200-125 V21.02

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The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
Exam : 200-125
Title : CCNA Cisco Certified

Network Associate CCNA
(v3.0)
Version : V21.02
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1.Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. DNS
B. DHCPv6
C. DHCP
D. autoconfiguration
Answer: BD
2.After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the
interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?
A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0
B. Router#show run
C. Router#show interface loopback 0
D. Router#show ip interface brief
Answer: A
3.What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)

A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Answer: AD
4.Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interfaceon a switch?
A. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20
C. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
D. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
E. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
Answer: A
5.Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)
A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
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C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin

D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin
Answer: ABC
6.Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
D. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
E. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
Answer: BE
7.If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophiclosses, which
tertiary switch can take over?
A. a switch with priority 20480
B. a switch with priority 8192
C. a switch with priority 4096
D. a switch with priority 12288
Answer: A
8.Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
Answer: AB
9.Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config-router)#default-information originate
D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always
Answer: A
10.Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)
A. blocking
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. discarding
Answer: AB
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11.If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast
domains are present on the router?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C
12.Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a cisco router?

A. ipv6 host
B. ipv6 unicast-routing
C. ipv6 local
D. ipv6 neighbor
Answer: B
13.Refer to the exhibit.
What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
Answer: B
14.Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Answer: C
15.A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One
route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric
of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4.
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Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Answer: B
16.Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they
are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.
Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of
connectivity.
A. incompatible IP address
B. insufficient bandwidth
C. incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation
E. link reliability too low
F. IPCP closed
Answer: D
17.A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location.
The router at the remote office is a non-cisco router.
How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the
connection?
A. Main(config)#interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#no shut
B. Main(config)#interface serial 0/0
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Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
C. Main(config)#interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)#authenication chap
D. Main(config)#interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ppp
Answer: D
18.Which layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuis and has
built-in security mechanisms?
A. Frame Relay
B. HDLC
C. x.25
D. PPP
Answer: D
The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green.
What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
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Answer: BDF
20.A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers
cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output
of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2.
Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.

B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Answer: D
21.What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will be not routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address in a valid IP address.
D. Several automated methods will be necessary on the private network.
E. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
Answer: A
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The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router.

What is the cause of the problem?
A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be
configured to authenticate to each other.
Answer: B
23.What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-securitySwitch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
Answer: B
The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.

2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1.
What two functions will occur when this frame
A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
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C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.

D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be
forwarded out fa0/1.
F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be
forwarded out fa0/1.
Answer: BD
25.Which command can you enter to re-enable Cisco Discovery Protocol on a local route rafter it has
been disabled?
A. Router(config-if)#cdp run
B. Router(config-if)#cdp enable
C. Router(config)#cdp run
D. Router(config)#cdp enable
Answer: C
26.A cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an
IOS image.
What function does the router perform next?
A. It checks the configuration register
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory
D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions
Answer: A
27.What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. They establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
B. They utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
C. They provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
D. They provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
E. They allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
F. They can simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.
Answer: AEF
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The output that is shown is generated at a switch.

Which three of these statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. The switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Answer: ACE
29.Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configurationt status on a given cisco switch?
(choose two)
A. show interfaces interface
B. show interfaces trunk
C. show interfaces switchport
D. show ip interface brief
E. show interfaces vlan
Answer: BC
30.Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (choose two)
A. blocking
B. learning
C. discarding
D. forwarding
E. listening
Answer: CD
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A technician has installed SwithchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management
workstation connected SwitchA Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?
A. SwitchB(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
B. SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
C. SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
D. SwitchB(config)#ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
Answer: B
32.Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security.
D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
F. They simplify switch administration.
Answer: BCE
33.What are three benefits of implementing vlans? (choose three)

A. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same
network infrastructure
B. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing
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their size.
C. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other
network traffic.
D. Port-based vlans increase switch-port use efficient, thanks to 802.1Q trunks
E. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same
network infrastructure.
F. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their
size.
G. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the vlans all belong to the
same broadcast domain.
Answer: CEF
34.Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches? (choose three)
A. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
B. if a switch receives a frame for an unkown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
C. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share vlan information.
D. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched aegment will contain
one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will
have only one root port.
E. Establishing vlans increases the number of broadcast domains.
F. Switches that are configured with vlans make forwarding decisions based on both layer 2 and layer 3
address information.
Answer: ADE
35.Which two correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control
information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host
addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a
segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Answer: AD
36.Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device
Answer: ADE
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37.Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?
A. no earner
B. late collisions
C. giants
D. CRC errors
E. deferred
F. runts
Answer: B
38.Which feature can you implement to reserve bandwidth for VoIP calls across the call path?
A. PQ
B. CBWFQ
C. round robin
D. RSVP
Answer: D
Explanation:
When implemented on all nodes in the path, RSVP guarantees bandwidth for the call along the entire path
for the entire duration of the call. This is the only technique that achieves this level of accuracy.
39.When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond when it
receives a BPDU?
A. It continues operating normally.
B. It goes into a down/down state.
C. It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN.
D. It goes into an errdisable state.
Answer: D
40.What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)

A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
Answer: BCF
41.Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been configured using
HDLC encapsulation?
A. router#show platform
B. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0
C. router#show ip interface s0/2/0
D. router#show ip interface brief
Answer: B
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42.Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Answer: BE
43.What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)

A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Answer: BC
44.What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?

A. a recursive DNS search
B. the operating system cache
C. the ISP local cache
D. the browser cache
Answer: A
45.Which command can you enter to verify that a BGP connection to a remote device is established?
A. show ip bgp summary
B. show ip community-list
C. show ip bgp paths
D. show ip route
Answer: A
46.During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed?

A. the PPP Session phase
B. Phase 2
C. the Active Discovery phase
D. the Authentication phase
E. Phase 1
Answer: A
47.Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
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F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.

Answer: BCD
48.Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN infrastructure are true? (Choose two.)
A. Leased lines provide inexpensive WAN access.
B. Leased lines with sufficient bandwidth can avoid latency between endpoints.
C. Leased lines require little installation and maintenance expertise.
D. Leased lines provide highly flexible bandwidth scaling.
E. Multiple leased lines can share a router interface.
F. Leased lines support up to T1 link speeds.
Answer: BC
49.Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs.
B. They rely on external firewalls for WLAN security.
C. They are best suited to smaller wireless networks.
D. They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS.
E. They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level.
Answer: AE
50.Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose two.)
A. Only southbound APIs allow program control of the network.
B. Only northbound APIs allow program control of the network.
C. Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
D. Only northbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
E. Both northbound and southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
F. Both northbound and southbound APIs allow program control of the network.
Answer: BC
51.Which statement about RADIUS security is true?

A. It supports EAP authentication for connecting to wireless networks.
B. It provides encrypted multiprotocol support.
C. Device-administration packets are encrypted in their entirety.
D. It ensures that user activity is fully anonymous.
Answer: A
52.If you are configuring syslog messages specifying `logging trap warning', which log messages will the
router send?
A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-6
D. 0-2
E. 0-1
Answer: A
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Explanation:
0 emergencies System is unusable
1 alerts Immediate action is needed
2 critical Critical conditions exist
3 errors Error conditions exist
4 warnings Warning conditions exist
5 notification Normal, but significant, conditions exist
6 informational Informational messages
7 debugging Debugging messages
53.Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route?
A. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 201
B. Router(config)# ipv6 route::/0 serail0/1
C. Router(config)# ipv6 route static resolve default
D. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 1
Answer: A
54.Which two statements about Ethernet standards are true? (choose two)
A. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.2
B. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.3
C. Ethernet 10BASE-T dose not support full-duplex.
D. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CD, it terminates transmission as soon as collision occurs
E. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CA, it terminates transmission as soon as collision occurs
Answer: BD
Explanation:
http://www.ieee802.org/3/ CSMA/CD - It uses a carrier sensing scheme in which a transmitting station
detects collisions by sensing transmissions from other stations while transmitting a frame. When this
collision condition is detected, the station stops transmitting that frame.
55.Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting?
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
Answer: C
Explanation:
IP SLA generates ICMP traffic and measures Round Trip Delay for entire path
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipsla/configuration/15-mt/sla-15-mt-book/
sla_icmp_echo.html
56.What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three.)

A. Recursive Static routes
B. Directly connected static routes
C. Fully specified static routes
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D. Dynamically specified static routes

E. injected static routes
F. Redistributed static routes
Answer: ABC
57.How to configure RIPv2? (Choose Two.)

A. Enable RIP
B. Connect RIP to WAN interface
C. Enable no auto-summary
D. Enable authentication
Answer: AC
58.What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?

A. Forwarding
B. Enabled
C. Disabled
D. errdisabled
Answer: C
59.What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.)

A. Layer 2 protocol
B. Layer 3 protocol
C. Proprietary protocol
D. enabled by default
E. disabled by default
Answer: ACD
60.How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose Three.)
A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
D. switchport trunk native vlan 20
Answer: ABC
61.What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?

A. Tos Field
B. DSCP
C. IP Precedence
D. Cos
Answer: A
62.What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?

A. CSMA/CA
D. CSMA/CD
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Answer: D
63.Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?

A. Trunk Ports
B. Access Ports
C. Dynamic Auto
D. Dynamic Desirable
Answer: C
64.If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the
router send?
A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-6
D. 0-2
E. 0-1
Answer: C
65.Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
C. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10
Answer: A
66.Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot
Standby Router Protocol?
A. VRRP
B. GLBP
C. TFTP
D. DHCP
Answer: A
67.Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration.

Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Answer: B
68.If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may
broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
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B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
69.What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network
B. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host.
C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided
by an ISP
E. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local
administrator
Answer: ACD
70.You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the
same network while providing the max number of subnets.
Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?
A. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
C. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
D. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252
Answer: A
71.What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

A. speed
B. DTP negotiation settings
C. trunk encapsulation
D. duplex
Answer: B
72.Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.
Answer: AB
73.Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?

A. MSTP
B. RSTP
C. PVST+
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D. Mono Spanning Tree

Answer: A
74.A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch.

Which two statements are true? (choose two)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports
B. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure mac addresses in the voice
vlan.
C. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running
configuration.
D. The network administrator can apply port security to Ether Channels.
E. When dynamic mac address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses,
up to the maximum defined.
Answer: CE
75.Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a frame before making a switching decision?
A. fragment-free switching
B. store and-forward switching
C. cut through switching
D. ASIC switching
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cut and Through method has lowest latency. In this method Switch only read first six bytes from frame
after the preamble. These six bytes are the destination address of frame. This is the fastest method of
switching. This method also processes invalid frames. Only advantage of this method is speed.
76.Which logging command can enable administrators to correlate syslog messages with millisecond
precision?
A. no logging console
B. logging buffered 4
C. no logging monitor
D. service timestamps log datetime msec
E. logging host 10.2.0.21
Answer: D
77.Which three statements about link-state routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. Routes are updated when a change in topology occurs.
B. Updates are sent to a multicast address by default.
C. OSPF is a link-state protocol.
D. Updates are sent to a broadcast address.
E. RIP is a link-state protocol
F. It uses split horizon.
Answer: ABC
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78.Which command can you enter to determine whether a switch is operating in trunking mode?
A. show ip interface brief
B. show vlan
C. show interfaces
D. show interface switchport
Answer: D
79.Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?
A. Switch#show vlan id 20
B. Switch#show ip interface brief
C. Switch#show interface vlan 20
D. Switch#show ip interface vlan 20
Answer: A
80.In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written?
(Choose two.)
A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:572B
B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:572B
C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B
D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:572B
E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
Answer: AE
81.Which function of the IP SLAs ICMP jitter operation can you use to determine whether a VoIP issue is
caused by excessive end-to-end time?
A. packet loss
B. jitter
C. successive packet loss
D. round-trip time latency
Answer: D
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Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been
completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will not be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Answer: B
The network administrator normally establishes a telnet session with the switch from host A. However,
host A is unavailable. The administrator′s attempt to the switch from host B fails, but pings to the other two
hosts are successful.
What is the issue?
A. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
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B. The switch needs and appropriate default gateway assigned.

C. The switch interface connected to the router is down.
D. Host B need to be assigned an IP address in vlan 1.
E. The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.
Answer: B
84.Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface?

A. There is a duplex mismatch.
B. The device at the other end of the connection is powered off.
C. The serial interface is disabled.
D. The interface is configured with the shutdown command.
E. Port security has disabled the interface.
F. The interface is fully functioning.
Answer: E
All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command.
Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)
A. Network A - 172.16.3.48/26
B. Network A - 172.16.3.128/25
C. Network A - 172.16.3.192/26
D. Link A - 172.16.3.0/30
E. Link A - 172.16.3.40/30
F. Link A - 172.16.3.112/30
Answer: BD
86.Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing?
A. Layer 2 bridge
B. Layer 2 switch
C. Layer 3 switch
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D. router
Answer: C
87.Which statement about LLDP is true?

A. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol
B. It is configured in global configuration mode.
C. The LLDP update frequency is a fixed value.
D. It runs over the transport layer.
Answer: B
88.If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?
A. switch 0040.0ВС0.90C5
B. switch 00E0.F90B.6BE3
C. switch 0004.9A1A.C182
D. switch 00E0.F726.3DC6
Answer: C
89.A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP
addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the
queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked.
What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors
B. Router# show ip eigrp interfaces
C. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
D. Router# show ip eigrp topology
Answer: A
90.Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)
A. FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast.
B. FC00::/7 is used in private networks.
C. FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast.
D. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.
E. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.
F. FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.
Answer: BDF
91.Which command can you enter to display duplicate IP addresses that the DHCP server assigns?
A. show ip dhcp conflict 10.0.2.12
B. show ip dhcp database 10.0.2.12
C. show ip dhcp server statistics
D. show ip dhcp binding 10.0.2.12
Answer: A
92.Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit.
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Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose
three.)
A. Switch A - Fa0/0
B. Switch A - Fa0/1
C. Switch B - Fa0/0
D. Switch B - Fa0/1
E. Switch C - Fa0/0
F. Switch C - Fa0/1
Answer: BCD
93.The network administrator cannot to switch 1 over a telnet session, although the hosts attached to
switch 1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router.
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Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and switch2 are configured properly,
which of the following commands should be issued on switch 1 to correct this problem?
A. Switch1(config)# i nterface fa0 /1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3.255.255.255.0
B. Switch1 (config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
C. Switch 1 (config)# i nterface fa0 /1
Switch1 (config-if)# duplex full
Switch1 (config-if)# speed 100
D. Switch1 (config-if)# default-gateway 192.168.24.1
E. Switch1 (config)# line con 0
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1 (config-line)#login
Answer: D
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Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run
RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made.
Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose
three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Answer: ABF
95.Which feature builds a FIB and an adjacency table to expedite packet forwarding?
A. cut through
B. fast switching
C. process switching
D. Cisco Express Forwarding
Answer: D
96.Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
A. traceroute
B. telnet
C. ping
D. show ipv6
Answer: C
97.What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose two.)
A. The interface displays a connected (up/up) state even when the duplex settings are mismatched.
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B. 1-Gbps interfaces are full-duplex by default.

C. Full-duplex interfaces use CSMA/CD logic, so mismatches may be disguised by collisions.
D. The symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent.
E. Autonegotiation is disabled.
Answer: AD
98.Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?

A. The local username password is in clear text in the configuration.
B. The enable secret is in clear text in the configuration
C. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration.
D. The enable secret is encrypted in the configuration.
Answer: C
99.Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing
device?
A. FHRP
B. DHCP
C. RSMLT
D. ESRP
Answer: A
100.What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?

A. 172.16.1.0/26
B. 172.16.1.0/25
C. 172.16.1.0/24
D. the default route
Answer: A
101.Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving
program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer: E
102.What is the purpose of the POST operation on a router?

A. determine whether additional hardware has been added
B. locate an IOS image for booting
C. enable a TFTP server
D. set the configuration register
Answer: A
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103.Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?

