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FIITJEE JEE (Main), 2015


FIITJEE Students From All Programs have bagged 34 in Top 100, 66 in Top 200 and 174 in Top 500 All India Ranks. FIITJEE Performance in JEE (Advanced), 2014:
2521 FIITJEE Students from Classroom / Integrated School Programs & 3579 FIITJEE Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE (Advanced), 2014.
FULL TEST – II

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360


 Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u l l y. Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n ut es
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.


(i) Section-A (01 to 30) contains 30 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6  1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1  1031 kg

Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2/N-m2

Density of water water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1


= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625  1034 Js
= 6.625  10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66  10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,


N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The physical quantity, electric potential (V) has dimensions [Ma Lb Tc Ad] and capacitance (c) has
e f g h
dimensions [M L T A ]. Then a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h is :
(A) zero (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) None of these

2. Mark the CORRECT statement:


(A) Two vectors are equal to each other only if their corresponding components are equal
(B) The cross product of two parallel vectors can be NON-zero
(C) The direction of a zero vector can be determined
 
(D) If we multiply A by the scalar-1, we obtain the vectors  A , which is a vector with the

opposite magnitude but the same direction as A

3. The acceleration of a particle moving only on a horizontal x-y plane is given by a = 2t î + 3t ĵ ,


where a is in meters per second squared and t is in seconds. At t = 0 the particle has the velocity
 
vector V   5.00m / s  ˆi   2.00m / s  ˆj and position vector r  10.00m  ˆi  10.0m  ˆj . At t = 6s,
the position vector of the particle is :
(A) 112m  ˆi  130m  ˆj (B) 102m  ˆi  120m  ˆj
(C)  256m  ˆi   238m  ˆj (D) None of these

Space for Rough work

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4. A child’s toy consists of three cars that are pulled in tandem on small friction less rollers (Fig. A).
The cars have masses m1, m2 and m3 (m1 < m2 < m3). If they are pulled to the right with a
horizontal force P, mark the INCORRECT statement (T = Tension in the string):

(A) TA > TB > TC, (B) TA < 2TB


(C) TB < 2TC (D) TA > 3TC

5. Four conducting plates are arranged with


equal spacing and surfaces of all the
plates are marked as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and
8 as shown. Two middle plates are given
charged +Q and –Q, after which S1 and S2
are closed. The charge distribution on the
surfaces of conducting plates from 1 to 8
in order is:

(A) O, –Q, +Q, O, O, –Q, Q, O


(B) O, –Q/3, Q/3, 2Q/3, –2Q/3, –Q/3, O
(C) O, O, O, Q, –Q, O, O, O
(D) O, –2Q/3, 2Q/3, Q/3, –Q/3, –2Q/3, 2Q/3, O

6. Consider a particle P moving on a circle of radius ‘A’ with a


constant angular speed ‘w’. RP and PQ are  to X and Y
axes respectively:
(A) The x-coordinate of the particle at time t is A sin t
(B) The particle has a non-zero displacement in a time
interval 2/
(C) R and Q execute simple harmonic motion and their
phases differ by /2
(D) If the radius of the circle is doubled, the phase
difference between R and Q would also double

Space for Rough work

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7. An infinite non conducting uniformly charged sheet has a hole of radius ‘R’ in it (change density =
). An electron is placed on an axis passing through the centre of hole and perpendicular to the
plane of sheet at a distance ‘R’ from the centre. The speed with which the electron reaches the
centre is ....
( > 0) Given : electric field on the axis of a uniformly charged disc of radius ‘r’
  x 
E(x)  1  
2   x2  r 2 
eR 2eR
(A) (B)
m 0 m 0

(C)
 
2  1 eR
(D)
2eR
m 0 m 0

8. Two thin rigid rods, AB (mass m, length ) and CD (mass


2m, length 2) are connected to make a ‘T’ as shown in
figure. The assembly is kept vertical on a frictionless
horizontal surface and is restrained to fall sidewise. What
is the least value of F to be applied horizontally at B, such
that B is able to leave contact with the surface :

