1.

Cold like symptoms are caused by which bacteria

a. Pseudomonas b. E.coli c. Haemophilus influenza d. Haemophilus streptococcus

2. In Streptococcus fecalis, the conjugation takes place at

a. Pili b. Cell membrane c. Cell wall d. Flagella

3. The infected mad dogs may contain

a. Nergi bodies b. Niagri bodies c. Negri bodies d. Neisser bodies

4. What disease the Nesser will produce?

a. Mumps b. Rubella c. Polio d. Measles

5. Rancidity in spoiled foods is due to

a. Lipolytic organisms b. Proteolytic organisms c. Toxigenic microbes d. Saccharolytic microbes

6. The Baterium that is most commonly used in genetic engineering is

a. Escherichia b. Klebsiella c. Proteius d. Serratia CHAPTER 2 BACTERIA AND GRAM STAINING

7. The functions of plasmid are

a. DNA replication b. Protein synthesis c. Cell wall synthesis d. None of the above

8. Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that

a. Fail to reproduce on artificial meida b. Have a rigid cell wall c. Are resistant to penicillin d.
Stain well with Gram’s stain

9. The etiologic agent of botulism is a

a. Neurotoxin b. Endotoxin c. Enterotoxin d. All of the above

10. The bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during

a. Lag phase b. Log c. Stationary d. Decline

11. Protein particles which can infect are called

a. Virons b. Prions c. Nucleoida d. None of these

12. In most of purple bacteria, the light harvesting centers are

a. B 850 & Fe-S b. B 850 & B 875 c. B 845 & B 875 d. B 850 & B830

13. Endotoxin produced by gramnegative bacteria is present in

a. Peptidoglycan b. Lippolysacharide c. Theichoic acid d. Inner membrane

14. Which one of the following was Gram- negative, chemolithotrophic bacteria?

a. Siderococcus b. E.coli c. Spirellum d. Mycoplasms

15. The mode of reproduction which occurs in mycoplasma is

a. Budding b. Bursting c. Binary fission d. Binary fusion

16. Which one of the following is about Herpes viruses?

a. Icosahedral, with envelope, ds DNA b. Polyhedral with envelope, ds DNA c. RNA, helical with
envelope d. ds DNA, brick shape

17. Which one of the following produce typical fried egg appearance colonies on solid media?

a. Mycobacteria b. Mycoplasts c. Mycoplasms d. Bacteroides

18. An organism that is osmophilic and has a specific requirements for sodium chloride
resembles

a. Halophile b. Basophile c. Barophile d. Xerophile

19. A population of cells derived from a single cell are called

a. Monclonal cells b. Clones c. Protoplasts d. Sub culture

20. Hetrolactic acid bacteria produce

a. Lactic acid only b. Lactic acid + H2 O + CO2 c. Lactic acid + CO2 d. Lactic acid + alchohol + CO2

21. In which of the follwing microorganism, conjunction tube was not produced during
conjunction process?

a. Thiobaillus thiooxidence b. T. ferroxidance c. Tetrahymena thermophila d. Cryptaporiclium

22. Which of the following is most similar to Rickettsia and Chlamydia?

a. Bdellovibrio b. Clostridium c. Mycobacterium d. Mycoldaima

23. How would you distinguish pseudomonas species from E-cloi?

a. Gram staining b. Morphology c. Glucose fermentation Vs Respiration d. All of the above

24. Which of the following is pathogenic to humans?

a. Spirogyra b. Cephaleuros c. Prototheca d. Both b and c

25. Tumer inducing plasmids are extensively used in production of

a. Avirulent phases b. Single cell proteins c. Transgenic plants d. Nitrogen fixing bacteria

26. The viruses that live as parasites on bac- teria are

a. Fungi b. Commensels c. Bacteriophages d. None of these

27. The anthrax disease is most frequently infected from

a. Cattle b. Sheeps c. Rats d. Both a and b

28. The colonies produced by Pseudomonas on Mac Conkey’s medium are

a. Purple colored b. Pink colored c. Pale colored d. Green colored

29. Staining material of gram positive bacterium is

a. Fast green b. Haematoxylon c. Crystal violet d. Safranin

30. The pigment present in red algae is

a. Rhodochrome b. Fucoxanthin c. Chlorophyll only d. Chlorophyll + phycobilin

31. During mitosis, synapsis occurs in the phase called

a. Telophase b. Anaphase c. Prophase d. None of the above

32. Which of the following change is a transition?

a. ATGC’!ATCC b. ATGC’!ATGG c. ATGC’!AGGC d. None of these

33. Citrus canker is caused by

a. Phytomonas b. Salmonella c. Lactobacillus d. Hay bacillus

34. Bacteria that are responsible for fermentation of dairy milk are
a. Azetobacter b. Rhizobium c. Lactobacillus d. Hay bacillus