A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. CARP
Answer: A
104.Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A. provides common view of entire topology
B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors
C. calculates shortest path
D. utilizes event-triggered updates
E. utilizes frequent periodic updates
Answer: AD
105.Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address
to a PPPoE client?
A. virtual-template interface
B. DHCP
C. dialer interface
D. AAA authentication
Answer: A
106.Which three statements about RSTP are true? (choose three)

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expends the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port atates are blocking, discarding, learing, or forwarding.
D. RSTP also uses the STP proprsal-agreement sequence.
E. RSTP use the same timer-baseed process as STP on point-to-point links.
F. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
Answer: ABF
107.What are two benefits of using NAT? (choose two)

A. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.
B. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
C. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
D. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enable.
E. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all host that require extemal access.
F. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.
Answer: AE
108.Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet
0/12 on a switch? (choose two)
A. SW1#show swithport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
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B. SW1# show swithport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12

C. SW1# show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
D. SW1#show running-config
E. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
Answer: DE
Give this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next action be?
A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.
B. Check the duplex mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.
C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.
D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.
Answer: C
110.Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

A. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
B. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
C. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
D. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must
resolve the conflict.
E. If an address conflict is detected, the address removed from the pool for an amount of time
configurable by the administrator.
F. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until
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server is rebooted.
Answer: D
111.Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true?
(choose two)
A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake
B. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment
C. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks
D. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment
E. CHAP uses a three-way handshake
F. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext
Answer: BE
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on AlSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Qcomplaint trunk to
another switch. Based on the output shown.
What is the reason the trunk does not form, even thought the proper cabling has been attached?
A. VLANs have not been created yet.
B. An IP address must be configured for the port.
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
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E. The no shutdown command has not been entered for the port.
Answer: C
A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow only
PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the port is to
drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with successful
pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show commands.
Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Port security needs to be globally enabled.
B. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface.
C. Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation.
D. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.
E. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command.
F. The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active.
Answer: BD
114.Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
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D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.

E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Answer: ABC
115.What are the address that will show at the show ip route if we configure the above statements?
(Choose Three.)
router eigrp 100
network 172.15.4.0
network 10.4.3.0
network 192.16.4.0
auto summary
A. 10.0.0.0
B. 10.4.3.0
C. 172.15.4.0
D. 172.15.0.0
E. 192.168.4.0
F. 192.168.0.0
Answer: ADE
116.Which feature facilitate the tagging of a specific VLAN?

A. Routing
B. Hairpinning
C. Encapsulation
D. Switching
Answer: C
117.What does split horizon prevent?

A. routing loops, link state
B. routing loops, distance vector
C. switching loops, STP
D. switching loops, VTP
Answer: B
118.Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process?

A. interface
B. virtual IP address
C. priority
D. router ID
Answer: C
119.which keyword enables an HSRP router to take the active role immediately when itcomes online?
A. preempt
B. priority
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C. version
D. IP address
Answer: A
120.Which command is used to show the interface status of a router?

A. show interface status
B. show ip interface brief
C. show ip route
D. show interface
Answer: B
121.Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?

A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 15
D. Level 16
Answer: C
122.Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?

A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Answer: C
123.Which two statements are true about IPv6 Unique Local Addresses? (Choose Two.)
A. They are identical to IPv4 private addresses.
B. They use the prefix FC00::/7
C. They are defined by RFC 1884
D. They use the prefix FEC0::/10
E. They can be routed on the IPv6 global internet.
Answer: AB
124.Which range represents the standard access list?

A. 99
B. 150
C. 299
D. 2000
Answer: A
125.What to do when the router password was forgotten?

A. use default password cisco to reset
B. access router physically
C. use ssl/vpn
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D. Type confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1

Answer: D
126.What is true about Cisco Discovery Protocol?

A. it discovers the routers, switches and gateways.
B. it is network layer protocol
C. it is physical and data link layer protocol
D. it is proprietary protocol
Answer: D
127.Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line?

A. telnet
B. ssh
C. vtp
D. vpn
E. dmvpn
Answer: B
128.How do you configure a hostname?

A. Router(config)#hostname R1
Answer: A
129.Which technology supports multiple dynamic secure connections over an unsecure transport
network?
A. Point-to-point
B. DMVPN
C. VPN
D. site-to-site VPN
Answer: B
Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4.
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What will Switch-1 do with this data?

A. switch-1 will drop the data because it dose not have an entry for that MAC address
B. switch-1 will flood the data out all of its port from which the data originated
C. switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway
D. switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated
Answer: B
131.interface fa0/0
ip address x.x.x.33 255.255.255.224
router bgp XXX
neighbor x.x.x.x remote as x.x.x.x
You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0.
A. x.x.x.32 mask 255.255.255.224
B. x.x.x.32 255.255.255.224
C. x.x.x.32 mask 0.0.0.31
D. x.x.x.33 mask 255.255.255.224
Answer: A
132.What routing protocol use first-hand information?

A. link-state
B. distance-vector
C. path-vector
Answer: A
You have discovered that computers on the 192 168 10 0/24 network can ping their default gateway, but
they cannot connect to any resources on a remote network.
Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. The 192.168.12 0/24 network is missing from OSPF.
B. The OSPF process ID is incorrect
C. The OSPF area number is incorrect.
D. An ARP table entry is missing for 192.168.10.0.
E. A VLAN number is incorrect for 192.168.10.0.
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Answer: A
134.What field is consist of 6 bytes in the field identification frame in IEEE 802.1Q?
A.SA
B. DA
C. FCS
Answer: A
135.What is new in HSRPv2?

A. prempt
B. a greater number in hsrp group field
Answer: B
136.Which two statements about MPLS are true? (Choose two)

A. It provides automatic authentication
B. It can carry multiple protocols, including IPv4 and IPv6
C. It encapsulates all traffic in an IPv4 header
D. It uses labels to separate and foward customer traffic
E. It tags customer traffic using 802.1q
Answer: BD
137.A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific usename and
password so that the user can access the entire network over the internet.
Which ACL can be used?
A. reflexive
B. extended
C. standard
D. dynamic
Answer: D
138.Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise
configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Answer: D
139.What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?

A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of
passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well
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known and widely reported

E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Answer: B
140.Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can enable debug output to a remote
location? (Choose two)
A. no logging console
B. logging host ip-address
C. terminal monitor
D. show logging | redirect flashioutput.txt
E. snmp-server enable traps syslog
Answer: BC
141.Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco Open Daylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Answer: C
142.Which command is used to build DHCP pool?

A. ip dhcp pool DHCP
B. ip dhcp conflict
C. ip dhcp-server pool DHCP
D. ip dhcp-client pool DHCP
Answer: A
143.Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests and replies?
A. ping
B. traceroute
C. ssh
D. telnet
Answer: A
144.What is the two benefits of DHCP snooping? (Choose two.)

A. prevent static reservation
B. prevent reservation
C. prevent DHCP rogue server
D. track users hosts on the network.
Answer: CD
145.What are the three major components of cisco network virtualization? (Choose Three.)
A. network access control
B. path isolation
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C. virtual network services

D. policy enforcement
Answer: ABC
146.Which feature is config by setting a variance that is at least 2 times the metric?
A. unequal cost load balancing
B. path selection
C. equal cost load balancing
D. path count
Answer: A
147.Standard industrialized protocol of etherchannel?

A. LACP
B. PAGP
C. PRP
D. REP
Answer: A
148.Which two options are features of the extended ping command? (Choose two.)
A. It can send a specific number of packet
B. It can send packet from specified interface of IP address
C. It can resolve the destination host name
D. It can ping multiple host at the same time
E. it can count the number of hops to the remote host.
Answer: AB
149.What command is used to configure a switch as authoritative NTP server?

A. switch(config)#ntp master 3
B. switch(config)#ntp peer 193.168.2.2
C. switch(config)#ntp server 193.168.2.2
D. switch(config)#ntp source 193.168.2.2
Answer: A
150.Which two statements about syslog loging are true? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog logging is disabled by default
B. Messages are stored in the internal memory of device
C. Messages can be erased when device reboots
D. Messages are stored external to the device
E. The size of the log file is dependenet on the resources of the device
Answer: BC
151.How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches?

A. Configure VLAN
B. Confiture NTP
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C. Configure each VLAN

D. Configure VTP
Answer: D
152.Which password types are encrypted?

A. SSH
B. Telnet
C. enable secret
D. enable password
Answer: C
153.Which option describes a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

A. Low cost
B. Full-mesh capability
C. Flexibillity of design
D. Simply of configuration
Answer: D
154.What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?

A. 00000000
B. 11111100
C. 11111111
D. 11111101
Answer: B
155.Which statemnet about ACLs is true?

A. An ACL have must at least one permit action, else it just blocks all traffic.
B. ACLs go bottom-up through the entries looking for a match
C. An ACL has a an implicit permit at the end of ACL.
D. ACLs will check the packet against all entries looking for a match.
Answer: A
156.What is the cause of the Syslog output messages?
A. The EIGRP neighbor on Fa0/1 went down due to a failed link.

B. The EIGRP neighbor connected to Fa0/1 is participating in a different EIGRP process, causing the
adjacency to go down.
C. A shut command was executed on interface Fa0/1, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.
D. Interface Fa0/1 has become error disabled, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.
Answer: C
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157.What are contained in layer 2 ethernet frame? (Choose Three.)

A. Preamble
B. TTL
C. Type/length
D. Frame check sequence
E. version
Answer: ACD
158.Describe the best way to troubleshoot and isolate a network problem?

A. Create an action plan
B. Implement an action plan
C. Gather facts
D. Change on variable at a time
Answer: C
159.Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Answer: D
160.Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring port is in trunk
mode, dynamic desirable mode, or desirable or auto mode?
A. Dynamic Auto
B. Dynamic Desirable
C. Access
D. Trunk
Answer: B
161.In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked?

A. the QoS byte
B. the CoS byte
C. the ToS byte
D. the DSCP byte
Answer: C
162.Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific
interface?
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Answer: A
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163.Which two protocol can detect native vlan mismatch errors? (Choose two.)
A. CDP
B. VTP
C. DTP
D. STP
E. PAGP
Answer: AD
164.Which three options are switchport config that can always avoid duplex mismatch error between the
switches? (Choose Three.)
A. set both side on auto-negotation
B. set both sides on half-duplex
C. set one side auto and other side half-duplex
D. set both side of connection to full-duplex
E. set one side auto and other side on full-duplex
F. set one side full-duplex and other side half-duplex
Answer: ABD
165.What are two benefits of Private IPv4 Addresses? (Choose two.)

A. they can be implemented without requiring admin to coordinate with IANA
B. they are managed by IANA
C. increase the flexibility of network design
D. provide network isloation from the internet
E. they are routable over internet
Answer: AD
166.How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address?

A. 32
B. 48
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C
167.Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with several satellite
branches?
A. star
B. hub and spoke
C. point-to-point
D. full mesh
Answer: B
168.Which function allows EIGRP peers to receive notice of implementing topology changes?
A. successors
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B. advertised changes
C. goodbye messages
D. expiration of the hold timer
Answer: C
169.If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will
the router send?
A. informational messages only
B. warning and error conditions only
C. normal but significant conditions only
D. error conditions only
E. all levels except debugging
Answer: E
170.Which three options are benefits of using TACACS+ on a device? (Choose three)
A. It ensures that user activity is untraceable
B. It provides a secure accounting facility on the device.
C. device-administration packets are encrypted in their entirely.
D. It allows the user to remotely access devices from other vendors.
E. It allows the users to be authenticated against a remote server.
F. It supports access-level authorization for commands.
Answer: CEF
171.What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model's INTERNET layer?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Data Link
D. Presentation
E. Network
Answer: E
172.Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (choose two)
A. it is a layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains vlan configurations across network.
B. it includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
C. it is used exclusively for tagging vlan frames and dose not address network reconvergence following
switched network topology changes.
D. it modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
E. it is a trunking protocol capable of carring untagged frames.
Answer: DE
173.Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration
B. DHCP
C. NHRP
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D. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration

E. ISATAP tunneling
Answer: AD
174.A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications.
Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?
A. Monitor mode
B. High-Security mode
C. Low-impact mode
D. Closed mode
Answer: A
175.How to verify SSH connections was secured?

A. ssh -v 1 -l admin IP
B. ssh -v 2 -l admin IP
C. ssh -l admin IP
Answer: B
176.How many usable host are there per subnet if you have the address of 192.168.10.0 with a subnet
mask of 255.255.255.240?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 14
Answer: D
177.Which type of cable must you use to connect two device with MDI interfaces?
A. cut-through
B. straight-through
C. crossover
D. rollover
Answer: C
178.which command is used to know the duplex speed of serial link?

A. show line
B. show interface
C. show protocol
D. show run
Answer: B
179.Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)
A. The virtual IP address and virtual address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
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D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same
LAN.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN.
F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing
Answer: ABF
180.Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two.)
A. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN.
B. It supports HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP.
C. It requires only one IP address per VLAN.
D. It reduces management overhead.
E. It supports redundant configuration files.
F. Switches can be located anywhere regardless of their physical distance from one another.
Answer: CD
181.When troubleshooting client DNS issues, which two task must you perform? (Choose two)
A. Ping a public website IP address.
B. Ping the DNS Server.
C. Determine whether a DHCP address has been assigned.
D. Determine whether the hardware address is correct.
E. Determine whether the name servers have been configured
Answer: BE
182.Which utility can you use to identify the cause of a traffic-flow blockage between two devices in a
network?
A. The ACL path analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM
B. The ACL trace tool in Cisco APIC-EM
C. The Cisco APIC-EM automation scheduler.
D. The Cisco IWAN application.
Answer: A
183.which function does traffic shaping perform?

A. it bufers and queues excess packets
B. it drops packets to control the output rate
C. it buffers traffic without queuing it
D. it queues traffic without buffering it
Answer: A
184.Which two statements about extended traceroute command are true? (choose two)
A. it can send packets from a specified interface or ip address
B. it can use a specified TTL value
C. it can validate the reply data
D. it can use a specificed TOS
E. it can repeated automatically to a specified interval
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Answer: AB
185.A BPDU guard is configured on an interface that has PortFast Enable.

Which state does the interface enter when it recives a BPDU?
A. Blocking
B. Shutdown
C. Listening
D. Errdisable
Answer: D
186.Which statement about SNMPv2 is true?

A. Its privacy algorithms use MD5 encryption by default.
B. it requires passwords to be encrypyed
C. Its authetication and privacy algorithms are enable without default values.
D. It requires passwords at least eight characters en length.
Answer: C
187.which type of IP address of ipv6 that also exist in IPv4 but barely used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Answer: C
188.Which symptom most commonly indicates that two connecting interface are configured with a duplex
mismatch?
A. an interface with up/down state
B. an interface with down/down state
C. late collisions on the interface
D. the spanning tree process shutting down
Answer: C
189.How Eigrp for ipv6 configuration done? (choose two)

A. uses process number
B. neighbor configured directly
C. configured driectly on interface
D. configured globally interface
E. have shutdown feature
Answer: CE
190.Which VTP mode prevents you from making changes to vlans?

A. Server
B. Client
C. Transparent
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D. Off
Answer: B
191.Which mode are in PAgP? (choose two)

A. Auto
B. Desirable
C. Active
D. Passive
E. On
Answer: AB
192.In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Answer: CD
193.Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network?
(Choose two.)
A. 802.1d
B. VTP
C. 802.1q
D. SAP
E. STP
Answer: AE
194.At which layer of the OSI model dose PPP perform?

A. Layer 3
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 2
D. Layer 5
Answer: C
195.Which are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might
implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (choose three)
A. reduced cost
B. better throughput
C. increased security
D. scalability
E. reduced latency
F. broadband incompatibility
Answer: ACD
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196.Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?

A. Hop Limit
B. Flow Label
C. TTD
D. Hop Count
E. Scan Timer
Answer: A
197.which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of violations?
A. access
B. protect
C. restrict
D. shutdown
Answer: C
198.Which two options are requirements for configuring RIPv2 on the IPv4 network router? (choose two)
A. enabling RIP authentication
B. connecting RIP to a WAN Interface
C. enabling auto route sumamrization
D. allowing unicast updates for RIP
E. enabling RIP on the router
Answer: DE
199.which configuration command can you apply to a hsrp router so that its local interface becomes
active if all other routers in the group fail?
A. no additional config is required
B. standby 1 track ethernet
C. standby 1 preempt
D. standby 1 priority 250
Answer: A
200.which statement about EIGRP on IPv6 device is true?

