the circumference of a circle completes two revolutions. If the radius of the circular
path is R, the ratio of displacement to the covered path will be.\

(a) R
(b) 2 R
(c) zero
(d) 4 R.

(22) The angular speed for daily rotation of earth in rad s -1 is.

(a) 2
 
(c) 4
(d) 7.3 x 10-5 rad-1

(23) When a wheel, 1 m in diameter makes 30 rev min, the linear speed of point on its rim in ms -1 is.

(a) 2
(b) /2
 
(d) 20

(24) A cyclist cycling around a circular racing track, skids because

 (a) the centripetal force upon him is less than limiting friction
(b) the centripetal force upon him is greater than limiting friction
(c) the centripetal force upon him is equal to the limiting friction
(d) the friction between the tyres of the cycle and road vanishes

(25) If a wheel of radius r turns through an angle of 30 o, then the distance through which any point on its rim
moves is.

(a) /3 x r
(b) /6 x r
(c) /30 x r
(d) /180 x r

(26) In angular motion, Newton’s second law of motion is.

(a) F = ma
(b) F = ∆p/∆t
(c)  = la
(d) all of above

(27) Angular speed of second’s hand of a watch in rad-1 is.

 
(b) /2
(c) /30
(d) /180

(28) The shaft of a motor rotates at a constant angular speed of 360rev/min.

Angle turned through in 1 sec in radian is.

 
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 12

(29) What is outward force acting on a mass of 10 kg when rotating at one end of an inelastic string 10m long
at speed of 1m/s?

(a) 1N
(b) 10N
(c) 2N
(d) 100N

(30) If we whirl a stone at the end of a string in the vertical circle, it is likely to break when the stone is .

(a) at the highest point

(b) at the lowest point
(c) at any point during motion
(d) at the point where gravity is not acting

(31) A body moving along the circumference of a circle completes two revolutions. If the radius of the circular
path is R, the ratio of displacement to the covered path will be ____________.
 (a) √R
(b) 2√R
(c) zero
(d) 4√R

(32) A man of weight W is standing on an elevator which is ascending with an acceleration a. The apparent
weight of the man is.

(a) mg
(b) mg – ma
(c) mg + ma
(d) mg – ma
(33) Which one of the following planets is closer to the sun?

(a) Pluto
(b) Venus
(c) Mercury
(d) Mars

(34) The planet nearest to the earth is.

(a) Venus
(b) Mars
(c) Uranus
(d) Sun

(35) A satellite moving round the earth constitutes.

(a) An inertial frame of reference

(b) Non inertial frame
(c) Neither inertial nor non inertial
(d) Both inertial and non inertial

(36) Minimum number of communication satellites required to cover the whole earth is

(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 5

(37) A body of 2 kg is suspended from the ceiling of an elevator moving up with an acceleration g. its apparent
weight in the elevator will be

(a) 9.8 N
(b) 19.6 N
(c) 129.4 N
(d) 39.2 N

(38) If a body of mass 10 kg is allowed to fall freely, its weight becomes.

(a) zero
(b) 98N
(c) 9.8N
(d) 10N

(39) How many days would be in a year if the distance between the earth and the sun were reduced to half of
its present value (assuming circular orbit)?
 (a) 365 days
(b) 730 days
(c) 329 days
(d) 129 days

(40) When a body is moving along a circular, path, it covers a certain angle in a given internal of time. Such
type of motion is.

(a) vibratory motion

(b) linear motion
(c) rotatory motion
(d) angular motion

ANSWER
1 A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 A 6 B 7 B 8 D 9 B 10 C
11 B 12 C 13 C 14 D 15 C 16 C 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 D
21 C 22 D 23 B 24 B 25 B 26 C 27 C 28 D 29 A 30 B
31 C 32 C 33 D 34 A 35 B 36 B 37 D 38 A 39 D 40 D

CHAPTER 6

(1) Coefficient of viscosity of honey is greater than.

(a) milk
(b) water
(c) tarcoal
(d) water

(2) The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity are.

(a) ML-1T-1
(b) M2L1T1
(c) ML1T-1
(d) M2L-1T-1

(3) Terminal velocity is.

(a) uniform
(b) maximum
(c) uniform and maximum
(d) neither uniform nor maximum

(4) When body moves with terminal velocity the acceleration in the body become.
(a) zero
(b) maximum
(c) variable
(d) infinite

(5) Terminal velocity is given by equation.

(a) Vt = gr2/η
 (b) Vt = gr2/9η
(c) Vt = gr2/9η
(d) Vt = 9gr2/2η

(6) Terminal velocity of the body is directly proportional to the.

(a) radius of the body
(a) diameter of the body
(b) size of the body
(c) square of the diameter of the body

(7) The flow of ideal fluid is always.

(a) turbulent
(b) streamline
(c) irregular
(d) straight line

(8) Drag force is given by.

(a) Newton’s law
(b) Pascal’s law
(c) Gauss’s law
(d) Stoke’s law

(9) When fluid is incompressible then.

(a) velocity of the fluid is constant
(b) flow of the fluid is constant
(c) density of the fluid is constant
(d) volume of the fluid is constant

(10) Irregular flow of fluid is called.

(a) streamline
(b) turbulent
(c) uniform
(d) laminar

(11) According to equation of continuity, A1V1 = A2V2 = constant.

The constant is equal to.
(a) flow rate
(b) volume of fluid
(c) mass of fluid
(d) density of fluid

(12) Equation of continuity is obtained by apply in law of conservation

of.
(e) mass
(f) energy
(g) momentum
(h) all

(13) Velocity of fluid increases where the pressure is.

(a) low
(b) high
(c) constant
(d) changes continuously
(14) Speed of efflux can be determined by applying.
(a) Bernoull’s theorem
(b) Torricelli’s theorem
(c) Venture relation
(d) All
(15) Blood vessels are.
(a) rigid
(b) not rigid
(c) of glass
(d) of rubber

(16) Concentration of red cells in blood is about.

(a) 25%
(b) 40%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%

(17) A man standing near a fast moving train may fall.

(a) on the train
(b) away from the train
(c) towards the train
(d) on himself

(18) For which position, maximum blood pressure in the body have the smallest value ?
(a) standing straight
(b) sitting on chair
(c) sitting on ground
(d) lying horizontally

(19) Two fog droplets have radius 2:3, their terminal velocities are .
(a) 4:6
(b) 4:9
(c) 2:9
(d) 4:3

(20) Burnoulli’s equation is obtained by applying law of conservation

of .
(a) mass
(b) energy
(c) momentum
(d) fluid

(21) Venturi meter is used to measure.

(a) fluid pressure
(b) fluid density
(c) fluid speed
(d) none

(22) In cricket when a bowler produce reverse swing, the ball will move
towards.
(a) Shinning side of the ball
(b) Rough side
(c) Seam of the ball
(d) Goes straight

(23) Stokes law is applicable if body has __________ shape.

(a) rough
(b) square
(c) circular
(d) spherical

(24) One torr is equal to.

 (a) 1.333 Nm-2
(b) .1333 Nm-2
(c) 13.33 Nm-2
(d) 133.3 Nm-2

(25) Systolic pressure is called.

(a) low blood pressure
(b) high blood pressure
(c) normal blood pressure
(d) abnormal blood pressure

(26) Instrument used to measure blood pressure is called.

(a) Venturimeter
(b) Blood pressure
(c) Sphygmomanometer
(d) Sonometer

(27) A chimney work best if air exposed to the chimney is,

(a) Stationary
(b) Moving
(c) Moving slowly
(d) Moving fast

(28) Which one is venture relation?

(a) P1 – P2 = 1 / 2 ρV22
(b) V2 = 2g (h1-h2)
(c) P + 1 / 2ρV2 + ρgh = Constant
(d) A1V1 = A2V2 = Constant

(29) The effect of the decrease in pressure with the increase of the speed of fluid in a horizontal pipe is known
as.
(a) Bernoulli’s effect
(b) Torricelli’s effect
(c) Venture effect
(d) Stokes effect

(30) Ideal fluid is.

(a) non-viscous
(b) incompressible
(c) steady flow
(d) possess all properties

(31) When weight of an object falling freely becomes equal to the drag force, then the body will move with
(a) increasing speed
(b) decreasing speed
(c) constant speed
(d) none of them

(32) The body will move with terminal velocity when it acquires
(a) minimum speed
(b) zero speed
(c) maximum speed
(d) none of them

(33) When the body reaches its terminal velocity, the acceleration of the body becomes
 (a) maximum speed
(b) minimum speed
(c) zero
(d) constant quantity

(34) A water hose with an internal diameter of 20 mm at the outlet discharges 30 kg of water in 60 s. what is
water speed at the outlet if density of water is 1000 Kg/m3 during its steady flow.
(a) 1.3 m/s (b) 1.6m/s
(c) 1.9 m/s (d) 2.2 m/s

(35) The direction of the streamlines is the same as the direction of the
(a) force (b) torque
(c) velocity (d) weight

(36) When the different streamlines cannot cross each other, then this condition is known as
(a) continuity condition
(b) turbulent flow condition
(c) steady flow condition
(d) none of them

(37) When each particle of the fluid moves along a smooth path, this path is known as
(a) straight path
(b) smooth path
(c) haphazard path
(d) streamline

(38) During the steady flow, different streamlines

(a) cannot across each other
(b) can across each other
(c) either of them
(d) neither of them

(39) If every particle of the flow that passes a particular point, moves along the same path as followed by
particles which passed the point earlier, then this flow is said to be
(a) turbulent (b) streamline
(d) abrupt (d) none of them

(40) When a fluid is in motion, its flow can be considered as

(a) turbulent
(b) streamline
(c) either of them
(d) neither of them

ANSWER

1 D 2 A 3 C 4 A 5 B 6 D 7 B 8 D 9 C 10 B

11 A 12 A 13 A 14 B 15 B 16 C 17 C 18 D 19 B 20 B

21 C 22 A 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 C 27 D 28 A 29 C 30 D

31 C 32 C 33 C 34 B 35 C 36 C 37 D 38 A 39 B 40 C
CHAPTER 7

(1) The time required to complete one vibration is called

(a) time period (b) frequency
(c) time period (d) velocity

(2) The force which opposes the applied force producing the displacement in the spring is called
(a) restorign force (b) periodic force
(c) centripetal force (d) resistive force

(3) The number of vibrations completed by a body in one second is called

(a) time period (b) frequency
(c) total vibrations (d) displacement

(4) The distance of vibrating body at any instant from its equilibrium position is called
(a) displacement (b) frequency
(c) amplitude (d) time period

(5) For a body executing S.H.M, its

(a) momentum remains constant
(b) potential energy remains constant
(c) kinetic energy remains constant
(d) total energy remains constant

(6) Which of the following does not exhibit S.H.M?

(a) a plucked violin string
(b) a mass attached to a spring
(c) a train shunting between two terminals
(d) a simple pendulum

(7) If the displacement of a body executing S.H.M is plotted against time, then the curve is known
(a) frequency of S.H.M
(b) period of S.H.M
(c) wave form
(d) none of them

(8) The wave from of S.H.M will be

(a) square wave (b) sine wave
(c) rectified wave (d) saw tooth wave

(9) An object undergoes S.H.M has maximum speed when its displacement from the mean position is
(a) maximum speed
(b) zero
(c) half of the maximum value
(d) one third of the maximum value

(10) An object undergoes S.H.M has maximum acceleration when its displacement form the mean position is
(a) maximum
(b) zero
(c) half of the maximum value
(d) one third of the maximum value

(11) In vibratory motion.

(a) P.E remains constant
(b) K.E remain constant
(c) Total energy remain constant
(d) Total momentum remain constant
(12) The waveform of S.H.M is.
(a) standing wave
(b) sine wave
(c) square wave
(d) none

(13) S.I unit of frequency is.

(a) vibration s-2
(b) radian
(c) hetz
(d) ms-1

(15) In S.H.M the velocity of a particle is maximum at

(a) mean position
(b) extreme position
(c) Middle between mean and extreme position on the right side.
(d) Middle between mean and extreme position on the left side.

(16) The acceleration of a projection on the diameter for a particle moving along a circle is.
(a) w2x
(b) wx2
(c) –w2x
(d) –wx2

(17) Total energy of a body executing S.H.M, is directly proportional to.

(a) square root of amplitude
(b) the amplitude
(c) reciprocal of amplitude
(d) square of amplitude

(18) The time period of a second pendulum is-

(a) 4 seconds
(b) 3 seconds
(c) 2 seconds
(d) 6 seconds

(19) The length of second pendulum is.

(a) 100 cm
(b) 99 cm
(c) 99.2 cm
(d) 98 cm

(20) If length of second pendulum becomes four times, then its time period will become.
(a) four time
(b) six times
(c) eight time
(d) two times

(21) The force responsible for the vibratory motion of the simple pendulum.
(a) mg cosθ
(b) mg sinθ
(c) mg tanθ
(d) mg

(22) The frequency of the second pendulum is.

(a) 1 hertz
(b) 0.5 hertz
 (c) 1.5 hertz
(d) 2.5 hertz

(23) Simple harmonic motion is a type of .

(a) Rotational motion
(b) Circular motion
(c) Musical arrangement
(d) Vibratory motion

(24) The SI unit of force constant is identical with that of.

(a) Force
(b) Pressure
(c) Surface tension
(d) Loudness

(25) When the amplitude of a wave become double, its energy become.
(a) Double
(b) Four times
(c) One half
(d) None time

(26) A simple pendulum suspended form the ceiling of a lift has time period T, when the lift is at rest. When
the lift falls freely, the time period is.
(a) Infinite
(b) T/g
(c) Zero
(d) g/T

(27) The energy of S.H.M is maximum at.

(a) Mean position
(b) Extreme position
(c) In between mean position
(d) All positions during SHM

(28) The product of frequency and time period is equal to.

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

(29) The displacement of SHM is written as X = Xo sinωt , If

displacement is written by X = Xo cosωt then phase constant will be equal to.
(a) 0o
(b) 45 o
(c) 90 o
(d) 180 o

(30) For what displacement the P.E becomes ¼ of its maximum value?
(a) x = xo
(b) x = xo/2
(c) x = xo/4
(d) x = xo2/2

(31) Sharpness of resonance is.

(a) directly proportional to damping force
(b) inversely proportional to damping force
(c) equal to square of damping force
(d) equal to square of damping force
(32) Which one does not work according to resonance?
(a) T.V
(b) Radio
(c) Microwave oven
(d) Bulb

(33) The restoring force acting on simple pendulum is given by.

(a) mg sin θ
(b) –mg sin θ
(c) ms cos θ
(d) –mg cos θ

(34) Phase of SHM describes.

(a) Displacement only
(b) Direction of motion only
(c) Both displacement and direction of motion
(d) Neither displacement nor direction of motion

(35) Natural frequency of simple pendulum depends upon.

(a) Its mass
(b) Its length
(c) Square of its length
(d) Square root of its length

(36) Electrical resonance is observed in.

(a) Radio
(b) Microwave oven
(c) Both in radio and microwave oven
(d) Neither in radio nor in microwave oven

(37) Total distance traveled by bob of simple pendulum in one vibration is equal to.
(a) Amplitude
(b) Square of amplitude
(c) 2 x amplitude
(d) 4 x amplitude
(38) When K.E energy of SHM is maximum, its.
(a) P.E is zero
(b) Acceleration is zero
(c) Restoring force is zero
(d) All P.E acceleration & restoring force are zero
(39) In damped harmonic oscillation, which one deceases?
(a) Amplitude of vibration
(b) Energy of vibration
(c) Both amplitude and energy
(d) Neither amplitude nor energy
(40) Forced vibration are known as
(a) Simple harmonic vibration
(b) Natural vibration
(c) Driven harmonic vibration
(d) Free vibration

ANSWER
 1 C 2 A 3 B 4 B 5 D 6 C 7 C 8 B 9 B 10 A

11 C 12 B 13 C 14 A 15 C 16 D 17 C 18 C 19 D 20 B

21 B 22 D 23 C 24 B 25 A 26 D 27 A 28 B 29 C 30 B

31 B 32 D 33 B 34 C 35 D 36 A 37 D 38 D 39 C 40 C

CHAPTER 8

(1) Waves transmit ________ from one place to another.

(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) both
(d) none

(2) The waves that require a material medium for their propagation are
called .
(a) Matter waves
(b) Electromagnetic waves
(c) Carrier waves
(d) Mechanical waves

(3) The distance between any two consecutive crests or troughs is called.
(a) Frequency
(b) Period
(c) Wave length
(d) Phase difference\

(4) When two identical traveling waves are superimposed, the velocity of the resultant wave.
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) Becomes zero

(5) In vibrating cord the points where the amplitude is maximum, are called.
(a) antinodes
(b) nodes
(c) troughs
(d) crests

(6) The distance between two consecutive nodes is.

(a) λ/2
(b) λ/4
(c) λ
(d) 2 λ

(7) The distance between consecutive node and antinode is.

(a) λ
(b) λ/2
(c) 2λ
(d) λ/4

(8) If stretching force is T of wire increases, then its frequency

(a) Deceases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains the same
 (d) Any of above

(9) A stationary wave is set up in the air column of a closed pipe. At the closes end of the pipe
(a) Always an node is formed
(b) Always an antinode is formed
(c) Neither node nor antinode is formed
(d) Sometimes a node and sometimes an antinode is formed

(10) It is possible to distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves form the property of
(a) Refraction
(b) Polarization
(c) Interference
(d) Diffraction

(11) according to Laplace correction sound travel in air under the conditions of
(a) adiabatic
(b) isothermal
(c) isobaric
(d) isochoric

(12) Sound waves do not travel in vacuum because

(a) They are transverse waves
(b) They are stationary waves
(c) They require material medium for propagation
(d) They do not have enough energy

(13) Velocity of sound is vacuum is

(a) 332 ms-1
(b) 320 ms-1
(c) zero
(d) 224 ms-1

(14) Increase in velocity of sound in the air for 1oC rise in temperature is
(a) 1.61 ms-1
(b) 61.0 ms-1
(c) 0.61 ms-1
(d) 2.00 ms-1

(15) The velocity of sound is greatest in

(a) Water
(b) Air
(c) Copper
(d) Ammonia

(16) On loading the prong of a tuning form with wax, its frequency
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) May increase or decrease

(17) The velocity of sound in air would become double its velocity at 0 oC at temperature
(a) 313 oC
(b) 586 oC
(c) 819 oC
(d) 1172 oC

(18) The normal ear is the most sensitive in the frequency range
 (a) 20,000 to 30,000 hertz
(b) 10 to 20 hertz
(c) 2000 to 4000 hertz
(d) 6000 to 8000 hertz

(19) Ultrasonics have

(a) Frequency in the audible range
(b) Frequency is greater than 20 kHz
(c) Frequency lower than 20 Hz
(d) All of above

(20) The periodic alternation of sound between maximum and minimum loudness are called
(a) Silence zone
(b) Interference
(c) Beats
(d) Resonance

(21) The number of beats produced per second is equal to

(a) The sum of the frequencies of two tuning forks
(b) The difference of the frequencies of two tuning forks.
(c) The ratio of the frequencies of two tuning forks
(d) The frequency of either of the two tuning forks

(22) Beats are the results of

(a) Diffraction of sound waves
(b) Constructive and destructive interference
(c) Polarization
(d) Destructive interference

(23) Silence zone takes place due to

(a) Constructive interference
(b) Destructive interference
(c) Beats
(d) Resonance

(24) Doppler effect applies to

(a) Sound wave only
(b) Light wave only
(c) Both sound and light wave
(d) Neither sound nor light wave

(25) When the source of sound moves away form a stationary listener, then ___________occurs.
(a) an apparent increase in frequency
(b) an apparent decrease in frequency
(c) an apparent decrease in wavelength
(d) an apparent change in frequency

(26) A simple pendulum has a bob of mass ‘m’ and its frequency is ‘f’. If we replaced the bob with a heavier
one, say of ‘2m’, then what will be its new frequency?