35. The fungal disease that affect the internal organs and spread through the body are called

a. Mycoses b. Systemic mycoses c. Mycotoxicosis d. Superficial mycoses

36. The staining technique used to stain the metachromatic granules of Corynebacte- rium

a. Giemsa stain b. Alberts stain c. Acid fast staining d. Both a and b

37. The orderly increase in all components of protoplasm of a cell is called

a. Reproduction b. Cell division c. Growth d. All of the above

38. The causative organism of cholera, i.e., Vibrio show the movement called

a. Gliding movement b. Darting movement c. Pseudopoidal movement d. None of these

39. Erythrocytes will get its ATP energy only by

a. Glycolysis b. Kreb’s cycle c. Electron Transport d. HMP shunt

40. Virus will contain

a. Cell membrane b. Cell wall c. DNA d. DNA or RNA

41. The bacterial pili mainly contain

a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids c. Proteins d. Minerals

42. The wonder drug of second world war is produced by

a. Algae b. Fungi c. Bacteria d. Plants

43. Role of bacteria in carbon cycle is

a. Photosynthesis b. Chemosynthesis c. Breakdown of organic compounds d. Assimilation of

nitrogen compounds

44. Centromere is that part of chromosome where

a. Nucleoli are formed b. Crossing over takes places c. Chromatids are attached d. Naking occurs

45. Somatic cell of the adult body are haploid in many except

a. Vertebrates b. Invertebrates c. Fungi d. Vascular plants

46. Congential diseases are

 a. Diseases present at birth b. Deficiency disease c. Occur during life d. Spread from one
individual to another

47. The enzyme needed in biological systems for joining two molecules is called

a. Lyases b. Diastases c. Polymerases d. Hydrolase

48. Meosomes are the part of

a. Plasma membrane b. ER c. Lysosomes d. Golgi

49. All prokaryotes are surrounded by a cell wall except

a. Mycoplasms b. Sperochetes c. Actinomycetes d. Methanogena

50. Enzyme hydrolyzing bacterial cell wall

a. Lysozome b. Reductase c. Protease d. Lysozyme

51. Cows can digest straw because they contain

a. Cellulose hydrolyzing microorganisms b. Protein hydrolyzing bacteria c. Lipid hydrolyzing

microorganisms d. Amino acid degrading bacteria

52. The nucleus controls protein synthesis in the cytoplasm by sending

a. Chromatin b. A DNA template c. m RNA molecule d. A pecialized protein

53. The site of energy production in a cell

a. Micro body b. Chromosome c. Ribosome d. Mitochondria

54. Thylakoid is present in

a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplast c. ER d. Golgi apparatus

55. Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in
plants?

a. Clostridum septicum b. Xanthomonas oriza c. Bacillus coagulens d. Agrobacterium

tumefaciens

56. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the production of

a. Insulin b. Interferons c. Vaccines d. Edible proteins

57. Bacterial ribosomes are composed of

a. Protein and DNA b. Protein and mRNA c. Protein and rRNA d. Protein and tRNA

58. The potorespiration involves

a. Calvin cycle b. Hatch-Slack cycle c. Glycolate cycle d. Kreb’s cycle

59. Bioleaching is done by

a. Protozoa b. Bacteria c. Algae d. All of the above

60. Inclusion bodies diagnostic of rabies are called

a. Elementary bodies b. Pascheur bodies c. Negri bodies d. Guarnieri bodies

61. Which of the following genera is most likely to contain organisms capable of surviving high
temperature?

a. Vibrio b. Pseudomonas c. Torula d. Coxiella

62. The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as

a. Co-factors of enzymes b. Building blocks of important amino acids c. Constituents of

hormones d. Binder of cell structure

63. The apparatus used to maintain a continuous culture

a. Chemostat b. Autostat c. Thermostat d. Both a and c

64. The test used to detect the deamination of the amino acids by bacteria

a. Nessler’s reagent test b. Proteolytic test c. Lactose test d. Rose aindole reagent test

65. Diphtheria is caused by

a. Corynebacterium b. Staphylococcus c. Streptococcus d. None of these

66. Koplic spots observed in the mucous membrane is characteristic feature of the disease

a. Rubella b. Measles c. Mumps d. Influenza

67. A bacterium containing prophage is called as

a. Lytic b. Lysogen c. Lytogen d. None of these

68. The most infectious food borne disease is

a. Tetanus b. Dysentery c. Gas gangrene d. Botulism

69. An example for common air borne epidemic disease

a. Influenza b. Typhoid c. Encephalitis d. Malaria

70. Vrial genome can become integrated into the bacterial genomes are known as

a. Prophage b. Temperatephage c. Bacteriophage d. Metaphage

71. Rancidity of stored foods is due to the activity of

a. Toxigenic microbes b. Proteolytic microbes c. Saccharolytic microbes d. Lipolytic microbes