(A) 3mg (B) (9/4) mg


3 3 3
(C) mg (D) mg
2 2

9. In a two block system shown in the


figure, the two blocks have velocities in
same horizontal direction. Mark the
CORRECT statement about ‘the velocity
of the centre of mass’ of the system with
respect to a stationary frame:
 
(A) Vcm is a function of time and will become O at some instant(s)

(B) Vcm is non-zero at all times
 
(C) Vcm is O at all times
 
(D) Vcm may be O at some instant(s)

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10. A block of mass m is attached to a pulley disc of same mass and radius ‘r’ by means of a block
strings a shown. The pulley is hinged about its centre on a horizontal table and the block is
projected with an initial velocity of 3 m/s. Its velocity when the string becomes taut will be:

(A) 3 m/s (B) 2 m/s


(C) 1 m/s (D) 2.5 m/s

11. Consider a plane surface of length ‘a’ and width ‘b’ which is inside a liquid of density . Find the
force on the entire surface due to the liquid in S.

gab gab
(A)
2
a  2  sin  (B)
2
a    sin2 
gab gab
(C)
2
a    sin2  (D)
4
a  2  sin2 

12. A pressure meter attached to a closed water tap reads 1 bar. When the tap speed is
10 ms–1 and the reading of the pressure meter is
(A) 1.5 × 105 Pa (B) 3 × 105Pa
5
(C) 0.5 × 10 Pa (D) 105 Pa

Space for Rough work

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13. A film of the liquid is supported in a vertical rectangular


area, the top border of which is a sliding wire. An
external force of 5 mN acts on the sliding wire of length
50 mm and linear mass density of 1.75×10–3 kg/m. Find
the surface tension of the liquid:

(A) 0.083 N/m (B) 0.041 N/m


(C) 0.1 N/m (D) 0.05 N/m

14. The magnitude of gravitational potential energy of the sun-earth system is u with zero potential
energy at infinity separation. The kinetic energy of the earth with respect to the sum is K.
(A) U < K (B) U > K
(C) U = K (D) None of these

15. Mark the CORRECT option, for stress-strain


curve of a metal wire:
(A) Curve ab represents elastic behaviour and
e denotes fracture
(B) ONLY curve ac represents elastic
behaviour
(C) Curve bd represents plastic behaviour and
e represents permanent set
(D) Point d represents fracture point and the
gap between b and d is respectively large
for brittle materials

16. Mark the CORRECT option for a gas:


(A) Heat is expelled by gas
(B) Heat is absorbed by gas
(C) Process AB is adiabatic
(D) Temperature of the gas decreases
from A to B

Space for Rough work

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17. A musical instrument has a string which is timed to frequency 400 Hz and has a length of 0.5m.
What is the third longest wavelength of resonance that reaches the ear of the listener? (Vair = 343
m/s):
(A) 0.572 m (B) 0.286 m
(C) 1.7515 m (D) 1.29 m

ART
18. The most probable speed of a gas with temperature ‘T’ and molar Mass ‘M’ is , A is a
M
dimensionless constant and R is universal gas constant in JK–1 mol–1. Four equal charges A×10–
6
C each are fixed at the four corners of a square of side 5 cm. Find the coulomb force
experienced by one of the charges due to the other three :
(A) 20 N (B) 27.5 N
(C) 44.6 N (D) 61.9 N

19. One cannot see through fog, because:


(A) Fog absorbs the light
(B) Light suffers total reflection at droplets
(C) Refractive index of the fog is infinity
(D) Light is scattered by droplets

20. The speed time graph of a car is given below the V(m/s)
car weights 1 Mg.
(A) Distance travelled in first two seconds is 30 m A B
15
(B) Acceleration of the car at t = 4s is 7.5 m/s2
(C) Braking force applied at the end of 5s to bring O 2 5 6
the Car to a stop within 1s is 15 KN t(s)
(D) (A), (B) and (C) are WRONG

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21. Electric

field due to a ‘short’ electric dipole at a point P as shown is at an angle  with respect to
p . Then

 tan    tan  
(A)     tan1   (B)     tan1  
 2   2 
 tan    tan  
(C)     tan1   (D)     tan1  
2 2  5 

22. Mark the INCORRECT statement:


(A) By convention, the charge on a plastic rod rubbed with fur is negative and the charge on a
glass rod rubbed with silk is positive.
(B) The ratio of electric force and gravitational force between a proton and electron is
ke2
 2.4  1039
Gmemp
(C) Conservation of total charge of an isolated system is a property dependent on the scalar
nature of charge.
(D) Quantisation of electric charge is a basic unexplained law of nature, interestingly; there is no
analogues law of quantisation of mass.

