FIITJEE MOCK TEST (JEE - Main)

(FULL TEST)
JEE - MAIN 2020 Q.P. Code
23" Dec 2019 000000
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Please lead the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Important Instructions

Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.•

A. General Instructions
Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
This question paper contains Three Sections.
Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & C in the OMR. Part-B of OMR to be left unused
Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, clip boards, log tables, slide
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B. Filling of OMR Sheet:

Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet.
On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Bail Point Pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

C. Marking Scheme for All Two Parts:

(i) Part-A (01-20) — Contains Twenty (20) multiple choice objective questions which have four (4) options each and only
one correct option. Each question carries +4 marks will be awarded•for every correct answer and -1 mark will be
deducted for every incorrect answer.

(i) Part-C (01-05) contains Five (05) Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9
(both inclusive). Each question carries +4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and NO MARKS will be
deducted for every incorrect answer.

Name of the Candidate :

Batch: Date of Examination •

Enrolment Number:

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JEE-MAIN -2020-MOCK TEST-PCM (FULL TEST)-2

Useful Data Chemistry:

Gas Constant = 8.314 J K-1 mo1-1
0.0821 Lit atm K-1mol-1
1.987 "t 2 Cal K-1mo1-1
Avogadro's Number N, = 6.023 x 1023
Planck's Constant h = 6.626 x 10-34 Js
6.25 x 10'27 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
1 amu = 1.66 x 10.27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-13 J
Atomic No: H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2, 0=81 '
Au=79.
Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, 0=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56,
Mn=55, Si = 28 Pb=207, u=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=2, C1=35.5
Useful Data Physics:
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m /s2

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JEE-MAIN -2020-MOCK TEST-PCM (FULL TEST)-3

Section — I (Physics)
PART — A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
1. For the circuit shown in the figure. the 3. . In a thermodynamic process helium gas obeys
equivalent resistance between A and B is :- the law TP-215 = constant. The heat given to
252 the gas when the temperature of 2 moles of the
gas is raised from T to 4T (R is the universal
gas constant) is :-
(1) 9 RT (2) 18 RT
(3) zero (4) data insufficient
4. A resistance R = 12 Q is *connected across a
source of eta as shown in the figure. Its emf
(1) .10 12 (2) Q (3) 6 Q (4) 4 52 changes with time as shown in the graph. What
2. A charge q is placed at 0 in the cavity in a is the heat developed in the resistance in the
spherical uncharged conductor. Point S is first four seconds?
outside the conductor. If the charge is displaced
from 0 towards S still remaining within the P= 12‘2
cavity. tvi
29

(1) 72 J (2) 64 J (3) 108 J (4) 100 J

5. The resistances of three parts Of a circular loop
are as shown in the figure. The magnetic field
electric field at S will increase at the centre 0 is :-
electric field at S will decrease
electric field at S will first increase and then
decrease a 2R
electric field at S will not change .t
(2)_.2_. -c2c 120
3a I ..._
\1.120 .•
2 p,,I .
- -
R
3a
zero.

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Four sources of Sound each of sound level 10dB 9. A ball of mass 1 kg is thrown up with an initial
are sounded together. the resultant intensity speed of 4 m/s. A second ball of mass 2 kg is
level will be :- • - released from rest from some height as shown
(1) 40 clB (2) 26 dB (3) 16 dB (4) 13 dB in the figure. Select the correct alternative. •
A plane wave Of sound traveling in air is
02 kg
incident upon a plane surface of a liquid. The u = 01
angle of incidence is 60°. The speed of sound
in air is 300 m/s and in the liquid it is 600 m/s. 4 m/s
Assume Sue/i's law to be valid for sound waves.
The wave will refract into liquid away from 0 1 kg
normal
The wave refract into . liquid towards the The centre of mass of the two balls conies
normal • clown with acceleration g /3.
The wave Will reflect back into air The centre of mass first moves up and then
none of these • comes down
S. For two different gases K and P. having degrees The acceleration of the centre of mass is
of freedomA and 12 and molar heat capacities first g downwards and then g upwards.
The centre of mass of the two balls remains
at constant volume ci and C.,.2 respectively,
stationary.
for adiabatic process. the In P versus InV graph O. The moment of inertia of a triangular plate ABC
is plotted as shown :- of mass' ill and side BC = a. about an axis
passing through A and perpendicular to the
plane of the plate is :-
A

a
(1) f, >f2
Ma 2 Ma 2
(3) C = (2) (3) (4)
- 4 6 17

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 JEE-MAIN -2020-MOCK TEST-PCM (FULL TEST)-3
•