(a) 1/4f
(b) 1/2f
(c) f
(d) 2f

(27) Which one is the correct relation for fundamental frequency of open and closed pipe?
(a) fopen = 2 f closed
(b) f closed = 2fopen
 (c) fopen = f closed
(d) f open = 1 / f closed

(28) In open organ pipe

(a) Only even harmonics are present
(b) Only odd harmonic are present
(c) Both even and odd harmonics are present
(d) Selected harmonics are present

(29) Which one is the correct relation?

(a) V Newton = V Laplace
(b) V Newton = γV Laplace
(c) V Newton = √γ V Laplace
(d) V Laplace = √γ V Newton

(30) The dimension of elastic modulus ε is

(a) ML-1T-2
(b) ML-2T-2
(c) MLT-2
(d) ML2T-2

(31) The wave speed of a wave in terms of its wavelength  and period is:
(a) v =  T (b) v =  T2
(c) v =  / T (d) v = T /

(32) In a transverse wave the distance between a crest and a trough is equal to:
(a) /2 (b) /4
(c)  (d) 2 

(33) In a longitudinal wave the distance between adjacent condensations is equal to:
(a) /2 (b) /4
(c)  (d) 2 

(34) When a transverse wave is reflected on going from a denser to a rarer medium, then at the boundary the
reflected wave undergoes a phase change of:
(a) 0o (b) 90o
o
(c) -90 (d) 180o

(35) When a wave is reflected on going from a rarer to a denser medium, then at the boundary the reflected
wave will undergo a phase change of:
(a) 0o (b) 90o
o
(c) -90 (d) 180o

(36) A wave has a wavelength of 1 cm and a period of 2 sec. Its wave speed is:
(a) 0.5 m/sec (b) 5 cm/sec
(c) 2.50 cm/sec (d) 0.5 cm/sec

(37) If the distance between a compression and an adjacent rarefaction is 2 cm and the wave speed of the
wave is 4 cm/sec, then its wavelength is
(a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm
(c) 8 cm (d) ½ cm

(38) The intensity of a wave is the transfer of

 a) energy per unit area normal to direction of wave propagation
(b) power per unit area normal to direction of wave propagation
(c) amplitude normal to direction of the wave propagation
(d) power per unit area parallel to direction of wave propagation

(39) Two wave trains of the same amplitude and frequency travelling in opposite directions along the same
path in the same medium produce:
(a) resonance (b) beats
(c) standing waves (d) musical notes

(40) The speed of the transverse waves travelling in a stretched string of mass m, length l and under tension T
is given by the equation
l T mT
(a) v  (b) v 
m l
T 1 l
(c) v  (d) v 
ml 2 mT

ANSWER

1 A 2 D 3 C 4 C 5 A 6 A 7 D 8 B 9 A 10 B

11 C 12 C 13 C 14 C 15 C 16 B 17 C 18 C 19 B 20 C

21 B 22 B 23 B 24 C 25 B 26 C 27 A 28 C 29 C 30 A

31 C 32 A 33 C 34 A 35 D 36 D 37 B 38 B 39 C 40 A

CHAPTER 9

(1) Optical active crystals rotates the

(a) Vibrating plane
(b) polarization plane
(c) diffraction plane
(d) interference plane

(2) Which is not optically active?

(a) sugar
(b) tartaric acid
(c) water
(d) sodium chlorate

(3) I double slit experiment, we observe

(a) Interference fringes only
(b) Diffraction fringes only
(c) Both interference and diffraction fringes
(d) Polarized fringes

(4) When light incident normally on thin film, the path difference depends upon
(a) Thickness of the film only
(b) Nature of the film only
(c) Angle of incidence only
(d) All thickness, nature and angle of incidence
(5) Which one of the following properties of light does not change with the nature of the medium?
(a) Velocity
(b) Wavelength
(c) Amplitude
(d) Frequency

(6) Light reached the earth from sun in nearly

(a) 15 minutes
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 8 minutes
(d) 8 minutes 30 seconds

(7) Photoelectric effect was given by

(a) Hertz
(b) Fresnel
(c) Einstein
(d) Plank

(8) According to Einstein, light travels from one place to another in the
form of
(a) waves
(b) particles
(c) photons
(d) it was not his discovery

(9) Longitudinal waves do not exhibit

(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Diffraction
(d) Polarization

(10) Central spot of Newton’s rings

(a) Bright
(b) Dark for large wavelength
(c) Dark
(d) Bright for large wavelength

(11) A point source of light placed in a homogeneous medium gives

rise to
(a) A cylindrical wave front
(b) An elliptical wave front
(c) A spherical wave front
(d) A plane wave front

(12) the locus of all points in a medium having the same phase of vibration is called
(a) crest
(b) trough
(c) wavelength
(d) wave front

(13) Which one of the following is nearly monochromatic light?

(a) Light form fluorescent tube
(b) Light form sodium lamp
(c) Light form neon lamp
 (d) Light form simple lamp

(14) Two sources of light are coherent if they emit rays of

(a) Same wavelength
(b) Same amplitude of vibration
(c) Sam wave length with constant phase difference
(d) Same amplitude and wavelength

(15) When crest of one wave falls over the trough of the other wave, this phenomenon is known as
(a) Polarization
(b) Constructive interference
(c) Destructive interference
(d) Diffraction

(16) In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe spacing is equal to

(a) dλD
(b) 2λd/D
(c) λD/d
(d) λd/D

(17) In Young double slit experiment, if white light is used

(a) Alternate dark and bright fringes will be seen
(b) Coloured fringes will be seen
(c) No interference fringes will be seen
(d) Impossible to predict

(18) The Velocity of light was determined accurately by

(a) Newton
(b) Michelson
(c) Huygen
(d) Young

(19) The condition for constructive interference of two coherent beams is that the path difference should be
(a) Integral multiple of λ/2
(b) Integral multiple of λ
(c) Odd Integral multiple of λ/2
(d) Even integral multiple of λ

(20) In an interference pattern

(a) Bright fringes are wider than dark fringes
(b) Dark fringes are wider than bright fringe
(c) Both dark and bright fringes are of equal width
(d) Central fringes are brighter than the outer fringes

(21) The appearance of Colour in thin films is due to

(a) Diffraction
(b) Dispersion
(c) Interference
(d) Polarization

(22) The blue to the sky is due to

(a) Diffraction
(b) Reflection
(c) Polarization
 (d) Scattering

(23) A light ray traveling form rarer to denser medium suffers a phase change
of
(a) 60o
(b) 90 o
(c) 180 o
(d) 45 o

(24) When one mirror of a Michelson Interferometer is moved a distance of 0.5 mm, we observe 2000 fringes.
What will be wavelength of light used ?
(a) 5000 nm
(b) 5000 Ao
(c) 500 m
(d) 2000 μm

(25) Diffraction effect is

(a) More for a round edge
(b) Less for a round edge
(c) More for a sharp edge
(d) Less for a sharp edge

(26) The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of

(a) 10Ao
(b) 1000Ao
(c) 1Ao
(d) 100Ao

(27) Wavelength of X-rays falling at glancing angle of 30o on a crystal with atomic spacing 2x10-10 for the first
order diffraction is
(a) 4x10-10 m
(b) 2x10-10 m
(c) 0.02 x 10-10m
(d) 20x10-10m

(28) A diffraction grating has 500 lines per mm. its slit spacing or grating element will be equal to
(a) 500 mm
(b) 5x10-3mm
(c) 2x10-5mm
(d) 2x10-3mm

(29) In a plane polarized light,

(a) Vibration in all direction
(b) Vibration in two mutually perpendicular directions
(c) Vibration take place in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of light.
(d) No vibration at all.

(30) Light on passing through a Polarized is

(a) Plane polarized
(b) Un-polarized
(c) Circularly polarized
(d) Elliptically polarized

(31) Which one of the following cannot be polarized?

 (a) Radio waves
(b) Ultraviolet rays
(c) X-rays
(d) Sound waves

(32) Diffraction fringes are

(a) Equally spaced
(b) Distance between them increases
(c) Distance between then decreases
(d) They are adjacent with no space in between

(33) In monochromatic red light, a blue book will probably appear to be

(a) Black
(b) Purple
(c) Green
(d) No scientific reasoning available

(34) A thing that emits its own light is

(a) Luminous
(b) Non-luminous
(c) Incandescent
(d) Bright
(35) In double slit experiment, if one of the two slit is covered then
(a) No interference fringes are observed
(b) No diffraction fringes are observed
(c) No fringes observed
(d) Interference pattern not distributed

. (36) In Young’s double slit experiment, if d is the separation between the slits, destructive interference
will occur if
(a) d sin  = m  : (m = 0, 1,  2, . . .)
(b) d sin  = (m + ½)  : (m = 0, 1,  2, . . .)
(c) 2d sin  = m / : (m = 0, 1,  2, . . .)
(d) 2 d sin  = m  : (m = 0, 1,  2, . . .)

(37) In Young’s double slit experiment, if d is the separation between the slits,  is the wave- length of the light
used and D is the distance of the screen from the slits, then the position of the mth bright fringe from the
central position is given by
(a) ym = m  D/d (b) ym = (m + ½ )  D/d
(c) ym = m  d/D (d) ym = (m+ ½)  d/D

(38) In Young’s double slit experiment, if d is the slits separation,  is the wave length of the light used and D
is the distance of the screen from the slits, then the separation between two successive bright fringes or
dark fringes is given by
 D  d
(a) (b)
d D
D d
(c) (d)
 d D 
(39) In monochromatic red light a blue book will appear
(a) red (b) blue
(c) purple (d) black

(40) Which of the following properties is not found in both sound and light waves
(a) interference (b) diffraction
(c) polarisation (d) dispersion
 ANSWER
1 B 2 C 3 C 4 D 5 D 6 D 7 C 8 C 9 D 10 A
11 C 12 D 13 C 14 C 15 C 16 C 17 B 18 B 19 B 20 C
21 C 22 D 23 C 24 B 25 C 26 C 27 B 28 D 29 C 30 A
31 D 32 C 33 A 34 A 35 A 36 B 37 A 38 A 39 D 40 C
CHAPTER 10

(1) A lens which converges a beam of parallel rays to a point is called

(a) Diverging (or concave) lens
(b) Converging (or convex) lens
(c) Plano concave lens
(d) Plano convex lens

(2) A point where the incident parallel rays of light converge or appear to diverge after passing through a lens
is called
(a) Center of curvature
(b) Focus
(c) Optical centre
(d) Aperture

(3) The diameter of a lens is called

(a) Focal length
(b) Principal axis
(c) Aperture
(d) Radius of curvature

(4) In going form a denser to rarer medium a array of light is

(a) undeviated
(b) bent away form the normal
(c) bent towards the normal
(d) polarized

(5) Unit of power of a lens is

(a) Meter
(b) watt
(c) dioptre
(d) horsepower

(6) Dioptre power of an concave lens of 10 cm focal length is

(a) 10 dioptre
(b) -10 dioptre
(c) 1/10 dioptre
(d) -1/10 dioptre

(7) The power of a concave lens is

(a) real
(b) virtual
(c) positive
(d) negative

(8) The minimum distance between an object and its real image in a convex lens is
a. 2 f
b. 2.5 f
c. 3 f
d. 4f

(9) If an object is placed away form ‘2f’ of a converging lens, then the image will be
a. Real and erect
b. Virtual and erect
c. Real and inverted
d. Virtual
(10) A convex lens gives a virtual image only when the objects leis
a. Between principal focus and center of curvature
b. Beyond 2 f
c. At the principal focus
d. Between principal focus and optical center

(11) Magnifying power of simple microscope

a. Increase with increase in focal length
b. Increase with decrease in focal length
c. No effect with decrease or increase with focal length
d. List distance of distinct vision

(12) Image of an object 5 mm high is only 1 cm high. Magnification produced by lens is

a. 0.5
b. 0.2
c. 1
d. 2

(13) The least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is

a. 15cm
b. 25cm
c. 30cm
d. 40cm

(14) least distance of distinct vision

a. increases with increase in age
b. decrease with increaser in age
c. neither increases nor decreases
d. becomes infinite after 60 years

(15) If a convex lens of large aperture fails to converge the light rays incident on it to a single point, it is said to
suffer form
a. Chromatic aberration
b. Spherical aberration
c. Both spherical and chromatic
d. Distortion

(16) Two convex lenses of equal focal length ‘f’ are placed in contact, the resultant focal length of the
combination is
a. Zero
b. f
c. 2f
d. f/2

(17) A convex lens of focal length ‘f1’and a concave lens of focal length ‘f2’ are placed in contact. The focal
length of the combination is
a. f2 + f1
b. f2 – f1
c. f1f2/f2+f1
d. f1f2/f1-f2

(18) Final image produced by a compound microscope is

a. Real and inverted
b. Real and erect
c. Virtual and erect
d. Virtual and inverted.
(19) for normal adjustment, length of astronomical telescope is
a. fo + fe
b. fo – fe
c. fo/fe
d. fe/fo

(20) In multimode step index fibre the refractive index of core and cladding is
a. Same
b. Different
c. Zero
d. Different with refractive index of core higher than cladding

(21) Dispersional effect may produced error in light signals. This type of error is minimum in.
a. Single mode step index fibre
b. Multimode step index fibre
c. Multimode graded index fibre
d. Monomode step index fibre

(22) Light signals passes through multimode graded fibre due to .

a. Continuous refraction
b. Total internal reflection
c. Both continuous refraction and total internal reflection
d. Diffraction

(23) Which one type of fibre is more suitable for transmission of signals in which white light is used?
a. Mono mode step index fibre
b. Multi mode step index fibre
c. Multi mode graded index fibre
d. Single mode step index fibre

(24) Critical angle is that incident angle in denser medium for which angle of refraction is.
a. 0o
b. 45 o
c. 90 o
d. 180 o

(25) There is no noticeable boundary between core and cladding.

a. Multi mode step index fibre
b. Multi mode graded index fibre
c. Single mode step index fibre
d. All types of fibre

(26) The electrical signals change into light signals for transmission through optical fibre. A light pulse
represent.
a. Zero (0)
b. One (1)
c. Both zero (0) and one (1)
d. Neither zero (0) nor one (1)

(27) A lens, which is thicker at the center and thicker at the edges, is called.
a. Concave lens
b. Convex lens
c. Plano convex lens
d. Plano concave lens
(28) A spectrometer is used to find.
a. Wave length of light
b. Refractive index of the prism
c. Wavelength of different colours
d. None
(29) If a convex lens of focal length ‘f’ is cut into two identical halves along the lens diameter, the focal length
of each half is.
a. f
b. f/2
c. 2f
d. 3f/2

(30) A convex and concave lens of focal length ‘f’ are in contact, the focal length of the combination will be.
a. Zero
b. f/2
c. 2f
d. Infinite

(31) A double convex lens acts as a diverging lens when the object is placed
(a) at the focus (b) at 2f
(c) between f and 2f (d) within the focal length

(32) The least distance of distinct vision for normal eye is approximately
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm
(c) 20 cm (d) 25 cm

(33) White light does not focus to a single point after passing through a convex lens due to
(a) chromatic aberration
(b) spherical aberration
(c) distortion
(d) spherical and chromatic aberrations

(34) Chromatic aberration can be removed by using

(a) concave lens
(b) combination of concave and convex lenses
(c) two convex lenses
(d) two concave lenses

(35) Spherical aberration can be reduced by using

(a) double convex lens
(b) central portion of the lens
(c) edge portion of the lens
(d) parallel rays

(36) If placed in contact, the focal length of the combination of two convex lenses of equal focal lengths f,
will be
(a) zero (b) f/2
(c) f (d) 2f

(37) If a single convex lens is placed close to the eye, it can be used as a
(a) telescope
(b) simple microscope
(c) compound microscope
(d) refracting telescope

(38) If d is the distance of distinct vision, the magnifying power of a magnifying glass of focal length f is
(a) d/f (b) f/d
 (c) 1 + d/f (d) 1 + f/d

(39) The objective of a microscope is a lens of

(a) large focal length and converging properties
(b) moderate focal length and diverging properties
(c) very short focal length and converging properties
(d) moderate focal length and converging properties
(40) The magnifying power of a compound microscope in terms of the magnification of the objective and
magnifying power of the eyepiece is given by
po f qo d
(a) M = (1  e ) (b) p ( 1  f )
qo d o
e
q d po d
(c) p ( 1  f (1 
o
) (d) )
qo f
o
e e

ANSWER
1 B 2 B 3 C 4 B 5 C 6 B 7 D 8 D 9 C 10 D
11 B 12 D 13 B 14 A 15 B 16 D 17 D 18 D 19 A 20 D
21 C 22 A 23 C 24 C 25 B 26 B 27 B 28 D 29 C 30 D
31 D 32 D 33 B 34 B 35 B 36 B 37 B 38 C 39 C 40 B

CHAPTER 11

(1) Dimension of pressure is.

(a) MLT
(b) ML-1T-1
(c) ML-1T-2
(d) ML-2T-2

(2) Temperature is a property, which determines.

(a) How much heat a body contains
(b) Whether a body will feel hot or cold to touch
(c) In which direction heat will flow between two systems
(d) How much total absolute energy a body has.

(3) WE prefer mercury as a thermometric substance because.

(a) Over a wide range of temperature is expansion is uniform
(b) It does not stick to thermometer glass
(c) It is opaque to light
(d) All of above

(4) The scales of temperature are based on two fixed points, which are.
(a) The temperature of water at 0oC and 100oC.
(b) The temperature of melting ice and boiling water at atmospheric pressure.
(c) The temperatures of ice cold and boiling water
(d) The temperatures of frozen and boiling mercury

(5) Numerical value of Bolzmann’s constant is.

(a) 1.38x10-31JK-1
(b) 3.18x10-31JK-1
(c) 3.18x10-23JK-1
(d) 1.38x10-23JK-1
(6) In a clinical thermometer, the mercury in the capillary tube does not contract one removed from the
patient because.
(a) Mercury takes a long time to contract
(b) The amount of mercury use is very small
(c) The capillary tube has a small constriction near the bulb
(d) The capillary tube is very narrow
(7) Normal human body temperature 98.6oF corresponds to.
(a) 37oC
(b) 42 oC
(c) 55 oC
(d) 410 oC

(8) The Fahrenheit and centigrade scales agree to.