Space for Rough work

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23. A substance when placed in a non-uniform magnetic field is attracted towards stronger magnetic
field. That substance CAN be:
(A) Paramagnetic
(B) Diamagnetic
(C) Either Paramagnetic OR diamagnetic
(D) Neither Paramagnetic NOR diamagnetic

24. Mark the CORRECT option:


(A) A vertical plane containing the vertical axis (orthogonal to ground) and the longitude is called
the geographic meridian
(B) Geographic meridian and magnetic meridian for earth are always same at a point
(C) The dip circle is simply a compass needle pivoted about a fixed vertical axis and free to move
in a horizontal plane
(D) There is a bar magnet busied deep inside earth’s interior which gives rise to earth’s magnetic
field

25. Two resistors R and 2R are connected in parallel in an electric circuit. The thermal energy
developed in R and 2R are in the ratio:
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1

26. Consider the circuits drawn below:

All the capacitors are identical, then


(A) CCD > CEF = CAB (B) CCD > CEF > CAB
(C) CCD > CAB > CEF (D) CEF > CCD > CAB

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27. A wave front AB passing through a system C


averages as DE. The system ‘C’ CAN be
(A) a slit
(B) a biprism
(C) a prism
(D) a glass slab

28. A convex lens is made of two different materials having


radius of curvature of surface A and surface B as 25 cm and
24 cm respectively. The effective focal length of lens is
(A) 75/4 cm
(B) 75 cm
(C) 50 cm
(D) 30 cm

29. Hydrogen atom is its ground state is excited by means of monochromatic radiation of wavelength
970.6Å. How many different wavelengths are possible in the resulting EMISSION spectrum? [hc
= 1.986×10–25 J-m] :
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

30. Attenuation, when referring to communication systems, is :


(A) The process of mixing low frequency signal and a high frequency signal
(B) The weakening of a signal as it propagates through a medium
(C) The process of increasing the amplitude of a signal
(D) The process of recovering a low frequency signal from a high frequency signal

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
3
1. A particular 100-octane aviation gasoline used 1.00 cm of tetraethyl lead (C2H5)4Pb of density
1.66 g/cc, per litre of product. This compound is made as follows.
4C2H5Cl + 4NaPb  (C2H5)4Pb + 4NaCl + 3Pb. How many gram of ethyl chloride is needed to
make enough tetraethyl lead for 1 L of gasoline.
(A) 1.33g (B) 2.66 g
(C) 9.2g (D) 0.33g

2. The treatment of CH3CH = CHCH3 with NaIO4 produces


(A) CH3CHO only (B) CH3COOH only
(C) CH3CHO & CH3COOH (D) CH3COCH3 + HCOOH

3. Among the following, which exhibits aromaticity?


(A) Cyclopentadienyl cation (B) Cyclopentadienyl radical
(C) Cycloheptatrienyl radical (D) Cycloheptatrienyl cation

4. SN1 characteristics would be exhibited in the hydrolysis of


(A) chlorobenzene (B) 1-chloronapthalene
(C) propenyl chloride (D) 2-chloro-1-propene

5. The ease of dehydration of the following alcohols with H2SO4 is


(I) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3 (II) (CH3)2C(OH)CH2CH2CH3
(III) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH(CH3)2 (IV) (CH3)2C(OH)CH(CH3)2

(A) III  IV  II  I (B) III  II  IV  I


(C) II  III  I  IV (D) II  III  IV  I

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6. The solubility product of A2X3 is 1.08  10–23. Its solubility will be


(A) 1  10–3 (B) 1  10–6
–4 –5
(C) 1  10 (D) 1  10

7. When dilute H2SO4 is electrolysed between Pt electrodes, the gas liberated at the anode will be
(A) SO2 (B) SO3
(C) O2 (D) H2