A. It is configured directly on the interface
B. The configuration uses secondary IP address
C. The configuration uses process numbers
D. The neighbors of each device are directly configured
Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocol-eigrp/113267-
eigrp-ipv6-00.html
201.which command can you enter to troubleshoot the failure of address assignment?
A. show ip dhcp database
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B. show ip dhcp pool

C. show ip dhcp import
D. show ip dhcp server statistics
Answer: B
202.which three technical services support cloud computing?

A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Answer: DEF
203.which two steps must you perform to enbale router-on-stick on a switch? (choose two)
A. connect the router to a trunk port
B. config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN
C. config full duplex
D. cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net
E. assign the access port to the vlan
Answer: AE
204.which address prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 address are configured on asingle
interface?
A. all prefix on the interface
B. the prefix that the administrator configure for OSPFv3 use
C. the lowest prefix on the interface
D. the highest prefix on the interface
Answer: A
205.which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?

A. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64
B. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
C. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
D. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128
E. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256
Answer: D
206.Which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 subnet 255.255.255.252?
A. 30
B. 31
C. 32
D. 33
Answer: A
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207.Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Answer: BE
208.What is known as one-to-nearest addressing in IPv6?

A. global unicast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unspecified address
Answer: B
209.Which path does a router choose when it receives a packet with multiple possible paths to the
destination over different routing protocols?
A. the path with both the lowest administrative distance and the highest metric
B. the path with the lowest administrative distance
C. the path with the lowest metric
D. the path with both the lowest administrative distance and lowest metric
Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2180208&seqNum=9
210.Requirement to configure DHCP binding (choose two)

A. DHCP pool
B. ip address
C. Hardware address
Answer: BC
211.how to see dhcp conflict?

A. show ip dhcp pool
B. show dhcp database
C. show ip dhcp conflict
Answer: C
212.Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?

A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Answer: C
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213.Which type of mac address is aged automatically by the switch?

A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. automatic
D. manual
Answer: A
214.Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy?
A. policy enforcement
B. access control
C. network services virtualization
D. Path Isolation.
Answer: B
215.Which two statements about firewalls are true?

A. They can be used with an intrusion prevention system
B. They can limit unauthorized user access to protect data
C. Each wireless access point requires its own firewall
D. They must be placed only at locations where the private network connects to the internet
E. They can prevent attacks from the internet only
Answer: AB
216.Which two statements about data VLANs on access ports are true? ( Choose two)
A. They can be configured as trunk ports
B. Two or more VLANs can be configured on the interface
C. 802.1Q encapsulation must be configured on the interface
D. Exactly one VLAN can be configured on the interface.
E. They can be configured as host ports.
Answer: DE
217.Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is configured to support DHCP?
A. on the switch trunk interface.
B. on the router closest to the client.
C. on the router closest to the server.
D. on every router along the path.
Answer: B
218.How does NAT overloading provide one-to-many address translation?

A. It uses a pool of addresses
B. It converts IPV4 addresses to unused IPv6 Addresses
C. It assigns a unique TCP/UDP port to each session
D. It uses virtual MAC Address and Virtual IP Addresses
Answer: C
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219.Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? (Choose three)
A. Spoofing attacks
B. Vlan Hopping
C. botnet attacks
D. DDOS attacks
E. ARP Attacks
F. Brute force attacks
Answer: ABE
220.How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default vlan is configured
on the switches?
A. one
B. six
C. twelve
D. two
Answer: A
221.Afar you apply the given configuration to R1, you notice that it failed to enable OSPF
Which action can you take to correct the problem?

A. Configure a loopback interface on R1
B. Enable IPv6 unicast routing on R1.
C. Configure an IPv4 address on interface F0/0.
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D. Configure an autonomous system number on OSPF.

Answer: B
222.What does split-horizon do?

A. Prevent routing loop in distance vector protocol
B. Prevent switching loop in distance vector protocol
C. Prevent switching loop in link-state protocol
D. Prevent routing loop in link-state protocol
Answer: A
Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique
IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate
with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate
with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Answer: BDE
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At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Answer: C
Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?
A. The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid
B. Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image.
C. Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.
D. In order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image in flash.
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Answer: C
The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems.

Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.
B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.
Answer: BD
227.Which statement about vlan operation on cisco catalyst switches is true?

A. when a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the vlan id can be determined from the source MAC
address table.
B. unkown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan
C. ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the ports
D. broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan
Answer: B
228.When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table, how dose it handle the pacet?
A. It sends the packet to the next hop address
B. It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort
C. It discards the packet
D. It sends the packet over the route with the best metric
Answer: C
229.For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
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E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network

F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
Answer: AE
230.Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Answer: B
231.Refer to the graphic.
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3.

What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being
established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Answer: DF
232.Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?
A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
B. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
C. 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65
D. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78
Answer: A
233.Refer to exhibit.
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Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?
A. router# show protocols
B. router#show startup-config
C. router#show line
D. router#show interface gig0/1
Answer: D
234.Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication of devices when they attempt to
connect to a local network?
A. 802.1x
B. 802.11
C. 802.2x
D. 802.3x
Answer: A
235.If router R1 knows a static route to a destination network and then learns about the same destination
network through a dynamic routing protocol, how does R1 respond?
A. It refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors
B. It sends a withdrawal signal to the neighboring router
C. It disables the routing protocol
D. It prefers the static route
Answer: D
236.Which two statements about floating static routes are true? (Choose two)
A. They are routes to the exact /32 destination address
B. They are used when a route to the destination network is missing
C. They have a higher administrative distance than the default static route administrative distance
D. They are used as back-up routes when the primary route goes down
E. They are dynamic routes that are learned from a server
Answer: CD
237.When you enable PortFast on a switch port, the port immediately transitions to which state?
A. Blocking
B. Forwarding
C. Learning
D. Listening
Answer: B
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If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
A. 192.168.14.4
B. 192.168.12.2
C. 192.168.13.3
D. 192.168.15.5
Answer: A
239.What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list?
A. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router
B. It can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface.
C. It can disable the overload command.
D. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.
Answer: A
240.How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?

A. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times
B. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of the period, a new request for an
address must be made, and another address is then assigned.
C. Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the
DHCP server to renew the lease.
D. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of
the agreement.
Answer: C
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241.Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP
Server?
A. show ip DHCP statistic
B. show ip dhcp pool
C. show ip dhcp binding
D. show ip dhcp database
Answer: C
What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one
Ethernet VLAN? (choose two)
A. The number of collision domains would decrease.
B. The number of collision domains would increase.
C. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
D. The number of collision domains would remain the same.
E. The number of broadcast domains would increase.
Answer: BC
243.Refer to the exhibit, you determine that Computer A cannot ping Computer
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Which reason for the problem is most likely true?

A. The Subnet mask for Computer A is incorrect
B. The default gateway address for Computer A is incorrect
C. The subnet mask for computer B is incorrect.
D. The default gateway address for computer B is incorrect
Answer: A
244.Which effect of the passive-interface command on R1 is true?
A. It prevents interface Fa0/0 from sending updates.

B. Interface Fa 0/0 operates in RIPv1 mode.
C. It removes the 172.16.0.0 network from all updates on all interfaces on R1.
D. It removes the 172.16.0.0 network from all updates on all interfaces on R1.
Answer: A
245.Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer?
(Choose three)
A. Session
B. transport
C. presentation
D. application
E. data-link
F. network
Answer: ACD
246.When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?
A. When you lack the proper to resolve the issue.
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B. When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected

C. When you have gathered all information about an issue
D. When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min
Answer: C
247.Which two command can you enter to display the current time sources statistics on devices?
(Choose two)
A. Show ntp associations.
B. Show clock details
C. Show clock.
D. Show time.
E. Show ntp status
Answer: AE
248.Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?

A. Class C
B. Class B
C. Class D
D. Class A
Answer: B
249.On which type of port can switches interconnect for multi-VLAN communication?
A. interface port
B. access port
C. switch port
D. trunk port
Answer: D
If R1 sends traffic to 192.168.101.45 the traffic is sent through which interface?

A. FastEthernet0/1
B. FastEthernet0/0
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C. FastEthernet1/0
D. FastEthernet1/1
Answer: D
251.How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the Routing
table?
A. it discards the packet.
B. it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router.
C. it routes the packet to the default route.
D. it broadcasts the packet to each interface on the router
Answer: A
252.Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry verification on an IPv4 network?
A. interface ip address verification
B. MAC address table verification
C. neighbor discovery verification
D. Routing table entry verification
Answer: C
253.Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2?

A. VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255
B. Virtual MAC addresses
C. tracking
D. preemption
Answer: A
254.When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router configuration
checks you must perform? (choose three)
A. Verify that the router interface IP address IP address is correct.
B. Verify that the DNS is configured correctly.
C. Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask.
D. Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date.
E. Verify that a default route is configured.
F. Verify that the route appears in the Routing table
Answer: ACF
255.Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?
A. PortFast on the interface
B. the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID
C. a voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol in global configuration mode
Answer: B
256.Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
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A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Answer: C
257.Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?
A. RFC 4193
B. RFC 1519
C. RFC 1518
D. RFC 1918
Answer: D
258.What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?

A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 36 hours
Answer: A
259.Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address to a single outside address?
A. dynamic NAT
B. NAT overload
C. PAT
D. static NAT
Answer: D
260.Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub
A. bus
B. star
C. mesh
D. ring
Answer: B
261.Which statement about a router on a stick is true?

A. Its date plane router traffic for a single VI AN over two or more switches
B. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the
same subnet
C. It requires the native VLAN to be disabled
D. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.
Answer: D
262.By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port with port security
enabled?
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A. 8
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0
Answer: C
263.Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?
A. access point
B. switch
C. wireless controller
D. firewall
Answer: A
264.When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages on an
interface?
A. virtual links
B. passive-interface
C. directed neighbors
D. OSPF areas
Answer: B
Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?

A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed
B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed
C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode
D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database
Answer: C
266.Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90
in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Answer: C
267.Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default
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B. Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default

C. Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN.
D. The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons
Answer: A
268.Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?

A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses
B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the
same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.
C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch
D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded
Answer: B
269.Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
A. administrative distance
B. next hop
C. metric
D. routing protocol code
Answer: A
270.Which two authentic methods are compatible with MLPPP on a serial Interface? (choose two)
A. PEAP
B. CHAP
C. TACACS+
D. PAP
E. LEAP
Answer: BD
271.What is the effect of the overload keyword in a static NAT translation configuration?
A. It enables port address translation
B. It enables the use of a secondary pool of IP addresses when the first pool is depleted.
C. It enables the inside interface to receive traffic.
D. It enables the outside interface to forward traffic.
Answer: A
272.Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.)

A. All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name
B. All switches must be configured to perform trunk negotiation.
C. All switches must be configured with a unique VTP domain name
D. The VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain
E. All switches must use the same VTP version.
Answer: AD
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On R1 which routing protocol is in use on the route to192.168.10.1?

A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. IGRP
D. EIGRP
Answer: D
274.Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (choose two)
A. to enable intra-enterprise communication
B. to implement NAT
C. to connect applications
D. to conserve global address space
E. to manage routing overhead
Answer: AD
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What switch proves the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the
printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
276.Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host
addresses.
Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.9.0
B. 172.16.8.0
C. 172.16.31.0
D. 172.16.20.0
Answer: ACD
277.Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
A. The designated port
B. The backup port
C. The alternate port
D. The root port
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Answer: D
278.Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
A. The interface number
B. The port priority
C. The VLAN priority
D. The hello time
Answer: B
279.Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?

A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN
B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064
D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only
Answer: A
280.In which two situations should you use out-of-band management?

A. when a network device fails to forward packets
B. when you require ROMMON access
C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device
D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations
E. when the control plane fails to respond
Answer: AB
281.Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC
mode user privileges?
A. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 08314D5D1A48
B. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1
C. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 08314D5D1A48
D. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 PASSWORD1
Answer: A
282.What happens when an 802.11a node broadcasts within the range of an 802.11g access point?
A. The access point transmits, but the node is unable to receive.
B. A connection occurs
C. Both the node and the access point are unable to transmit.
D. The node transmits, but the access point is unable to receive.
Answer: D
283.Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?

A. preference of the route source
B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
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Answer: B
284.Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true?
A. It is defined globally
B. It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access or
route maps.
C. It must be configured if static NAT is used
D. It identifies the public IP address that traffic will use to reach the internet
Answer: B
285.Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?

A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Answer: A
286.Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?

A. ICANN
B. APNIC
C. RIR
D. ISPs
Answer: D
287.which value indicate the distance from the ntp authoritative time source?
A. priority
B. location
C. layer
D. stratum
Answer: D
288.Which NTP type designates a router without an external reefrence clock as an authoritative time
source?
A. server
B. peer
C. master
D. client
Answer: C
289.Which 3 feature are represented by A letter in AAA? (Choose Three)

A. authorization
B. accounting
C. authentication
D. accountability
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E. accessibility
F. authority
Answer: ABC
290.When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must you configure the group IP Address on
each device?
A. in the global config
B. Under serial interface
C. Under the routing protocol
D. Under the multilink interface
Answer: D
291.What are two statement for SSH?

A. use port 22
B. unsecured
C. encrypted
D. most common remote-access method
E. operate at transport
Answer: AC
292.Host is able to ping a web server but it is not able to do HTTP request.
A. ACL blocking port 23
B. ACL blocking All ports
C. ACL blocking port 80
D. ACL blocking port 443
E. None of the above
Answer: C
293.Which NTP command configures the local devices as an NTP reference clock source?
A. NTP Peer
B. NTP Broadcast
C. NTP Master
D. NTP Server
Answer: C
294.Which item represents the standard IP ACL?

A. Access-list 110 permit any any
B. Access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
C. Access list 101 deny tvp any host 192.168.1.1
D. Access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22
Answer: B
295.Which statement about recovering a password on a Cisco router is true?

A. The default reset password is cisco
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B. It requires a secure SSl/VPN connection

C. A factory resset is required if you forget the password
D. It requires physical access to the router
Answer: D
296.Where information about untrusted hosts are stored?

A. CAM table
B. Trunk table
C. MAC table
D. binding database
Answer: D
Explanation:
Builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database, which contains information about untrusted
hosts with leased IP addresses.
297.Which two options are primary responsibilities of the APlC-EM controller? (Choose two.)
A. lt automates network actions between different device types
B. lt provides robust asset management.
C. lt tracks license usage and Cisco lOS versions.
D. lt automates network actions between legacy equipment.
E. lt makes network functions programmable.
Answer: AE
298.Which type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switch?

A. automatic
B. manual
C. dynamic
D. static
Answer: C
299.Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)

A. lt can run on a UNlX server.
B. lt authenticates against the user database on the local device.
C. lt is more secure than AAA authentication.
D. lt is enabled on Cisco routers by default.
E. lt uses a managed database.
Answer: AE
300.If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and two devices are plugged into a different
port, how many collision domains are on the switch?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
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Answer: A
301.Which three commands must you enter to create a trunk that allows VLAN 20? (Choose three.)
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic auto
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic desirable
E. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
F. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
Answer: BCE
302.Which two passwords must be supplied in order to connect by Telnet to a properly secured Cisco
switch and make changes to the device configuration? (Choose two.)
A. tty password
B. enable secret password
C. vty password
D. aux password
E. console password
F. username password
Answer: BC
303.In order to comply with new auditing standards, a security administrator must be able to correlate
system security alert logs directly with the employee who triggers the alert.
Which of the following should the security administrator implement in order to meet this requirement?
A. Access control lists on file servers
B. Elimination of shared accounts
C. Group-based privileges for accounts
D. Periodic user account access reviews
Answer: D
304.If you want multiple hosts on a network, where do you configure the setting?
A. in the IP protocol
B. in the multicast interface
C. in the serial interface
D. in the global configuration
Answer: A
305.Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.
B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.
Answer: B
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306.Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?