(a) -40
(b) 15.5
(c) 542
(d) -273

(9) The size of one degree of Celsius is equal to.

(a) One degree of Fahrenheit scale
(b) 1.8 degrees of Fahrenheit scale
(c) 3.2 degrees of Fahrenheit scale
(d) 2.12 degrees of Fahrenheit scale

(10) At constant temperature, the graph between V and 1 / P is.

(a) Hyperbola
(b) Parabola
(c) A curve of any shape
(d) A straight line

(11) According to Pascal’s law the pressure of gas in a vessel is.

(a) Different in different direction
(b) Same in all direction
(c) Same only along opposite directions
(d) Same only along normal directions

(12) We can produce heat by.

(a) Frictional process
(b) Chemical processes
(c) Electrical processes
(d) All of the above

(13) Which one is true for internal energy?

(a) It is sum of all forms of energies associated with molecules of a system.
(b) It is a state function of a system
(c) It is proportional to transnational K.E of the molecules
(d) All are correct

(14) Metabolism is the name of a process in which energy transformation take place within.
(a) Heat engine
(b) Human body
(c) Atmosphere
(d) Laboratory

(15) Which one is not an example of adiabatic process?

(a) Rapid escape of air from a burst tyre
(b) Rapid expansion of air
 (c) Conversion of water into ice in refrigerator
(d) Cloud formation in the atmosphere

(16) The pressure exerted by a column of mercury 76cm high and at 0 oC is Called.
(a) 1 Atmosphere
(b) 1 Newton per square meter
(c) 1 Pascal
(d) date is insufficient

(17) Standard condition (STP) refer to a gas at.

(a) 76cm, 0oC
(b) 760mm, 273K
(c) 1 atm, 273K
(d) all of the above

(18) If the volume of a gas is held constant and we increase its temperature then.
(a) its pressure is constant
(b) its pressure rises
(c) its pressure falls
(d) any of above

(19) “If the pressure of a given gas is held constant its density is inversely
proportional to its absolute temperature.” We can refer it as another statement of.
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Charle’s law
(c) Ideal gas law
(d) Avagadro’s law

(20) Boyle’s law holds for ideal gases in.

(a) Isochoric processes
(b) Isobaric processes
(c) Isothermal processes
(d) Adiabatic processes

(21) Gas molecules of different masses in the same container have the same average transnational kinetic
energy, which is directly proportional to
(a) Volume
(b) Pressure
(c) Absolute temperature
(d) Time

(22) Which one is correct relation?

(a) CP +CV= γ
(b) CP = 1+R/Cv
(c) γ = CP/CV
(d) CP = 1-R/CV

(23) The reading on the Fahrenheit scale will be double the reading on the centrigrade scale when the
temperature on the centigrade scale is.
(a) 460oC
(b) 280 oC
(c) 360 oC
(d) 160 oC

(24) The area inclosed by the curve ABCDA for a Carnot heat engine represents the work done by Carnot
engine.
(a) At any instant
(b) Averagely
 (c) During its operation
(d) During one cycle

(25) For a gas obeying Boyle’s law, if the pressure is doubled, the volume Becomes.
(a) Double
(b) One half
(c) Four time
(d) One fourth

(26) Triple point of water is.

(a) 273 oC
(b) 273K
(c) 273.16 oC
(d) 273.16 K

(27) Which of the following properties of molecules of gas is same for all gases
at particular temperature?
(a) Momentum
(b) Mass
(c) Velocity
(d) Kinetic energy

(28) Boltzmann constant K in terms of universal gas constant R and Avagadro’s number N a is given as,
(a) K = RNa
(b) K = R/Na
(c) K = Na/Ra
(d) K = nRNa

(29) Average translational kinetic energy per molecule of an ideal gas is given by
(a) 3NaT/2 R
(b) 2NaT/3
(c) 3RT/2Na
(d) 3Na/2RT

(30) In which process entropy remains constant.

(a) Isobaric
(b) Isochoric
(c) Adiabatic
(d) Isothermal

(31) The expression for the absolute temperature T of an ideal gas is given by
(a) T = 3/2 k <1/2 m v2>
N
(b) T = 2/3 A <1/2 m v2>
R
m
(c) T=  v2 
3k
2 NAR
(d)
3T
(32) The amount of heat required raising the temp. of 1 kg of a substance through 1 K is called

(a) specific heat (b) heat capacity

(c) calorie (d) Joule

(33) Specific heats of a gas at const. pressure and at const. volume are respectively C p and Cv>
 (a) Cp < Cv (b) Cp > Cv
(c) Cp = Cv (d) none of these

(34) The ratio Cp/Cv = γ for a monoatomic gas is equal to

(a) 1.67 (b) 1.40
(c) 1.29 (d) 1.11

(35) The first law of thermodynamics is an expression of

(a) the conservation of energy including heat
(b) Conservation of mass
(c) heat death of the universe
(d) degradation of energy

(36) The process in which the pressure of the system remains constant is called
(a) adiabatic (b) isothermal
(c) isobaric (d) isochoric

(37) In an adiabatic process

(a) ΔQ = ΔU (b) ΔQ = ΔW
(c) ΔQ = 0 (d) ΔQ = ΔU - ΔW

(38) In thermodynamic process, ΔQ = ΔU. The process is

(a) isothermal (b) isobaric
(c) adiabatic (d) isochoric

(39) The efficiency of a Carnot engine between HTR at T1 and LTR at T2 is given by:
T1 T2  T1
(a) 1 - (b)
T2 T1
T1  T2 T1
(c) (d)
T1 T1  T2

(40) The property of a system that remains constant during an adiabatic process is called
(a) internal energy
(b) entropy
(c) temperature
(d) pressure

ANSWER

1 C 2 C 3 D 4 B 5 D 6 C 7 A 8 A 9 B 10 D

11 B 12 D 13 D 14 B 15 C 16 A 17 D 18 B 19 B 20 C

21 C 22 C 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 C 27 D 28 B 29 C 30 C

31 C 32 A 33 B 34 A 35 A 36 C 37 C 38 D 39 C 40 B

CHAPTER # 12
 ELECTRO STATIC

1. One coulomb is that unit of charge which when placed at 1m form an equal and similar charge repels it with
a force

a) 5 X 109 dyn b) 5 x 109 N

c) 9 x 109 dyn d) 9 x 109 N

2. The minimum charge on an abject is

a) 1 coulomb b) 1 state coulomb

c) 1.6 x 10-19 d) None

3. Which of the following is correct

a) J = C/V b) J = V x A
c) J = V/A d) J = C x V

4. One electron volt is

a) 1.6 x 10-12 ergs b) 4.8 x 10-10 ergs

c) 300 ergs d) None

5. Polarization of matter is possible only for

a) Conductors b) Insulators
c) Gases d) S. conductors

6. The charge on the electron was calculated by

a) Faraday b) J.J. Thomson

c) Millikon d) Einstein

7. The ink used in the photocopy machine

a) Black b) Blue
c) Red d) Tonar

8. There are two charges 1 uc and 6 uc, the ratio of forces acting on them will be

a) 1:25 b) 1:6
c) 1:1 d) 6:1

9. An electric field lines provides information about ________

a) Electric Force b) Direction

c) Medium d) All of them

10. If two charges are experiencing a force of 10 N, when medium is Air, if the medium is change whose
permittivity is ‘2’ then force will be

a) 3 N b) 5 N
c) 10 N d) 0.3 N

11. Unit of electric flux is

a) V.m b) N/C
c) V.m2 d) N2/C2

12. Gauss’s law can be applied to

a) Plane surface b) Curved surface

c) Any surface d) Closed surface
13. Objects may acquire an excess or deficiency of charge by

a) Electric force b) Heating

c) Striking d) By rubbing

14. Coulomb’s law is only applicable for

a) Big charges b) Small charges

c) Point charges d) Any charges

15. The force per unit charge is known as

a) Electric flux b) Electric potential

c) Electric intensity d) Electric current

16. Electric field intensity is also known as

a) Electric potential b) Electric flux

c) Potential gradient d) None

17. A basic technique when applying gauss’s law is to

a. Assume the field is constant in direction

b. Assume the field is constant is magnitude
c. Assume the field is constant in both magnitude and direction
d. Construct and imaginary surface
about the charge

18. The work done in moving a charge along an equipotential surface is

a. Depends on the path taken

b. Greater then zero
c. Equal to zero
d. Negative

19. In the region where the electric field is zero, the electric potential is always

a) Positive b) Negative
c) Constant d) Zero

20. The electric intensity is expressed in unit of N/C or

a) Volts b) Walt
c) Joules d) V/m

21. The energy stored in the capacitor is

a) ½ CV2 b) ½ C2 V
c) ½ QV2 d) ½ Q2V

22. A charge of 0.01c accelerated through a p.d of 1000v acquires K-E

a) 10 J b) 100 J
c) 200 J d) 400 eV

23. If the charge on the particle is double then electric field is

a) Half b) Double
c) Unchanged d) None

24. The electric potential at a point of distance 1 m from 2 uc charge is

a) 1.8 x 106 V b) 1.8 x 106 N/C

c) 1.8 x 104 V d) 1.8 x 105 V
25. Capacity of a capacitor depends upon

a. Size of plate
b. Distance b/w plates
c. Nature of dielectric b/w plates
d. All of above

26. The area of plates of 1 farad capacitor separated 8.85mm placed in the air is

a) 109m2 b) 05m2
c) 10-9m2 d) 10-15m2

27. The equation for the stokes law is

a) 6 b) 6 
c) 6 rv d) 8 
28. A capacitor acts as blocking elements when applied signal is

a) A.C b) D.C
c) Digital d) None

29. Inkjet printers works on the principle of

a) Electrostatic b) Electro dynamics

c) Electro magnetism d) Electronics

30. The surface consider for gauss’s law is called

a) Closed surface b) Spherical surface

c) Gaussian surface d) None

31. One giga electron volt

a) 106 ev b) 109 ev
c) 1012 ev d) 1015 ev

32. Gravitational force does not depends on

a) Force b) Masses
c) Distance d) Medium

33. Charge to mass ratio was firsts found by

a) Millikon b) J.J. Thomson

c) Newton d) None

34. The medium used b/w the plates of capacitor is called

a) Polarization b) Dielectric
c) Insulators d) Medium

35. The automobiles wind shield wipers works on

a. Electricity
b. Cell
c. Charging and discharging of capacitor
d. None

36. Selenium is a conductor material which when exposed to ________

 a) Light b) Dark
c) Mono chromatic light d) None of these

37. When capacitors are connected in parallel the net capacitance will

a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Constant d) None

38. When two capacitors of same capacitance are connected in parallel and then in service, the capacitance in
these two cases are in ratio of

a) 1:4 b) 4:1
c) 6:1 d) 1:2

39. S.I unit of permittivity of free space is

a) Farad b) Weber
c) c2/N.m2 d) c2/N.m

40. A capacitors may be considered as a device for

a. Storing energy
b. Increasing resistance
c. Decreasing resistance
d. None

41. If a 10MF and 2000MF capacitors are connected in parallel the net capacitance will be

a) 6.7 uF b) 1990 uF
c) 2010 uF d) None

42. A method for charging a conductor without bringing a charge body in contact with it is called

a. Magnetization
b. Electrification
c. Electrostatic induction
d. Electromagnetic induction

43. The field inside the hollow conductor will be

a) Zero b) Greater than zero

c) E = kq/r2 d) Infinite

44. One volt is

a. One joule per coulomb

b. One dyne per coulomb
c. One Newton per coulomb
d. One watt per second

45. If the potential difference on a surface is equal to zero b/w any two points, then surface is said to be

a. A dielectric
b. An equipotential surface
c. Polarized
d. None

46. The electric flux through the surface of hollow sphere containing a point charge at its center depends upon

a. Radius of sphere
b. Surface area
c. Magnitude of charge
 d. None of these

47. A charge of 2c is in a field of intensity 2N/C, the force on the charge is

a) 1 N b) 4 N
c) 4  N d) 0 N

48. A line whose tangent at each point is in the direction of electric intensity at that point is called a line of

a) Voltage b) Electric force

c) Charge d) Potential field

49. A unit of electric charge is

a) Volt b) Hennery
c) Ampere d) Coulomb

50. Potential gradient is defined as

E E
a. b. 
V V
r V
c. d. 
V r

51. Large CR (Time constant) value has

a. Small time constant

b. Large time constant
c. Equal time constant
d. None of these

52. A Capacitor of 2μF is connected with a

battery of 12 Volts, the charge stored in
capacitor

a. 2.5 × 10 -5C b. 2.4 × 10-6C

c. 2.4 × 10-5C d. 2.4 × 10-6C

53. An electric field can deflect

a. Neutron b. x – rays
c.  – rays d. α – rays

54. The relative permittivity r for germanium is

a. 16 b. 17
c. 18 d. 22

55. Xerography means

a. Type writing b. Wet writing

c. Dry writing d. None of these

56. A 25eV electron has a speed of

a. 2 × 106m/sec b. 3 × 106m/sec
c. 5 × 106m/sec d. 4 × 106m/sec

57. If mica sheet is place between the plates,

the capacity will
 a. Increase b. Decrease
c. Remain same d. None of these

58. The force exerted by two charged bodies

on one another, obeys Coulomb’s law
provided that

a. The charges are not too small

b. The charges are in vaccum
c. The charges are not too large
d. The linear dimension of charges are much
smaller than distance between them

59. Coulomb Law is also known as

a. Electrostatic Law b. Force Law

c. Inverse Square Law d. None

60. The ratio of Cvac and Cmed is equal to

1
a. r b.
r
1 1
c. d.
 o

61. The ratio of the force between two small spheres

with constant charges A) in air, B) in a medium
of dielectric constant K is

a) K2 : 1 b) 1 : K
c) K : 1 d) 1 : K2

62. The force of proton in electric field of magnitude 10 6 N/c is

a) 1.6 × 10-15N b) 1.6 × 109N

c) 1.6 × 1013N d) 1.6 × 1013N

63. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field E parallel to the cylindrical axis. The
total flux for the surface of the cylinder is:

a) R 2 / E b) Zero
c) 2R 2 / E d) 2R 2 E

64. In an inkjet printer the charged ink drops are diverted by the deflection plates

a) Towards the charging electrodes

b) Towards the gutter
c) Towards a blank paper on which the print is to
be taken
d) In inkjet printer ink can not be charged

65. The constant K in Coulomb’s Law depends upon

a) Nature of medium b) System of units

c) Intensity of charge d) a & b
66. How many electrons are in one Coulomb?

a) 6.2 × 10-23 b) 6.2 × 10-21

c) 1.6 × 10-19 d) Zero

67. The force between two charges in 8N. now placed a mica of relatively 4 between two charges as a medium,
the force then reduced to

a) 2N b) 4N
c) 6N d) 8N

68. Selenium is an

a) Insulator b) Conductor
c) Semiconductor d) Photoconductor

69. Find the potential at a point, where a charge of

1 × 10-3 coulomb is placed at a distance of 10m is

a) 1mV b) 1.9KV
c) 1.6KV d) 0.15KV

70. In Milikan’s experiment, we find the e/m for

a) Atom b) Electron
c) Proton d) Neutron

71. The charge determined by the Milikan’s experiment is

qvd qvd
a) q  b) q 
m g
mgd
c) g  d) None
v

72. The ratio of electrostatic force to the gravitational force between them is of the order of

a) 1036 b) 1038
c) 1040 d) 1042

73. The magnitude of the electric field on the surface of a sphere of radius ‘r’ having a uniform surface charge
density  is

 
a)  b)
 2 
 
c) d)
 r 2  r

74. Of the following quantities, the one that is vector in character is an electric

a) Charge b) Field
c) Energy d) Potential Difference

75. Dielectric has the charge of the type inside it

a) Moving charge b) Static charge

c) Both a & b d) None of these

76. The Coulomb’s force between two charges q1 and q2 separated by distance ‘r’ is F. If the separation between
two charges is doubled keeping charges constant, then Coulomb’s force becomes

a) 4F b) F/4
 c) F/2 d) 2F

77. The dimensions of relative permittivity are

a) [A2T4ML-3] b) [ML-3A2T4]
c) [ML3A2T2] d) None

78. An alpha particle has twice the charge of a proton. Two protons separated by a distance ‘d’ exert a force ‘F’ on
each other. What must be the separation between the alpha particles so that they also exert a force ‘F’ on
each other?

d
a) 2d b)
2
d
c) 2d d)
2
79. The ratio of instantaneous charge and maximum charge on plates of capacitors at t = RC is

a) 36.8% b) 63.2%
c) 20% d) 30%

CHAPTER # 13
CURRENT ELECTRICITY

1) If the length and diameter of conductor is double, the

resistance is

a) Remain same b) Double

c) Half d) Four time

2) The expression for the co-efficient of receptivity is

R R2  R1
a. b.
Ro  R2 
R1  R2 R2  R1
c. d.
R1 R

3) The reciprocal of resistivity is called

 a) Resistance
b) Conduction
c) Conductivity
d) None

4) One coulomb per second is equal to

a) Joule
b) Volt
c) Ampere
d) Walt

5) In the metallic conductor the current is due to flow of charge

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Proton
d) None

6) Conventional current flow from

a) Positive to negative
b) Negative to positive
c) Negative to negative
d) None

7) The main source for the current are

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
8) The drift velocity of electron at 0oC is

a) zero
b) Maximum
c) 1 cm/sec
d) 10 cm/sec

9) In the thermocouple the heat energy is converted

into

a) Mechanical energy
b) Electric energy
c) Magnetic energy
d) None

10) An electric heater 220V, 440W has a resistance

a) 2Ω
b) 110 Ω
c) 0.5 Ω
d) 20 Ω

11) The heating effect of current utilized in

a) Iron
b) Tube light
c) Fan
d) Motor

12) Mathematical form of ohm’s law is

a) I = VR
 b) I = V/R
c) I = R/V
d) R = IV

13) Ohm’s law is valid for only current flowing in

a) Conductors
b) Transistors
c) Diodes
d) Electric Areas

14) Through an electrolyte electric current is passed due to drift of

a. Free electrons
b. Positive and negative ions
c. Free electrons and holes
d. Protons

15) The e.m.f. of two cells can be compared by

a. AVO meter
b. Voltmeter
c. Potentiometer
d. Galvanometer

16) The post office box is based on the principle of

a. Galvanometer
b. Wheat-stone bridge
c. Voltmeter
d. None

17) At null point the current through the galvanometer

is

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Minimum
d) None

18) A current of 10A flows in a conductors of 10 Ω

resistance for 1 mint the heat produce will be

a) 102 J
b) 6 x 102 J
c) 6 x 103 J
d) 6 x 104 J

19) The unit of conductivity is

a. Ω. M
b. (η.m)-1
c. Ω.m-1
d. None

20) When the bulb is turned on, ohm’s law is

applicable

a) Yes
b) No
c) May or may not
d) None
21) In series circuit the net resistance is