11. In the circuit shown, ch and th are respectively 13. • Which Of the following s.tatements is correct?
(Initially all capacitors are uncharged) • case of a wave, traveling in a string.
oscillation energy of an elemental length
remains constant. • •
In case of a wave, traveling in a string.
oscillation energy .of an elemental length
varies periodically.
In case of . a wave. traveling in a string.
kinetic energy of all elemental parts having
100 V
equal length is same.
/22 = 120 i.tC. 93 = 240 uC.
none of these
q2 = 280 JAC:. q3 = —160µC
q2 = 120 MC; q3 = zero 14. An equiconvex lens of focal length f is cut into
It is impossible to find q2 and /73 unless CI four equal parts. and two parts are placed .as
and C2 are known shown in figure. The fooal length of system
12. A block of mass M is sliding down the plane. shown in figure is :-
Coefficiem,of static friction is M. and kinetic
friction is mk. Then friction force acting on the
(.1'1 block is

(1) f (2) 2f -
(1) fit.1‘4g cos 0 . (2) (F + Mg) sin 0 (3) f/2 . (4) 1.5 f
(3) Mk (F + Mg) cos 0 (4) (Mg + F)tan

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15. To make the central fringe at the centre Q. a 16. The filament cUrrent in the electron gun of a
mica sheet of refractive index 1.5 is introduced. Coolidge tube is increased while the potential
Choose the 'Correct statement :- difference used to. accelerate the electrons is.
decreased. As a result, in the emitted radiation
the intensity decreases while the minimum
wavelength increases
the intensity increases while the minimum
. wavelength decreases
•
S• SI the intensity as well as the minimum
wavelength increase
0
the intensity as well as the minimum
wavelength decrease
17. An assembly of identical spring-mass systems
D » is placed on a smooth horizontal surface as
shown. Initially the springs are relaxed. The
left mass is displaced to the left while the right
mass is displaced to the right and released. The
2 —1)d
(1) The thickness of sheet. is 2(17 resulting collision is elastic. The time period
of the oscillations of the system is :-
inflow of Si
M M .
The thickness of sheet is (.15.. —1)d- infront
•
of S2
The thickness of sheer is ,,hd infront of

Si 12M Ri
(1) 2m (2) 2rE 7,T
Ic ;
The thickness of sheet s (2f2 —1)d infront

of S, T4
k
(3) 27 — (4) R —
k

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JEE-MAIN -2020-MOCK TEST-PCM (FULL TEST)-5

IS. The figure shows a ray incident at an angle 20. Two sound waves of slightly different
= n/3. If the plot drawn shows the variation 11
frequencies have amplitude ratio — . What is
9
oft— ii versus — = k (r = angle of refraction) the difference of sound levels in decibels of
P.' • maximum and minimum jute sines heard at a
choose the wrong alternative. point
(1) 100 (2) 10 (3) 16 (4) 20

111

7
the value of ki is
vi
the value of 01 is n/6
the value of 13., is n/3
the. value of I:. is 1 .
19. A radioa.ctiVe'element is disintegrating having
half life 6.92 s. The fractional change in ntunber
of nuclei of. the radioactive element during
10 s is :-
(1) 0.37 (2) 0.63 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.50

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JEE-MAIN -2020-MOCK TEST-PC M (FULL TEST)-2

PART — C
(Integer Type)
1. Consider the following two cases:
A plane minor is kept midway between a wall and a point source.
A point source is kept midway between a concave mirror and a wall.
The radius of curvature of concave minor, the radius of circular aperture of the two Mirrors
and the distance between the mirrors and wall are all equal to 'd'. Find the ratio of radius of
shadow formed on the wall in case a) and spot formed on the wall in case b)
2. hi the figure, an object is placed 25cm from the surface of a convex mirror, and a vertical
plane mirror is set so that the image formed by the two mirrors lie adjacent to each other in
the same vertical plane. The plane mirror is placed at 20cm from the object. The radius of
curvature of the convex mirror is 15N cm. Find N.