72. Virion means

a. Infectious virus particles b. Non-infectious particles c. Incomplete particles d. Defective virus

particles

73. Virulence of the microorganisms can be reduced by

a. Attenuation b. A virulence c. Inactivation d. Freezing

74. The test used for detection of typhoid fever

a. WIDAL test b. ELISA c. Rosewaller test d. Westernblotting

75. Bacteriophage capable of only lytic growth is called

a. Temperate b. Avirulent c. Virulent d. None of these

76. Diphtheria bacillus is otherwise known as

a. Fried-Landers bacillus b. Kleb’s hofflers bacillus c. Frchs bacillus d. Koch’s bacillus

77. Acridine dyes are more effective against

a. Gram positive b. Gram negative c. Ricke Hsia d. Mycoplasma

78. In bacteria pigment bearing structures are

a. Chloroplast b. Protoplast c. Sphaeroplast d. Chromatophores

79. The procedure of differential staining of bacteria was developed by

a. A.H. Gram b. H.C. Gram c. N.C. Gram d. H.A. Gram

80. Intermediate group of pathogen between bacteria and viruses which are intracellular
parasites are called
a. Mucoplasmas b. Rickettsias c. Prions d. Virusoides

81. Bacillus is an example of

a. Gram positive bacteria b. Gram negative bacteria c. Virus d. Viroid

82. Amoebic dysentery in humans is caused by

a. Plasmodium b. Paramecium c. Yeast d. Entamoeba histolytica

83. Viral genome that can become integrated into bacterial genome is called

a. Prophage b. Temperate phage c. Bacteriophage d. Metaphage

84. Cytochromes are

a. Oxygen acceptors b. ATP acceptors c. Electron acceptors d. Protein acceptors

85. The cells having F plasmid in the chromosomes were termed as

a. Hfr b. F– c. Hbr d. C +

86. Recombination process occurring through the mediation of phages is

a. Conjunction b. Transduction c. Transformation d. Transfection

87. Mordant used in grams staining is

a. Crystal violet b. Iodine c. Saffranin d. All of these

88. Parasitic form must contain

a. Capsule b. Cell-wall c. Endospores d. Flagella

89. Gram staining is an example for

a. Simple staining b. Differential staining c. Negative staining d. None of these

90. Following Cocci are non-motile except

a. Staphylococcus b. Meningococcus c. Gonococcus d. Rhodococcus agilis

91. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect

a. Birds b. Animals c. Man d. All of them

92. Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning is secreted by

a. Enterococci b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Enterobacteriaceae d. Straphylococci

93. Autolysis is done by

a. Mitochondria b. Lysosomes c. Golgi bodies d. Peroxisomes

94. A facultative anaerobic is

a. Only grow anaerobically b. Only grow in the presence of O2 c. Ordinarily an anaerobe but can
grow with O2 d. Ordinarily an aerobe but can grow in absence of O2

95. The percentage of O2 required by moderate anaerobe is

a. 0% b. 0.5% c. 2 – 8% d. 5 – 10%

96. Interferon is formed by

a. Lymphocytes b. Lymphoblasts c. Fibroblasts d. All of these

97. Pigment bearing structure of bacteria are

a. Mesosomes b. Plasmids c. Mitochondria d. Chromophores

98. Spirochete is

a. Gonococci b. Strphylococci c. Treponema pallidum d. Streptococci

99. Histones are found in

a. Prokaryotes b. Eukaryotes c. Viruses d. None of these

100. Cell wall of gram negative bacteria is

a. Thick b. Lipids are present c. Teichoic acids are absent d. None of these

101. Cytoplasmic streaming is present in

a. Prokaryotes b. Animals c. Eukaryotes d. Both a and b 102. The motile bacteria is a. S. typhi b.
K. pneumoniae c. B. anthracis d. Shigella

103. The stain used to demonstrate fungus

a. Albert b. Nigerosin c. Lactophenol cotton blue d. None of these

104. Exotoxina are

a. Heat labile b. Heat stable c. Part of cell wall d. Polymerized complexes

105. The viruses that attack bacteria are

a. Bacterial viruses b. Bacterial pathogens c. Bacteriophages d. Various

106. The size of virus particle may range

a. 0.02–0.2 ìm b. 0.5–10 ìm c. 0.015–0.2 ìm d. 0.1–100 ìm

107. The bacterial cell multiplication is usually by

a. Mitosis b. Meiosis c. Conjugation d. Binary-fission

108. Rod shaped bacteria are known as

a. Cocci b. Comma forms c. Bacilli d. Plemorphic froms 109. All the groups of bacteria have cell
wall a. Mycobacteria b. Mycoplasmas c. Clostridia d. Rickettsia