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain constant
d. None

22) Joule law can be expressed as

a) I2 Rt
b) IR2t
c) IRt2
d) V2/R

23) The graph b/w V and I in case of ohm law is

a) Parabolic
b) Curve
c) Slope
d) Straight line

24) Resistance of supper conductor is

a) Finite
b) Infinite
c) Zero
d) Changes with material

25) The e.m.f. of a cell or battery is the voltage b/w its

terminals, when

a. It is closed circuit
b. It is open circuit
c. Its internal resistance is zero
d. None

26) The S.I unit of e.m.f. is same as

a. Work
b. Energy
c. Power
d. Voltage

27) The main type of resistors are

a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five

28) In the carbon resistor their value can be find by

their

a. Wires
b. Terminals
c. Color
d. Spots

29) The third band is written in the form of power of

a. 2
b. 6
 c. 8
d. 10

30) Tolerance color means

a. Greater
b. Less
c. Greater-less
d. None

31) If the first color red and 2nd band is green and
third band is orange, then value of resistance is

a. 20000
b. 24000
c. 25000
d. None

32) If the tolerance color is gold then it value is

a. ± 2%
b. ± 4%
c. ± 5%
d. ± 6%

33) A variable resistors is called

a. Resistance
b. Rheostat
c. Amplifier
d. None

34) A heat sensitive resistor is called

a. Amplifier
b. Diode
c. Thermistor
d. Conductor

35) The temperature co-efficient of thermistor is

a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. None

36) Thermistor can be used for the accurate

measurement of

a. Voltage
b. Resistance
c. Temperature
d. Heat

37) A circuit which has only one voltage source is

called

a. Network
b. Simple circuit
c. Complex circuit
d. None

38) The circuit who has more than one voltage source
 is called

a. Network
b. Simple circuit
c. Complex circuit
d. None

39) The algebraic sum of all the current at junction is

zero, is Kirchoff’s

a. 1st law
b. 2nd law
c. 3rd law
d. 4th law
40) The algebraic sum of voltages changes around a
closed circuit or loop is zero, is Kirchoff’s

a. 1st law
b. 2nd law
c. 3rd law
d. 4th law

41) If the resistance of a certain length wire, diameter

5mm is 10Ω if the diameter is charge to 10mm,
then new resistance is

a. 40
b. 5
c. 20
d. 2.5

42) The unit for the consumption of electrical energy

commonly used is

a. Joule
b. Watt sec
c. K. watt. hr
d. Watt. hr

43) Heat generated by 40 watt bulb is one hour is

a. 24000 J
b. 48000 J
c. 144000 J
d. 14400 J

44) The principle of potentiometer

a. P.d  length
b. P.d  resistance
c. P.d.  area
d. None

45) A fuse is placed in series with circuit to protect

against

a. High power
b. High voltage
c. High current
d. Over heating

46) If the resistor is traversed apposite to the direction

of current, then potential is
 a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. None

47) When electricity passes through the liquid then

process is called

a. Electro late
b. Electrolysis
c. Electro-conductor
d. None

48) Which one gives pure nature of the material

a. Resistively
b. Conductivity
c. Temperature co-efficient
d. None

49) Kirchoff’s 1st law is also called law of conservation of

a. Charge
b. Mass
c. Energy
d. None

50. The resistivity of copper in Ω.m is

a. 1.52 × 10-8 b. 1.54 × 10-8 c. 1.56 × 10-8 d. None

51. The wire used in Rheostate is made from

a. Constanton b. Nichrome c. Manganin d. Tungston

52. An ideal voltmeter would have an infinite

a. Current b. Voltage c. Resistance d. None of these

53. Open electric transmission lines

a. Obey Ohm’s law

b. Obey at high temperature
c. Do not obey Ohm’s law
d. None of these

54. If three resistances of equal resistance R are

connected in parallel, the net resistance will

R
a. 3R b.
3
3
c. d. R + 3
R
55. The fractional change in resistivity per Kelvin

a. co-efficient in resistance
b. co-efficient of resistivity
c. Resistance
d. None
 56. An electric bulb rated at 220V 140watt is
connected to 110v power line, the current that
flows in it is

a. 1.27 A b. 1.83 A
c. 2.27 A d. 2.83 A

57. Which one is non-ohmic?

a. Diode b. Carbon resistance

c. Copper wire d. Tungston wire

58. Magnetic effect of current is utilized in

a. Iron
b. Thermocouple
c. Measurement of current
d. None

59. The unknown e.m.f can be

determined by

R L l R
a. E x  E b. E x  E c. E x  E d. E x  lE
r l L r

60 Three two ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. The resistance b/w any two corner is
3 4
a. Ohm b. Ohm c. 4 × 3 Ohm d. 4 + 3
4 3
Ohm

61. The resistivity of a material is  . If the area of cross-section of material is doubled and length is halved then
the resistivity of material is:

a)  b) 4 
c) 2  d)  / 4

62. Four bulbs of 10W, 20W, 30W and 40W are connected in parallel, the bulb that will shine more is

a) 10W b) 20W
c) 30W d) 40W

63. A source of 200V provides a current of 10.0 Amperes to a house. The power delivered by the source is

a) 20 watt b) 40 watt
c) 2000 watt d) 200 watt

64. When the battery is connected at its ends, an electric field is set up at

a) Its ends b) Every point

c) Middle d) All of them

65. The value of resistance depends upon

a) Nature b) Dimension
c) Physical state d) All of them

66. Conductance is a quantity used to describe the

a) Physical state of the conductor

 b) Electrical properties of material
c) Dimension of the conductor
d) All of them

67. The resistivity  of Aluminium in Ωm is

a) 2.59 × 10-8 b) 2.60 × 10-8

c) 2.63 × 10-8 d) None of these

68. The resistivity of Germanium in Ωm is

a) 0.7 × 10-8 b) 0.5 × 10-8

c) 0.59 × 10-8 d) None of these

69. The colour code for the colour Grey is

a) 7 b) 8
c) 9 d) 5

70. A zero ohm resistor is indicated by

a) A single silver colour band

b) A single black band
c) A silver black band
d) None of these

71. Thermo couples convert heat energy into

a) Mechanical energy b) Chemical energy

c) Electrical energy d) None of these

72. An accurate measurement of emf of a cell is made by

a) A voltmeter b) An ammeter
c) A potentiometer d) All of them

73. The unknown emf can be determined and given by

R L
a) E x  E b) E x  E
r l
l R
c) E x  E d) E x  lE
L r

74. Do bends in a wire affect its electrical resistance

a) Yes b) No
c) Affects a little d) None of these

75. A 50 volt battery is connected across a 10 ohm resistor. The current is 4.5A. The internal resistance of the
battery is:

a) 1.1 Ω b) 1.2 Ω
c) 1.3 Ω d) 1.4 Ω

76. A 25 watt and 40 watts bulbs were connected an a series to a 220V line. Which electric bulb will grow more
brightly?

a) 25 watts bulb b) Neither will give light

c) Both will have same incandescence
d) none

77. A 100 watt bulb and a 200 watt bulb are designed to operate at 110V and 220V respectively. The ratio of their
resistance is
 1
a) 1 b)
2
1 1
c) d)
3 4

CHAPTER # 14
ELECTROMAGNETISM

1. The origin of magnetism is

a. Iron
b. Steel
c. Moving charge
d. None of these

2. The poles of magnet are similar to

a. Geo poles
b. Opposite to geo poles
c. Perpendicular to geo poles
d. None

3. A moving charge is surrounded by

a. 2 fields
b. 3 fields
c. 4 fields
d. None

4. A photon while passing though a magnetic field are deflected towards

a. North pole
b. South pole
c. Are ionized
d. None

5. Iron is what type of magnetic material, it is

a. Diamagnetic
b. Paramagnetic
c. Ferromagnetic
d. Non-magnetic

6. Magnetism is related to

a. Stationary charges
b. Moving charges
c. Stationary and moving charge
d. Law of motion

7. if the angle b/w v and B is zero then magnetic force will be

a. Max
 b. Min
c. Zero
d. None

8. when charge particle enter perpendicular to magnetic field, the path followed by it is

a. A helix
b. A circle
c. Straight line
d. Ellipse

9. The S.I. unit of magnetic flux is

a. Tesla
b. Weber
c. Joule
d. Newton

10. Tesla is the unit of

a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Magnetic field intensity
d. Electric field intensity

11. It is possible to set a charge at rest into motion with magnetic field

a. Yes
b. No
c. Some Time
d. None

12. A current carrying conductor carries current away from you the direction of magnetic field with respect to
you is

a. Away from you

b. Towards you
c. Clock wise
d. Anti clockwise

13. The shape of magnetic field around a long straight current carrying wire is

a. Electrical
b. Squire
c. Varies with current
d. Circular

14. one Tesla is equal to

a. 104G
b. 10-4G
c. 106G
d. 10-6G
15. The flux through an area of 1 m2 in x -y plane in a magnetic filed of 1T directed along Z -axis will be

a. Zero
b. 1 wb
c. 0.5 web
d. None

16. The toque in the coil can be increased by increasing

a. No, of tarns
b. Current and magnetic field
c. Area of coil
d. All of above

17. A current carrying loop, when placed in a uniform magnetic field will experience

a. Electric flux
b. Torque
c. Magnetic flux
d. Force

18. The magnetic flux will be max, for an angle of

a. 0o
b. 60o
c. 90o
d. 180o

19. The Weber and Maxwell are unit of measure of

a. Conductance
b. Electric current
c. Magnetic flux
d. Electric flux

20. One weber is equal to

a. N.A2/A
b. N.m2/A
c. N.A/m
d. N.m/A

21. An electron moves at 2x102m/sec perpendicular to magnetic field of 2T what is the magnitude of magnetic
force

a. 1 x 10-6N
b. 6.4 x 10-17N
c. 3.6 x 10-24N
d. 4 x 106N

22. The waveform of sinusoidal voltage, its frequency and phase can be found by

a. CRO
b. Diode
c. Transistor
d. Radio

23. The force on a charge particle moving parallel to magnetic field is

 a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Zero
d. None

24. The presence of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor was detected by

a. H. orested
b. Ampere
c. Weber
d. Henry

25. Ampere’s law is applicable to

a. Circular path
b. Rectangular path
c. To any path
d. None

26. The unit of permiability of free space is

a. T.m/A
b. T.m2/A
c. T.m/A2
d. None

27. The value of  o is

a. 4  x 10-6
b. 4  x 10-7
c. 4  x 10-8
d. 4  x 10-9

28. The magnetic induction of solenoid is

a.  o NI
b.  o NL
c. o N
d. None

29. A solenoid of length 500m is wonded into 100 turns. A current of 10 A flows in it, the magnetic field
intensity is

a. 20  o
b. 200  o
c. 2000  o
d. None

30. When charge particle enters in the uniform magnetic field, the magnetic force will be balance by

a. Electric force
b. Magnetic force
c. Centripetal force
d. None

31. The frequency of cyclotron is given by

 qb
a. f =
2m
qb
b. f =
2rm
qb
c. f =
2
qb
d.
mr

32. the e/m value of electron is

a. 1.7588 x 1011
b. 1.75599 x 1012
c. 1.7588 x 109
d. 1.7559 x 1014
33. F = Fe + Fm is

a. Electric force
b. Magnetic force
c. Lorentz force
d. None

34. The main part of C.R.O is

a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five

35. In C.R.O. the deflecting plats are

a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. None

36. The material used in fluorescent screen is

a. Electric
b. Magnetic
c. Phosphors
d. None

37. The value of restoring torque in galvanometer is

a.   r
b.   c
c.   m
d. None

38. In the galvanometer the current is proportional to

a. Magnetic field
b. Electric field
c. Angle
d. None
39. When a small resistance is connected in parallel to the galvanometer it is called

a. Ammeter
b. Voltmeter
c. AVO meter
d. None

40. To find the shunt resistance we used equation

IgRg
a. Rs =
I  Ig
IsRg
b. Rs =
I  Ig
IgRs
c. Rs =
R  Ig
IsRs
d. Rs =
I  Ig

41. To convert a galvanometer into voltmeter we connect a resistance in

a. Series
b. Parallel
c. Series or parallel
d. None

42. AVO-meter is used to find

a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Resistance
d. All of above

43. An ideal voltmeter has

a. Small resistance
b. High resistance
c. Infinite resistance
d. None

44. an ammeter can be more sensitive if C/BAN is made

a. Very large
b. Very small
c. Unaltered
d. None

45. To increase the scale of galvanometer to twice of its initial value we need to connect a shunt

a. Rs = Rg
b. Rs < Rg
c. Rs > Rg
d. None

46. Which of the following is a hard magnet?

 a. Iron
b. Nickel
c. Steel
d. All of them

47. Ammeter and galvanometer

a. Are always connected in series

b. Are always connected in parallel
c. Both in series and parallel
d. None

48. The sensitivity of galvanometer is directly depends on

a. Magnetic field
b. Area of coil
c. Number of turns
d. All of above

49. One Tesla is also equal to

a. web.m2
b. web.m-2
c. web.m
d. None

50. The dot product of magnetic field are area is called

a. Electric flux
b. Magnetic flux
c. Ampere law
d. None

51. One Henry is equal to

a. V. sec/A b. V.A/sec
c. A.sec/V d. None

52. The S.I unit of Magnetic Permeability is

a. web/m2 b. web A/m

c. web m/A d. None of these

53. Shunt resistor is also called

a. By pass resistor b. Specific resistor c. Reactance d. None

54. Synchronization controls of CRO are used to

synchronize

a. Frequency b. Current
c. Voltage d. All of them

55. In C.R.O the anode are at positive potential

with respect to cathode is

a. very high b. high

c. low d. very low

56. The e/m value for an electron is

4v Zv
a. b.
Br Br
 2v 2v
c. d.
B2r B2r 2
57. C.R.O is same as

a. Radio
b. TV Picture tube
c. Transistor
d. None

58. Heating a magnet will

a) Weaken it
b) Strength it
c) Reverse its polarity
d) Demagnetize completely

59. Minimum current require to produced a

deflection of 1mm on a scale at a distance of
1mm is

a) 0.1A
b) 1A
c) current sensitivity
d) 1mA

60 1 weber = _______

a) 106 Maxwell
b) 108 Maxwell
c) 1010 Maxwell
d) none

61. When the number of turns in a solenoid is doubled without any change in the length of the solenoid its self
induction will be:

a) Four times b) Doubled

c) Halved d) None

62. The potential difference across the shunt resistor Rs is

a) V  I g R s b) V  ( I  I g ) R s
c) V  ( I g  I ) R s d) V  I g R g

63. In multi range ammeter

a) Resistances of different values are connected in

series with galvanometer
b) Different resistances are connected in parallel with
galvanometer
c) Some resistances are connected in parallel and
some of them are connected in series
d) None

64. The S.I unit of magnetic permeability is

a) TmA-2 b) TmA-1
c) Fm-1 d) None of these

65. A solenoid is a cylindrical, long and tightly wound coil of wire. When a current pass through it behaves like a
 a) Source of emf b) Magnet
c) Electromagnet d) None of these

66. The brightness of the spot formed on the screen in controlled by the

a) Electron b) Proton
c) Potential d) None of these

67. Due to radial field, a moving coil galvanometer is

a) Comes to rest quickly

b) Magnetic field becomes strong
c) Movement is frequent
d) None of these

68. A very high resistor Rh is connected in series with the galvanometer in order to convert it into voltmeter

V V
a)  Rg b)  Rg
I Ig
Ig I
c)  Rg d)  Rg
V V

69. Magnetic flux passing normally, through a unit area is called

a) Magnetization
b) Magnetic field intensity
c) Magnetic flux density
d) All of these

70. The relation between Tesla ( T ) and Gauss (G) is given as

a) 1T = 104G b) 1T = 106G
c) 1T = 10-4G d) 1T = 10-6G

71. Couple necessary to produce unit twist is

a) Deflecting couple b) Restoring couple

c) Torsion couple d) None of these

72. In velocity selector method, the velocity of an electron is given by

2V 3 Ve
a) v  b) v 
m m
2V 2 Ve
c) v  d) v 
me m

73. The beam of the electrons is provided by

a) Ionization of atoms b) Photoemission

c) Electron gun d) None of these

74. The resistance of a voltmeter should have a very high resistance

a) It does not disturb the circuit

b) It draws some current
c) It same the galvanometer coil
d) None of these

75. The wave form of sinusoidal voltage, its frequency and phase can be found by
 a) CRO b) Diode
c) Transistor d) Radio

76. The shunt resistance connected to a Galvanometer to convert it into a desired level current measuring
ammeter is

V Vg
a) R s  Rg b) R s 
I I  Ig
Ig
c) R s  d) None
I  Ig

77. A vertical solenoid has 200 turns in a length of 0.4m and carries a current of 3A in anticlockwise. The flux
density in the middle in Tesla is about

a) 6 10 4 b) 6 10 5
c) 60 10 4 d) None

CHAPTER # 15
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

1. The induced e.m.f. is produce due to

a. Motion of coil
b. Motion of magnet
c. The rate of change of flux
d. None

2. Induced electric current can be explained using which law

a. Gauss’s law
b. Faraday’s law
c. Ohm’s law
d. Ampere law

3. In the motional e.m.f. the mechanical energy consumed is converted into

 a. Heat energy
b. Internal energy
c. Steam energy
d. None

4. Generator works on the principle of

a. Torque on rectangular coil

b. Motional e.m.f.
c. Question is wrong
d. None

5. Lenz’s law is consistent with law of conservation of

a. Mass
b. Energy
c. Charge
d. None

6. An inductor is a circuit element that can store energy in the form of

a. Magnetic field
b. Electric flux
c. Electric field
d. None

7. The induced e.m.f. can also be increase by increasing

a. Current
b. Voltage
c. No. of turns
d. None

8. The negative sign with induced e.m.f. is due to

a. Faraday’s law
b. Lenz’s law
c. Ampere law
d. None

9. The best way to find the direction of induced e.m.f. in the circuit is

a. Faraday’s law
b. Lenz’s law
c. Ampere’s law
d. Right hand rule

10. The relation of motional e.m.f. is

a. E=BLV
b. E=qBl
c. E=Blq
d. E=qVB

11. If we increase the resistance of coil, the induced e.m.f. will be

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain same
d. None
 12. The self-inductance may be defined by