A. The frequency of the operation. s specified in milliseconds.
B. It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic.
C. It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic.
D. It is used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.
Answer: D
307.Which action can change the order of entries in a named access-list?

A. removing an entry
B. opening the access-list in notepad
C. adding an entry
D. resequencing
Answer: D
308.Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Answer: AE
309.Wich component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?

A. Routing protocol code
B. Prefix
C. metric
D. Network mask
Answer: D
310.How can you disable DTP on a switch port?

A. Configure the switch port as a trunk.
B. Add an interface on the switch to a channel group.
C. Change the operational mode to static access
D. Change the administrative mode to access
Answer: D
311.What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three)
A. MIB
B. manager
C. supervisor
D. agent
E. set
F. AES
Answer: ABD
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312.Which technology can enable multiple VLANs to communicate with one another?
A. inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch
B. inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 2 switch
C. intra-VLAN routing using router on a stick
D. intra-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch
Answer: A
313.Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected devices?
A. Show cdp neighbors detail
B. Show cdp neighbor
C. Show cdp interface
D. Show cdp traffic
Answer: A
314.Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?

A. CST
B. RSTP
C. MSTP
D. PVST+
Answer: D
315.Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across the internet?

A. Unique Local
B. Compatible
C. Link local
D. Globa
Answer: D
316..Refer to the exhibit .
Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers?
A. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224
B. Network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
C. Network 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224
D. Network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224
E. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31
F. Network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31
Answer: A
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317.Which networking Technology is currently recognized as the standard for computer networking?
A. System network architecture
B. Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol
C. Open system Interconnect
D. Open network architecture
Answer: B
318.Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network
B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Answer: CF
319.VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch.

What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3commmand interface configuration mode?
A. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan dat.
B. The command is rejected.
C. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.
D. The port turns amber.
Answer: A
320.Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication whit PAP as the fallback method on a serial
interface?
A. (config-if)#authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
B. (config-if)#authentication ppp chap pap
C. (config-if)#ppp authentication chap pap
D. (config-if)#ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
Answer: C
321.What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

A. only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
B. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
C. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted
D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
Answer: E
322.Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (choose two)
A. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing tables.
B. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
C. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
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D. Route summarization iscompued automatically by the router.

E. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links
F. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
G. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
Answer: AE
323.Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL (choose two)
A. 50
B. 1550
C. 150
D. 1250
E. 2050
Answer: AB
324.Three switches are connected to one anther via trunk ports.

Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree
instance of vlan 1?
A. the switch with the lowest MAC address
B. the switch with the higest MAC address
C. the switch witch the higest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Answer: A
325.Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect
through a switch in the same LAN?
A. ping address
B. tracert address
C. traceroute address
D. arp address
Answer: A
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Which two statements are true about inter VLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit?
(Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same
encapsulation type
Answer: DF
327.What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in
a spanning-tree topology?
A. lowest port MAC address
B. port priority number and MAC address.
C. VTP revision number
D. highest port priority number.
E. path cost
Answer: E
328.Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

A. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
B. spanning-tree uplinkfast
C. spanning-tree backbonefast
D. spanning-tree mode mst
Answer: A
329.A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment
existing departmental traffic.
What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
A. More collision domains will be created.
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B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.

C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
Answer: D
330.Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An
802. 1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on
CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified.
What will happen in this scenario?
A. 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.
Answer: C
All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can
communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB.
Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?
A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.
C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.
D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches
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Answer: C
332.What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a switch?
A. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic
B. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
C. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unkown tagged traffic
Answer: A
333.Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
B. Bandwidth
C. Bandwidth and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
Answer: B
334.Which command shows your active Telnet connections?

A. show session
B. show cdp neighbors
C. show users
D. show queue
Answer: A
Explanation:
The “show users” shows telnet/ssh connections to your router while “show sessions” shows telnet/ssh
connections from your router (to other devices). The question asks about “your active Telnet connections”,
meaning connections from your router so the answer should be A.
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Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be
forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.
Answer: C
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Which user-mode password has just been set?

A. Telnet
B. Auxiliary
C. SSH
D. Console
Answer: A
Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
B. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
C. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
D. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
E. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
Answer: A
338.How is provided master redundancy on a stacked switches?

A. 1: N
B. N:1
C. 1:1
D. 1+N
Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3750-series-switches/
prod_white_paper09186a00801b096a.html
339.Refer to the exhibit
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A frame on vlan 1on switch s1 is sent to switch s2 when the frame is received on vlan 2, what causes this
behavior?
A. trunk mode mismatches
B. vlans that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
C. native vlan mismatches
D. allowing only vlan 2 on the destination.
Answer: C
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Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2
as indicated by the command output shown?
A. One interface has a problem.
B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.
Answer: C
341.Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

A. Broadcast frames are never sent to swiches.
B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
E. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
Answer: C
342.Which definition of default route is true?

A. A route that is manually configured.
B. A route used when a destination route is missing.
C. A route to the exact /32 destination address
D. Dynamic route learned from the server.
Answer: B
343.Which value must the device send as its username when using CHAP to authenticate with the remote
peer site id:17604704 over a PPP link?
A. The automatically generated user name
B. The local host name
C. The user name defined by the administrator
D. The host name of the remote device.
Answer: B
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344.What can you change to select switch as root bridge?

A. make lower priority
B. make higher priority
C. make lower path cost
D. make higher path cost
Answer: A
345.Refer to exhibit.
What Administrative distance has route to 192.168.10.1?

A. 1
B. 90
C. 110
D. 120
Answer: B
346.Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true?

A. They must be configured on all IPv6 interface
B. They must be globally unique
C. They must be manually configured
D. They are advertised globally on the network
Answer: A
347.Which configuration can be used with PAT to allow multiple inside address to be translated to a single
outside address?
A. Dynamic Routing
B. DNS
C. Preempt
D. overload
Answer: D
348.Which two types of information are held in the MAC address table? (Choose two)
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A. MAC address
B. soure IP address
C. destination IP address
D. Protocols
E. Port numbers
Answer: AE
349.Which command can you enter to create a NAT pool of 6 addresses?

A. Router(config)#ip nat pool test 175.17.12.69 175.17.12.74 prefix-length 24
B. Router(config)#ip nat pool test 175.17.12.69 175.17.13.74 prefix-length 16
C. Router(config)#ip nat pool test 175.17.12.66 175.17.12.72 prefix-length 8
D. Router(config)#ip nat pool test 175.17.12.69 175.17.12.76 prefix-length 8
Answer: A
350.Which header field is new on IPv6?

A. Version
B. Hop Limit
C. Flow Label
D. Traffic Class
Answer: C
351.Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number
Answer: B
352.Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (choose three)
A. Desirable
B. Auto
C. On
D. Blocking
E. Transparent
F. Forwarding
Answer: ABC
353.Which value must you configure on a device before EIGRP for IPv6 can start running?
A. public IP address
B. loopback interface
C. router ID
D. process ID
Answer: C
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354.Which type of attack can be mitigated by configuring the default native VLAN to be unused?
A. CAM table overflow
B. switch spoofing
C. VLAN hopping
D. MAC spoofing
Answer: C
If R1 sends traffic to 192.168.10.45 the traffic is sent through which interface?

A. FastEthernet0/1
B. FastEthernet0/0
C. FastEthernet1/0
D. FastEthernet1/1
Answer: A
356.Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6?
A. Only EIGRP for IPv6 advertises all connected networks.
B. Only EIGRP for IPv6 requires a router ID to be configured under the routing process
C. As numbers are configure in EIGRP but not in EIGRPv3.
D. Only EIGRP for IPv6 is enabled in the global configuration mode.
Answer: B
357.Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing?

A. It prioritizes routing protocol traffic.
B. It remarks traffic that is below the CIR
C. It drops traffic that exceeds the CIR.
D. It queues and then transmits traffic that exceeds the CIR.
Answer: C
358.Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?

A. determining the path cost
B. electing designated ports
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C. learning the sender bridge ID

D. assigning the port ID
Answer: B
359.what is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?

A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Answer: A
360.Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?

A. It provides redundancy with no impact on resource usage
B. It simplifies adding and removing hosts.
C. It supports better performance of high-needs applications.
D. It provides higher port density with better resource usage.
Answer: D
361.Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Answer: C
362.What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. client
F. forwarding
Answer: BCD
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When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?
A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
B. The value of the dead timers on the router are different.
C. Route summarization is enabled on both routers.
D. The process indentifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.
Answer: B
364.What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?
A. service timestamps log datetime localtime
B. service timestamps debug datetime msec
C. service timestamps debug datetime localtime
D. service timestamps log datetime msec
Answer: B
What set of commands was configured on interface Fa0/3 to produce the given the output?
A. interface FastEthernet 0/3
Channel-group 1 mode desirable
Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Switchport mode trunk
B. interface FastEthernet 0/3
Channel-group 2 mode passive
C. interface FastEthernet 0/3
Channel-group 2 mode on
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D. interface FastEthernet 0/3

Channel-group 2 mode active
Answer: B
366.While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, you determined that the computer can
ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server.
Which reason for the problem is most likely ture?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect
B. An ARP table entry is missing
C. A route is missing
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port
Answer: D
367.When troubleshooting Ethernet connectivity issues, how can you verify that an IP address is known
to a router?
A. Check whether the IP address is in the routing table
B. Check whether an ACL is blocking the IP address
C. Check whether the IP address is in the CAM table
D. Check whether the IP address is in the ARP table
Answer: D
After you apply the given configuration to R1, you determine that it is failing to advertise the
172.16.10.32/27 network.
Which action most likely to correct the problem.
A. Enable passive interface
B. Enable RIPv2
C. Enable manual summarization
D. Enable auto summarization.
Answer: B
369.Which two steps must you perform on each device that is configured for IPv4 routing before you
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implement OSPFv3? (Choose two)

A. configure an autonomous system number
B. configure a loopback interface
C. configure a router ID
D. Enable IPv6 on an interface
E. Enable IPv6 unicast routing
Answer: DE
370.Which option is the main function of congestion management?

A. discarding excess traffic
B. queuing traffic based on priority
C. classifying traffic
D. providing long-term storage of buffered data
Answer: B
371.Which command must you enter to enable OSPFV2 in an IPV4 network?

A. ip ospf hello-interval seconds
B. router ospfv2 process-id
C. router ospf value
D. router ospf process-id
Answer: D
If RTR01 is configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running
EIGRP on the network? (choose three)
A. 192.168.2.0
B. 10.4.3.0
C. 10.0.0.0
D. 172.16.0.0
E. 172.16.4.0
F. 192.168.0.0
Answer: ACD
373.Which type of secure MAC address must be configured manually?

A. dynamic
B. bia
C. static
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D. sticky
Answer: C
374.Which two options are fields in an Ethernet frame? (choose two)

A. frame check sequence
B. header
C. source IP address
D. destination IP address
E. type
Answer: AE
375.Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

A. in the MAC address table
B. in the CAM table
C. in the DHCP binding database
D. in the VLAN database
Answer: C
376.To enable router on a router subinterface, which two steps must you perform? (choose two)
A. Configure full duplex and speed
B. configure the subinterface with an IP address
C. Configure an IP route to the VLAN destination network
D. Configure a default to route traffic between subinterface
E. Configure encapsulation dot1q
Answer: BE
377.Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the current SNMP security model?
A. show snmp group
B. show snmp pending
C. snmp-server contact
D. show snmp engine ID
Answer: A
378.Which statement about spanning-tree root-bridge election is true?

A. It is always performed automatically
B. Each VLAN must have its own root bridge
C. Each VLAN must use the same root bridge
D. Each root bridge must reside on the same root switch
Answer: B
379.Which two statements about IPv6 address 2002:ab10:beef::/48 are true? (choose two)
A. The embedded IPv4 address can be globally routed.
B. It is used for an ISATAP tunnel
C. The embedded IPv4 address is an RFC 1918 address
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D. The MAC address 20:02:b0:10:be:ef is embedded into the IPv6 address

E. It is used for a 6to4 tunnel
Answer: AE
380.Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router?
A. bootstrap
B. POST
C. mini-IOS
D. ROMMON mode
Answer: A
381.What is one benefit of PVST+?

A. PVST+reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network
B. PVST+automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.
C. PVST+allow the root switch location to be optimized per vlan.
D. PVST+supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
Answer: C
382.Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Answer: ACE
383.Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over
FastEthernet?
A. 802.3ad
B. 802.1w
C. 802.1Q
D. 802.1d
Answer: C
384.Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?

A. NCP
B. LCP
C. ISDN
D. DLCI
E. SLIP
Answer: B
385.Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
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B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.

C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
Answer: AD
386.While troubleshooting a DHCP client that is behaving erratically, you discover that the client has been
assigned the same IP address as a printer that is a staticIP address.
Which option is the best way to resolve the problem?
A. Configurea static route to the client.
B. Assign the client the same IP address as the router.
C. Move the client to another IP subnet
D. Move the printer to another IP subnet.
E. Reserve the printer IP address.
Answer: E
387.Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropriate?

A. When a router have multiple subnets on a single physical link.
B. When a router have single subnet on multiple physical links.
C. When a router have multiple interface on single physical links.
D. When a router have single interface on multiple physical links.
Answer: A
Given the output from the show ip eigrp topology command, which router is the feasible successor?
A. 10.1.0.1 (Serial0), from 10.1.0.1, Send flag is 0x0
Composite metric is (46152000/41640000), Route is Internal
Vector metric:
Minimum bandwidth is 64 Kbit
Total delay is 45000 Microseconds
Reliability is 255/255
Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 2
B. 10.0.0.2 (Serial0.1), from 10.0.0.2, Send flag is 0x0
Vector Metric:
Total delay is 25000 Microseconds
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Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 1
C. 10.1.0.3 (Serial0), from 10.1.0.3, Send flag is 0x0
Vector metric:
Total delay is 45000 microseconds
Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 2
D. 10.1.1.1 (Serial0.1), from 10.1.1.1, Send flag is 0x0
Composite metric is (46763776/46251776), Route is External
Vector metric:
Total delay is 41000 microseconds
Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 2
Answer: B
389.Which symptom can cause duplex mismatch problem?

A. no earner
B. collisions on interface
C. giants
D. CRC errors
Answer: B
390.Which of the port is not part of STP protocol.

A. Listening
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. Discarding
Answer: D
391.which port security violation mode allows traffic from valid mac address to pass but block traffic from
invalid mac address?
A. protect
B. shutdown
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Answer: A
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392.Which type of routing protocol operates by exchanging the entire routing information?
A. distance vector protocols
B. link state protocols
C. path vector protocols
D. exterior gateway protocols
Answer: A
393.Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?

A. MD5
B. PSK
C. AH
D. ESP
Answer: D
394.Which IPv6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::9 to send updates?
A. static
B. RIPng
C. OSPFv3
D. IS-IS for IPv6
Answer: B
395.which definition of a host route is true?

A. A route that is manually configured
B. A route used when a destination route is missing.
C. A route to the exact /32 destination address
D. Dynamic route learned from the server.
Answer: C
396.which statement about upgrading a cisco IOS device with TFTP server?
A. the operation is performed in active mode
B. the operation is performed in unencrypted format
C. the operation is performed in passive mode
D. the cisco IOS device must be on the same LAN as the TFTP server
Answer: B
397.Which statement about DHCP snooping is true?

A. it blocks traffic from DHCP servers on untrusted interfaces.
B. it can be configured on switches and routers.
C. it allows packets from untrusted ports if their source MAC address is found in the binding table.
D. it uses DHCP Discover packets to identify DHCP servers.
Answer: A
398.Which three commands are required to enable NTP authentication on a Cisco router? (Choose three)
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A. ntp peer
B. ntp max-associations
C. ntp authenticate
D. ntp trusted-key
E. ntp authentication-key
F. ntp refclock
Answer: CDE
399.Which functionality does an SVI provide?