110. Thickness of cell wall ranges from

a. 9-10 nm b. 12-13 nm c. 10-25 nm d. 30-40 nm

111. Teichoic acids and Teichuronic acids are found in

a. Gram positive bacteria b. Gram negative bacteria c. Fungi d. None of these

112. Meosomes are

a. Kind of ribosomes b. Formed during cell lysis c. A part of cell wall d. Principal sites of
respiratory enzymes

113. The characteristic shape of the bacteria is maintained because of

a. Capsule b. Cell wall c. Cell membrane d. Slime layer

114. Bacterial capsule is chemically composed of

a. Polypeptide b. Polynucleotides c. Polysaccharides d. Polypeptides or polysaccharides

115. The cell wall deficient form of bacteria is

a. Mycoplasma b. ‘L’ form c. Protoplast d. Spheroplast

116. Mesosomes are also known as

a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplasts c. Golgi complex d. Chondroids

117. The differences between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is shown to reside in
the

a. Cell wall b. Nucleus c. Cell membrane d. Mesosomes

118. Capsule formation occurs in the presence of

a. Albumin b. Charcoal c. Serum d. Starch

119. The virulence determining antigens of microorganisms may be

a. Proteins and polysaccharides b. Carbohydrate – protein complexes c. Polysaccharide –

Phospholipid – Protein complexes d. All of these

120. Organelles with hydrolytic enzymes are

a. Mitochondria b. Golgi complex c. Lysosomes d. Ribosomes

121. Bacterial locomotion is accomplished by

a. Fimbria b. Flagella c. Cytoskeleton d. Both a and b

122. Fimbriae are demonstrated by

a. Culture b. Gram stain c. Biochemical reactions d. Haemaggulation test

123. The motile bacteria is

a. Salmonella typhi b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Bacillus anthracis d. Shigella flexneri

124. Following cocci are non-motile except

a. Staphylococcus b. Meningococcus c. Gonococcus d. Rhodococcus agilis

125. Metachromatic granules are chemically composed of

a. Lipids b. Proteins c. Polymetaphosphates d. Polysaccharide

126. Metachromatic granules can be stained with

a. Saffranine b. Methylene blue c. Crystal violet d. Pienic acie

127. Bacteria multiply by

a. Spore formation b. Simple binary fission c. Conjugation d. Gametes

128. Bacterial spores are

a. Weakly acid fast b. Strongly acid fast c. Alcohol fast d. Non acid fast

129. Endospores can be stained with

a. Safranine b. Crystal violet c. Methylene blue d. Malachite green

130. The following bacteria produce pigment, except

a. Pseudomonas pyocyaneus b. Serratia marcescens c. D. pneumoniae d. Staphylococcus aureus

131. The order of stains in Gram-staining procedure is

a. Crystal violet, Iodine solution, Alcohol, Saffranine b. Iodine solution, Crystal Violet,
Saffranine, Alcohol c. Alcohol, Crystal Violet, Iodine solution, Saffranine d. All of these

132. The percentage of alcohol used in Gram- staining is

a. 75% b. 90% c. 60% d. 25% 133. Gram positive bacteria appear as a. Pink b. Violet c. both a b
d. None of these

134. Gram negative bacteria appear as

a. Pink b. Violet c. both a b d. None of these

135. The action of alcohol during Gram- staining is

a. Allows the color b. It adds color c. Decolorises the cells d. None of these

136. Lipid contents is more in

a. Gram negative bacteria b. Gram positive bacteria c. Same in both d. None of these

137. Cell-wall is

a. Thick in Gram positive than Gram negative b. Thick in Gram negative than Gram positive c.
Equal in both d. In Gram negative cell-wall is absent

138. The Lipid content present in Gram positive bacterial cell-wall is

a. 1-10 % b. 1-5 % c. 2-8 % d. None of these

139. Rickettsiae stained by this technique responds as

a. Gram positive b. Gram negative c. Between positive and negative d. None of these

140. Chlamydiae occur in

a. Elementary bodies b. Reticulate bodies c. Complex structures d. a and b

141. Chlamydiae can be stained better with

a. Ziehl neelsen staining b. Castaneda Machiavello stains c. Giminez stains d. Both b and c

142. Algae means

a. Fresh water organisms b. Sea weeds c. Fresh water weeds d. None of these

143. The study of algae is known as

a. Algalogy b. Phycology c. Mycology d. Bacteriology

144. The free floating algae are known as

a. Phytoplankins b. Benthons c. Sea weeds d. None of these

145. Sexual reproduction of algae is carried by

a. Isogamy b. Anisogamy c. Oogamy d. All the above

146. In algae, advanced type of sexual repro- duction is

a. Isogamy b. Anisogamy c. Oogamy d. None of these

147. Alginic acids and its salts are obtained from the wall of

a. Red algae b. Brown algae c. Green algae d. Red and brown algae

148. The molds obtained nutrition from dead and decaying matter which are called

a. Saphrophytes b. Parasites c. Commensals d. None of these

149. Most molds are capable of growing in the temperature range between

a. 0o – 25o C b. 0o – 35o C c. 10o – 25o C d. 10o – 35o C

150. Examples for actinomycetes

a. Streptomyces b. Spirillospora c. Frankia d. Dermatophillia e. All of the above