a) L =
 / t
  / t
b) L =


c) L =
 / t

d) L=
 / t

13. The mutual inductance b/w two coil is

a. M = -  / p

b. M =
p / t
c. M = -  /  / t
d. None

14. Inductance are measured by

a) Coulombs b) Amperes
c) Volt d) Henry

15. The self inductance in case of D.C circuit is

a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. negligble
d. None

16. An over loaded motor draws

a. Max. current
b. Min. current
c. Half
d. None

17. The self inductance of a solenoid is


a) L =   n
2


 
2
b) L =   n 2

c) L =   nlA
2

2 n 
d) L =  


18. A current of 7Amp/sec flows a steady rate, through a inductor of inductance 25mh, what is the induced e.m.f?

a) 3.57mv
b) 175mv
c) 350mv
d) None

19. The energy stored in the inductor is

a) ½ L I 2
b) ½ L2 I
c) ½ L2I2
d) None

20. The energy stored in the inductor per unit volume is

 2 
a. b.
2 0 2 o
  2
c. d.
4 0 4 o

21. What energy is stored in an inductor of 40mH, when a current of 8A passing through it

a. 160 mJ
b. 1.28 J
c. 1.6 mJ
d. None

22. Lamination of lamina core of transformer is to decrease its

a. Eddy current
b. Hysteresis
c. Electric resistance
d. Inductance

23. The co-efficient of mutual inductance is equal to

 p   t 
a.   b.   
 t   p 
c.  tp d. none

24. Mutual inductance is numerically equal to the e.m.f. induced in the secondary coil when the rate of change
of

a. One ampere in secondary coil

b. Magnetic flux
c. Current in one ampere in secondary
d. None

25. Mutual inductance exists

a. Within coil
b. Out of coil
c. B/w two coil
d. None

26. Alternating current changes

a. Its magnitude as well as direction

b. Only direction but not magnitude
c. Only magnitude but not direction
d. None

27. The coil in A.C generator rotates with rotational speed of 10rad/sec its frequency is

a. 2  rad/sec
 b. 5  rad/sec
5
c. rad/sec

d. None

28. The instantaneous value of A.C. voltage is

a. V = Vo sin 2  ft
b. V = Vo sin 2 ft
c. V = Vo sing 2  wt
d. None

29. In case of A.C. generator the slip rings

a. Move parallel to coil

b. Are stationary
c. Move along the direction of coil
d. None

30. The induced e.m.f. in A.C. generator is

a. VBL sin 
b. NESN sing 
c. NAB sin 
d. NIAB sin 

31. In Pakistan the frequency of A.C. is

a. 50 Hz
b. 100 Hz
c. 150 Hz
d. 220 Hz

32. The difference b/w A.C. and D.C. generator in due to

a. Slip rings
b. Commutators
c. Slip – chip
d. None

33. Two parallel conducting wires placed closer to each other carry current in the same direction will.

a. Attract each other

b. Repel each other
c. No effect
d. None of these

34. The back motor effect exist in the

a. Generator
b. Mater
c. A.C. Meter
d. None

35. The coil used in the generators is called

a. Commutaters
 b. Slip rings
c. Armature
d. None

36. The back ward generator is called

a) Electric motor
b) A.C. generator
c) Reverse generator
d) None

37. Electric mo0ter are used in

a. Television
b. Radar
c. Tape recorder
d. All of above

38. The back e.m.f. exist in the

a. Generator
b. Motor
c. Transformer
d. None

39. The principle of transformer is

a. Amperes law
b. Mutual induction
c. Motional e.m.f.
d. None

40. A transformer is a device which step up or stop down

a. Energy
b. Power
c. Voltage
d. All of above

41. The coil which is connected to input is called

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Middle
d. None

42. In the actual transformer, the output is always

a. Equal to input
b. Less then input
c. More than input
d. None

43. A transformer changes 12V to 1800V and there are 6000 turns in secondary coil, the no of turn on primary
coil is

a. 40
b. 20
c. 10
d. 2
44. In ideal transformer when p.d. in double the current is

a. Doubled
b. Tripled
c. Halved
d. Same

45. Power is effectively supplied to primary coil of step up transformer by

a. A.C. generator
b. D.C. generator
c. Battery
d. Motor

46. An adopter is an example of

a. Step up transformer
b. Step down transformer
c. For both
d. None

47. The eddy current produced

a. Power loss
b. Heating
c. Both a and b
d. None

48. To over come the eddy current, the core is

a. Laminated with insulation

b. With magnetic
c. With plastic
d. None

49. For a good transformer the hysterics loop are _______ in size.

a. Small
b. Large
c. Zero
d. None

50. To minimize the heating effect in the transmission lines

a. High current low voltage in used

b. High voltage low current in used
c. Same voltage and current in used
d. None

51. Load is a device which consume

a. Mechanical energy
b. Electrical energy
c. Frictional energy
d. None

52. Induced e.m.f is

 a. Directly proportional to change in flux
b. Directly proportional to rate of change
of flux
c. Inversely proportional to change of flux d. None of these

53. A transformer is said to be efficient if

a. Output voltage = Input voltage b. Output current = Input current

c. Output power = Input power
d. Output energy = Input energy

54. The ratio of e.m.f’s of two cells is equal to

2
a. b. 1 : 2
1
1
c. d. 2 : 1
2

55. If a 3cm of wire is moved at right angle to the magnetic field with a speed of 2 miles/sec and if flux density
is 5 Tesla, what is the magnitude of induced e.m.f?

a. 0.03v b. 0.3v
c. 0.6v d. 10v

56. When a transformer is connected to 120 volt A.C it supplies 3000 volt to device, the current
through secondary winding is 0.6 amp and current through primary is 2 amp, the no. of turns on
primary is 400. what is the efficiency of transformer?

a. 75% b. 80%
c. 85% d. None of these

57. A.C and D.C have same

a. Effect in charging a capacitor b. Effect in charging a battery

c. Effect while passing through an inductor
d. Heating effect through a resistor

58. Magnetic compass needle will be deflecting, if it is kept near

a. Static charge b. Soft iron

c. Semi conductor d. Accelerating charge

59. When motor is at its Max. speed the back e.m.f

will be

a. Maximum b. Zero
c. Cannot tell d. None of these

60. Non inductive resistances are used in decreasing

a. Mutual inductance b. Self inductance

c. Magnetic field d. Heating effect

61. Self induction is greater in

a) AC circuits b) DC circuits
c) Both in AC & DC d) None
62. A solenoid of area of cross section 2.0cm2 and length 100cm stores energy. When current of 5.0A flowing in it
produces B = 0.1T then the stored energy is

a) (10-6μo)J b) (106/μo)J
c) (10-6/μo)J d) None

63. If the speed of rotation of AC generator is made four times of its initial value, the percentage increase in an
induced emf is

a) 100% b) 400%
c) 300% d) None

64. In mutual induction, the mutual inductance of the two coils depends upon

a) Number of turns
b) Area of cross section of coil
c) The distance between the two coils
d) All of them

65. The devices in the circuit that consume electrical energy are known as

a) Inductor b) Capacitor
c) Load d) None of these

66. The back emf effect in motors changes due to

a) Inductance of coils b) Current

c) Voltage d) None of these

67. In an ideal transformer, the following factors are used

a) Input and output power is same

b) Currents are inversely proportional to voltage
c) Currents are directly proportional to voltage
d) None of these

68. Radio frequency (R.F.) shielding of a coil means to protect from external circuit

a) Varying magnetic field

b) Magnetic field
c) Dust and heat
d) Electric field

69. The Jerks are created by the use of

a) Commutator b) Armature
c) Torques d) None of these

70. The application of mutual induction is a

a) Television b) Radio
c) D.C. motor d) Transformer

71. If the emf across the conductor of length 1m moving with a uniform speed at right angles to a magnetic field of
0.5T is 2V, the velocity of the conductor is

a) 1 ms-1 b) 2 ms-1
c) 4 ms-1 d) 8 ms-1

72. What is the self inductance of a coil when a change of current from 0 to 2A in 0.05sec induces an emf of 40V
in it?

a) 1H b) 2H
 c) 3H d) 4H

73. A pair of coils has a mutual inductance of 2H. If the current in the primary changes from 10A to zero in 0.1sec,
the induced emf in the secondary will be

a) 100V b) 200V
c) 300V d) 400V

74. A copper ring is held horizontally and bar magnet is dropped through the ring with its length along the axis of
the ring. The acceleration of the falling magnet is

a) Equal to that due to gravity

b) Less than that due to gravity
c) More than that due to gravity
d) Depends on the diameter of the ring and the
length of the magnet

75. An emf of 0.003V is induced in a wire when it moves at right angles to uniform magnetic filed with a speed of
4m/sec if the length of the wire in the field is 15cm, what is the flux density in Tesla?

a) 0.003
b) 0.005
c) 6
d) 12
e) 2000
 CHAPTER # 16
ALTERNATING CURRENT CIRCUITS

1. The A.C. e.m.f. can be represented by the wave form called

a. Sinusoidal
b. Cosine wave
c. Tangent wave
d. None

2. The mean value of A.C. over a complete cycle in

a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Zero
d. None

3. The r.m.s. value of A.C current in

a. 0.707 Io
b. 0.707 Vo
c. 0.708 Ro
d. None

4. In pure resistive A.C. circuit the voltage and current are

a. In phase
b. Voltage leads the current
c. Current leads the voltage
d. None

5. The waves which can also pass through the vacuum are

a. Matter wave
b. Mechanical wave
c. Electromagnetic wave
e. Transverse wave

6. A battery can pass only steady current through

a. Resistors
b. Capacitors
c. Inductors
d. All of above

7. The quality which is called argument of sine or cosine function is

a) t b) 2T

c) 2 d) 
 2

8. The unit used for capacitive reactance is

a. Volt
b. Ampere
 c. Joule
d. Ohm

9. If the frequency of A.C in large the reactance of capacitor is

a. Large
b. Small
c. Zero
d. None

10. In case of capacitor, the voltage lage- behind the current by

a. 90o
b. 60o
c. 30o
d. 180o

11. If the capacitance of capacitor is 1µF and the frequency of A.C is 50Hz then reactance will be

a. 3184
b. 3190
c. 3140
d. 3150

12. In the pure inductor the resistance is

a. Zero
b. Maximum
c. Minimum
d. None

13. The magnitude of back e.m.f. in the inductor is

 p
a.  L b.  L
t t

c.   L d. None
t

14. In pure inductive circuit the voltage

a. Lead the current by 90o

b. Ledge the current by 90o
c. Remain same with current
d. None

15. The resistance of inductor is represented by

a) Xc b) XL
c) RL d) None

16. If the frequency of A.C. is double inductor the reactance will be

a. Half
b. Same
c. Double
d. Triple

17. The average power dissipated in a pure inductor is

a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Zero
d. None
18. The device which is used for controlling A.C. without dissipation of energy is called

a. Inductor
b. Capacitor
c. Resistor
d. Choke

19. By increasing the frequency of A.C. through an inductor the reactance will be

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain same
d. None

20. In case of phasor diagram the vector rotates

a. Clockwise
b. Anti clockwise
c. Remain stationary
d. None

21. In case of phasor diagram the velocity vector is called

a. Null vector
b. Unit vector
c. Phasor
d. None

22. The combine opposition of resistor capacitor and inductor is called

a. Reactance
b. Resistor
c. Impedance
d. None

23. The S.I unit of impedance is called

a) Joule b) Weber
c) Ampere d) Ohm

24. When A.C. flow through RC series circuit the magnitude of voltage is

a. V =  R 2  Xc 2
2
b. V =  R2  X L
c. V = IR
d. None

25. The impedance of RC – series circuit is

V
a. R =
I
V
b. Z =
I
Z
c. V =
I
d. None

26. The magnitude of voltage in case of RL – service circuit

a. V = I R 2  XL2
 b. V = I R 2  Xc 2
c. V = IR
d. None

27. The average power in case of A.C. series circuit is

a) P = VI b) P = VI cos 
c) P = VI sin  d) None

28. In equation P = VI cos  , the factor cos  is called

a) Cosine b) Cos 
c) Power factor d) None

29. At what frequency will a 1H inductor have reactance of 500 ohms

a) 80 Hz b) 60 Hz
c) 40 Hz d) 20 Hz

30. In case of RLC series circuit the impedance of circuit is

2
a. Z = R2 + Xc 2  X L
2
b. Z = R 2  X L  Xc 2
c. Z = R 2  ( XL  Xc ) 2
d. None

31. The behavior of resistance is frequency

a) Dependent b) Independent
c) No, response d) None of these

32. At resonance frequency the power factor is

a) One b) Zero
c) Two d) Three

33. The frequency at which XL is equal to Xc in called

a. Resonance frequency
b. Threshold frequency
c. Non-frequency
d. None

34. At resonance frequency the impedance of A.C series circuit is

a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Can not explain by give data
d. None

35. In parallel circuit of A.C. there will be maximum

a) Power b) Voltage
c) Impedance d) None

36. The electrical oscillators are used in

a) Metal detectors b) Amplifier

c) Diode d) None

37. The current which is produce due to changing electric flux is called
 a. Displacement current
b. Conduction current
c. Eddy current
d. None

38. The fundamental requirement for the generation of electromagnetic wave is

a. Oscillation of electric charge

b. Motion of electric charge
c. Motion of electron
d. None

39. The speed of light was found by formula

1
a) c = b) c = s/t
o o
c) c = 2  rt d) None

40. The super position of sonic wave on EM waves that causes a change in vertical shape of EM waves is

a. Frequency Modulation
b. Amplitude Modulation
c. No, effect
d. None

41. For the reception of electromagnetic wave we use a variable

a) Resistor b) Capacitor
c) Inductor d) None

42. A.M stands for

a. Amplitude Modulation
b. Applied Metal
c. Accurate Measurement
d. None

43. F.M stands for

a. Frequency Modulation
b. Frequency Metal
c. Frequency Member
d. None

44. The process of combing the low frequency signal with high frequency radio-wave is called

a) Modulation b) Amplification
c) Rectification d) None

45. Which one give more quality transmission

a) A.M b) F.M
c) S.W d) M.W

46. An A.C voltmeter reads 250volts, its peak voltage is

a) 250v b) 350.5v
c) 353.5v d) None of these

47. The types of modulations are

a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
48. In A.C. parallel resonance circuit branch current may be granter then

a. Source current
b. e.m.f. current
c. Applied voltage
d. None

49. The angular frequency of resonance circuit is

1 1
a) W = b) W =
LC L C
c) W = LC d) None

50. Natural or Resonant frequency of an LC circuit is

1
LC b) 2 LC
4
1 1
c) d) LC
2 LC 2

51. What is the self inductance of a coil in which an induced e.m.f of 2 volt is setup when current
changes at the rate of 4 A/sec.

a. 0.5 m H b. 0.5H
c. 2H d. 0.5volt
52. When coil of high inductance is used for controlling A.C without dissipation of energy is called

a. Inductor b. Choke
c. Impedance d. None

53. An A.C choke is a coil consist of thick copper wire, wound closely over a

a. Soft iron core

b. Hard iron core
c. Soft iron laminated core
d. None

54. The power consumption in A.C choke is

a. Small b. High
c. Zero d. Maximum

55. The reciprocal of impedance is called

a. Conductance b. Inductance
c. Admittance d. None

56. Which one is prefer for transmission of radio signal.

a. X – rays
b. Infra red rays
c. Larger than infra red
d. Smaller than infra red

57. Television programs are carried away by

a. Low frequency waves

 b. High frequency waves
c. Microwaves
d. None

58. When a radio station is broadcasting a musical program, the antenna of its transmitter
radiates

a. R.F electromagnetic waves

b. A.F electromagnetic waves
c. R.F longitudinal waves d. A.F longitudinal waves

59. An A.C varies as a function of

a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Voltage and current
d. Time

60. During each cycle A.C voltage reaches its peak value

a. One time b. Two times c. Four times d. None of these

61. At resonance, the value of the power factor in an LCR series is

a) Zero b) ½
c) 1 d) Not defined

62. In an LCR circuit, if V is the effective value of the applied voltage, V R is the voltage across R, VL is the effective
voltage across L, VC is the effective voltage across C, then:

a) V = VR + VL + VC b) V2 = VR2 + VL2 + VC2

c) V2 = VR2 + (VL – VC)2 d) V2 = VL2 + (VR – VC)

63. The alternating current transmission for long distances has

a) Expensive b) Low cost

c) Sometimes both a & b d) None of these

64. At high frequency the reactance of the capacitor is

a) Low b) Large
c) Very large d) None of these

65. The behaviour of resistance is frequency

a) Dependent b) Independent
c) No response d) None of these

66. In an inductor the phase difference between the current and voltage is

a) Current lags voltage by 90o

b) Voltage lags current by 180o
c) Current leads voltage by 90o
d) None of these

67. The combined effect a resistance R, an inductance L, a capacitance C is known as

a) Resistance b) Reactance
c) Impedance d) None of these
68. The condition of resonance reached when

a) XC > XL b) XL < XC
c) XL = XC d) None of these

69. The phase difference between coils of three phase A.C is

a) 60o b) 45o
c) 90o d) 120o

70. Since there are three coils, the generator has the terminals

a) Two b) Four
c) Six d) Eight

71. Modulation is the process in which

a) Amplitude is change b) Frequency is change

c) Both a & b d) None of these

72. The frequency of modulated carrier waves is lowest when signal amplitude is

a) Maximum negative value

b) Maximum positive value
c) Amplitude zero
d) None of these

73. In a FM broadcast in VHF band channel width is

a) 75 b) 25
c) 88 d) 200

74. Find the impedance of an AC circuit when the current flowing in it is 100mA and 10 volts are applied to the
circuit.

a) 500 Ω b) 100 Ω
c) 23 Ω d) 20 Ω

75. How many times per second will an incandescent lamp reach maximum brilliance when connected to a 50Hz
source?

a) 50 times b) 100 times

c) 200 times d) None of these

76. The peak value of sinusoidal voltage in an AC circuit is 50V. The rms value of voltage is roughly equal to

a) 70V b) 40V
c) 35V d) 45V

77. The magnetic field intensity at appoint due to rate of change of electric flux is

1  B 1  e
a) B  b) B 
2 r t 2 r t
    e 1 t
c) B  d) B 
2 r t 2 r  e
78. In RLC series AC circuit, when XL = XC then impedance is

a) Minimum b) Maximum
c) Zero d) None

CHEPTER # 17
PHYSICS OF SOLIDS

1. Which of the following substances possesses the highest elasticity?

a) Rubber b) Steel
c) Glass d) Copper

2. What is the S.I unit of modules of elasticity of substances?

a. Nm-2
b. Jm-2
c. Nm-1
d. Being number, its has no unit

3. What are the dimensions of stress?

a) MLT-2 b) ML-2T-1
c) ML-1T-2 d) MLoT-1

4. Which one of the following physical quantities does not have the dimensions of force per unit?

a) Stress b) Strains
c) Young’s modulus d) Pressure

5. A rubber cord of cross-sectional area 2cm2 has a length of 1m. when a tensile force of 10N is applied, the
length of the cord increases by 1cm. what is the young’s modules of rubber?

a. 2 x 108 Nm-2
b. 5 x 106 Nm-2
c. 0.5 x 10-6 Nm-2
d. 0.2x10-6 Nm-2

6. A wire of length L is stretched by a length L when a force F is applied at one end. If the elastic limit is not
exceeded, the amount of energy stored in the wire is _____________
 a) FL b) ½ (FL)
c) FL2/L d) ½ FL2/L

