Sample Exam-in-Microbiology
Sample Exam-in-Microbiology
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101. Aerobic, non- spore forming organism that exhibits tumbling motility and capable of causing meningitis
and sepsis in newborn and immunocompromised patients.
A. Meningococcus C. Bacillus antracis E. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Gonococcus D. Clostridium tetani
102. Large, spore- forming rod, whose capsule is composed of poly- D- glutamate and may cause Wool
Sorter’s disease.
A. Meningococcus C. Bacillus antracis E. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Gonococcus D. Clostridium tetani
103. Characterized physiologically by a “sardonic smile”.
A. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum E. Clostridium dificile
B. Closrtidium tetani D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
104. The causative agent of gas gangrene.
A. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum E. Clostridium dificile
B. Closrtidium tetani D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
105. In stained smear, it is usually seen in Chinese letter arrangement having metachromatic granules and may
infect the respiratory system.
A. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum E. Clostridium dificile
B. Closrtidium tetani D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
106. Anaerobic, gram- positive, spore- forming rods, which is a normal flora of the intestine. It has enterotoxin
that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis.
A. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum E. Clostridium dificile
B. Closrtidium tetani D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
107. The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good foods.
A. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum E. Clostridium dificile
B. Closrtidium tetani D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
108. A halophilic coma shaped, gram negative bacteria.
A. Escherichia coli C. Shigella dysenteriae E. Camphylobacter jejuni
B. Salmonella typhi D. Vibrio cholerae
109. A gram negative, coma shaped microaerophilic rod that causes enterocolitis and can be cultured in
Skirrow’s agar.
A. Escherichia coli C. Shigella dysenteriae E. Camphylobacter jejuni
B. Salmonella typhi D. Vibrio cholerae
110. Facultative gram negative rods, non- lactose fermenting and may cause enterocolitis (dysentery).
A. Escherichia coli C. Shigella dysenteriae E. Camphylobacter jejuni
B. Salmonella typhi D. Vibrio cholerae
111. Urinary tract infection (UTI), sepsis neonatal meningitis and “travellers diarrhea” are the most common
disease caused by this gram negative, non- lactose fermenting bacilli.
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130. The identification of bacteria by serologic test is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the
following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
A. Capsule C. Cell wall
B. Flagella D. Ribosomes
131. Causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine
A. Diphtheria toxin C. Botolinum toxin E. Cholera toxin
B. Tetanus toxin D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
132. Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking elongation factor- 2
A. Diphtheria toxin C. Botolinum toxin E. Cholera toxin
B. Tetanus toxin D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
133. Stimulates T- cells to produce cytokines
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144. A 55- year old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A gram stain of urine sample shows gram- negative
rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals non- lactose fermenting colonies without evidence of swarming
motility. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be causative agent of his urinary tract infection?
A. Streptococcus faecalis C. Protues vulgaris
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Escherichia coli
145. Acute glomerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which of the
following organisms?
A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Proteus vulgaris D. Escherichia coli
146. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of pneumonia in an immunocompetent
patient.
A. Nocardia asteroides C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Serratia marcescenes D. Streptococcus agalactiae
147. Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be lifelong?
A. Passive immunity C. Active immunity
B. Passive- active immunity D. Cell-mediated immunity
148. The following statements concerning interferon are correct, except:
A. Interferon inhibits the growth of both C. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA
DNA and RNA viruses in order to obtain nucleotides
B. Interferon is induced by double- stranded DNA. D. Enveloped viruses require host cell
membranes to obtain their envelopes.
149. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. The following statements concerning this fact are correct,
except:
A. Viruses cannot generate energy outside the cell C. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA
B. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside in order to obtain nucleotides.
the cell D. Enveloped viruses require host cell
membranes to obtain their envelopes.
150. The following statements about lysogensy are correct, except:
A. Viruses replicate independently of C. Viruses DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA.
bacterial genes.
B. Viral genes responsible for lysis are D. Some lysogenic bactriophage encode toxins that
repressed. that cause human disease.