151. Pellicle is found in only

a. Algae b. Fungi c. Bacteria d. Protozoans

152. The Largest virus is

a. Parvo virus b. Pox virus c. Rhabdo virus d. None of these

153. The smallest virus is

a. Parvo virus b. Rhabdo virus c. Pox virus d. Adeno virus

154. The extra cellular infections virus particle is called

a. Capsid b. Nucleocapsid c. Virion d. None of these

155. Shape of bacteriophage is

a. Brick shape b. Bullet shape c. Helical shape d. Tadpole shape

156. If only one stain is used for staining a specimen

a. Simple staining b. Negative staining c. Differential staining d. None of these

157. Other than the sample (specimen) the remaining portion is stained then it is called

a. Simple staining b. Negative staining c. Differential staining d. None of these

158. If more than one stain is used, such staining is called

a. Simple staining b. Negative staining c. Differential staining d. None of these

159. ‘Fluorescence’ was first observed by

a. Kohler b. Coons c. Both a and b d. None of these

160. By using fluorescence property fluorescent antibody technique was developed by

a. Kohler b. Coons c. Both and b d. None of these

161. During staining for Electron Microscopy, the method which improves contrast of specimen
is

a. Positive staining b. Negative staining c. Shadow staining d. None of these

162. The inorganic forms of nitrogen, which are accepted by bacteria are

a. Nitrates b. Nitrites c. Ammonium salts d. All of these

163. Archaeo bacteria are known as

a. Halophiles b. Red extreme halophiles c. Osmophiles d. Extreme thermophiles

164. Nitrite is converted into nitrate by the bacteria

a. Nitrosomonas b. Nitrosocytes c. Nitrobacter d. Azatobacter

165. Sulphur oxidizing bacteria is

a. Alcaligenes b. Pseudomonas c. Thiobacillus d. None of these

166. Bacillus Schlegelli is

a. Hydrogen – Oxydising bacteria b. Sulphur – Oxydising bacteria c. Iron-Oxidising bacteria d.

Nitrite oxidizing bacteria

167. The group of bacteria which deopends on organic sources in nature for their energy
requirements. They are said to be

a. Chemotrophs b. Phototrophs c. Heterotrophes d. Organotrophs

168. Majority of bacteria are

a. Saprophytes b. Symbionts c. Commensals d. Parasites

169. Symbionts are

a. Bacteria in symbiotic association b. The group of fungi in symbiotic association c. The groups
participating in symbiotic association d. All of these

170. The best example for symbiotic associa- tion is

a. E.coli in intestine of man b. Lichens c. Normal floraof skin d. All of the above

171. The enzymes responsible for decomposi- tion is

a. Lipolytic b. Proteolytic c. Lysozyme d. Both a and b

172. Urea is decomposed by the species

a. Micrococcus sps. b. Nitrosomonas sps. c. Proteus sps. d. Both a and c

173. Phycobiont i

s a. The algal part in Lichens b. The fungal part in Lichens c. Laustoria formation d. None of
these

174. Parasitic form must contain

a. Capsules b. Cell-wall c. Endospores d. Flagella

175. The total no. of genes in the group of same individuals is a. Genome b. Gene map c. Gene
pool d. None of these

176. Transformation was observed mainly in

a. Bacteriophages b. Temperate phages c. λ –phage d. All of these

177. Capsulated forms of bacteria are

a. Virulent b. A virulent c. Useful d. Symbiotic

178. The bacterial cells participating in conjugation are a. Conjugants b. Fertile cells c.
Exconjugants d. None of these

179. Phagocytes are

a. Monocytes b. Macrophages c. Basophils d. All of these

180. The microorganism engulfed by phago- cyte resides in a vacuole is known as

a. Phagosome b. Lysosome c. both a and b d. None of these

181. Toxic products in phagolysosome are

a. H2 SO4 b. Singlet O2 c. Superoxide radicals d. All of these

182. During destruction of antigen particle in phagolysosome the product formed in

phagolysosome the product formed during formulation is

a. Acetic acid b. Lactic acid c. Citric acid d. None of these

183. The coating of a bacterium with antibody or complement that leads to enhanced
phagocytosis of the bacterium by phagocytes is called

a. Opsonisation b. Aggulation c. CFT d. None of these

184. Attenuation means

a. Killing of the bacteria (microorganism) b. Inactivation of bacteria c. More activating the

bacteria d. Both 1 and 2

185. Infection that results in pus formation are called

a. Focal infection b. Acute infection c. Pyogenic infection d. Chronic infection

186. Presence of viable bacteria in the blood stream is called

a. Viraemia b. Septicaemia c. Bacteraemia d. Bactericidal

187. Presence of viruses in the blood stream is known as

a. Viraemia b. Bacteraemia c. Septicaemia d. Pyemia

188. Opsonin is the

a. Cellwall component b. Plasma component c. Serum component d. Cytoplasm component