7. When a force is applied at one end an elastic wire, it produce a strain E in the wire If “y” is young’s modules of
the material of the wire, the amount of energy stored per unit volume of the wire is given by ________

a) YE b) ½ YE
c) YE2 d) ½ YE2

8. A wire, suspended vertically from on end, is

stretched by attaching a weight of 20N to the
lower end. The weight stretches the wire by
1mm. how much energy is gained by the wire?

a) 0.01J b) 0.02J
c) 0.04J d) 1.0J

9. A certain stress applied to an elastic materials

produces a certain strain in it. If the elastic limit
is not exceeded, the energy gained per unit
volume of the material is given by_________

a) Stress/strain b) ½ (stress × strain)

c) Stress x strain d) (stress x strain)

10. A uniform steel wire of length 4m and area of

cross section 3 x 10-6 m2 is extended by 1mm
by the application of a force. If the young’s
modules of steel is 2x1011Nm-2, the energy
stored in the wire is ____________

a) 0.025J b) 0.050J
c) 0.075J d) 0.100J

11. The ratio stress to strains in young’s modules of

the materials then tension is _______

a) Directly proportional to extension

b) Directly proportional to strains
c) Directly proportional square of
amplitude
d) Inversely proportional to extension

12. Materials that undergo plastic deformation before

breaking are called ___________

a) Brittle b) Ductile
c) Amorphous d) Polymers

13. A wire is stretched by a force F which causes an

extension 1. the energy stored in wire is ½ FL
only if _________

a. The extension of the wire is proportional to the

force applied.
b. The weight of the wire is negligible
c. The wire is not stretched beyond its elastic limit
d. The cross sectional area of the wire remains
 constant

14. Formation of large molecule by joining

small molecules is __________

a. Fusion b. Polymerization
c. Crystallization d. Subtraction

15. Any alteration produced in shapes, length or volume when a body is subjected to same internal force is called
__________

a. Stiffness b. Ductility
c. extension d. deformation

16. The energy band occupied by the valence

electrons is called ________

a. Energy state b. Valence band

c. –ve energy state d. Conduction band

17. The curie temperature is that at which ______

a. Semi conductor becomes conductors

b. Ferromagnetic becomes paramagnetic
c. Paramagnetic becomes diamagnetic
d. Metal becomes super conductor

18. A ferromagnetic will become fully magnetized at

_______

a. High voltage A.C

b. Low voltage A.C
c. Alternating current at its peak value
d. D.C current is peak value

19. Coercion force is the force which opposes

a. Demagnetization b. Breakage
c. Extension d. Surface cracking

20. Materials in which valence electrons are tightly bound to their atoms at low temperature are called _________

a. Semi conductors b. Super conductors

c. Insulators d. Conductors

21. The bulk properties of materials such as their

mode of fracture, can be related to their

a. Polymerization b. Cleavage
c. Microstructure d. Dislocation

22. The angular position of cells remains the same

for a sample of a crystal this property is called

a. Isotropy
b. Cleavage
c. Homogeneity
d. The external symmetry of form

23. The breaking of a crystal along definite direction

is called
 a. Cleavage b. Symmetry
c. Isotropy d. Homogeneity

24. If the density of atoms remains the same along

any direction in a crystal is called

a. Symmetry b. Homogeneity
c. Isotropy d. Clearage

25. In simple cube, one atom or molecule leis at its

a. Four corners b. Nine corners

c. Eight corners d. Six corners

26. The band theory of solids explains satisfactorily

the nature of

a. Electrical insulators alone

b. Electrical conductors alone
c. Electrical semi conductors alone d. All of the above

27. A vacant or partially filled band is called _____

a. Conduction band b. Valence band

c. Forbidden band d. Empty band

28. A completely filled band is called _______

a. Conduction band b. Valence band

c. Forbidden band d. Core band

29. The electrons in conduction band are free to ___________

a. Transport vibrations b. Transport signals

c. Transport charge d. Transport impulses

30. Which one has the greatest energy gap _______

a. Semi-conductors b. Conductors
c. Metals d. Non-metals

31. many of the semi conductors are crystals of the

type ________

a. Face centered cubic

b. Body centered cubic
c. Simple cubic
d. All of the above

32. With increase in temperature, the electrical

conductivity of intrinsic semi conductors ______

a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remain the same
d. First increases, then decreases

33. Holes can exists in_________

 a. Conductors b. insulators
c. semi conductors d. all of the above

34. In a semi conductors, the charge carriers

are __________

a. Holes only
b. Electrons only
c. Electrons and holes both
d. All of the above

35. The net charge on N-type material is ________

a. Positive b. Negative
c. Both a & b d. Neutral

36. Very weak magnetic fields are detected by _____

a. Squids
b. Magnetic resonance imaging
c. Magnetometer
d. Oscilloscope

37. Energy needed to magnetic and demagnetize is

represented by

a. Hysterics curve b. Hysterics loop area

c. Hysterics loop d. Straight line

38. Pentavalent impurities are called

a. Donor impurities
b. Acceptor impurities
c. Some times donor and some times
acceptors
d. None of these

39. Minority carriers in N-type materials are

a. Electrons b. Protons
c. Neutrons d. Holes

40. According to free electron theory the only energy possessed by electron is

a. K.E b. P.E
c. Gravitational d. Electrical

41. The area under stress – strain graph is

a. Power b. Energy
c. Momentum d. Impulse

42. Polymers are usually

a. Organic compounds
b. Non-organic compounds
c. Acidic
d. Alkaline
43. The resistance against any distortion by solid is

a. Toughness b. Ductility
c. Stiffness d. None

44. Solid material that are brittle are

a. Toughness b. Ductile
c. Stiffness d. None

45. The temperature at which conductors lose its resistivity is called

a. Supper temperature b. Kelvin temperature

c. Critical temperature d. None

46. The magnetic domains are the small regions of the order of

a. Millimeter b. Micrometer
c. Micron d. None

47. A bullet train move with max the speed of

a. 400 km/hr b. 450 km/hr

c. 500 km/hr d. 550 km/hr

48. The first supper conductor was discovered by

a. Fermi b. Kmaerling
c. Weinberg d. None

49. Examples of brittle substances are

a. Glass b. Copper
c. Lead d. None

50. Polymers have chemical combination with

a. Carbon b. Nitrogen
c. Hydrogen d. All of them

51. Crystalline solids are also

a. Metals b. Ionic compounds

c. Ceramics d. All of them

52. Young’s Modulus for copper is

a. 25 b. 55
c. 100 d. 110

53. When an atom is isolated its energy lavels are

a. Distinct b. Very close

c. Very very close d. None

54. The valence energy band can never be

a. Filled b. Partially filled

c. Empty d. None of these

55. When semiconductor is doped by trivalent, it has

a. More electrons b. More holes

 c. + ive charge d. – ive charge

56. The field of long bar magnet is like a

a. Solenoid b. Toroid
c. Pieces of magnet d. None

57. The curie temperature of Iron is

a. 600oC b. 650oC
c. 700oC d. 750oC

58. The examples of diamagnetic are

a. Water b. Copper
c. Antimony d. All of them

59. Strain is dimensionless and has

a. Units b. No units
c. S.I units d. None

60. How many types of strain are there

a. One b. Two
c. Three d. Four

61. The ability of a material to be hammered, pressed, bent, rolled, cut, stretched into useful shape is

a) Toughness b) Ductility
c) Stiffness d) None

62. The Young modulus of elasticity is Y. If the forces is increased such that the extension produced becomes
double of its initial value then Young Modulus is

a) Double b) Halved
c) Unchanged d) None

63. A hydraulic press contains 0.25m3 oil of bulk modulus 5.0 × 10 7 Pa. The change in volume of oil when
subjected to pressure increase of 1.6 × 107 Pa is

a) – 8.0 × 10-4 m3 b) 4.0 × 10-4 m3

c) 2.0 × 10-4 m3 d) 10-4 m3

64. The resistivities of conductors, semiconductors and insulators are of the respective orders of

a) 108 Ω.m, 10-4 Ω.m

b) 10-4 Ω.m, 104 Ω.m, 108 Ω.m
c) 10-4 Ω.m, 108 Ω.m, 104 Ω.m
d) 104 Ω.m, 10-4 Ω.m, 108 Ω.m

65. Diamagnetic needle when placed between the poles of a magnet align itself in the direction

a) Parallel to B b) Anti parallel to B

c) Perpendicular to B d) None

66. Crystalline solids are also

a) Metals b) Ionic compounds

 c) Ceramics d) All of them

67. With the rise of temperature the amplitude of atoms

a) Slow down b) Fixed

c) Increases d) None of these

68. Crystal lattice is a repetition of

a) Atoms b) Molecules
c) Unit cell d) All of them

69. Polymers have chemically combinations with

a) Carbon b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen d) All of them

70. If the stress increased on a material is beyond the yield strength of the material is called

a) Plasticity b) Elasticity
c) Still in elasticity d) None of these

71. Examples of brittle substances are

a) Glass b) Copper
c) Lead d) None of these

72. Semiconductor materials have the conductivities generally lies between

a) 10-5 to 10-6 (Ω.m)-1 b) 10-6 to 10-4 (Ω.m)-1

c) 10-7 to 10-3 (Ω.m)-1 d) None of these

73. The electrons occupying the outermost shell of an atom and the electrons occupying in the energy band are
called

a) Energy band b) Valence band

c) Forbidden energy band d) None of these

74. Conductors are those materials in which the free electrons

a) Very large b) Very small

c) Plenty of d) None of these

75. Doping is the process in which the small amount of impurity is added into the pure semiconductor lattice in the
ratio

a) 1 to 103 b) 1 to 104
c) 1 to 105 d) 1 to 106

76. The technological uses of super conductors are

a) MRI
b) Magnetic levitation trains
c) Faster computer chips
d) All of them

77. The magnetism produced by electrons within an atom is due to

a) Spin motion b) Orbital motion

c) Spin & orbital motion d) None of these

78. The combination of solenoid and a specimen of iron inside it make a powerful magnet called

a) Horse shoe magnet b) Bar magnet

 c) Electromagnet d) 10-10 to 1018

79. In the phenomenon of hysteresis, the magnetism and magnetizing current behaves as

a) 1 lags b) 1 leads B
c) 1 & B becomes equal d) None of these

80. A current which demagnetize the material completely is called

a) Applied current b) Coercive current

c) Maximum current d) None of these

81. The energy need to magnetize and demagnetize the specimen during the each cycle of magnetizing current is

a) Value of current
b) Value of demagnetizing current
c) Value of magnetic flux density
d) Area of the loop

82. The strain energy density is given by

1
a) U  ( Stress  Strain)
2
1
b) U  ( Stress  Strain )
3
c) U  Stress  Strain
1
d) U  ( Stress  Strain) 3

83. When the conductivity of a semiconductor is only due to breaking of the covalent bonds, the semiconductor is
called

a) Donor b) Acceptor
c) Intrinsic d) Extrinsic

84. What is the S.I unit of magnetic permeability?

a) Ampere per meter

b) Ampere meter
c) Henry per meter
d) Being a dimensionless number, it has no unit
 CHAPTER # 18
ELECTRONICS

1. A semi – conductor can be used as a rectifier because

a) It has low resistance to the current flow when

forward biased
b) It has high resistance to the current flow when
reversed biased
c) It has low resistance to the current flow when
forward biased and high resistance when reversed
biased
d) None of the above

2. In half ware rectification, the output DC voltage is obtained across the load for

a) The positive half cycle of input AC

b) The negative half cycle of input AC
c) The positive and negative half cycles of
input AC
d) Either positive or negative half cycle of input AC

3. A bridge rectifier is preferable to an ordinary two diodes full ware rectifies because

a) It uses four diodes

b) Its transforms has no counter tap
c) It needs much smaller transformer
d) It has higher safety factor

4. The color of light emitted by LED depends on

a) Its forward biased

b) Its reversed biased
c) The amount of forward current
d) The type of semi conductor material used

5. A PN junction photodiode is

a) Operated in forward direction

b) Operated in reversed direction
c) A very fast photo detector
d) Dependent on thermally generated
minority carriers

6. The emitter of a transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it

a) Has to dissipate maximum power

b) Has to supply the charge carriers
c) Is the first region of transistor
d) Must posses law resistance
7. For proper working of a transistor in normal circuits

a) Emitter base junction is reversed biased, collector base junction is forward biased
b) Emitter base junction is forward biased and collector base junction is forward biased
c) C-B junction is reversed biased, E-B junction is forward biased
d) C-B junction is reversed biased and E-B
junction is reversed biased

8. In a properly biased NPN transistor most of the electrons from the emitter

a) Recombine with holes in the base

b) Recombine in the emitter itself
c) Pass through the base to the collector
d) Are stopped by the junction barrio

9. The current gain of a transistor is given by

IC IC
a. b.
IE IB
IB IB
c. d.
IE IE

10. When the E-B junction of a transistor is reversed – biased, collector current

a) Is reversed b) Increased
c) Decreased d) Stops

11. An op-AMP has

a) Infinite AV b) Infinite Ri
c) Zero Ro d) All the above

12. An inverting amplifier has Rf = 2mл and Ri = 2Kл, its scalar factor is

a) 1000 b) -1000
c) 10-13 d) -10-6

13. A diode characteristic curve is a graph between

a) Current and time

b) Voltage and time
c) Voltage and current
d) Forward voltage and reverse current

14. A NOR Gate is ON only when all its input are

a) ON b) OFF
c) Positive d) High

15. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which

a. Makes logic decision

b. Work on binary algebra
c. Alternates between 0 and 1
d. None of these
16. In positive logic, logic state 1 correspond to

a) Positive voltage
b) Higher voltage level
c) Zero voltage level
d) Lower voltage level

17. The output of a 2-input OR gate is zero only when its

a. Both input are zero

b. Either input is 1
c. Both input are 1
d. Either input is 0

18. An XOR gate produces an output only when its two inputs are

a) High b) Low
c) Different d) Same

19. An AND Gate

a. Implement logic addition

b. Is equivalent to a series switching circuit
c. Is any or all gate
d. Is equivalent to a parallel switching circuit

20. The only function of a NOT gate is to

a. Stop a signal
b. Re-complement a signal
c. Invert an input signal
d. Acts as a universal gate

21. A NOR gate is ON only when all its input are

a) ON b) OFF
c) Positive d) High

22. Which of the following are electromagnetic waves

a. Sound waves
b. Water waves
c. Light waves
d. Waves along a stretched string

23. The EM waves travel is free space with the velocity

a. Equal to the velocity sound

b. Equal to the velocity light
c. More than the velocity of light
d. Less than the velocity of light

24. A changing electric flux develops in the surrounding space

a. An electric field
b. A magnetic field
c. An electromotive force
 d. Gravitational field

25. EM waves transport

a) Matter b) Wavelength
c) Energy d) Charge

26. Waves emitted from the antenna are

a. Longitudinal waves
b. EM waves
c. Sound waves
d. Radio waves

27. EM waves emitted from antenna are

a. Stationary
b. Longitudinal
c. Transverse
d. All of the above

28. The waves from the antenna are

a. Expanding plane wave fronts

b. Concentric spheres
c. Expanding curves
d. None of the above

29. EM waves have frequency of the range of

a. 104Hz b. 105Hz
c. 106Hz d. 1012Hz

30. Maxwell derived mathematically that velocity of EM-waves is

I I
a. b.
o uo
o I
c. d.
uo  o uo

31. A junction between P and N materials forms

a. A rectifier
b. An amplifier
c. A semi conduction
d. An oscillator

32. The forward current through a semiconductor diode circuit is due to

a) Minority carriors b) Majority carriors

c) Holes d) Electrons

33. The device used for conversion of AC into DC is

a) An oscillator b) A detector
c) An amplifier d) A rectifier

34. A photo diode is a semi conductor device usually made from

 a) Bismuth b) Arsenic
c) Antimony d) Silicon-dioxide

35. Specially designed semi conductor diodes used as fast counters in electronic circuits are

a. Photo diodes
b. LED
c. Solar cell
d. Photo voltaic cell

36. The specially designed semi conductor diodes used as indicator lamp in electronic circuit are

a) Photo diodes b) Solar cell

c) LED d) Photo voltaic cell

37. The term transistor stands for

a. Transfer of current
b. Transfer of voltage
c. Transfer of resistance
d. Transfer of charge

38. The thickness of depletion region is of the order of

a) 10-7 cm b) 10-6 cm
c) 10-5 cm d) 10-4 cm

39. In amplitude modulation, the wave superimposed on EM waves are

a) Water waves b) Sound waves

c) Light waves d) Matter waves

40. A junction diode when forward biased behaves as a device of

a. Zero resistance
b. Infinite resistance
c. Low resistance
d. High resistance

41. The P.d across the depletion region of silicon is

a. 0.5v b. 0.67v
c. 0.7v d. 0.8v

42. A Transformer used in rectification acts as

a. Step-up b. Step-down
c. Center trapped d. None

43. The ratio of β shows the

a. voltage gain b. current gain

c. input resistance d. None

44. The alarm requires a voltage for its activation is

a. low b. high
c. Very High d. None

45. What is the gain of op – amplifier if R1 = infinity and R2 = 0Ω

a. 15 b. 1000
c. 1 d. Cannot tell
46. The resistance between + ive and – ive
inputs of op – amplifier is

a. 100 Ω b. 1000 Ω
c. 106 Ω d. None of these

47. Photo – voltic cell have

a. Battery input b. No external bias c. No internal bias d. None

49. In NOR gate 1 + 1 = ________

a. 0 b. 2
c. 1 d. 3

50. Transistor can be used as

a. Oscilators b. Switches
c. Memory unit d. All of them

51. NOT gate has only

a. One input b. Two inputs

c. Many inputs d. None

52. The efficiency of half wave rectifier is roughly

a. 40% b. 60%
c. 70% d. 90%

53. A photo – diod can switch its current ON and OFF in

a. Milli seconds b. Micro seconds

c. Nano seconds d. None

54. A transistor is a circuit basically act as

a. Voltage amplifier b. Current amplifier

c. Power amplifier d. None

55. Transistor is a device which has ________ terminals.

a. One b. Two
c. Three d. Four

56. The Boolean expression X = A + B represents the logic operation of

a. NAND gate b. NOR gate

c. OR gate d. NOT gate

57. A diod can not be used as

a. Rectifier b. Detector
c. Oscilator d. Amplifier

58. XOR gate is combination of

a. AND, OR and NOT gate

b. NAND, OR and NOT gate
c. NOT, AND and OR gate
d. NOT, AND and NOR gate

59. The open loop gain of op – amplifier is

 a. Zero b. High
c. Very high d. Low

60. The width of depletion region of a diode

a. Increases under forward bias b. Is independent of applied voltage

c. Increases under reverse bias d. None of these

61. A LED emits lights only

a. Forward biased b. Reverse Biased

c. Un biased d. None of these

62. In a pn junction, the barrier potential offers opposition to only

a) Majority carriers in both regions

b) Minority carriers in both regions
c) Electrons in n – region
d) Holes in P – region

63. In the use of a transistor as an amplifier

a) The emitter-base junction is forward biased

and the collector-base junction is reverse
biased
b) The emitter-base junction is reverse biased
and the collector-base junction is forward
biased
c) Both the junctions are forward biased
d) Any of the two junctions may be forward
biased