-- 20cm —6
Than
In the figure shown M, and M2 are two spherical minors of focal length 20cm each. AB and
CD are their pfincipal axes respectively. Which are separated by km. PQ is an object of
height 2cm and kept at distance 30cm from M i . The separation between the mirrors is
50cm. Consider two successive reflections first on M I then on M2. Find the size of the 2ild
image (in cm)

A thin rod of length f /3 is placed also the optic axis of a concave mirror of focal length f
such that its image which is magnified, just touches the rod. The magnitude of magnification
of the rod is N/2. Find N.

In the figure shown find the total magnification after two successive reflections first on m,&.
then on M,
f = 10cm f = — 20cm

m,
10cm 30cm

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 JEE-MAIN -2020-MOCK TEST-PCM (FULL TEST)-2

Section — II (Chemistry)
PART - A
Single Correct Choice Type
Gold number is a measure of Which of the following statement is correct
Stability of colloidal system (1) At equilibrium, concentration of
reactents and products become constant
Coagulating power of a , colloid
because forward & backward reaction
Size of colloidal particles ceases
Efficiency of the protective colloid (.2) Addition of catalyst speeds up the
For a first order reaction A —> P the temperature forward reaction more then the backward
(T) dependent rate constant (k) was found to reaction for every reaction - . •
1 (3) Equilibrium constant of an exothermic
follow the equation log10k = -(2000) — + 6. reaction decreases with increases of
T
tempreture
Then activation energy equation of reaction will
(4) K is always greater than K c
e
be (In x=2.3x log x and R = 8 Jimole-K) In an experiment the enthalpy of neutralisation
of sodium hydroxide with sulphuric acid.
(1) 9.2 kJ mol-' (2) 16.2 kJ mo1-1
50cm3 of 0.4M sodium hydroxide were titrated
(3) 116.6 kJ mol-' (4) 36.8 kJ mol-' thermometrically with 0.25M sulphuric acid.
Which of the following plots give, the most
What will be C.-H bond enthalpy if
probable correct representation of temperature
CH,(?) +20,egh?: CO21,0+21-12011): all= -890 kJ of solution (initial temperature of NaOH &
C:02(g) C(graphite) + 02(g.) : t.11:1= 393 Id H2S0 are same).
2112010 2H2fg) + 02(g) : /NH= 571 kJ
2112(g) -> 411(g) H= 871 Id
C(graphite) C(g) : 61.1= 716 Id 0)
(1) 1663.39 k.T/mol (2) 415.25 kThnol
_ 10 30 30
. Vol of HAO,
(3) 917.3 LT/mol (4) 215.5 kJ/mol
4. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas are
allowed to expand adiabatically andseversibly
from 300K to 200K. The work clone in the
Process will be - (3) (4)
•
(1) -12.5 kJ (2) -2.5 kJ I Iii
10 30 50
(3) -625 kJ (4) 500 LI

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 JEE-MAIN -2020-MOCK TEST-PCM (FULL TEST)-2

V g of non-volatile organic substance of 10. Select the incorrect option, when a lead storage
molecular mass M is dissolved in 250g
battery is discharged -
benzene. Molal elevation constant of benzene
is Kb. Elevations in its boiling point is given SO, is evolved
by -
Lead sulphate is produced at both electrodes
4KbY
(2)
Sulphuric acid is consumed

K bY Water is formed
(4)
11. Which of the following statement is
The specific conductivity of a saturated solution INCORRECT:
of silver chloride is 2 x 10-6 Scm-' at 25°C.
Mg is present in chlorophyll
What will be the solubility of silver chloride
at 25°C if molar conductivities at infinite dilution Alkaline earth metals does not form super
of kr and C ions are .60 and 80 Scni'mol-1 oxide with excess of 0,
respectively -
Nal-ICO, is known as baking Soda
(1) 1.428 x 10-5M (2) 2.382 x 10-3M
(3) 2.33 x 10-5M (4) 4.2 x 10-3 M Permanent hardness of Water is removed by
In a cubic close packing. the unit cell has... boiling
4 tetrandral voids each of which is shared 12. Which of the following carbide on hydrolysis
by four unit cells. form methane :
4 tetrandral voids within the unit cell
(1) Be2C (2) CaC2
8 tetrahedral voids each of the which is
shared by four unit cells (3) SrC2 (4) Mg2C3
8 tetrandral voids within the unit cells

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13. Which of the statement is incorrect for the given 15. Which of the following silver precipitate
paragraph dissolve in dil. HNO 3 and produce clear

Golden yellow flame solution.