8. 0.7 g of Na2CO3 .xH2O were dissolved in water and the volume was made to 100 mL. 20 mL of
this solution required 19.8 mL of N/10 HCl for complete neutralization. The value of x is
(A) 7 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 5

9. The product of reaction of an aq. solution of Bi3+ salt with sodium thiosulphate gives
(A) Bi2S3 (B) Na3[Bi(S2O3)3]
(C) Na[Bi(S2O3)2] (D) [Bi2(S2O3)2]Cl2
–7
10. The basic ionisation constant for hydrazine, N2H4 is 9.6 10 . What would be the percent
hydrolysis of 0.1 N2H5Cl?
(A) 0.016% (B) 3.2%
(C) 1.6% (D) 0.032%

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11. Which of the following combinations will act as a buffer


(A) NH3 + HCl (molar ratio 2:1) (B) HC2H3O, NaOH (Molar ratio 1:2)
(C) HCl + NaCl (D) NaOH + HC2H3O2 (1:1 molar ratio)

12. Gaseous cyclobutane isomerizes to butadiene in a first order process which has a k value at
153C of 3.3  10–4s–1. How many minutes would it take for the isomerisation to proceed 40% to
completion at this temperature?
(A) 26 min (B) 52 min
(C) 13 min (D) None of these

13. Current efficiency is defined as the extent of a desired electrochemical reaction divided by the
theoretical extent of the reaction times 100%. What is the current efficiency of an
electrodeposition of Cu metal in which 9.8 g Cu is deposited by passage of 3A current for 10000
seconds.
(A) 0.9% (B) 49.9%
(C) 99.1% (D) 51.1%

14. A 10 L cylinder of oxygen at 4 atm pressure and 17C developed a leak. When the leak was
repaired, 2.5 atm of O2 remained in the cylinder, still at 17C. The no. of moles of gas escaped.
(A) 1.2 mol (B) 0.30 mol
(C) 0.63 mol (D) 2.4 mol

15. Arrange the following in decreasing order of basicity


(I) Aniline (II) p-nitro aniline (III) N, N dimethyl aniline (IV) N, N, 2,6 tetramethylaniline

(A) I II  IV  III (B) III  IV  I  II


(C) III  I  IV  II (D) IV  III  I  II

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16. Which of the following is not linear


+
(A) Ag(NH3)2 (B) HgCl2
(C) PbCl2 (D) CS2

17. The order of enol content in the following compounds is


CH3COCH2COOEt (EtOCO)2CH2 PhCOCH2COCH3 PhCOCH2COOEt
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) II  I  III  IV (B) IV  III  II I
(C) III  IV  I  II (D) III  I  IV  II

18. All the halobenzenes are separately treated with HNO3/H2SO4. The quantity of o-product should
be maximum when the substance is
(A) Flurobenzene (B) Chlorobenzene
(C) Bromobenzene (D) Iodobenzene

19. The minimum number of carbon atoms for an alkene hydrocarbon to exhibit optical isomerism is
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) None of these

20. Bicyclohexane was found to undergo two parallel 1st order rearrangements. At 730 K the first
order rate constant for the formation of cyclohexene was 1.26  10–4 s–1 and for the formation of
methyl cyclopentene the rate constant was 3.8 10–5 s–1. What was the percentage distribution of
methyl cyclopentene.
(A) 77% (B) 23%
(C) 66% (D) 34%

21. Tf / K f has the same value of 1 mol kg-1 for 8% AB2 and 10% A2B by mass of solvent, both AB2
and A2B being non electrolytes.
Atomic masses of A and B will be respectively.
(A) 20, 40 (B) 20, 50
(C) 40, 20 (D) 50, 40

22. What will happen when D-(+)-glucose is treated with methanolic HCl followed by Tollen’s
reagent?
(A) A black ppt. will be formed. (B) A green colour will appear.
(C) A red ppt. will be formed. (D) No characteristic colour or ppt. will be
formed.