A. OSI Layer 2 connectivity to switches
B. remote switch administration
C. traffic routing for VLANs
D. OSI Layer 3 connectivity to switches
Answer: C
400.Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:4079::/64 are true? (Choose three)
A. The subnet ID is 14920bf83d
B. The subnet ID is 4079
C. The global ID is 14920bf83d
D. The address is a link-local address
E. The global ID is 4079
F. The address is a unique local address
Answer: BCF
401.Which three statements about DWDM are true? (Choose three)

A. It allows a single strand of fiber to support bidirectional communications
B. It is used for long-distance and submarine cable systems
C. It can multiplex up to 256 channels on a single fiber
D. It supports both the SDH and SONET standards
E. Each channel can carry up to a 1-Gbps signal
F. It supports simplex communications over multiple strands of fiber
Answer: ABD
402.If two OSPF neighbors have formed complete adjacency and are exchanging link-state
advertisements, which state have they reached?
A. Exstart
B. 2-Way
C. FULL
D. Exchange
Answer: C
403.Which tunneling mechanism embeds an IPv4 address within an IPv6 address?

A. Teredo
B. 6to4
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C. 4to6
D. GRE
E. ISATAP
Answer: B
404.Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.

B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Answer: AF
405.Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address?

A. 0000.0C07.AC15
B. 0000.5E00.01A3
C. 0007.B400.AE01
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Answer: A
406.assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range can be added modified and removed on a
cisco switch?
A. 2 through 1001
B. 1 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005
Answer: A
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Which two statements are true of the interfaces on switch1? (choose two)
A. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5
B. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.
C. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned mac address
D. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disable.
E. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1.
F. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.
Answer: AB
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How should the FastEthernet0/1 port on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be
configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
C. SwitchX(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
D. SwitchX(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
Answer: B
409.Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features
B. SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
C. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP
D. SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP
E. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.
F. SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.
Answer: ACE
410.which command do use we to see SNMP version

A. show snmp pending
B. show snmp engineID
C. snmp-server something
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Answer: A
411.Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on the same segment?
A. CLNS
B. TCPv6
C. NHRP
D. NDP
E. ARP
Answer: D
412.What is the most efficient subnet mask for a point to point ipv6 connection?
A. /127
B. /128
C. /64
D. /48
E. /32
Answer: A
413.What are three features of the IPV6 protocol? (choose three)

A. complicated header
B. plug-and-play
C. no broadcasts
D. checksums
E. optional IPsec
F. autoconfiguration
Answer: BCF
414.Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (choose three)

A. to confine network instability to single areas of the network.
B. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
C. to speed up convergence
D. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
E. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
F. to reduce routing overhead
Answer: ACF
415.Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B
416.If Computer A is sending traffic to computer B, which option is the source ip address when a packet
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leaves R1 on interface F0/1?
A. IP address of the R2 interface F0/1

B. Ip address of computer B
C. Ip address of R1 interface F0/1
D. Ip address of Computer A
Answer: D
417.Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to a specific OID tree?
A. server group
B. a community
C. a view record
D. an access group
Answer: C
418.Refer to the exhibit:
After you apply the give configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start Which reason
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for the problem is most likely true?

A. The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
B. The IPv6 network addresses on R1 and R2 are mismatched
C. The autonomous system numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
D. The router ids on R1 and R2 are mismatched
Answer: A
419.Afer you apply the given configuration to a router, the DHCP clients behind the device cannot
communicate with hosts outside of their subnet.
Which action is most likely to correct the problem?

A. Configure the dns server on the same subnet as the clients
B. Activate the dhcp pool
C. Correct the subnet mask
D. configure the default gateway
Answer: D
420.which command can you enter in a network switch configuration so that learned mac addresses are
saved in configuration as they connect?
A. Switch(config-if)#Switch port-security
B. Switch(config-if)#Switch port-security Mac-address stcky
C. Switch(config-if)#Switch port-security maximum 10
D. Switch(config-if)#Switch mode access
Answer: B
421.Which RPVST+ port state is excluded from all STP operations?

A. learning
B. forwarding
C. blocking
D. disabled
Answer: D
422.Which command can you enter to block HTTPS traffic from the whole class A private network range
to a host?
A. R1(config)#access-list 105 deny tcp 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 40.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 eq 443
B. R1(config)#access-list 105 deny tcp 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 40.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 eq 53
C. R1(config)#access-list 105 deny tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 40.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 eq 53
D. R1(config)#access-list 105 deny tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 40.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 eq 443
Answer: D
423.When is a routing table entry identified as directly connected?
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A. when the local router is in use as the network default gateway

B. when the network resides on a remote router that is physically connected to the local router
C. when an interface on the router is configure with an ip address and enabled
D. when the route is statically assigned to reach a specific network
Answer: C
424.Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?

A. FC00::/7
B. FC00::/8
C. FE80::/10
D. FF00::/8
Answer: C
425.Which option is the industry-standard protocol for EtherChannel?

A. PAgP
B. LACP
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol
D. DTP
Answer: B
426.For which two reasons was RFC 1918 address space define (Choose two)
A. to preserve public IPv4 address space
B. to reduce the occurrence of overlapping IP addresses
C. to preserve public IPv6 address space
D. reduce the size of ISP routing tables
E. to support the NAT protocol
Answer: AB
427.Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two)

A. It must be manually enabled after RIP is configured as the routing protocol
B. It uses multicast address 224.0.0.2 to share routing information between peers
C. its default administrative distances 120
D. It is a link-state routing protocol
E. It is an EGP routing protocol
Answer: AC
428.In which CLI configuration mode can you configure the hostname of a device?
A. line mode
B. interface mode
C. global mode
D. router mode
Answer: C
429.In which two circumstances are private IPv4 addresses appropriate? (Choose two)
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A. on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources

B. on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts
C. on the public-facing interface of a firewall
D. on hosts that require minimal access to external resources
E. to allow hosts inside an enterprise to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the enterprise
Answer: BD
430.Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two)
A. The two devices must reside in different autonomous systems
B. Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device
C. They can be created dynamically after the network statement is con-figured.
D. The two devices must reside in the same autonomous system
E. The two devices must have matching timer settings
Answer: AB
431.Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs? (Choose two)
A. device management address.
B. device type
C. spanning-tree topology
D. routing configuration
E. access-list configuration
Answer: AB
432.Which two statements about UDP are true? (Choose two)

A. It can transmit data at a rate higher than the path capacity
B. It uses a three-way handshake to ensure that traffic is transmitted properly
C. It guarantees packet delivery
D. it includes protection against duplicate packets
E. it can be used for multicast and broadcast traffic
Answer: AE
433.Which two statements about access points are true? (Choose Two)
A. They can provide access within enterprises and to the public.
B. in Most cases, they are physically connected to other network devices to provide network connectivity
C. They can protect a network from internal and external threats.
D. Most access points provide Wi-Fi and Bluetooth connectivity.
E. They must be hardwired to a modem.
Answer: BD
434.For which two protocols can PortFast alleviate potential host startup is-sues? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. OSPF
D. RIP
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E. CDP
Answer: AB
435.What does it take for BGP to establish connection. (Choose two)

A. Enable cdp
B. AS number on local router
C. AS number on remote router
D. IGP
E. EGP
Answer: BC
Explanation:
router bgp AS LOCAL neighbor xxxx remote-as AS number on remote router
436.On which layer tcp/ip is ACL Apic-EM path

A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Answer: D
437.Which cloud service is typically used to provide DNS and DHCP services to an enterprise?
A. IaaS
B. DaaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS
Answer: A
438.Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)
A. Utilizing Syslog improves network performance
B. The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems
C. A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space
D. There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap
messages.
E. Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping
F. A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.
Answer: CDF
439.What are the two statements about EUI-64 addressing? (Choose two)
A. A locally administrated address has the universal/local bit set to 0.
B. A 64-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address
C. A 96-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address
D. The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the first 24 bits of the interface MAC address
E. The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the last 24 bits of the interface MAC address
Answer: BD
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440.After you configure the ip dns spoofing command globally on a device, under which two conditions is
DNS spoofing enabled on the device? (choose two)
A. The DNS server queue limit id disabled
B. The ip host command is disabled
C. All configured IP name server addresses are removed
D. The ip dns spoofing command is disabled on the local interface
E. The no ip domain lookup command is configured
Answer: CE
441.which task must you perform to enable an IOS device to use DNS services?
A. configure a relay agent information reforwarding policy
B. configure manual bindings
C. configure the relay agent information option
D. configure a name server
Answer: B
442.Which two IP SLA operations can you use to measure the end-to-end response time for all IP traffic
between a Cisco router and an end device? (choose two)
A. UDP jitter
B. ICMP path jitter
C. TCP connect
D. ICMP path echo
E. ICMP echo
F. UDP echo
Answer: DE
Explanation:
To measure end-to-end reponse time we have to use ICMP echo to continuously ping to a remote device.
The difference between ICMP path echo and ICMP echo is the former can measure hop-by-hop response
time on its whole path while the latter can only measure to a specific destination.
443.What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?

A. username and password
B. community strings
C. HMAC-MD5
D. HMAC-SHA
Answer: B
444.Which MAC protocol sets a random timer to reattempt communication?

A. RARP
B. CSMA/CA
C. CSMA/CD
D. IEEE 802.1x
Answer: C
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445.While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue, show interface command output displays tunnel
status up, but line protocol is down.
Which reason for this problem is most likely?
A. The route to the tunnel destination address is through the tunnel itself
B. The next hop server is misconfigured
C. The interface has been administratively shut down
D. The tunnel was just reset
Answer: A
446.Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true? (choose two)
A. It enables the administrator to manage multiple switches from a single management interface
B. The administrator can create only one stack of switches in a network which is under the same
administrative domian
C. When a new master switch is elected, it queries the previous master for its running configuration
D. The administrator can add additional switches to the stack as demand increases
E. Each switch manages its own MAC address table
Answer: AD
447.Router R1 has a static route that is configured to destination network. A directly connected interface
is configured with an IP address in the same destination network.
Which statement about R1 is true?
A. R1 refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors
B. R1 prefers the static route
C. R1 prefers the directly connected interface
D. R1 sends a withdrawal notification to the neighboring router
Answer: C
448.Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

A. outside public
B. inside local
C. inside global
D. inside public
E. outside global
F. outside local
Answer: C
449.Which configuration register value can you set on a Cisco device so that it ignores the NVRAM when
it boots?
A. 0x2124
B. 0x2120
C. 0x2142
D. 0x2102
Answer: C
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450.Which two benefits can you get by stacking Cisco switches? (choose two)
A. Each switch in the stack handles the MAC table independently from the others
B. You can add or remove switches without taking the stack down.
C. Each switch in the stack can use a different IOS image
D. The stack enables any active member to take over as the master switch if the existing master fails.
E. You can license the entire stack with a single master license
Answer: BD
451.Which command can you enter to verify that a router is synced with a configures time source?
A. show ntp authenticate
B. ntp associations
C. ntp server time
D. ntp authenticate
E. show ntp associations
Answer: E
452.two statements about LLDP are true? (choose two)

A. It uses mandatory TLVs to discover the neighboring devices
B. It functions at Layer 2 and Layer 3
C. It is a Cisco-proprietary technology
D. It is implemented in accordance with the 802.11a specification
E. It enables systems to learn about one another over the data-link layer
Answer: AE
453.A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3.
What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (choose three)
A. warning
B. informational
C. error
D. emergency
E. debug
F. critical
Answer: CDF
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Which statement is true?

A. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol
C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated
Answer: D
455.Which technology allows a large number of private IP addresses to be represented by a smaller

number of public IP addresses?
A. NAT
B. NTP
C. RFC 1631
D. RFC 1918
Answer: A
456.Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device? (Choose two.)
A. inside local
B. inside global
C. inside private
D. outside private
E. external global
F. external local
Answer: AB
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A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network.

Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the
fewest addresses?
A. 192.168.1.56/27
B. 192.168.1.64/26
C. 192.168.1.64/27
D. 192.168.1.56/26
Answer: B
If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem?
A. There is a speed mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces.
B. There is an MTU mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces
C. There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interface
D. SW1's Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down.
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Answer: A
459.Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:2927:1860:W067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Answer: D
460.Which two statements about configuring an Ether Channel on a Cisco switch are true? (Choose two)
A. The interfaces configured in the Ether Channel must have the same STP port path cost
B. The interfaces configured in the Ether Channel must be on the same physical switch
C. An Ether Channel can operate in Layer 2 mode only
D. The interfaces configured in the Ether Channel must operate at the same speed and duplex mode
E. The interfaces configured in the Ether Channel must be part of the same VLAN or trunk
Answer: BD
461.Which two statements about IPv6 anycast addresses are true? (Choose two)
A. They receive packets on the closest interface that is discovered by the routing protocol
B. They are allocated from the IPv6 broadcast address space
C. They are used in conjunction with source-specific multicast for IPv6
D. They use the prefix FC00::/8
E. They arr allocated from the IPv6 unicast address space
Answer: AE
462.What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?

A. Define inside and outside interfaces
B. Define public and private IP addresses
C. Define IP address pools
D. Define global and local interfaces
Answer: A
463.It you change the weight and distance parameters on a device with an establshed BGP neighbor,
which additional task must you perfom to allow the two devices to continue exchanging routes?
A. Reset the BGP connections on the device
B. Reset the gateway interface
C. Clear the IP routes on the device
D. Change the weight and distance settings on the other device to match
Answer: C
464.Which two features can you enable on a switch to capture and analyze frames that transt an interface?
(Choose two)
A. SNMP
B. NetFlow
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C. IP SLA
D. SPAN
E. RSPAN
Answer: DE
465.Which two characteristics of an ICMP echo-based IP SLA are true? (Choose two)
A. It can use RSPAN to report network statistics to a designated remote port
B. It aggregates traffic statistics for reporting on a configurable basis
C. It requires a remote device to log and maintain collected data
D. It measures traffic to determine the reliability of a connection from a Cisco router to a designated end
device
E. It generates continuous traffic to monitor network performance
Answer: DE
466.Which two are features of IPv6? (choose two)

A. multicast
B. broadcast
C. allcast
D. podcast
E. anycast
Answer: AE
467.Which two statements about Cisco Discovery Protocol are true? (Choose two)
A. It is used to initiate a VTP server and cient relationship
B. It uses SNMP to share device information to an external server
C. It runs on the network layer and the data link layer.
D. It runs on the data link layer only
E. It uses TLVs to share device information
Answer: DE
468.Which two QoS tools can provide congestion management? (Choose two)
A. CBWFQ
B. FRTS
C. CAR
D. PQ
E. PBR
Answer: AD
469.Refer to the diagram.
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All hosts have connectivity with one another.

Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)
A. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192
B. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128
C. The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
D. The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
E. The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
F. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.
Answer: BCF
470.A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network.
The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet.
Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate
addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.252.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.192
F. 255.255.248.0
Answer: BE
471.which two statements describe key differences between single- and dual-homed WAN connections?
(Choose two)
A. Dual-homed WAN connections are more expensive than single-homed connections
B. Dual-homed WAN connections have more management-application overhead than single-homed
connections
C. Dual-homed WAN connections require more skill to administer than single-homed connections
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D. Dual-homed WAN connections have a simpler topology than single-homed connections

E. Dual-homed WAN connections have higher WAN speed than single- homed connections
Answer: AC
472.which two values are needed to run the APIC-EM ACL Analysis tool? (choose two)
A. destination address
B. destination port
C. periodic refresh intervlan
D. source address
E. protocol
F. source port
Answer: AD
473.Which QOS feature can drop traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?
A. weighted fair queuing
B. FIFO
C. policing
D. shaping
Answer: C
474.Which two criteria must be met to support the ICMP echo IP SLA? (Choose two)
A. The destination device must support the echo protocol
B. default gateway must be configured for the source and destination devices
C. The source device must be running Layer 2 services.
D. The source and destination devices must be Cisco devices
E. The source device must be a Cisco device but the destination device can be from any vendor
Answer: AE
475.What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?