64. NAND gate is a combination

a) AND gate and NOT gate

b) AND gate and OR gate
c) OR gate and NOT gate
d) NOT gate and NOT gate

65. The reverse or leakage current of the diode is of the order of

a) Microampere b) Milli-ampere
c) Both d) None of these

66. How many diodes are used for the full wave rectification is

a) Two b) Three
c) Four d) None of these

67. A photodiode can turn its current ON and OFF in

a) Microsecond b) Millisecond
c) Nanosecond d) None of these

68. The base of the transistor is very thin of the order of

a) 10-2m b) 10-4m
c) 10-6m -8
d) 10 m

69. The gain A of the amplifier is

 Vin V
a) A  b) A 
V Vi
c) A  V Vin d) None of these

70. The positive sign of the gain indicates that

a) Input and output signals are not in phase

b) Input and output signals are in phase
c) May be in phase or not
d) None of these

71. The electronic circuits which implement the various logic operations are known as

a) Digital gates b) Logic gate

c) Voltage operated gate d) All of them

72. A diode characteristic curve is a plot between

a) Current and time

b) Voltage and time
c) Voltage and current
d) Forward voltage and reverse voltage

73. In a half-wave rectifier the diode conducts during

a) Both halves of the input cycle

b) A portion of the positive half of the input cycle
c) A portion of the negative half of the input cycle
d) One half of the input cycle

74. The output of a two inputs OR gate is O only when its

a) Both inputs are O b) Either input is 1

c) Both inputs are 1 d) Either input is zero

75. For typical transistor as an amplifier

Vout R Vout
a)  C b) 
Vin Rie Vin
Vout R Vout R
c)   ic d)   ie
Vin Rc Vin Rie

76. The resistance between (+) and (-) of ideal

Op-Amp is

a) High b) Low
c) Infinity d) Moderate

77. Temperature, pressure etc are converted into electronic informations by devices called

a) LEDs b) Sensors
c) Vacuum tubes d) None
 CHAPTER 19
DAWN OF MODERN PHYSICS

1. An observer shoots parallel to a meter stick at very high speed (relativistic) and finds that the length of meter
stick is __________

a) Greater than one meter

b) Less than one meter
c) One meter
d) None of these

2. 0.001 Kg mass will be equivalent to

a) 2.5 GWh b) 25 GWh

c) 0.26 GWh d) 250 GWh

3. Which of the following radiations has the greatest photon

a) TV waves b) Microwaves
c) X-rays d) γ - rays

4. Linear momentum of a photon is

a) Zero b) Hf/c2
c) hf/c d) c2/hf

5. The linear momentum of an x-ray photon of wavelength 0.1A o is

a) 6.625 x 10-23 NS
b) 66.25 x 1023 NS
c) 662.5 x 1023 NS
d) Data is insufficient

6. Stopping potential for a metal surface incase of photo electric emission depends on

a) The threshold frequency for the metal surface

b) The intensity of incident light
c) The frequency of incident light and the work
function for metal surface
d) None of these

7. Select an alternative form of uncertainty principle from the following

a. h/moca b. E. t  h
c. mc2 = hf d. any of the above

8. The existence of ether wind was experimentally rejected by

a) HeisenbergEinstein b) Michelson and Morely

d) De-Broglie d) None

9. As the temperature of black body is raised, the wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity

a) Shifts towards longer wavelength

b) Shifts towards shorter wavelength
c) Remains the same
d) Shifts towards shorter as well as longer
wavelength

10. Rest mass of photon is

 a) Infinite b) Zero
c) Very small d) Very large

11. The name of photon for quantum of light was proposed by

a) Ampere b) Planck’s
c) Thomson d) Einstein

12. A photon is a ____________

a. Unit of energy
b. Positively charged particle
c. Quantum of electromagnetic radiations
d. Unit of wavelength

13. Which one of the following has the largest energy

content?

a. 103 photons of wavelength 2pm (Y-rays)

b. 102 photons of wavelength 1mm (X-rays)
c. 106 photons of wavelength 50mm (Infrared)
d. 106 photons of wavelength 200mm (UV)

14. A transmitting station emits radio waves of

wavelength  at power p. if h is plank’s constant
C the speed of light, what is the rate of emission
of photon?

a) pc/h  b) hc/p 
c) p  /hc d) ph/ck

15. After traveling through a vacuum, a photon of

light entering into some transparent denser
medium. Thus the energy of light _________.

a. Increase because wave light decrease

b. Decease because speed decrease
c. Remains same
d. Increase then decrease

16. In a photo electronic effect, monochromatic light, is incident on a metal surface. If the incident light of
twice the intensity but the same wave length, the kinetic energy of the emitted electron ______

a) Becomes double
b) Remains same
c) Becomes half
d) First increase then decreases
because curvilinear graph.

17. If the wave length of incident radiation is increase in photo emission, then _________

a) The minimum kinetic energy of the photo electrons increase

b) The minimum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons decrease
c) The minimum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons increase
d) The average kinetic of the photoelectrons decrease

18. If a photon is reflected from the mirror, then the change in momentum of each photon is ________
 h
a) Zero b) 2

h
c) d) Ft

19. If n number of photon are striking on a metal surface, then the total momentum exerted is ______

nh 2nh
a. b.
 
c. Zero d. nft

20. A photon of wave length 900mm behaves like a particle of mass ________

a. 5.53 x 10-36 kg
b. 0 Kg
c. 2.46 x 10-36 kg
d. 1.84 x 10-44 kg

21. The velocity of particle of mass m of de-Broglie wave length  is ________

2h mSc 2
a. b.
m h
2 m c 2 h
c. d.
h m

22. In Davison – Germer experiment, the diffracted proton from crystal shows ____________

a) Particle property b) Wave property

c) Light property d) Quantum property

23. If a diffracted grating is placed in the path of a light beam, it revels ______

a. Wave property
b. Particle property
c. Energy particle
d. Electromagnetic wave property

24. In electron microscope, electric and magnetic field are used as _______

a. Electromagnetic gun
b. Source of electromagnetic waves
c. Deflected charged particle
d. Converging source of electrons

25. A three dimensional image is obtained by ______________

a. Electron microscope
b. Scanning electron microscope
c. Magnetic imaging
d. None of the above

26. The uncertainty in momentum and position is due to its ___________

a. Property of matter and radiation

b. Two dimensional motions
c. Emotion of certain wave length
d. Very high velocity

27. For confinement of electron in a box of radius 10-14 m. the electron speed should be ____

a. 107m/sec
b. Should be greater than speed of light
 c. Be zero
d. Not be wave link

28. The energy radiated is directly proportional to fourth power of Kelvin’s temperature is _____

a. Karl-wein’s laws
b. Raleigh jeans law
c. Stephens law
d. Planck’s

29. Compton effect proves the _______

a. Photon theory of light

b. Deal nature of light
c. Wave nature of light
d. Uncertain nature of light

30. Electron moves in the orbit as ______

a. Simple vibratory motion

b. Standing wave motion
c. Vibratory motion like up and down
d. S.H.M like sound

31. The mass of an object will be doubled

at speed

a. 1.6 × 108 m/sec b. 2.6 × 108 m/sec c. 2.6 × 107 m/sec d. None

32. The anti-particle of electron is

a. Proton b. Position
c. Meson d. Neutron

33. The reverse process of pair-production is

a. Annihilation b. Materialization
c. Fission d. Fussion

34. The decrease in length with speed was explained

by

a. Einstein b. Lorentz
c. Bohr d. None

35. The famous Michel-son-Morely experiment proves that

a. Light is energy
b. Earth rotates about its axis
c. Ether medium does not exist
d. None

36. All the motion in this universe are

a. Absolute b. Uniform
c. Variable d. Relative

37. On a hot day white clothes are cold because they

are
 a. Reflective b. Absorbers
c. Radiators d. None

38. The radiation emitted by human body lies in the range of

a. Infrared region b. U.V region

c. Visible region d. None

39. The energy emitted is directly proportional to fourth power of temperature is

a. Lummer Law b. Stephen – Boltzman Law c. Wein’s Law d. None

40. Wein’s displacement law holds good for

a. Short wavelength b. Large wavelength

c. All wavelength d. None

41. Plank’s theory is hold good for

a. Short wavelength b. Large wavelength

c. All wavelength d. None

42. According to special theory of relatively the 4th variable is

a. Time b. Space
c. Speed of light d. None

43. Pair production cannot possible in

a. Air b. Water
c. Glass d. Vacuum
-19
44. The wavelength of photon with energy of 16 × 10 J is

a. 12.4oA b. 1.24oA
c. 124oA d. None

45. The concept of antimatter was predicted theoretically by Dirac in

a. 1928 b. 1930
c. 1935 d. None

46. The anti-particle of earth is

a. Sun b. Moon
c. Black hole d. None

47. The minimum energy required for pair production is

a. 10.2 Mev b. 1.02 Mev

c. 102 Mev d. None

48. Photo electric effect for visible light can be obtain from
 a. Sodium – Potassium b. Carbon – oxygen c. Helium – Neon d. None

49. Sound tracks of movies can be controlled by

a. Diode b. Rectifier
c. Amplifier d. Photo – cell

50. The relation  Max T  Contt . is

a. Wein’s Law b. Plank’s Law

c. Stephen Law d. None

51. A. H Compton was awarded Nobel Prize in Physics in

a. 1927 b. 1923
c. 1921 d. 1919
-6
52. The life time of an electron in an excited state is 10 sec. What is uncertainly in energy for this time?

a. 2.35 × 10-20J b. 1.09 × 10-20J

c. 1.05 × 10-26J d. None

53. The photograph taken by electro-microscope is called

a. Photograph b. Electron micrograph

c. Chronograph d. None

54. At stopping potential current passing through circuit is

a. Mini b. Very low

c. Zero d. None

55. The value of Wein’s Constant is

a. 2.9 × 10-3 mol .k b. 1.38 × 10-3 m.k

c. 3.51 × 10-3 m.k d. None

56. The reverse process of Photo-electric effect is

a. Compont Effect b. Pair-production

c. Annihilation d. None

57. If work function is 4.14ev, the threshold frequency of incident light is

a. 1012Hz b. 1013Hz
c. 1014Hz d. 1015Hz

58. Each quantum is associated with radiation of

a. Intensity b. Energy
c. Frequency d. None

59. Loius Broglie give the idea of Matter – wave in

a. 1924 b. 1925
c. 1926 d. 1928

C
60. A passenger passes a clock with a speed . The time period observed by him is:
2
 3
a) t  t  b) t
2
2 2
c) t  t d) t  t
3 5

61. The threshold frequency of metals is 2 × 10-4Hz. The work function of metal is

a) 13.26 × 10-38ev b) 13.26 × 10-38J

c) 13.26 ev d) None

62. The wavelength associated with electron moving with speed 5.6 × 10 6 m/s is

a) 12nm b) 0.12nm
c) 1.2nm d) 120nm

63. The uncertainty in position of electron is 6.63Ao. The uncertainty in momentum of electron is

a) 10-24N-S b) 10-48N-S
c) 10-16N-S d) 10-20N-S

64. The concept of position is purely

a) Specific b) Relative
c) Ordinary d) None of these

v2
65. A quantity 1 is always
c2

a) Greater than one b) Less than one

c) Equal to one d) None of these

66. At higher temperature, the body emits long wavelength in the region

a) Infra red b) Ultraviolet

c) Far-infra red d) None of these

67. The Stefen-Boltzmann has the value

a) 5.67 × 10-5Wm-2K-4
b) 5.67 × 10-6Wm-1K-4
c) 5.67 × 10-6Wm-2K-4
d) 5.67 × 10-8Wm-2K-4

68. The energy of photon of radio waves is only about

a) 10-6eV b) 10-4eV
c) 10-10eV d) 10-12eV

69. The stopping potential when intensity is kept constant is

a) Same b) Different
c) Both a & b d) None of these

70. The idea of quantization of energy was proposed by

a) Einstein b) Max Planck

c) Compton d) None of these

71. Application of photoelectric effect is

 a) Photo diode b) Photo transistor
c) Photocell d) None of these

72. In Compton effect, the law/laws are conserved

a) Energy b) Momentum
c) Both d) None of these

73. The equations of pair production is

a) hf = 2moc2 – KE(e-) + K.E (e+)

b) hf = 2moc2 + KE(e-) + K.E (e+)
c) hf = 2mo2c2 + KE(e-) + K.E (e+)
d) hf = 2mo2c + KE(e-) + K.E (e+)

74. Louis De Broglie received Nobel prize in physics in

a) 1926 b) 1922
c) 1925 d) 1929

75. The high energy electrons penetrate the specimen to reasonable thickness and acquire sufficient energy due
to its

a) Short wavelength
b) Extremely short wavelength
c) Long wavelength
d) None of these

76. The best optical resolution is made by the

microscope is

a) 0.1 μm b) 0.2 μm
c) 0.3 μm d) None of these

77. In Compton effect  is always

a) Less than  b) Greater than 

c) Equal to  d) None of these

78. Who discovered the idea of Ether?

a) Schrodinger b) De-Broglie
c) Michelson and Morley d) None of these

79. Can pair production takes place in vacuum because of conservation of

a) Energy b) Momentum
c) Momentum & Energy d) None of these

80. Which of the following has the same dimension as h/m oc?

a) Length b) Time
c) Mass d) None

81. Photon ‘A’ has twice the energy of photon ‘B’. What is the ratio of the momentum of ‘A’ to that of ‘B’?

a) 4 : 1 b) 2 : 1
c) 1 : 2 d) None

82. An electron accelerated through a P.D, V has a wave associated with it of wavelength
 a) 12.3 V A  b) 12.3 / VA 
c) 12.3 / V 2 A  d) None

CHAPTER # 20
ATOMIC SPECTRA

1. Ratio of the weight of H-atom to that of

an electron is approximately ________

a. 183.336 b. 1836
c. 18360.00 d. 183.60

2. Photon of high frequency will be

absorbed when transisation takes place
from _________

a. 1st to 5th orbit b. 2nd to 5th orbit

c. 3rd to 5th orbit d. 4th to 5th orbit

3. In Hydrogen spectrum, which one of the

following series lies in the ultraviolet
region?

a. Ballmer series b. Pfund series

c. Lyman series d. Bracket series

4. In obtaining an x-ray photograph of our

hand, we use the principle of _______

Photo electric effect

Ionization
Shadow photograph
Any of above

5. Excited atoms return to their ground stat

in __________

a) 10-10S b) 10-8S
c) 10-6S d) 10-9S

6. When we excite some atoms by heat

collusion or electrical discharge, they will
______

a. radiate electromagnetic energy with a

continues distribution of wavelength
 b. Absorb particular wavelengths when
white light is incident an them
c. Radiate electromagnetic energy of
discrete charactristic wavelength
d. Emit either invisible or visible light

7. Hydrogen atom does not emit x-rays

because __________

a. Its energy level are too close to each

other
b. Its energy level are too far apart
c. It is too small in size
d. It has a single electron

8. Which one of following postulate is in

accordance with the Rutherford’s model?

a. Continues spectra for atoms

b. Discrete spectra for atoms
c. Either continues for atoms
d. No spectrum

9. X-rays are ___________

a. Unknown nature
b. High energy electrons
c. High energy photon
d. Radioisotopes

10. Ground state energy of the 4th orbit in a

H-atom is ________

a. 13.60eV b. 3.40eV
c. 0.85eV d. -1.51eV

11. Total number of series in hydrogen

spectrum is _____________

a. Three b. Four
c. Five d. Six

12. The radiations emitted from hydrogen

filled discharge tube show _________

a. Bound spectrum b. Line spectrum

c. Continuous spectrum d. Absorption spectrum

13. The electric P.E of an electron is an orbit

at a distance from the positive charge
________

a. Ke2/rn b. Ice2/rn2
c. –ke2/rn d. –ke2/rn2

14. Radiation with wavelength longer than

red light________

a. Ultraviolet rays b. X-rays

c. Infrared radiation d. Visible radiations

15. Bracket series is obtained when all

 transition of electron terminate on _____

a. 4th orbit b. 5th orbit

c. 3rd orbit d. 2nd orbit

16. In an electronic transisation, atom cannot

emit _________

a. γ - rays b. Infrared radiation

c. Visible light d. Ultraviolet rays

17. Reverse process of photo electric effect

is __________

a. Pair production b. Compton effect

c. Animation of matter d. X-rays production

18. X - rays are similar in nature to _______

a. Cathode rays b. Positive rays

c. γ - rays d. α - rays

19. The penetrating power of X-ray depends

on their ____________

a. Applied voltage b. Frequency

c. Source d. All of the above

20. When X-rays are passed through

successive aluminum sheets, what
happens to their thickness?

a. In increases
b. It decreases
c. Remains same
d. Sometimes increase sometimes
decreases

21. The penetrating power of X-rays is

comparable with that of __________

a. α - rays b. β - rays
c. γ - rays d. All of above

22. Quality of X-rays depends upon _______

a. Filament current
b. Accelerating voltage
c. Material of the target
d. b and c

23. Radiation produced from T.V. picture

tube is _________

a. γ - rays b. X - rays
c. Far infrared d. Infrared

24. In an X - ray tube, electrons each of

charge e are accelerated through V
potential difference allowed to hit a metal
target, the wavelength of the X-rays
emitted is ____
 a. hc/ev b. he/vc
c. ev/h d. impossible to predict

25. The minimum wavelength of X-rays can

further be reduced by _________

a. Reducing the pressure of cooling the target

b. Increasing the temperature of the filament
c. Using a target element of higher atomic
number
d. Increasing the potential difference b/w
the cathode and the target

26. The characteristic X-rays spectrum is due to ____

a. The illumination of the target metal by

ultraviolet radiation
b. The bombardment of the target by proton
c. The bombardment of target by electron
d. The absorption of Y-radiation by the target
metal

27. The minimum wavelength of X-rays

produced by the bombardment of
electron on the screen of a T.V. set
where the accelerating potential is 2.0
K,V will be ________

a. 6.2 x 10-10m b. 9.1 x 10-18m

c. 3.11 x 10-10m d. 4 x 10-10m

28. Maximum frequency in the spectrum

from x-rays tube is directly proportional to
the ___________

a. Number of electron i.e. filament current

b. The kinetic energy of incident electron
c. The soft target which can easily emit electron
d. All the above are correct

29. X-rays are diffracted by a crystal but not

by a diffraction grating because ______

a. The ions in a crystal are well arranged

b. The lines in a diffraction grating cannot
reflect X-rays
c. The perpetrating power of x-rays is
which in a diffraction grating
d. The wavelengths of x-rays are of same
order of magnitude as the separation
between atoms in a crystal

30. UV radiation can be produced by

__________

a. Heating the filament

b. Ionization of atoms
c. Electron excitation in the gas
 d. All the above

31. What is the velocity of a particle of mass

m and de-Broglie Wavelength?