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23. The r  / r  ratio of ZnS is 0.402. Which of the following is the incorrect statement?
(A) ZnS is 4 : 4 coordination compound.
(B) ZnS does not crystallize in rock salt type lattice because r  / r  is too small to avoid
2-
overlapping of S .
2+ 2-
(C) Zn ion is too small to fit precisely into the tetrahedral voids of S ions.
2+ 2-
(D) Zn ion is too large to fit into tetrahedral voids of S ions.

24. The wavenumber of last line of Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum is 109674 cm -1. The wave
number of H line in Balmer series He+ is?
-1 -1
(A) 438696 cm (B) 106974 cm
-1 -1
(C) 30465 cm (D) 60930 cm

25. Consider the following statements


(I) NO+ is more stable towards dissociation into atoms than NO.
(II) CO+ is less stable towards dissociation into atoms than CO.
Then which of the following is correct?
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) I & II both (D) None of these

26. Below critical micelle concentration (CMC) sodium oleate in aqueous solution:
(A) exists largely as micelles of anions.
(B) dissolve substances like grease, fat etc. colloidally.
(C) increases the viscocity of water abruptly.
(D) behaves as strong electrolyte.

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27. Given that:


SHo 2  131 JK 1 mol1
S oCl2  223 JK 1 mol1
o
and SHCl  187 JK 1 mol1
The standard entropy change in formation of 1 mole of HCl (g) from H2(g) and Cl2(g) will be:
-1 -1
(A) 20 J K (B) 10 J K
-1
(C) 187 J K (D) 374 J K-1

28. The hybridization of P in PO34 is the same as that of:


(A) N in NO3 (B) S in SO3

(C) I in ICl 2 (D) I in ICl4

29. Among the following compounds which exist as solid at room temperature?
(A) XeF6 (B) OF2
(C) SF4 (D) SF6

30. Magnesium is mainly extracted by


(A) Carbon reduction method
(B) self reduction method
(C) the method of electrolysis
(D) leaching with aq. solution of NaCN followed by reduction

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If the lines represented by x 2 – 2pxy – y2 = 0 are rotated about origin through an angle , one in
clockwise direction and other in anticlockwise direction, then equation of the bisectors of the
angle between the lines in the new position is
(A) px2 + 2xy + py2 = 0 (B) px2 – 2xy + py2 = 0
2 2
(C) px – 2pxy – py = 0 (D) px2 + 2xy – py2 = 0

a11 a12 a13


2. Let D0  a21 a22 a23 and let D1 denote the determinant formed by the co-factor of elements of
a31 a32 a33
D0 and D2 denote the determinant formed by co-factor of D1 and so on. If Dn denotes the
determinant formed by the co-factor of Dn – 1, then the value of determinant Dn is
2n n
(A)  D0  (B) D02
2
(C) Dn0 (D) D20

1
3. The maximum value of f  x    t sin  x  t  dt is
0
1 2 1
(A)  4 (B) 2  4
 2
1
(C) 2  4 (D) 2  4
2 2

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4. Number of integers in the range of ‘a’ so that the equation x 3 – 3x + a = 0 has all its roots real and
distinct, is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

 2 n  1  f n 
5. f(n) = cot 2  cot 2  .....  cot 2 , (n > 1, n  N) then lim 2 is equal to
n n n n  n
1 1
(A) (B)
2 3
2
(C) (D) 1
3

2 2 2 2
6. Given two circles x + y + 3 2  x  y   0 and x + y + 5 2  x  y   0 , let the radius of a circle
2  1
which touches the two circles and their common diameter be then  equals

(A) 10 (B) 8
(C) 7 (D) 5

7. Let ABCD be a tetrahedron with AB = 41, BC = 36, CA = 7, DA = 18, DB = 27 and DC = 13, then
square of the distance between mid-points of AB and CD equals
(A) 1096 (B) 548
(C) 274 (D) 137

8. In triangle ABC, if 2b = a + c and A – C = 90º, then sin B equals


7 5
(A) (B)
5 8
7 5
(C) (D)
4 3

9. The graph of f(x) = x 2 and g(x) = cx3 intersect at two points. If area of region bounded between
 1 2 1 1 
f(x) and g(x) over the interval 0,  is equal to then the value of   2  is
 c 3 c c 
(A) 20 (B) 2
(C) 6 (D) 12