A. trap
B. get
C. response
D. capture
Answer: A
476.In which STP state does MAC address learning take place on a PortFast-enabled port?
A. listening
B. forwarding
C. discarding
D. learning
Answer: B
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A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this
design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN.
What conclusions can be made about this design?
A. The design will function as intended
B. Spanning-tree will need to be used
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme
D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Answer: C
478.For which two reasons might you choose chassis aggregation instead of stacking switches? (Choose
two)
A. to allow hot-swapping modules
B. to increase the number of devices in use
C. to avoid the use of a centralized configuration manager
D. to avoid relying solely on Ethemet interfaces
E. to increase the maximum port count
Answer: AB
479.Which two benefits of implementing a full-mesh WAN topology are true? (Choose two）
A. increased latency
B. redundancy
C. improved scalability
D. reliability
E. reduced itter
Answer: BD
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Traffic on the control plane uses which VLAN?

A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 5
C. VLAN 10
D. VLAN 20
Answer: C
481.Which two conditions can be used to elect the spanning-tree root bridge? (choose two）
A. the highest MAC address
B. the lowest MAC address
C. the highest port priority
D. the lowest system ID
E. the lowest switch priority
Answer: BE
482.Which type of device should you use to preserve IP addresses on your network?
A. firewall
B. WLAN controller
C. load balancer
D. intrusion prevention device
Answer: A
483.What two actions can be taken to secure the virtual teminal interfaces on a router? (choose two)
A. Administratively shut down the interface
B. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command
C. Physically secure the interface
D. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-group command
E. Configure a virtual terminal password and logi process
Answer: BE
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484.Which two cable specifications can support 1-Gbps Ethernet? (choose two)
A. Category 5e
B. RG11
C. RG-6
D. Category 6
E. Category 3
Answer: AD
485.Which value is included in the initial TCP syn message?

A. a session ID
B. sequence number
C. a TTL number
D. an acknowledgment number
Answer: B
486.At which severity level can syslog logging begin to affect router performance?
A. debugging
B. emergency
C. notification
D. critical
Answer: D
What is the effect of the configuration?

A. Traffic from PC A is dropped when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC B
B. Traffic from PC A is sent untagged when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC B
C. Traffic from PC B is dropped when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC A
D. Traffic from PC B is sent untagged when it uses the trunk to communicate with PCA
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Answer: C
488.Which effete does the aaa new-model coniguration commandhave?

A. It enables AAA services on the device
B. It configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA
C. It associates a RADIUS server to an AAA group.
D. It configures a local user on the device.
Answer: A
489.Cisco lOS supports which QoS models?

A. best effort and integrated services
B. integrated services and differentiated services
C. best- effort and differentiated services
D. best-effort, integrated services, and difrentiated services
Answer: D
490.What happens when you add a switch running an earier IOS version to a SackWise configration
running a later version?
A. The stack ignores the switch until you update the IOS version on the switch.
B. The switch software downgrades the IOS version on the stack to match the version on the switch
C. The switch software upgrades the IOS version on the switch to match the version on the stack
D. The switch keeps its version of IOS and runs normally as part of the stack
Answer: C
491.Which command should you enter to configure a single port to enter an err-disabled state when it
receives an infenior BPDU?
A. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard
B. spanning-tree guard root
C. spanning-tree portfast default
D. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter
Answer: A
492.Which two statements correctly describe RADIUS? (Choose two)

A. It separates authentication, authorization, and accounting functions
B. It uses TCP as its transport protocol
C. It encrypts only the password
D. It combines authentication and authorization
E. I can authorize specific router commands
Answer: CD
493.Which two operational modes are supported on the members of a StackWise switch stack? (Choose
two)
A. power-sharing
B. passive
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C. active
D. redundant
E. standby
Answer: CE
494.In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Answer: ABC
495.Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?

A. FF02::1
B. FF02::2
C. FF02::3
D. FF02::4
Answer: B
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the most likely reason that interface
FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
497.Which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a single outside address?
A. PAT
B. SFTP
C. RARP
D. ARP
E. TFTP
Answer: A
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498.which API use HTTP meddages to tansfer data to applications residing on different host?
A. OpFlex
B. REST
C. OpenStack
D. OpenFlow
Answer: B
499.which command can you enter on a Cisco IOS device to enable a scheduled algorithm that directs
lookup calls to multiple DNS hosts?
A. ip domain round-robin
B. ip name-server 192.168.10.14 192.168.10.15
C. ip domain lookup
D. ip domain list
Answer: B
500.which two services can be provided by a wireless controller? (choose two)

A. issuing IP addresses to wired devices
B. mitigating threats from the internet
C. providing authentication services to users
D. managing interference in a dense network
E. Layer 3 routing between wired and wireless devices
Answer: CD
501.Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network.
The network administrator connected to console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able
to ping the server.
Based on the output of the show ip route command topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of
the failure?
A. IP routing is not enabled
B. A static route is configured incorrectly
C. The network has not fully converged
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D. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled

E. The routing table on Coffee has not updated
F. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated
Answer: D
The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic to the
Manchester workstations.
What is the simplest way to accomplish this?
A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.
B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester
C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London router.
D. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.
E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.
F. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.
Answer: E
503.Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.
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Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)

A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
E. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
F. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.
Answer: AD
504.which two statements correctly describe distance-vector routing protocols? (choose two)
A. they specify the next hop toward the destination subnet
B. they require quick network convergence to support normal operations
C. they generate a complete topology of the network
D. they update other devices on the network when one device detects a topogy chage
E. they use a variety of metrics to identify the distance to a destination network.
Answer: AD
505.which command is needed to send RIPV2 updates as broadcast?

A. ip rip receive version 2
B. ip rip receive version 1
C. version 2
D. ip rip v2-broadcast
Answer: D
506.Which two TLVs does LLDP support? (choose two)

A. system description
B. port duplex
C. management address
D. native VLAN
E. spanning tree
Answer: AC
507.After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks should you
consider? (choose two)
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A. deploy load balancers

B. configure additional vlans
C. configure multiple VRRP groups
D. deploy POE switches
E. configure additional security policies
Answer: AE
508.When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use to verify
which interfaces are affected by the ACL?
A. show interface
B. list ip interface
C. show access-list
D. show ip interface
E. show ip access-list
Answer: D
509.Which technology provides chassis redundancy in a VSS environment?

A. BFD
B. multichassis EtherChannels
C. VRRP
D. StackWise
Answer: B
510.Which LLDP extension provides additional support for VoIP?

A. TLV
B. LLDP-MED
C. LLDPv3
D. LLDP-VOIP
Answer: B
511.Which two statements about stateful firewalls in an enterprise network are true? (choose two)
A. They are more susceptible to DoS attacks than stateless firewalls
B. They can filter HTTP and HTTPS traffic in the inbound direction only
C. They are most effective when placed in front of the router connected to the internet
D. They can track the number of active TCP connections
E. They can use information about previous packets to make decisions about future packets
Answer: DE
512.Which two statements about static routing are true? (Choose two.)
A. Its default administrative distance is lower than EIGRP.
B. Its provides only limited security unless the administrator performs additional configuration
C. Its allows packets to transit a different path if the topology changes.
D. Its initial implementation is more complex than OSPF
E. Its allows the administrator to determine the entire path of a packet
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Answer: AE
513.Which two options are primary responsibilities of the APIC-EM controller? (Choose two.)
A. It makes network functions programmable
B. It provides robust asset management
C. It tracks license usage and Cisco lOS versions.
D. It automates network actions between legacy equipment
E. It automates network actions between different device types
Answer: AE
514.Which command allows you to set the administrative distance for EIGRP for IPV6?
A. ipv6 summary-address eigrp
B. metric weights
C. ipv6 bandwidth-percent eigrp
D. ipv6 next-hop-self eigrp
Answer: A
515.Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly
connected Cisco devices?
A. enable cdp
B. run cdp
C. cdp enable
D. cdp run
Answer: D
516.Which type of access list compares source and destination IP address?

A. standard
B. extended
C. IP named
D. reflexive
Answer: B
517.Which two descriptions of TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)

A. It encrypts only the password.
B. It uses UDP as its transport protocol.
C. It separates authentication authorization, and accounting functions.
D. It can authorize specific router commands.
E. It combines authentication and authorization
Answer: CD
518.Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow rules?

A. the ACL trace tool in Cisco APIC-EM
B. the Cisco IWAN application
C. the Cisco APIC-EM automation scheduler
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D. the ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM

Answer: D
519.Which benefit of implementing a dual-homed WAN connection instead of a single-homed connection

is true?
A. Only dual-homed connections support OSPF in conjunction with BGP
B. Only dual-homed connections support split horizon with EIGRP
C. Only dual-homed connections enbable an individual router to tolerate the loss of a network link
D. Only dual-homed connections support recursive routing
Answer: C
520.Which two commands can you use to verify an IP SLA? (choose two)
A. show ip sla application
B. show ip sla reaction-configuration
C. show ip sla statistics
D. show ip sla configuration
Answer: CD
Which BGP configuration do you need to apply to router R4 to allow traffic to flow normally on this
network?
A. router bgp1
no synchronization
neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 192.168.1.1 ebgp-multihop 4
no auto-summary
B. router bgp1
no synchronization
no auto-summary
C. router bgp1
no synchronization
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no auto-summary
D. router bgp1
no synchronization
no auto-summary
Answer: B
522.what are two advantages of static routing? (choose two)

A. It can bei implemented easily even in large environments
B. It produces minimal CPU load
C. It cannot be used to load-balance traffic over multiple links
D. It allows the administrator to control the path of traffic
E. It allows the network to respond immediately to changes
Answer: BD
523.Under which two circumstances is a switch port that is configured with PortFast BPDU guard error-
disable? (choose two)
A. when the switch receives a request for an IP address from an individual PC
B. when the switch receives a BPDU from a connected switch
C. when a wireless access point running in bridge mode is connected to a switch
D. when a single IP address is configured on the switch
E. when a connected server has more than one VLAN configured on its NIC
Answer: BC
524.Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an IP enable router interface?
B. router(config)#ip default-gateway GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#default-information originate
D. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Answer: D
525.Which two statements about IPv6 multicast address are true? (choose two)
A. If the liftime parameter is set to 1, the route is permanent.
B. They use the prefix FC80::/8
C. They use the prefix FF00::/8
D. They identify a group of interfaces on different devices
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E. If the scope parameter is set to 5, the route is local to the node

Answer: CD
526.Which two EtherChannel PAgP modes can you configure? (choose two)
A. desirable
B. active
C. auto
D. on
E. passive
Answer: AC
527.Which two neighbor types are supported in BGP environment? (choose two)
A. external
B. autonomous
C. remote
D. internal
E. directly attached
Answer: AD
528.Which two statements about 1000BASE-T UTP cable are true? (choose two)
A. It use four wires
B. It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 feet in length
C. It uses four wire pairs
D. It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 meters in length
E. Both ends of the cable can transmit and receive simultaneously
Answer: CE
What is the effect of the given configuration?

A. It configures an inactive switch virtual interface.
B. It configures an active management interface.
C. It configures the native VLAN.
D. It configures the default VLAN.
Answer: A
530.You are configuring an IP SLA ICMP Echo operation to troubleshoot a network connectivity issue.
When do you enter an IP address to test the IP SLA?
A. when you enable the ICMP Echo operation
B. when you define the ICMP Echo operation
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C. when you specify the test frequency

D. when you verify the IP SLA operation
Answer: B
531.which option is the primary purpose of traffic shaping?

A. enabling policy-based routing
B. providing best-effort service
C. limiting bandwidth usage
D. enabling dynamic flow identification
Answer: C
532.which two differences between distance-vector and link-state routing protocols are true? (choose
two)
A. only distance-vector routing protocols maintain identical topology tables on all connected neighbors
B. distance-vector routing protocols are less susceptible to loops than link-state protocols
C. only distance-vector routing protocols send full routing table updates
D. only link-state routing protocols use the Bellman-Ford algorithm
E. Link-state routing protocols offer faster convergence than distance-vector protocols during network
changes
Answer: CE
533.Which three elements are fields in a basic Ethernet data frame? (choose three)
A. Length/Type
B. Frame Check Sequence
C. Version
D. Preamble
E. Time to Live
F. Header Checksum
Answer: ABD
534.Which three features are represented by the letter A in AAA authentication? (choose three)
A. authentication
B. authorization
C. authority
D. accounting
E. accessibility
F. accountability
Answer: ABD
535.Which prompt dose a Cisco switch display when it is running in privileged exec mode?
A. switch(config-if)#
B. switch#
C. switch(config)#
D. switch>
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Answer: B
An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet.
Which interface command immedicately removes the effect of ACL 102?
A. no ip access-group 102 in
B. no ip access-group 102 out
C. no ip access-list 102 in
D. no ip access-class 102 out
E. no ip access-class 102 in
Answer: B
537.Which effect of the terminal monitor command is true?

A. It puts the device into global configuration mode
B. It configures the device to log messages to the console
C. It displays the configuration of the syslog server
D. It configures a syslog server
Answer: B
538.For which routes does the distance bgp 10 50 70 command set the administrative distance?
A. for BGP internal routes only
B. for all BGP routes
C. for BGP external routes only
D. between BGP routes and IGP routes
Answer: B
539.Which command must you enter to switch from privileged EXEC mode to user EXEC mode on a
Cisco device?
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A. configure terminal
B. logout
C. disable
D. enable
Answer: B
540.You are implementing WAN access for an enterprise network while running applications that require a
fully meshed network,which two design standards are appropriate for such an environment?(choose two)
A. multiple MPLS VPN connections with static routing
B. multiple MPLS VPN connections with dynamic routing
C. a collapsed core and distribution layer,to minimize costs
D. a collapsed WAN distribution layer,to consolidate connectivity to remote sites
E. a collapsed DMVPN solution,to simplify connectivity for the enterprise
Answer: BE
541.which feature can cause a port to shut down immediately after a switch reboot ?
A. port security
B. DTP
C. COPP
D. PortFast
Answer: A
542.Which two statements about the ip subnet-zero command are true? (Choose two）
A. It is enabled by default on Cisco routers
B. It must be configured before you activate NAT on a router
C. It specifies the broadcast IP addresses in the subnet
D. It must be configured each time you reboot a router
E. It enables the network to make full use of the available IP address space
Answer: AE
543.Which protocol speeds up the MAC aging process?

A. OSPF
B. RSTP
C. RIP
D. 802.1D
Answer: B
544.Which algorithm is used for the frame check sequence in an Ethernet frame?
A. MD5
B. AES-256
C. CRC
D. SHA-1
Answer: C
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545.Which file-system management command is used frequently when lOS backups, upgrades,and
restores are performed？
A. show dir
B. show file
C. delete
D. copy
Answer: D
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the EIGRP topology table? (choose two)
A. Route 10.42.88.0/21 has an administrative distance of 28160
B. Route 10.42.91.0/24 has a tag of 28160
C. Each route has only one best path
D. The EIGRP neighbor IP address is 10.111 253.216
E. The reported distance of 10.0.0.0/8 is 0
Answer: CE
547.Which command must you enter to configure a DHCP relay?