(1) Aga (2) Ag2S
(X) Yellowish green gas
(3) Agl (4) Ag2CO3
16. Which of the following process is not used for
the extration of spelter from zinc blende
(Z) White ppt. Smelting
(Insoluble in dil. ENO)
Distillation
(Y) Reddish brown vapour
Roasting

(X) when reacted with excess of NH3 then Froth flotation method

one of the product is explossive in nature 17. H2SO4 'can be •dried by :

When (17) passed in NaOH solution yellow (1) Cad!, anhydrous (2) CaO
solution is formed
(3) P205 . (4) None of these.
(Z) does not give chromyl chloride test
18. Which of the following form cyclic silicones
(X) can be formed by oxidation of HCI with
on hydrolysis
Q in the presence of CuCI, as catalyst
(1) R,SiC12 (2) R3sici
14. Which of the following reaction does not form
(3) RSiCI3 (4) Nolie.of these
PC1. as one of the product
19. Which of the following compleX is tetrahedral
1) Reaction between Pd & SOC12
as well as diamagnetic
Reaction between P. & SO2C'1,
Reaction 'between PH; & Ca0C13 (1) [Ni(CN)412- (2) [NiCl4]2-

Reaction between Ag & PCI5 (3) [Ni(CO)4 ] (4) [Fe(C0)51

20. The hybridisation and structure of XeFa is :
sp3d2 . distorted octahedral
spkV. distorted octahedral
sp3d7. octahedral
None of these

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 PART — C
Integer Type

1. A light of wavelength 200nm falls upon a surface and two different wavelength
photons 2. = soonin and 21 =40own are emitted from the surface. 80% of the energy
absorbed is re-emitted in the form of photon. Number of photons emitted aS A = 800n in
is 3 times that of number of photons emitted as A = 400nni . If the ratio of total absorbed
photon to total emitted photon is x. then find the numerical value of (12.8x)

7. A light of wavelength 3000 falls on a metal surface. Ejected e is further accelerated

by a potential difference of 2V, then final K.E of the e- is found to be 8 x10 9 J. If
threshold energy for the metal surface is ''eV. Then find the numerical value of (80)

_
In H sample, e is present in the orbit in which angular momentum of e is .

Electron make transition upto ground state. If 3rd highest energy photon has energy of

X eV then approximate numerical value of

In Hee ion sample e- is in ground state, ilphoton of energy 52.24eV is given to the
sample all the atom goes to higher energy state. It again falls back up to ground state.
If it is not emitting any lines in Balmer series then what is the maximum possible
number of spectral lines observed

An element with mass number 95 have 4 unit positive charge and 25% more-
neutrons than electrons in the given ionic state. Its atomic number is Z,then
find the value of (Z/10) .

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JEE-MAIN -2020-MOCK TEST-PCM (FULL TEST)-2

Section — III (Mathematics)

PART — A •
(Single Correct Choice Type)
m 5. Let the volume of tetrahedron ABCD is
sitri sin (XII -d) is equal to- 81 cubic units 8: Gi.G,.03 are centroids of
triangular faces ABC.. ABD & AC
respectively. then volume of tetrahedron
Sm IT
(I ) T (2) 2-- (3) 0 (4)5m AG1 G2G3. is (in cubic units) •
81
2. . 7TX
5111— (1) 3 (2) 6 (3) -h- (4) 54
f(l+h)-f(1)
If .f(x) - 4 . then lim
x +1 h-o 11 2 + 9h Equation of plane containing the line
i5- x + 2y + 3z - 5 = 0 = 3x + 2y + z 5 which is
parallel to line x - 1 = 2- y = z -3. is-
IT-4 It
(1) ,) r) (2) io,fi (1) x + 2y + z = 0 (2) x - z = 0
(3) 2y + 2z = 1 (4) x + 4y + 3z = 0
-9 Let A & B are two non singular matrices of
(3) 817
) (4) 1611 order 3 such that A: B = I & + B-' = 21.
Number-of solutions of the equation then ladj(4AB)1, is (where adj(A) is adjoint of
matrix A)-
"Y` + x = 2' + sinx in [0,10iz] is-
(1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 64 (4) 128
(1) 5 (2) 6 mc,.2(ick .mcp is
If r.k.p e W. then
(3) 11 (4) I r4:4-p-10