189. βββββ-haemolytic bacteria is

a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Str. pneumoniae c. Str. viridans d. Str. Faecalis

190. The natural reservoir of infection for cholera is

a. Flies b. Horse c. Man d. None of these

191. Main cause for Cholera is

a. Poverty and insanitation b. Mosquitoes c. Toxin produced by pesticides d. None of these

192. Vibrio cholera differs from vibrio eltor by

a. ItsharessomeInaba,Ogawasubtypeswitheltor b. Resistant to polymuxin c. Eltor is non-motile

d. Causes less subclinical infections as compared to eltor

193. Cholera vaccine gives protection for

a. 1 – 3 months b. 3 – 6 months c. 6 – 9 months d. 9-12 months

194. Prophylaxis of cholera is

a. Protected water supply b. Environmental sanitation c. Immunisation with killed vaccines d.

All of these

195. Sh.dysenteriae is also known as

a. Sh.shiga b. Sh.schmitzi c. Both a and b d. Sh.para dysenteriae

196. Acid fast bacteria are

a. Neisseria b. Staphylococci c. Mycobacteria d. All of the above

197. Mycobacteria are stained with

a. Gram’s staining b. Simple staining c. Both a and b d. Ziehl – Neelsen’s staining

198. Niacin test is positive in case of

a. Corynebacterium b. M. tuberculosis c. M. bovis d. M. avium

199. Lepromin test

a. Is negative in tubercular leprosy b. Positive in lepromatous type c. Indicated delayed

hypersensitivity test d. Indicates infection

200. Streptococcus forms causes which type of infections?

a. Fever b. Zoonotic c. Pyogenic d. None of these

201. Streptococcus pyogenes classification is based on

a. Protein M b. Protein T c. Protein R d. Polysaccharide C

202. ααααα-haemolytic streptococci are also known as

a. Str. pyogenes b. Virulence group c. Viridans group d. None of these

203. Streptolysin O is inactivated by

a. CO2 b. Nitrogen c. Oxygen d. Serum 2

04. Streptolysin ‘S’ is

a. Oxygen unstable b. Thermostable c. Oxygen stable d. None of these

205. Influenza virus is identified by using

a. Haemaggulutinin inhibition test b. Tissue culture method c. Embryonated eggs d. Plaque

formation

206. Growth of influenza virus is identified by

a. Cytopathic effects b. Hela cells c. Both a and b d. None of these

207. Glutamic acid is oxidized by the species except

a. B. abortus b. B. melienasis c. B. suis d. B.canis

208. “Prozone phenomenon” is encountered in

a. A typical mycobacteria b. Brucella c. Streptococcus d. Bordetella pertusis

209. Of the following, this is a capsulated organism

a. Bacillus anthracis b. Escherichia-coli c. Corynebacterium d. Brucella

210. Anthrax is a

a. Vector borne b. Zoonotic infection c. Wound bone d. Soil borne

211. Mc Fadyean’s reaction is used to detect

a. Bacillus anthracis b. Brucella c. Corynaebacterium d. None of these

212. Gasgangarene bacillus is

a. Facultative anaerobe b. Obligate anaerobe c. Facultative aerobe d. Obligate aerobe

213. Coagulase test is used for

a. Salmonella b. Staphylococcus c. Bordetella d. Pneumococcus

214. HIV is belonging to

a. Retro Viridae b. Rhabdo Viridae c. Toga Viridae d. Paramyxo Viridae

215. Special feature of Retro viruses

a. Reverse transcriptase b. RNA directed DNA polymerases c. Both a b d. Boils

216. AIDS virus is

a. RNA virus b. DNA virus c. Retro virus d. Entero virus

217. AIDS is caused by

a. HTLV – I b. Bunya virus c. HTLV – III d. All

218. Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with AIDS pneumo- nia?

a. Klebsiella b. Str. pneumonia c. Mycoplasma d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

219. Sero conservation in HIV infection takes place in

a. 3 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 9 weeks d. 12 weeks

220. Following is the marker of HIV infection in blood:

a. Reverse transcriptase b. DNA polymerase c. RNA polymerase d. None of these

221. Which of the following is the most specific in diagnosis of AIDS?

a. IHA b. Western blot c. ELISA d. Immuno electrophoresis

222. The interval period between HIV infection and appearance of antibodies in serum is called
a. Intrinsic period b. Incubation period c. Window period d. None of these