151. The following viruses posses an outer envelope of lipoprotein, except:
A. Varicella- zoster virus B. Papillomavirus C. Influenza virus D. HIV virus
152. The following viruses posses RNA polymerase in the virion, except:
A. Hepatitis A virus B. Smallpox virus C. Mumps virus D. Rotavirus
153. The following viruses posses double- stranded DNA as its genome, except:
A. Coxsackie virus B. Herpes simplex virus C. Rotavirus D. Adenovirus
154. Which of the following statements best describe a viriod?
A. It is a defective virus that is missing C. It causes tumor in experimental animals.
the DNA coding for the matrix protein. D. It requires RNA polymerase in the particle
B. It consists of RNA without a protein or for replication to occur.
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B. It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili D. It is found only in gram- negative bacteria
196. It is the relationship between the host and normal microbiota:
A. Disease B. Infection C. Symbiosis D. Parasitism
197. It refers to the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic bacteria:
A. Disease B. Infestation C. Infection D. Syndromes
198. Influenza develops rapidly and lasts only for a short time. This is described as:
A. Acute B. Subacute C. Chronic D. Latent
199. This period is characterized by mild aches, malaise and it follows the period of incubation of the disease:
A. Decline phase B. Prodormal stage C. Illness stage D. Convalescence stage
200. The number of cases of Filipino with AIDS has increased tremendously over the past few years. This is
described as:
A. Endemic B. Epidemic C. Pandemic D. Acute
201. It is indication of the ability of a bacterium to produce pathologic changes or disease in the host:
A. Virulence B. Pathogenicity C. Attenuation D. In-vitro growth rates
202. The two major components of virulence include:
A. Invasiveness and toxigenicity
B. Adherence factors and antiphagocycotic mechanisms
C. Intracellular and extracellular survival
D. Capsules and spreading factor
203. The bacterial toxin that attaches to the presynaptic terminals of cholinergic nerves, where it blocks the
release of acetycholine, is produced by:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
204. The bacterial toxin that causes cessation of mammalian proteinsynthesis by inactivating EF-2 of
eukaryotic cells is produced by:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
205. The bacterium that produces a toxin that activates adenylate cyclise, resulting in accumulation of cyclic
AMP in the epithelial cells of the mucosal lining is:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
206. The following statements are true about endotoxins, except:
A. they are also known as lipopolysaccharides.
B. They are integral part of the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.
C. They are normally not as toxic as bacterial exotoxins.
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C. Streptococcus
D. Clostridium
222. Which is the best method to sterilize Penicillin solution?
A. Autoclaving B. Dry heat(oven) C. Ethylene oxide D. Filtration
223. The DTP vaccine is composed of which of the following:
A. Diptheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Bordetella pertusis
B. Diptheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Pseudomonas aerginosa
C. Diptheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertusis
D. Diptheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Pseudomonas aerginosa
224. The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is composed of:
A. L-glutamic acidB. D-glutamic acid C. Polysaccharide D. Nucleic acid
225. Bacillus anthracis possesses all of the following characteristic, except:
A. It is a large, gram-positive rod
B. It is a spore former
C. It produces a potent exotoxin composed of three antigenically distinct thermolabile proteins.
D. It can live inside phagocytic cells.
226. Listeria monocytogenes has all of the following characteristics, except:
A. It is a spore former.
B. It is a short, gram-positive rod
C. It can live inside phagocytic cells.
D. It is actively motile.
227. the most important anti-phagocytic structure of the Group A streptococci:
A. M protein B. Group A carbohydrate C. Hyaluronic acid capsule D. Protein A
228. The single differentiation test between Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus:
A. Gram staining B. Catalase test C. Coagulase test D. Hemolysis test
229. An example of a streptococcal disease sequel:
A. Scarlet fever B. Pharyngitis C. Puerperal sepsis D. Rheumatic fever
230. The group A streptococci serotype most commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis:
A. 2 B. 7 C. 12 D. 19
231. The Streptococcus most commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis:
A. Sterptococcus pyogenes
B. Sterptococcus agalactiae
C. Viridans streptococci
D. Sterptococcus pneumonia
232. Which of the following does not influence the virulence of Neisseria gonorrhoea?
A. Polysaccharide capsule
B. Lipopolysaccharide endotoxin
C. Genus-specific protein
D. Production of IgA protease
233. Neisseria are all:
A. Gram positive
B. Anaerobes
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C. Coagulase positive
D. Oxidase positive
234. In the laboratory, Neisseria meningitides may be distinguished from Neisseria gonorrhoea by:
A. Its characteristic morphology and gram stain
B. Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability to grow in Thayer-Martin medium
C. The presence of pili
D. Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate
235. The most important mechanism of transmission of Pasteurella multicoda from animals to humans:
A. Blood-sucking arthropods
B. Contact with contaminated feces
C. Animal bites and scratches
D. Contact with contaminated urine
E. Handling of infected tissues
236. Which of the following statements is true about whooping cough?
A. Infants under the age of 3 months are not susceptible
B. The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract
C. Immunity is conferred by killer T cells that recognize cell wall M antigen.
D. All of the above
237. Tularemia may occur in:
A. Ulderoglandular form
B. Oculoglandular form
C. Pulmonary form
D. All of the above
238. the intestinal tract is the only natural habitat of this lactose fermenting, falcutative anaerobic, nosocomial
pathogen:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Kleibsiella pneuminiae
D. Escherichia coli
239. A gram negative, non-motile rod that produces a large mucoid colony on agar medium was isolated from
a chronically ill patient who died of pneumonia. This organism probably belongs to the genus:
A. Klebsiella B. Pseudomonas C. Proteus D. Serratia
240. A gram-negative rod was isolated from the urine of a patient suspected of having a UTI. The organism is
lactose negative, urease positive and motile. It most likely belongs to the genus:
A. proteus B. Escherichia C. Serratia D. Klebsiella
241. Leprosy may manifest itself as:
A. Lepromatous leprosy B. Tuberculoid leprosy C. A and B D. B and C
242. Secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following, except:
A. Cutaneous lesions
B. Mucous membrane lesions
C. Onset is 4 weeks or more after chancre
D. Absence of spirochetes in the lesions
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A) Taenia solium
B) Taenia saginata
C) Dipyllobotrium latum
D) Dipylidium caninum
E) Echinococcus granulosus
285. The eggs of this worm are operculated:
A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum
286. Man is often infected by peeling water chestnuts with his teeth, which contain this organism:
A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis
287. This causes Egyptian hematuria:
A) Schistosoma hematobium C) Schistosoma japonicum B) Schistosoma mansoni D) Fasciola
hepatica
288. The eggs of this organism has a rudimentary lateral spine:
A) Schistosoma hematobium C) Schistosoma japonicum B) Schistosoma mansoni D) Fasciola
hepatica
289. This organism is acquired by eating infected raw fish:
A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis
290. This is also known as the Oriental ling fluke:
A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis
291. The presence of cryoglobulins in the serum of a patient may indicate that the patient has:
A) Anemia B) Circulating immune complexes C) Hashimotos’s thyroiditis D) Pernicious
anemia
292. The Coomb’s test is the most important laboratory method in the diagnosis of:
A) Myasthenia gravis
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C) Waldenstrom’s macroglubilemia
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
293. The most important antibody that plays a role in the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosus is:
A) Antibody thyroglobuin
B) Antibody to DNA
C) Antibody to mitochondria
D) Antibody to smooth muscle
294. In the syndrome of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:
A) Streptococcal nucleases and streptolysin accumulate in the glomerular basement membrane.
B) Streptococcal capsular antigen (hyaluronic acid) and glucoronic acid subunits precipitate with
antibody and are deposited in the glomeruli in lumpy patterns.
C) Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane.
D) Hematuria is due to the action of streptolysin O.
295. In group A beta hemolytic streptococci, the types are determined by the antigenic specificity of:
A) Capsule
B) Mucopeptide layer
C) M and/or T proteins
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