a. h/mλ b. 2h/mλ
c. Mh/h d. (2hc/mx)½

32. Wave like characteristic of electron is

demonstrated by _________

a. Line spectrum of atoms

b. Production of X-rays
c. Diffraction by crystalline solids
d. Photo electric effect

33. Electron cannot exist in the nucleus, it is confirmed by observing that __________

a. At does emit Y-radiation

b. Its size as compare to proton and neutron is
very small
c. No antiparticle of electron is present
d. The velocity of electron must by very high
according to uncertainly principle

34. In normal state of energy, the incident

high energy photons will be _________

a. Stimulated
b. Absorbed
c. Cause X-rays emission
d. Cause laser production

35. In laser production, the state in which more atoms are in the upper state then in the lower one is called
_________

a. Metal stable state b. Normal state

c. Inverted population d. All the above

36. The meta stable state for an atom in laser light is _____________

a. 10-4 sec b. 10-5 sec

c. 10-3 sec d. 10-8 sec

37. In He – Ne laser, the lazing action is

produced by __________

a. Ne only b. He – Ne both
c. Electrons of He d. Electrons of Ne

38. Reflecting mirrors in laser is used to ________

a. Further stimulation
b. Lasing more
c. For production more energetic laser
d. All the above

39. The velocity of laser light is __________

 a. Less than ordinary light
b. More than ordinary light
c. Equal to ordinary light
d. Different for different colors or frequency

40. Laser beam can be used to generate

a. One dimensional images

b. Two dimensional images
c. Three dimensional images
d. None of these

41. X – rays is also know as

a. photon b. γ – rays
c. breaking radiation d. none

42. Bremsstrahlung is phenomenon in which

the rate of slowing down of electron is

a. small b. large
c. very large d. None

43. The value of Rydberg’s constant is

a. 1.0974 × 107m-1 b. 1.0794 × 107m-1

c. 1.0974 × 10-7m-1 d. None

44. The shortest wave length radiation in

Bracket series has wavelength
16 RH
a. b.
RH 16
c. 16 RH d. None

45. Bohr’s theory is failed to explain

a. H – spectrum b. He – spectrum c. Complex atoms spectrum d. None

46. The ionization energy of H – atom is

a. – 13.6ev b. 13.6ev
c. ±13.6ev d. none

47. Which one of the following is more coherent

a. X – rays b. Normal light

c. Laser d. γ – rays

48. Sunlight spectrum is

a. Discrete b. Line spectrum c. Continuous spectrum d. none

49. Optical pumping exist in

a. X – rays b. Laser
c. Spectrum d. None

50. A common He – Ne gas laser contain,

He – Ne ration

a. 85 – 15 % b. 80 – 20%
 c. 70 – 30% d. None

51. The total energy of electron in an orbit

around the nucleus is

a. + ive b. – ive
c. zero d. None

52. According to Bohr’s theory the outer orbit

Electron has ________ energy than inner
orbits.

a. Greater b. Smaller
c. Equal d. None of these

53. The name of electron was suggested by

a. Rutherford b. Chadwick
c. Thomson d. Stony

54. X – rays was discovered by

a. Bacquerel b. Mari – curie

c. Roentgen d. Lane

55. The idea of laser was first introduced in

1958 by

a. Frank – white b. C.H.Towner

c. Dr. Gilbert Young d. C.H.Towner

56. The ratio of volume of an atom to the

volume of nucleus is

a. 103 b. 106
c. 109 d. 1012

57. The value of Plank’s constant is

a. 6.63 × 10-34 J.sec b. 6.63 × 10-34 J/sec c. 6.63 × 10-34 sec/J d. None

58. Laser is a device which can produce

a. an intense beam of light

b. Coherent light
c. Monochoromatic light
d. All

59. The total energy of electron in state n = α

is

a. + ive b. – ive
c. zero d. None

60. When magnetic field is applied in the path X – rays , they will be moving in

a) Straight line b) Circular path

c) Parabolic path d) None

61. With the help of laser beam we can produce

a) Fusion reaction
 b) Holograms
c) Fragment of kidney stone
d) All of these

62. Continuous spectra is an example of

a) Atomic b) Molecular
c) Black body radiation d) None of these

63. Line spectra is an example of

a) Atomic b) Molecular
c) Black body radiation d) None of these

64. The quantized energy of first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is

a) 13.04 eV b) – 13.6 eV
c) 13.6 eV d) 13.5 eV

65. Bremsstrahlung are those in which radiations are produced of

a) Long wavelength
b) Short wavelength
c) Wavelength in X-rays region
d) None of these

66. In LASER principle, a photon produce another photon by the process of

a) Excitation b) De-excite
c) Ionization d) None of these

67. Characteristic X – rays are the X – rays which have

a) High energy photons

b) Specific wavelengths
c) Specific frequencies
d) All of these

68. X – rays can penetrate into a solid matter upto

a) Few millimeter b) Several millimeter

c) Few centimeter d) Several centimeter

69. Computerized axial tomography (CAT-scanner) is a system in which X – rays are

a) Maximum through the subject

b) Minimum absorptions through the subject
c) Depending upon the subject
d) None of these

70. X – rays can cause cancer in living cells due to radiation exposure which is

a) Small b) Large
c) Excessive d) None of these

71. In Laser a Meta-stable state is

a) An excite state
b) In which an electron is usually stable
c) In which an electron reside 10-3 sec
d) None of these
72. The Meta-stable state of Helium and Neon is

a) Different b) Identical
c) Nearly identical d) None of these

73. Laser beam can be used for

a) Wilding of detached retinas

b) Destroy tissues in a localized area
c) Sealed off capillaries for prevention of disease
d) All of them

74. In Balmer series the shortest wavelength radiations have wavelength equal to

 RH   4 
a)   m b)   m
 4   RH 
 RH 
c)   m d) (9 R H ) m
 9 

75. The longest wavelength radiations in Braket series have wavelength equal to

25 16
a)  RH b) RH
16 25
135
c) d) None
27 R H

76. The wavelength of X – rays produced due to

declaration of electrons is

V e he
a)   b)  
m V e
h V e
c)   d)  
V e h
 Chapter 21
NUCLEAR PHYSICS

1. In nucleus of uranium the number of neutrons will be ___________

a. 92
b. 235
c. 143
d. Different for different isotopes

2. During fusion of hydrogen into helium _______

a. Energy is absorbed
b. Energy is released
c. Mass is increased due to energy absorption
d. Mass is reduced due to energy absorption

3. One a.m.u is equal to _________

a) 1.66 x 10-27 kg b) 1.66 x 10-25 kg

c) 1.66 x 10-20 kg d) All of above

4. According to which one of following law,

the density of atom is uniform ?

a) J.J. Thomson b) Rutherford’s Model

c) Bohr’s Model d) All of above laws

5. For chain reaction to buildup, the size of

the radio active target should be ______

a. 90
b. Greater than the critical size
c. Less than the critical size
d. Equal to critical size

6. Antimatter consists of _____________

 a) Antiproton b) Antineutron
c) Positron d) All of above

7. Neutron and proton are commonly known as ____________

a) Nucleons b) Meson
c) Boson d) Quartz

8. Half life of Radium is 1590 years. In how

many years shall the earth loss all his
radium due to radioactive decay ?

a) 1590 x 106 years b) 1590 x 1012 years

c) 1590 x 1025 years d) Never

9. Which one of the following radiation

possesses maximum penetrating power?

a) α - rays
b) β - rays
c) γ - rays
d) All have equal penetrating power

10. Electrons

a) Can exist inside the nucleus

b) Cannot exist inside the nucleus
c) Can exist both inside and outside the nucleus
d) Don’t know

11. Radioactivity is a ______________

a) Spontaneous activity
b) Chemical property
c) Self disintegration property
d) Both a and c

12. Energy liberated when one atom of U-235 undergoes fission reaction is ______

a) 200 Mev b) 40 Mev

c) 30 Mev d) 20 Mev

13. Transuranic elements have atomic number ____

a) Greater than 72 b) Greater than 82

c) Greater than 92 d) Greater than 102

14. Nuclear force exist between

a) Proton – proton b) Proton – Neutron

c) Neutron – Neutron d) All of the above

15. Mass defect per nucleons is _________

a. Binding energy of nucleus

b. Packing fraction
c. Average energy of nucleus
d. All of above are one & same thing
16. Tick the correct statement

a) Moderator slow down the neutron

b) Moderator bring the neutrons to rest
c) Moderator absorb the neutron
d) Moderator reflect the neutron

17. The bombardment of nitrogen with α - particles

will produce ________

a) Neutron b) Proton
c) Electron d) Positron

18. Diameter of an atom is approximately _______

a) 10-12 m b) 10-11 m
c) 10-10 m d) 10-14 m

19. Radioactive decay obeys which one of the

following data?

a) N = Noe-λt b) N = Noext
c) N = Noe-xt/2 d) No = N(Iext)

20. Average energy required to remove one nucleon from the nucleus is called _____

a) Binding energy per nucleon

b) Energy of decay
c) Destruction energy
d) All of above

21. Fission chain reaction in a nuclear reactor can be controlled by introducing ________

a) Iron rod b) Graphite rods

c) Cadmium rods d) Platinum rods

22. Which one of the following possesses

maximum velocity?

a) α - rays
b) β - rays
c) γ - rays
d) All of the above have same speed

23. Charge on an electron was determine by ______

a) Ampere b) Maxwell
c) Milliken d) Thomson

24. Charge on neutron is _____________

a) +1.6 x 10-19c
b) -1.6 x 10-19c
c) Zero
d) No definite charge

25. A particle having the mass of an electron and the charge of a proton is called

a) Antiproton b) Positron
c) Gamma rays d) Photon
26. Mass of neutron is ____________

a) 1.67 x 10-13 Kg b) 1.67 x 10-27 Kg

c) 9.1 x 10-31 Kg d) 1.67 x 10-19 Kg

27. Nuclei having the same mass number but different atomic number are ______

a) Isotopes b) Isobars
c) Isotones d) Isomers

28. A mass spectrograph sorts out _______

a) Molecules b) Ions
c) Elements d) Isotopes

29. Sum of the masses of constituent nucleons as compared to the mass of the resultant nucleus is _______

a) Smaller
b) Greater
c) Same
d) Some times smaller some times greater

30. An α - particle is emitted from 88Ra226,

what is the mass and atomic number of
the daughter nucleus?

Mass Number Atomic Number

a. 224 84
b. 220 80
c. 222 86
d. 226 87

31. The unit of Radioactivity “Curie” is equal to ___________

a) 3.74 x 109 disintegration per sec

b) 3.70 x 1010 disintegration per sec
c) 3.55 x 1010 disintegration per sec
d) 3.60 x 1010 disintegration per sec

32. During fission process, a large amount of _____________

a) Heat energy is released

b) Nuclear energy is released
c) Chemical energy is released
d) Light energy is released

33. In liquid metal fast breeder reactor, the type of uranium used is _______

a) 92U235 b) 92U238
c) 92U234 d) 92U 239

34. Radioactive materials can be identified by measuring their_______

a) Hardness b) Density
c) Mass d) Half life

35. If one or more of the neutrons emitted during fission can be used to build up further fission then the
reaction is self sustained and is known as ________
 a) Fission reaction b) Fusion reaction
c) Chain reaction d) Chemical reaction

36. Pair production takes place in the vicinity of heavy nucleus so that __________

a) Net energy is conserved

b) Net charge is conserved
c) Net momentum is conserved
d) All of the above

37. During an encounter with an atom α - particle knocks out _______

a) Protons b) Electrons
c) Neutrons d) Nothing

38. The path of B-particle is_________

a) Rectilinear b) Carved
c) Zigzag or erratic d) Elliptical

39. Which one of the following radiations are suitable for the treatment of an infection in the interior body?

a) α - rays b) β - rays
c) γ - rays d) X - rays

40. Various types of cancer are treated by ___________

a) Cobalt 60 b) Strontium – 90
c) Carbon 14 d) Nickel – 63

41. Sterilizations of surgical instrument, medical supplies and bandages can be done by exposing them to a
beam of _________

a) α - rays
b) β - rays
c) γ- rays
d) ‘b’ & ‘c’ have equal antiseptic properties

42. Charge on α - particle is _________

a) +1 b) +2
c) -2 d) -1

43. B-particle ionizes an atom ________

a) Through direct collision

b) Through electrostatic attraction
c) Through electrostatic repulsion
d) All of above

44. T.V. sets and microwave oven emit ______

a) X - rays b) α - rays
c) β - rays d) γ - rays

45. A β - particle in a single encounter _______

a) Loses a small fraction of its energy
b) Loses most of its energy
c) Loses no energy at all
d) Loses energy at all

46. Strontium -90 is used as _________

a) β - particle source b) α - particle source

c) γ - particle source d) Neutrons source

47. The penetration power of β - particle as compared to a-particle is_______

a) 10 times more b) 100 times more

c) 100 times less d) 10 times less

48. Geiger counter is suitable for ______

a) Fast counting b) Extremely fast counting

c) Slow counting d) All situations

49. A α - particle can produce fluorescence in ___________

a) Zns b) Barium Palatino cyanide

c) Calcium tunzstate d) All of above

50. Pair production cannot take place in vacuum as ______ is not conserved

a) Energy b) Charge
c) Mass d) Momentum

51. CFC is used in ____________

a) Refrigerator b) Aerosol spray

c) Plastic foam industry d) All of above

52. Average distance covered by α - particle in air before its ionizing power ceases is called its __________

a) Trajectory b) Range
c) Firing level d) Limit

53. Which one of the following possesses greater penetrating power?

a) α - rays b) β - rays
c) X-rays d) Neutron

54. The most useful tracer is ________

a) Sr -90 b) I -131
c) Ca -41 d) C -14

55. γ - rays are electromagnetic waves like ____________

a) Normal light b) Heat waves

c) Micro waves d) X - rays

56. Charge on B-particle is __________

a) +1 b) -1
c) +2 d) -2

57. Why γ - rays are used to kill bacteria, to sterilize surgical equipments etc?

a) Chargless b) Massless
 c) Highly penetrating d) All of above

58. B-particle ionizes an atom ________

a) Due to electrostatic force of attraction

b) Due to electrostatic force of repulsion
c) Due to direct collision
d) Due to gravitational force

59. B-particles possess greater penetration power then that of a-particle due to its ____________

a) Smaller ionization power

b) Energy is not conserved
c) Neither greater nor smaller ionization power
d) Same ionization power

60. Pair production can take places only with ______________

a) X-rays b) γ - rays
c) UV-rays d) IR-rays

61. A device for producing high velocity nuclei is ___________

a) Cloud chamber b) Linear acceleration

c) A mass spectrograph d) Wilson cloud

62. Which one of the following will be better shield against γ - rays?

a) Ordinary water b) Heavy water

c) Lead d) Aluminum

63. The maximum safe limit does for persons working in nuclear power station are __________

a) 1 rem per week b) 5 rem per week

c) 4 rem per week d) 3 rem per week

64. Radiations are used for the treatment of skin of a patient is __________

a) α - rays b) β - rays
c) X - rays d) γ – rays

65. Strong nuclear force

a) Increase with magnitude of increasing

charge
b) Decreases with magnitude of increasing
charge
c) Is independent of charge
d) None

66. Complete the reaction

Z X A  X      .......  Q
Z 1

a) Neutrino b) Antineutrino
c)  - particle d) None

67. Both Xenon and Cesium each have isotopes

a) 12 b) 33
 c) 36 d) 39

68. Marie Curie and Pierre Curie discovered two new radioactive elements which

a) Uranium and Polonium

b) Polonium and Radium
c) Radium and Uranium
d) Uranium and Plutonium

69. The half of uranium – 238 is

a) 1.67 × 108 years b) 3.3 × 109 years

c) 4.5 × 10 years d) 4.5 × 109 years
8

70. The  - particle ionizes the particles in its way and adopt the path which is
a) Curved b) Straight
c) Zig – Zag d) None of these

71.  - particles can be deflected by collisions than the  -particles is

a) Difficult b) Very easily
c) Easily d) None of these

72. Neutron interact with materials containing hydrogen atoms and knock out

a) Electron b) Proton
c) Photon d) None of these

73. Neutron produce ionization by knocking out proton which is

a) Direct ionization b) Indirect ionization

c) Both d) None of these

74.  - rays are absorbed by a sheet of

a) 1 ~ 5 mm of lead b) 1 ~ 10 mm of lead
c) 5 ~ 10 mm of lead d) None of these

75. Tracks obtained by  - particles in Wilson Cloud Chamber is

a) Strong Continuous
b) Discontinuous, not straight thin
c) Weak and no definite tracks
d) None of these

76. The mixture of gas filled in a Geiger-Muller tube at atmospheric pressure at about

a) 0.01 mm of Hg b) 0.1 mm of Hg
c) 10.00 mm of Hg d) None of these

77. The quenching of gas by a quenching gas is called

a) Quenching b) Self quenching

c) Forced quenching d) None of these

78. The dead time of Geiger Muller counter is of the order of

a) Micro second b) Miilli second

c) More than millisecond d) None of these
79. As the solid state detector absorbs so less energy of the incident particle and junction become from surface. So
it is called the detector as

a) Surface contact b) Surface barrier

c) Surface dependent d) None of these

80. The solid state detector operated at

a) Low b) High
c) Very High d) None of these
235
81. The breakage of U produces the fragments as
92

a) Kr and Ba b) Sn and Mo
c) Xe and Sr d) All of them

82. The fuel / fuels used in the reactor are nowadays

a) Plutonium – 239 b) Uranium – 233

c) Uranium – 235 d) All of these

83. The temperature of the core of the reactor rises to about

a) 1000oC b) 1100oC
c) 1200oC d) 1300oC

84. Plutonium can be fissioned by

a) Slow neutron b) Fast neutron

c) Very slow neutron d) None of these

85. Ultraviolet radiation cuase

a) Sum burn b) Blindness

c) Skin Cancer d) All of them

86. Neutrons are particularly more damaging to

a) Legs b) Heart
c) Eyes d) Brain

87. Radio isotopes can be made easily by bombardment with

a) Electrons b) Protons
c) Neutrons d) None of these

88. Subatomic particles are divided into

a) Photons b) Leptons
c) Hadrons d) All of these

89. Hadrons are the particle included

a) Protons b) Neutrons
c) Mesons d) All of these

90. Lepton’s particles which experience no strong nuclear force are

a) Electrons b) Muons
 c) Neutrinos d) All of these

91. The charges on the quarks are

a) One unit b) Half unit

c) Fraction d) None of these

92. Meson is made from

a) A pair of quarks
b) A pair of anti quarks
c) A pair of quarks and anti quarks
d) None of these

93. Fission nuclear reaction leads to a _____ stability.

a) Lesser b) Greater
c) Medium d) None

94. If a radioactive isotope of silver have a half life of about 7.5 days. After 15 days the remaining isotope of its
original is

a) 25% b) 50%
c) 7.5% d) 15%

95. A nuclide 86 R 220 decays to a new nuclide by two  -emissions, the nuclide S is

a) 84 S 212 b) 82 S 212
c) 80 S 220 d) None