223. Screening test for AIDS is

a. Western blot test b. ELISA test c. Both a and b d. VDRL test

224. Confirmatory test for AIDS is

a. Western blot test b. ELISA test c. Karpas test d. Fujerbio test

225. The most common infection in AIDS is

a. LGV b. CMV c. Pnemocystis carnii d. Syphilis

226. During AIDS, HIV infects

a. CD3 lymphocytes b. CD4 lymphocytes c. CD2 lymphocytes d. Blymphocytes

227. Lab diagnosis of Leishmaniasis is done by

a. CFT b. Peripheral smear c. Blood culture d. All of these

228. Those fungi which do not have a sexual stage are classified as

a. Phycomycetes b. Ascomycetes c. Basidiomycetes d. Fungi imperfecti

229. Tinea capitis is

a. Ring worm of the foot b. Ring worm of scalp c. Ring worm of non-hairy skin of body d. Both a
and c

230. Diagnosis of bacterial disease can be made by

a. Finding bacteria in pathological fluids b. Isolation of bacteria by culture from exudates or

blood c. Both a and b d. None of these

231. Staphylococcus aureus are characterized by

a. Formation of acid in sucrose, dextrose b. Liquification of gelatin due to production of
gelatinase c. Strains are catalase positive d. All of above e. None of these

232. Cholera occurs in _______ form

a. Endemic b. Epidemic c. Sporadic d. all e. None of these

233. Endemic typhus is caused by

a. R.mooseri b. R.quintana c. R.prowazekii d. any of them e. None of these

234. A man is usually infected for tick typhus by –

a. Drinking milk of sick animals b. Tending cattle c. Inhaling infected dust d. All of these

235. In Gram positive bacteria, ratio of RNA to DNA is

a. 8 : 1 b. 1 : 2 c. Almost equal d. None of these

236. Ziehl – Neelson stain is a ______

a. Simple stain b. Counter stain c. Differential stain d. None of them

237. Wet mount slide preparations are used in microbiology as they allow to see

a. Size and shape of individual organisms b. Characteristic arrangement or grouping of cells c.

Motility of the organism d. All of these e. None of these

238. Organism resistant to degradative lysosomal enzymes includes

a. M.tuberculosis b. Legionella pneumophila c. M.leprae d. Both a and b e. Both b and c

239. Freeze-etch particles (used in preparing cell for electron microscopy) can be located in the
a. Cytoplasm b. Cell wall c. Cell membrane d. Nucleus

240. The properties common to Gram positive and negative cell walls are

a. Equal susceptibility to hydrolysis by lysozyme b. Peptide crosslinks between polysaccharides

c. Rigid peptoglycon activity d. Greater resistance to drying than vegetative cell. e. All of these
241. The main difference in true bacteria and mycoplasma is that it does not posses –

a. Flagella b. Cell wall c. ATP synthesis d. A capsule

242. The organism responsible for retarding penetration of host cell by an inhibitor of ATP
synthesis.
a. M.pneumoniae b. Rickettsia rickettsii c. Chlamydia trachomatis d. Chlamydia psitacci

243. Mycoplasmas differ from Chalamy-diae in that, it

a. has ability to cause urinary tract infection b. lack of atrue bacterial cell wall c. susceptible to
penicillin d. All of these e. None of these

244. Fungal disease in human is caused by –

a. Inhalation of conidia b. Invasion of mucous membrane c. Contamination of wounds with

conidia or myceliat fragments d. All of these e. None of these

245. Fungi differs with bacteria in that it –

a. Contain no peptidoglycan b. Are prokaryotic c. Susceptible to griseofulvin d. Have nuclear

membranes e. All of these

246. A polysaccharide capsule is present on cryptococci which –

a. Inhibits phagocytosis b. Is an aid to diagnose c. Cross reacts with rheumatoid factor d. All of
these

247. The largest protozoa is –

a. Balantidium coli b. Entamoeba coli c. Trichomonus vaginalis d. Toxoplasma gondii

248. Premunition is particularly seen in –

a. Ascaris b. Giardia c. Plasmodium d. None of these

249. Which of the following vaccine contains attenuated form of bacteria?

a. BCG b. TAB c. Polio d. Cholera

250. The bacteria, which is motile at 22o C but non-motile at 37o C is

a. Tranformation b. Transduction c. Conjugation d. Cell fusion

251. Techoic acid is –

a. Found in the walls of Gram positive bacteria b. Provide receptors for phages c. Make up outer
wall of Gram negative bacteria d. Influence the permeability of the membrane