A. ip helper-address
B. ip address dhcp
C. ip dhcp relay
D. ip dhcp pool
Answer: A
548.Which two best practices protect your network from VLAN hopping attacks?(choose two)
A. Change the native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID
B. Assign all access ports to VLANS other than the native VLAN
C. Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANS.
D. Configure dynamic ARP inspection
E. Configure port security
Answer: AB
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549.Which two statements about IGP and EGP routing protocols are true? (Choose two)
A. Service providers use OSPF and IS-IS for intra-AS routing
B. EGP routing protocols are used to connect multiple IGP networks.
C. OSPF, EIGRP, and BGP are categorized as IGP routing protocols
D. Service providers use EGP and BGP for intra- AS routing.
E. IGP routing protocols are used within internal networks.
Answer: DE
550.Which two statements about GRE tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can operate in tunnel mode and transport mode
B. They provide privacy, integrity, and authenticity
C. They encapsulate the payload.
D. They add 8 bytes to the IP header of each packet.
E. They allow multicast traffic to traverse WAN circuits
Answer: CE
Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true?(choose two)
A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface.
B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the
interface
C. The interface is error -disabled.
D. The interface dynamic ally learned two secure MAC addresses
E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the
interface
Answer: DE
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Which two facts can you determine from the EIGRP topology table? (Choose two)
A. If a route has more than one successor, only one route is injected into the routing table.
B. The FD 28416 for route 10.242. 0.148 is also the metric for the routing table
C. The variance command must have been issued to allow route 10.85.184.0 to have two Successors.
D. The reported distance value is greater than the feasible distance
E. All successors are injecting into the routing table
Answer: BE
553.Which extended ping feature do you use to specify the path that the packet traverses？
A. verbose
B. timestamp
C. strict
D. record
Answer: C
554.Which command should you enter to configure a single port to bypass the spanning-tree Forward and
Delay timers?
A. spanning-tree portfast bpdufiter default
B. spanning-tree portfast default
C. spanning-tree portfast
D. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
Answer: C
555.You apply an new inbound access fist to routers, blocking UDP packets to the HSRP group.
Which two effects does this action have on the HSRP group process? (Choose two.)
A. HSRP redundancy works as expected
B. HSRP redundancy fails
C. The active router immediately becomes the standby router.
D. Both the active and standby routers become active.
E. The routers in the group generate duplicate IP address warnings
Answer: BD
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556.Which two statements about PAP authentication in a PPP environment are true?(Choose two)
A. It is performed at the beginning of the session only.
B. It hashes the password before sending it.
C. It sends the password in clear text.
D. It is performed at the beginning of the session and is repeated periodically for as long as the session is
maintained
E. It uses a username with an MD5 password to authenticate
Answer: AC
557.Which two commands can you use to configure an LACP EtherChannel? (Choose two)
A. channel-group 10 mode on
B. channel-group 10 mode auto
C. channel-group 10 mode passive
D. channel-group 10 mode desirable
E. channel-group 10 mode active
Answer: CE
558.After you configure a DHCP server on VLAN 10 to service clients on VLAN 10 and VLAN 20. clients
on VLAN 10 are given IP address assignments, but clients on VLAN 20 fail to receive IP addresses.
Which action must you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure the ip helper address command in the DHCP server configuration.
B. Configure the DNS name option in the DHCP server configuration
C. Configure a separate DHCP server on VLAN 20
D. Configure the default gateway in the DHCP sever configuration
Answer: C
559.Which chassis aggregation technology combines two physical switches into one virtual switch?
A. VSS
B. LACP
C. StackWise
D. VRRP
Answer: A
560.Which two values must you specify to define a static route? (Choose two.)
A. destination network and mask
B. source network and mask
C. incoming interface
D. next-hop address or exit interface
E. administrative distance of the route
Answer: AD
561.Which two approaches are common when troubleshooting network issues? (Choose two.)
A. round-robin
B. divide and conquer
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C. policing
D. top down
E. layer-by-layer
Answer: BD
562.which two statements about RFC 1918 addresses are true? (Choose two.)
A. They have reserved address space for Class A and Class B networks only.
B. They increase network performance.
C. They require Network Address Translation or Port Address Translation to access the Internet
D. They must be registered.
E. They provide security to end users when the users access the Internet
Answer: CE
563.Which two statements about the ip default-network command are true? (Choose two.)
A. It requires IP routing to be disabled on the device.
B. It specifies the network that is used when the device finds an exact match in the routing table.
C. It specifies the network that is used when the device cannot find an exact match in the routing table
D. It can be configured on a Layer 2 switch to specify the next hop.
E. It requires IP routing to be enabled on the device.
Answer: CE
564.Which two facts about configuring EIGRPv6 are true? (Choose two.)
A. You must configure neighboring devices with the same ipv6 hello-interval eigrp value
B. If you change the interface delay, the EIGRPv4 delay remains unchanged.
C. The variance command for EIGRPv6 is independent of EIGRPv4.
D. If you change the interface bandwidth, the EIGRPv4 metric is afected.
E. The router ID must be an IPv6 address.
Answer: CD
The server on this network is configured with an MTU of 9216 and the two interfaces on router R1 are
configured for MTUs of 2000 and 3000, as shown.
What is the largest packet size that can pass between the workstation and the server?
A. 1500 bytes
B. 2000 bytes
C. 3000 bytes
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D. 9216 bytes
Answer: A
566.On which options are standard access lists based?

A. destination address and wildcard mask
B. source address and wildcard mask
C. destination address and subnet mask
D. source address and subnet mask
Answer: B
567.Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1

B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router's E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router's E0 interface
Answer: CF
568.which two values must you specify to perform an ACL-based Path Trace using APIC-EM? (choose
two)
A. source port
B. source IP address
C. destination IP address
D. source interface
E. destination port
Answer: BC
569.Which two task does a router perform when it receives a packet that is being forwarded from one
network to another? (choose two)
A. It encapsulates the layer 2 packet
B. It examines the MAC address table for the forwarding interface
C. It removes the layer 2 frame header and trailer
D. It examines the routing table for the best path to the destination IP address of the packet
E. It removes the layer3 frame header and trailer
Answer: CD
570.You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical
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interface.
Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way?
A. Reload the OSPF process
B. Reload the router
C. Save the router configuration
D. Specify a loopback address
Answer: D
571.Which command is configured on a switch to enable neighbor discovery in a multivendor

environment?
A. cdp run
B. lldp receive
C. lldp transmit
D. lldp run
Answer: D
572.Which two functions can be performed by local DNS server? (choose two)
A. copying updated IOS images to cisco switches
B. resolving names locally
C. transferring split horizon traffic between zones
D. assigning IP addresses to local clients
E. forwarding name resolution requests to an external DNS server
Answer: BE
573.What is the default Syslog facility level?

A. local 6
B. local 7
C. local 5
D. local 4
Answer: B
HostA cannot ping HostB.Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be the cause of this
problem?
A. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway
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B. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address

C. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that cannot be used
D. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet
E. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address
Answer: D
575.Which two advantages do dynamic routing protocols provide over static routing (choose two)
A. Dynamic routing protocols are easier to manage on very large networks
B. Dynamic routing protocols automatically adapt to reroute traffic if possible
C. Only dynamic routing is supported on all topologies that require multiple routers
D. Dynamic routing is more secure than static routing
E. Dynamic routing requires fewer resources than static routing
Answer: AB
576.Which two server types are used to support DNS lookup (choose two)
A. web server
B. name resolver
C. authoritative name sever
D. ESX host
E. file transfer server
Answer: BC
577.which task do you need to perform first when you configure IP SLA to troubleshoot a network
Connectivity issue?
A. Enable the ICMP echo operation
B. Specify the test frequency
C. Verify the ICMP echo operation
D. Schedule the ICMP operation
Answer: A
578.Which plane handles switching traffic through a Cisco router?

A. control
B. management
C. data
D. performance
Answer: C
579.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
580.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
581.DRAG DROP
Answer:
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582.Match the items on the left with appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)
Answer:
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583.Drag and drop the correct address space on the left to the lPv6 multicast feature or protocol on the
right.
Answer:
584.Drag the security features on the left to the specific risks they protect against on the right. (Not all
options are used)
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Answer:
585.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
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586.DRAG DROP
Answer:
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587.DRAG DROP
Answer:
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588.DRAG DROP
Answer:
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589.DRAG DROP
Answer:
590.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
591.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
592.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
593.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
594.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
595.DRAG DROP
Answer:
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596.DRAG DROP
Answer:
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597.DRAG DROP
Answer:
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598.DRAG DROP
Answer:
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599.DRAG DROP
Answer:
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600.DRAG DROP
Answer:
601.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
602.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
603.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
604.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
605.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
606.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
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607.DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is sending packets to the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave
RouterA interface Fa0/0 towards RouterB.
Drag the correct frame and packet address to their place in the table.
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Answer:
608.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
609.DRAG DROP
Answer:
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610.DRAG DROP
Answer:
611.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
612.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
613.DRAG DROP
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Answer:
614.Drag and drop each WAN design option on the left onto the correct description on the right.
Answer:
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615.Drag and drop the DHCP client states from the left into the standard order in which the client passes
through them on the right
Answer:
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616.refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the routing table components on the left onto the corresponding letter from the exhibit on
the right. Not all options are used
Answer:
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617. ACL-3
A corporation wants to add security to its network.
The requirements are:
> Host C shouldbe able touse a web browser (HTTP) to access the Finance Web Server.
> Other types of access from host Cto the Finance Web Server should be blocked.
> All access from hostsin the Core or local LAN to the Finance Web Server should be blocked.
> All hosts in the Core and on local LAN should be to access the Public Web Server.
You have been tasked to create and apply a numberd access list to a single outbound interface. They can
contain no more than three statements that meets these requirements.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords have been temporarily set to "cisco".
The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.196.65←Corp1 Router's port S's IP need to be
showed if it is right when taking the test; if it is not right, IP needs to be corrected.
The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.33.1 - 192.168.33.254
Host A 192.168.33.1
Host B192.168.33.2
Host C192.168.33.3
Host D 192.168.33.4
The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.22.242.17 - 172.22.242.30
The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.23.
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Answer:
Corp1 router's port S's IP needs to be showed if it is right when taking the test; if it is not right, which
needs to be modified; modify the IP command
Corp1 # configure terminal
Corp1 (config) #int s1 / 0 (the specific port number, you need to show run by yourself)
Corp1 (config-if) #ip add 198.18.196.65 255.255.255.252 (ip is modified to the one in the item, the mask is
used the one which using show run to get the original error IP's mask)
Corp1 (config-if) #end
Here, you cannot need to delete the wrong IP address, you can directly enter the new IP to cover the old
IP, and finally do not forget to save.
Corp1 # show running-config
Make sure that the interface connecting the server is F0/1
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Corp1#configure terminal
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host192.168.33.3 host 172.22.242.23 eq 80
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 deny ip any host 172.22.242.23
Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit ip any any
Corp1(config)#interface fa0/1
Corp1(config-if)#ip access-group 100 out
Corp1(config-if)#end
Corp1#copy running-config startup-config
Explanation:
1. Corp1 (config) # access-list 100 permit tcp host 192.168.33.3 host 172.22.242.23 eq 80
Create an extension list that allows TCP traffic from source host IP: 192.168.33.3 to destination host IP:
172.22.242.23’s port 80. Eq means it is equal to the port number.
There is no need to tangle the expansion list using the number 100 or 128, as long as it is in the 100-199
range, it can be used.
2. Corp1 (config) # access-list 100 deny ip any host 172.22.242.23
Create an extended list that disables all traffic from all source hosts access the destination host IP:
172.22.242.23. IP refers to all protocols.
3. Corp1 (config) # access-list 100 permit ip any any
Create an extended list that allows IP traffic from all source hosts to all destination hosts.
4. Corp1 # show running-config
Show run is to find .30's IP is in which interface; the figure given .30, as long as show run to find the
interface of the IP .30 is OK and then apply the ACL list to the interface.
5. Corp1 (config) #interface fa0 / 1
Corp1 (config-if) #ip access-group 100 out
The last is the two commands, the above show run has found out .30's IP is 172.22.242.30, is in the f0/1
interface. Directly enter into the port F0/1 and apply the created extension list, and finally remember Copy
run Start.
When taking the test, lab questions will change the IP address and the host, it may change the host C into
the host B. Besides, the IP address will be also changed, the command involved in the test will not be
changed.
618. OSPF Neighbor

Question
Refer to the topology.
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Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using
point-to-point serial links. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues
between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branch1 office.
What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a Layer 2 issue; an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R4.
Answer: A
619.An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R5 in the Branch2
office.
B. There is a PPP authentication issue; a password mismatch.
D. There is a missing network command in the OSPF process on R5.
Answer: C
620.R1 does not form an OSPF neighbor adjacency with R2.

Which option would fix the issue?
A. R1 ethernet0/1 is shutdown. Configure no shutdown command.
B. R1 ethernet0/1 configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25; configure no ip ospf
hello-interval 25
C. R2 ethernet0/1 and R3 ethernet0/0 are configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25;
configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25
D. Enable OSPF for R1 ethernet0/1; configure ip ospf 1 area 0 command under ethernet0/1
Answer: B
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621.An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R6 in the Branch3
office.
B. There is a PPP authentication issue; the username is not configured on R3 and R6.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R6.
Answer: D
622. DHCP
Examine the DHCP configuration between R2 and R3, R2 is configured as the DHCP server and R3 as
the client.
What is the reason R3 is not receiving the IP address via DHCP?
A. On R3, DHCP is not enabled on the interface that is connected to R2.
B. On R3, the interface that is connected to R2 is in shutdown condition.
C. On R2, the interface that is connected to R3 is in shutdown condition.
D. On R2, the network statement in the DHCP pool configuration is incorrectly configured
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Please check the below:
623.R1 router clock is synchronized with ISP router. R2 is supposed to receive NTP updates from R1. But
you observe that R2clock is not synchronized with R1.
What is the reason R2 is not receiving NTP updates from R1?
A. R1 router Ethernet interface that is connected toR2 is placed in shutdown condition.
B. R2router Ethernet interface that is connected to R1 is placed in shutdown condition.
C. The NTP server command not configured on R2 router.
D. The IP address that is used in the NTP configuration on R2router is incorrect.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Check the below configuration for this
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624.Why applications that are installed on PCs inR2 LAN network 10.100.20.0/24 are unable to
communicate with server1?
A.A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from R2 LAN network.
B.A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from Server1 network.
C.A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from Server1 network.
D.A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from R2 LAN network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Check the below now:
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625.Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet
connectivity problem at main office.
Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?
A. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured.
B. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
C. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
D. Only static NAT translation configured from the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT
overloading for internal networks.
Answer: A
Explanation:
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626. RIPV2
- Router R1connects the main office to internet, and routers R2and R3are internal routers
- NAT is enabled on Router R1
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- The routing protocol that is enabled between R1, R2 and R3 is RIPv2

- R1 sends default route into RIPv2 for internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1
- Server1 and Server 2 are placed in VLAN 100 and 200 respectively, and are still running on stick
Configuration with router R2.
You have console access on R1, R2, R3 and L2SW1 devices.
Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
Server1 and Server2 are unable to communicate with the rest of the network. Your initial check with
system administrators shows that IP address settings are correctly configured on the server side.
What could be an issue?
A. The VLAN encapsulation is misconfigured on the router subinterfaces.
B. The Router is missing subinterface configuration.
C. The Trunk is not configured on the L2SW1 switch.
D. The IP address is misconfigured on the primary router interface.
Answer: A
Explanation:
627.Users in the main office complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You observe that
internet traffic that is destined towards ISP router is not forwarded correctly on Router R1.
Ping to Internet server shows the following results from Rl:
R1#ping 209.165.200.225
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 209.165.200.225, timeout is 2 seconds:
.....
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
A. The next hop router address for the default route is incorrectly configured.
B. Default route pointing to ISP router is not configured on Router R1.
C. Default route pointing to ISP router is configured with AD of 225.
D. Router R1 configured as DHCP client is not receiving default route via DHCP from ISP router.
Answer: B
Explanation:
(Default Static Route will fix the problem to connect to ISP router)
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628.Examine R2 configuration, the traffic that is destined to R3 LAN network sourced from Router R2 is
forwarded toR1 instead R3.
R2#traceroute 10.10.12.1 source 10.10.10.1
Tracing the route to 10.10.12.1
VRF info: (vrf in name/id, vrf out name/id)
1 172.16.14.10 msec 1 msec 0 msec
2 172.16.14.1! H! H *
R2#
A. RIPv2 enabled on R3, but R3 LAN network that is not advertised into RIPv2 domain.
B. RIPv2 routing updates are suppressed between R2 and R3using passive interface feature.
C. RIPv2 not enabled on R3.
D. No issue that is identified; this behavior is normal since default route propagated intoRIPv2 domain by
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Router R1.
Answer: C
Explanation:
629.What is the correct statement below after examining the R1 routing table?
A. Traffic that is destined to10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses static route instead RIPv2
Because the static route AD that is configured is less than the AD of RIPv2
B. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses RIPv2 instead static route
Because the static route AD that is configured is higher than the AD of RIPv2
C. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses static route instead RIPv2
But the traffic is forwarded to the ISP instead of the internal network.
D. Traffic that is destined to10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses RIPv2 instead static route
Because the static route AD that is configured is 255
Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuration are below for the answer.
630. EIGRP TS
Question
Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1, R2 and R3 with serial links. R2 and
R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also connected to the
routers R4 and R5.
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The EIGRP routing protocol is configured. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues
between the various routers. Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
The loopback interfaces on R4 with the IP addresses of 10.4.4.4/32, 10.4.4.5/32 and 10.4.4.6/32 are not
appearing in the routing table of R5.
Why are the interfaces missing?
A. The interfaces are shutdown, so they are not being advertised.
B. R4 has been incorrectly configured to be in another AS, so it does not peer with R5.
C. Automatic summarization is enabled, so only the 10.0.0.0 network is displayed.
D. The loopback addresses haven’t been advertised, and the network command is missing on R4.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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631.Which path does traffic take from R1 to R5?