Le.t ABCD is a parallelogram where equal to-

AB = 5:AD = 5. 151 = 1 b l = and (60 (2) (60)

2
") 5CI) 30
0). then area of
15x 61 +57S. = V7
2151161 (5.6>
60) (3030
this parallelogram. is (in square units)- . (4) Il
(3) (20 10 )I20
(1) 2,5 (2) 2 (3)ñ (4) 8127

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If f(x) & g(x) are inverse functions of each

sgnaxll x#I
Function 1(x) =I r is other such that f(1) = 3 & f(3) = 1. then
Lsgn :x=I

[where sgn( ) denotes signum function & (.] r(g(x)) lx is equal to-
denotes greatest nueger function}
Continuous but not differentiable at x = 2 (1) 0 (2) (3)-8 (4) 3
Discontinuous at every integer dy 1+ x
Non differentiable at x = 0 & 1 only If solution of differential equation —n
dx 2y
Non differentiable at every natural number
10. is a conic passing through point (1.1). then its
A rectangle ABCD is inscribed in the region
bounded by y = sinx. x-axis where x e [0.m] eccentricity. is-
(as shown in figure). then area of rectangle is 17
5
maximum when 'a satisfies (1) 0 (2) (3) 1 (4) —
3

14. Let tangents drawn from point C(0.—b) to

x2 y:
hyperbola — — —=1 touches hyperbola at
a'
points A & B . If AABC is ,a right angled
a'
triangle, then is equal to-
t):
(1) tana = a (2) cota = a 3
(4) cosa = (1) 1 (2) (3) 2 (4) 7
(3) sina = a 2
11.
J( t1(x)+xf(t))dt If normal at point P(t) to parabola y2 = 16x
If f(0) = 2. then . lim ° is meets 'it again at point Q(36.-24). then
x-0 x maximum possible focal distance of point P
equal to- .• is-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 . (4) 4
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 32 (4) 20
If curves y = ax2 + bx + candy = px2 + qx + r
do not intersect each other and a.b.c.p.q.r
E 1.2.3.4 101. then maximum value of
(aq — bp): + — r)2 is-
(1)81 (2) 200 (3) 162 (4) 100

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Let n(A) = 3. n(B) = 3 (where n(S) denotes If o is complex cube root of unity whose
number of elements in set S). then number of imaginary part is positive & lz — col = a +
subsets of (A x B) having odd number of then arg(z) can be-
.elements, is IC :511 it it
(2) 128 (3) 256 (4) 512 (2) — (3) — (4) —
64 6 6 •4
Let A & B are two independent events such
3 ,
that P(A)+P(B) = — & PU:\ /. 13)= then
4
P(A n B) is-
9 9 5 6
(3) — (4)
(1) TO (2) 100 17 20
If complex numbers z1 and z2 both satisfy

z -FY =21z —1 I and arg(zi — z,) = . then

value of MU; + z,) is, where lin(z) denotes

imaginary part of z-
if
(1) sin -f- (Ti cosec —
3 3

(3) tan— 71
(4) cot —
3 3

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JEE-MAIN -2020-MOCK TEST-PCM (FULL TEST)-2

PART — C
(Integer Type)

If x>0.and xix],{x} when [.] denotes greatest integer function and {.} denotes fractional
pan functioni are in A.P then the number of possible values of x is

If a1,a2,a3 are real numbers such that a = it- = +a

n
Vn
n
EN and

1 1
S. =
1 •
then
1
[S]= - ([.]denotes greatest integer function)
01 +1 02 + 03 +1 a2017 -F1
• x=1,2,
3. If f(x) is a least degree polynomial satisfying f — for ;2017 then the

value of 2018f(2018)

If p(x,y) satisfies [x+y-1]=[x]; 0< x < 5, then the area of the region formed by all
positions of P is-([1denotes greatest integer function)

If. --<
2 a1 <a, < . then the number of values of Gel 7 7

(tan 0- tan qj (tan 0- tan a2 )(tan 0-tan a3)-3Tan0+ Tanai + Tana2 + Tana, = 0 is

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