252. One flagelium at one end of the organ is called –

a. Monotrichate b. Amphitrichate c. Iophotrichate d. Peritrichate

253. What is the function of bacterial capsule?

a. Production of organism from phagocytosis b. Helps in adherence of bacteria to surface in its

environment c. Both a and b d. None of these

254. Which of the following is the charachter- istic of bacterial spore?

a. Highly refractile b. Usually dehydrated c. Sensitive to formaldehyde d. All of these

255. Which of the following are acid fast structures?

a. Mycobacteria b. Bacterial spores c. Nocardia d. All of these

256. All of the following are acid fast structures except

a. Clostridium b. Bacterium spores c. Exoskeleton d. None of these

257. All of the following are energy source of bacteria except

a. Oxidation of inorganic compounds b. Oxidation of organic compounds c. Absorption of heat

d. Utilisation of visible light

258. Identify the obligate anaerobes

a. Salmonella b. Vibrio cholera c. Cl. tetani d. Sarcinae

259. Streptococci which are destroyed at 60°C for 30 minutes

a. Preptostreptococci b. Strepto viridans c. Strepto hemolyticus d. All of these

260. Toxins or enzymes which are not produced by streptococcus pyrogens

a. Hyaluronides b. Phosphate c. Hemolysin d. Streptokinase

261. Cholera red reaction is identified by

a. Sulphuric acid b. Nitric acid c. Hydrochloric acid d. Carbolic acid

262. Diagnosis of carrier of salmonella typhi may be shown by

a. Fecal culture b. Bile culture c. Urine culture d. All of these

263. Daisy head colony is associated with

a. M.tuberculosis b. C.diphtheriae c. Cl. tetani d. None of these

264. Neil mooseri reaction is related to

a. Rickettsiae b. Chlamydiae c. Spirochaetes d. C l o s t r i d i u m periringens

265. All of the following are DNA viruses except –

a. Parvo virus b. Paramyxo virus c. Herpes virus d. Pix virus

266. The dengue fever virus is –

a. Arbo virus b. Echo virus c. Entero virus d. Orthomyxo virus

267. Dengue fever is caused by –

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Rickettsia

268. Which of the following characters are related to viruses?

a. No growth on inanimate culture media b. Not sensitive to antibiotics c. No energy producing

enzymes d. Insensitive to interferon

269. Main causative organism of chiken pox is

a. Fox virus b. Mumps virus c. Measles virus d. None of these

270. Rickesia are stained with

a. Giesna and Castaneda stains b. Macchiavello and Gimnezstains c. Both a and b d. Malachite
green

ANSWERS 1. c 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. b 13. b 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. c 18.
a 19. b 20. d 21. a 22. c 23. c 24. c 25. c 26. c 27. d 28. c 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. c 35. b
36. b 37. c 38. b 39. a 40. d 41. c 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. d 51. a 52. c 53.
d 54. b 55. d 56. c 57. c 58. c 59. b 60. c 61. c 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. c 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. b
71. d 72. c 73. a 74. a 75. a 76. b 77. a 78. d 79. b 80. b 81. a 82. d 83. a 84. c 85. a 86. b 87. b
88. b 89. d 90. a 91. b 92. d 93. b 94. d 95. c 96. d 97. d 98. c 99. b 100. c 101. c 102. a 103. c
104. a 105. c 106. c 107. d 108. c 109. b 110. c 111. a 112. d 113. b 114. d 115. b 116. d 117. a
118. c 119. d 120. c 121. d 122. d 123. a 124. d 125. c 126. b 127. b 128. a 129. d 130. c 131. a
132. b 133. b 134. a 135. c 136. a 137. a 138. b 139. b 140. d 141. d 142. b 143. b 144. a 145. d
146. c 147. b 148. a 149. b 150. d 151. d 152. b 153. b 154. c 155. d 156. a 157. b 158. c 159. a
160. b 161. b 162. d 163. b 164. c 165. c 166. a 167. c 168. d 169. c 170. b 171. b 172. d 173. a
174. a 175. c 176. b 177. c 178. a 179. d 180. a 181. d 182. b 183. a 184. b 185. c 186. c 187. a
188. c 189. a 190. c 191. a 192. d 193. b 194. d 195. c 196. c 197. d 198. b 199. c 200. d 201. a
202. c 203. c 204. c 205. a 206. b 207. d 208. b 209. a 210. b 211. a 212. b 213. b 214. a 215. c
216. c 217. d 218. d 219. c 220. a 221. b 222. c 223. b 224. a 225. c 226. b 227. d 228. d 229. c
230. c 231. c 232. d 233. a 234. c 235. a 236. c 237. d 238. e 239. c 240. d 241. b 242. b 243. b
244. d 245. e 246. a 247. a 248. c 249. a 250. d 251. a 252. a 253. c 254. d 255. d 256. a 257. c
258. c 259. d 260. b 261. a 262. d 263. b 264. a 265. b 266. a 267. b 268. d 269. d 270. c