A. The traffic goes through R2.
B. The traffic goes through R3.
C. The traffic is equally load-balanced over R2 and R3.
D. The traffic is unequally load-balanced over R2 and R3.
Answer: C
Explanation:
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632.Router R6 does not form an EIGRP neighbor relationship correctly with router R1.
What is the cause for this misconfiguration?
A. The K values mismatch.
B. The AS does not match.
C. The network command is missing.
D. The passive-interface command is enabled.
Answer: A
Explanation:
633.R1#ping 10.5.5.55 source 10.1.1.1

Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.5.5.55, timeout is 2 seconds:
Packet sent with a source address of 10.1.1.1
.....
A. The network statement is missing on R5.
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B. The loopback interface is shut down on R5.

C. The network statement is missing on R1.
D. The IP address that is configured on the Lo1 interface on R5 is
D. The IP address that is configured on the Lo1 interface on R5 is incorrect.
Answer: A
634. OSPFV3
You work as a network engineer for SASCOM Network Ltd Company. On router HQ, a provider link has
been enabled and you must configure an IPV6 default route on HQ and make sure that this route is
advertised in IPV6 OSPF process. Also, you must troubleshoot another issue. The router HQ is not
forming an IPV6 OSPF neighbor relationship with router BR.
Topology Details
Two routers HQ and BR are connected via serial links.
Router HQ has interface Ethernet 0/1 connected to the provider cloud and interface Ethernet 0/0
connected to RA1.
Router BR has interface Ethernet 0/0 connected to another router RA2.
IPV6 Routing Details

All router are running IPV6 OSPF routing with process ID number 100. Refer to the topology diagram for
information about the OSPF areas. The Loopback 0 IPv4 address is the OSPF router ID on each router.
Configuration requirements
- Configure IPV6 default route on router HQ with default gateway as 2001:DB8:B:B1B2::1.
- Verify by pinging provider test IPV6 address 2001:DB8:0:1111::1 after configuring default router on HQ.
- Make sure that the default route is advertised in IPV6 OSPF on router HQ. This default route should be
advertised only when HQ has a default route in its routing table.
- Router HQ is not forming IPv6 OSPF neighbor with BR. You must troubleshoot and resolve this issue.
Special Note: To gain the maximum number of points. You must complete the necessary configurations
and fix IPV6 neighbor issue with router BR. IPV6 OSPFV3 must be configured without using address
families. Do not change the IPv6 OSPF Process ID.
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Answer:
1-Enable IPV6 and create a default route.
HQ >enable
HQ #conf t
HQ (config)#ipv6 unicast-routing
HQ (config)#ipv6 route ::/0 2001:DB8:B:B1B2::1
HQ (config)#end
2-ping provider check the default route
HQ # ping 2001:DB8:0:1111::1 (To provider)
！！！！！
3-Declare the default route into OSPFv3
HQ #conf t
HQ (config)#Ipv6 router ospf 100
HQ(config-rtr)#Default-information originate
HQ(config-rtr)#end
4-Modify the area ID and establish a neighbor relationship
HQ #conf t
HQ (config)#interface s1/0
HQ(config-if)#Ipv6 ospf 100 area 0
HQ(config-if)#end
5-save
HQ #copy run start
635. GRE Tunnel

Refer to the topology below and answer the following questions.
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Why is the Branch2 network 10.1 0.20.0/24 unable to communicate with the Server farm1 network
10.10.10.0/24 over the GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the R2 router.
B. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the Branch2 router.
C. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the Bra nch2 router.
D. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the R2 router.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Branch2 network is communicating to the Server farm, which is connected to R2, via GRE Tunnel so
we should check the GRE tunnel first to see if it is in “up/up” state with the “show ip interface brief”
command on the two routers.
On Branch2:
On R2:
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We see interfaces Tunnel0 at two ends are “up/up” which are good so we should check for the routing
part on two routers with the “show running-config” command and pay attention to the static routing of each
router.
On Branch2 we see:
The destination IP address for this static route is not correct. It should be 192.168.24.1 (Tunnel0’s IP
address of R2), not 192.168.24.10 -> Answer C is correct.
Note: You can use the “show ip route” command to check the routing configuration on each router but if
the destination is not reachable (for example: we configure “ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0
192.168.24.10” on Branch2, but if 192.168.24.10 is unkn own then Branch2 router will not display this
routing entry in its routing table.
Note: The IP address or configuration may be different in the exam.
636.Why has the Branch3 router lost connectivity with R1? Use only show commands to troubleshoot
because usage of the debug command is restricted on the Branch3 and R1 routers.
A. A PPP chap hostname mismatch is noticed between Branch3 and R1.
B. A PPP chap password mismatch is noticed between Branch3 and R1.
C. PPP encapsulation is not configured on Branch3.
D. The PPP chap hostname and PPP chap password commands are missing on the Branch3 router.
Answer: A
Explanation:
First we should check Branch3 (and R1) with the “show ip interface brief” command to find any
Layer1/Layer 2 issue.
We see the interfaces connecting between them are in “up/down” states which indicates an Layer 2 issue
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so we should check the configuration of these interfaces carefully with the “show running-config”
command and pay attention to these interfaces.
and on Branch3:
We learn from above config is R1 is using CHAP to authenticate Branch3 router (via the “ppp
authentication chap” command on R1). Branch3 router is sending CHAP hostname “Branch_3” and
CHAP password “Branch3_Secret!” to R1 to be authenticated. Therefore we should check if R1 has
already been configured with such username and password or not with the “show running-config”
command on R1:
On R1 we see the configured username is “Branch3”, not “Branch_3” so the usernames here are
mismatched and this is the problem -> Answer A is correct.
On R1 we see the configured username is “Branch3”, not “Branch_3” so the usernames here are
mismatched and this is the problem -> Answer A is correct.
637.Which statement about the router configurations is correct?

A. PPP PAP is authentication configured between Branch2 and R1.
B. Tunnel keepalives are not configured for the tunnel0 interface on Branch2 and R2.
C. The Branch2 LAN network 192.168.11 0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network.
D. The Branch3 LAW network 192.168.10.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network.
E. PPP CHAP is authentication configured between Branch1 and R1.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In this question we have to check each option to see if it is correct. When we check B ranch3 router we
notice that “network 192.168.10.0” command is missing under “router eigrp 100” -> Answer D is correct.
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638.Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?

A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router.
B. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the ￡ranch1 serial interfaces.
C. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces.
D. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question clearly stated there is a WAN connectivity issue between R1 and Branch1 so we should
check both of them with the “show ip interface brief” command.
On R1:
On Branch1:
We can see that although the Multilink1 interfaces are in “up/up” state but they are not in the same subnet.
According to the IP address scheme shown on the topology we can deduce the Multilink interface on
Branch1 has been misconfigured, it should be 192.168.14.2 instead.
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639. VLAN
Your colleague has built a Layer 2 network in your client locations. You must verify the configuration and
fix any issues identified as per customer requirements.
Customer requirements:
+ Verify if switch ports are assigned correct VLANs as shown in topology. Identify and fix any
misconfiguration found in three switches
+ Verify if trunk links are operational between switches and the IEEE 802.1Q trunk encapsulation method
is used. Identify and fix any misconfiguration found in trunk configuration
+ You must make sure ports connected between switches are set as trunk ports
Answer:
The following configuration error point will often appear in the test.
– SW3 E0/0 or SW1 E0/1 is incorrectly configured as acess port
– SW1&SW3 eigen vlan does not match
-SW1, SW2 VLAN division error
The following answer will correctly configure all the wrong ports that are often present. You may not
configure the ports that have no errors in the test.
All device console passwords are cisco. If you save the command copy run start and report an error, the
result will not be affected.
SW1 configuration:
Sw1>enable
Sw1#configure terminal
Sw1(config)#Interface E 0/1
195 / 204
Sw1(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Sw1(config-if)#Switchport mode trunk
Sw1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 1
Sw1(config-if)#Interface E 0/2
Sw1(config-if)#switchport mode access
Sw1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 500
Sw1(config-if)#end
Sw1#copy run start
SW2 configuration:
Sw2>enable
Sw2(config-if)#end
Sw2#copy run start
SW3 configuration:
Sw3>enable
Sw3(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Sw3(config-if)#Switchport mode trunk
Sw3(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 1
Sw3(config-if)#end
Sw3#copy run start
640.ACL-1
An administrator is trying to ping and telnet from Switch to Router with the results
shown below:
Switch>
Switch> ping 10.4.4.3
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.4.4.3, timeout is 2 seconds:
.U.U.U
Switch>
Switch> telnet 10.4.4.3
Trying 10.4.4.3 …
196 / 204
% Destination unreachable; gateway or host down

Switch>
Click the console connected to Router and issue the appropriate commands to answer
the questions.
Note: The PTK file corresponding to this question is not supported by some command simulators, so the
configuration is different from the dumps. ACL entries in PKT is not enough, the router configuration is
subject to the PDF dumps.
Router>enable (requires to enter the password: cisco)
Router#show running-config
(The command display is incomplete, press the space bar a few times)
197 / 204
198 / 204
199 / 204
Which will fix the issue and allow ONLY ping to work while keeping telnet disabled?
A. Correctly assign an IP address to interface fa0/1
B. Change the ip access-group command on fa0/0 from “in” to “out”
C. Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 115 in.
D. Remove access-group 102 out from interface s0/0/0 and add access-group 114 in
E. Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 104 in
Answer: E
641.What would be the effect of issuing the command ip access-group 114 in to the fa0/0 interface?
A. Attempts to telnet to the router would fail
B. It would allow all traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network
C. IP traffic would be passed through the interface but TCP and UDP traffic would not
200 / 204
D. Routing protocol updates for the 10.4.4.0 network would not be accepted from the fa0/0 interface
Answer: B
642.What would be the effect of issuing the command ip access-group 115 in on the s0/0/1 interface?
A. No host could connect to Router through s0/0/1
B. Telnet and ping would work but routing updates would fail.
C. FTP, FTP-DATA, echo, and www would work but telnet would fail
D. Only traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network would pass through the interface
Answer: A
643. EIGRP GRE

You are implementing EIGRP between the main office and branch offices. In Phase 1, you must
implement and verify EIGRP configurations as mentioned in the topology. In Phase 2, your colleague is
expected to do NAT and ISP configurations.
Identify the issues that you are encountering during Phase 1 EIGRP implementation.
- Router R1 connects the main office to the Internet and router R2 and R3 are internal routers
- Routers Branch1 and Branch2 connect to router R2 in the main office.
- Users from the Branch1 LAN network 10 20.400/24 are expected to perform testing of the application
that is hosted on the servers in Server farm1, before servers are available for production.
- The GRE tunnel is configured between R3 and Branch1, and traffic between server farm1 and Branch1
LAN network 10.20.40.0/24 is routed through the GRE tunnel using static routes
- The line between Branch1 and Branch2 is used as a secondary path in the event of failure of the primary
path to main office
You have console access on R1, R2 R3 Branch1, and Branch2 devices use only show commands to
troubleshoot the issues.
201 / 204
Examine the R1 routing table. None of the internal routes other than locally connected appear in the
routing table.
Which cause of the issue is true?
A. EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to As mismatch between routers R1 and R2
B. EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to k values mismatch between routers R1 and R2
C. EIGRP packets were blocked by the inbound ACL on R1
D. IP address was misconfigured between the RI and R2 interface
Answer: D
Explanation:
R1 routing table does not have any EIGRP learned routes so R1 or the link between
R1 & R2 is the most likely problem. We should check if the IP addresses on R1 and
R2 are correct or not with the “show ip interface brief” command.
Use the show ip interface brief command to view the IP address of the E0/1 port of R1 is 192.168.14.250,
the IP address of the E0/0 port of the peer R2 is 192.168.14.2, Two IP addresses are in 32 mask, which
does not belong to a network segment, so the IP address is incorrectly configured.
644.The traffic from Branch to the main office is using the secondary path instead of the primary path
connected to R2.
A. The network 192.168. 11. 0/30 was not advertised into EIGRP on Branch2
202 / 204
B. The IP address was misconfigured between the Branch2 and R2 interfaces

C. EIGRP packets were blocked by the inbound ACL on branch
D. The primary path has more link delay configured then secondary path which causes EIGRP to choose
the secondary path.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Check Branch2 router with the “show running-config” command and we can see an access-list is blocking
EIGRP packets advertised to Branch2.
645.The traffic from Branch to the main office is using the secondary path instead of the primary path
connected to R2
A. The network 192.168. 11. 0/30 was not advertised into EIGRP on Branch2
B. The IP address was misconfigured between the Branch2 and R2 interfaces
C. EIGRP packets were blocked by the inbound ACL on branch
D. The primary path has more link delay configured then secondary path which causes EIGRP to choose
the secondary path.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This issue is same as Question 2 but this time it is R3 which causes the issue. We can check R3 with the
“show running-config” command.
646.The GRE tunnel between r3 and Branch 1 is down.

A The tunnel source loopback0 interface is not advertised into EIGRP in Branch1.
B The tunnel source loopback0 interface is not advertised into EIGRP in R3
C The EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to EIGRP packets blocked by inbound ACL on
R3
D The EIGRP neighbor relationship was no formed due the IP address being misconfigured between the
R2 and R3 interfaces
Answer: C
Explanation:
This issue is same as Question 2 but this time it is R3 which causes the issue. We can check R3 with the
“show running-config” command.
203 / 204
647.You are verifying the EIGRP configurations in the topology

statement is true?
A. Branch2 LAN network 172.16.11.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network
B. Branch2 LAN network 172.16.10.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network
C. R3 server farm2 network 10 20 30.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network
D. Branch1 LAN network 172.16.12.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network
Answer: D
Explanation:
In this question we should check the local routers to see if these subnets have been advertised or not as
there are many issues in the path which prevent these subnets from being shown in the routing tables.
When checking Branch1 router, we notice “network 172.16.0.0” is missing under EIGRP 200 so answer D
is correct.
204 / 204

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KillTest

Title : CCNA Cisco Certified

3.What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)

C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin

12.Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a cisco router?

13.Refer to the exhibit.

What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

19.Refer to the exhibit.

A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.

22.Refer to the exhibit.

The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router.

24.Refer to the exhibit.

The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.

C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.

27.What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

28.Refer to the exhibit.

The output that is shown is generated at a switch.

31.Refer to the exhibit.

32.Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

33.What are three benefits of implementing vlans? (choose three)

40.What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)

43.What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)

44.What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?

46.During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed?

F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.

51.Which statement about RADIUS security is true?

56.What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three.)

D. Dynamically specified static routes

57.How to configure RIPv2? (Choose Two.)

58.What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?

59.What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.)

61.What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?

62.What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?

63.Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?

67.Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration.

71.What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

73.Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?

D. Mono Spanning Tree

74.A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch.

82.Refer to the exhibit.

83.Refer to the exhibit.

B. The switch needs and appropriate default gateway assigned.

84.Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface?

85.Refer to the exhibit.

87.Which statement about LLDP is true?

92.Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit.

94.Refer to the exhibit.

B. 1-Gbps interfaces are full-duplex by default.

98.Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?

100.What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?

102.What is the purpose of the POST operation on a router?

103.Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?

104.Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

106.Which three statements about RSTP are true? (choose three)

107.What are two benefits of using NAT? (choose two)

B. SW1# show swithport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12

109.Refer to the exhibit.

110.Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

112.Refer to the exhibit.