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10. The value of sec 40º + sec 80º + sec 160º will be
(A) 4 (B) –4
(C) 6 (D) 8

11. Consider the chords of the parabola y2 = 4x which touches the hyperbola x 2 – y2 = 1, the locus of
the point of intersection of the tangents drawn to the parabola at the extremities of such chords is
a conic section having latus rectum , the value of  is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

12. The area of the region bounded by lines y = x, y = 0 and


x = sin–1 (a4 + 1) + cos–1 (a4 + 1) – tan–1 (a4 + 1) is
2 a2 2 a2
(A)  (B) 
8 4 8 2
2 2
(C) (D)
16 32

13. If ax3 + by3 + cx2y + dxy2 = 0, represents three distinct straight lines, such that each line bisects
the angle between the other two, then which of the following is true
(A) 3b + c = 0 (B) 3a + d = 0
(C) d + 3a = 0 (D) b + 3c = 0

14. The number of integral value of n (where n  2) such that the equation 2n{x} = 3x + 2[x] has
exactly 5 solution (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function and {x} is fractional part of x) is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 0

15. The rth, sth, tth terms of an A.P. are 6, 8 and 12 respectively. If f(x) = tx2 + 2rx – 2s then f(x) = 0
has
(A) both roots are negative (B) both roots greater then 2
(C) one root negative other greater than 1 (D) exactly one root  (0, 1)

16. Let a, b, c, d  R be such that a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 = 25, then


25
(A) ab + bc + cd + ad  (B) ab + bc + cd + ad  25
2
5
(C) ab + bc + cd + ad  5 (D) ab + bc + cd + ad 
2

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3 sin x  a2  10a  30 x  Q


17. Let f  x    which one of the following statements is correct?
 4cos x x Q
(A) f(x) is continuous for all x when a = 5
(B) f(x) must be discontinuous for all x, when a = 5
3
(C) f(x) is continuous for all x = 2n – tan–1   , n  I, when a = 5
4
4
(D) f(x) is continuous for all x = 2n – tan–1   , n  I, when a = 5
3

18. Number of ways in which 5 alike red balls and 6 alike green balls can be arranged so that exactly
two pairs of green balls are together is
(A) 72 (B) 90
(C) 144 (D) 100

 
19. If z  2  i  z sin   arg z  , then locus of z is
4 
(A) pair of straight line (B) circle
(C) parabola (D) ellipse

20. If x, y, z are real variables such that 3 tan x + 4 tan y + 5 tan z = 20, then the minimum value of
tan2 x + tan2 y + tan2 z is
(A) 10 (B) 15
(C) 8 (D) 12

2
21. If   then cos cos 2 cos 3 ….. cos 1004 is equal to
2009
1
(A) 0 (B) 2008
2
1 1
(C) 1004 (D)  1004
2 2

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xdx
22.  is equal to
3
1 x 2
1  x 2

1 2
(A)
2

n 1  1  x2  c  (B) 3/2
c

3 1 1 x 2


(C) 2 1  1  x 2  c  (D) 2 1  1  x 2  c

x2 y 2
23. There exist two points P and Q on the hyperbola   1 such that OP  OQ (where O is
a2 b2
origin), then number of points in the xy plane from where pair of perpendicular tangents can be
drawn to the hyperbola is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) infinite

24. The shortest distance between the lines 2x + y + z – 1 = 0 = 3x + y + 2z – 2 and x = y = z is


1
(A) (B) 2
2
3 3
(C) (D)
2 2

 1 1  i 2
25. If A     (  R) is a unitary matrix then  is
1  i 1 
1 1
(A) (B)
2 3
1 2
(C) (D)
4 9

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26. Solution of equation (2 + x) dy – y dx = 0 represents a curve passing through a fixed point p, then
are of equilateral triangle with p as one vertex and x + y = 0 as its one side is
(A) 2 3 (B) 3
2 4
(C) (D)
3 3

5
 1 1 
27. The term independent of x in the expansion of  2   1  x  x 2  is
 x x 
(A) 381 (B) 441
(C) 439 (D) 359

28. If the standard deviation of the data 1, 3, 5, 7, ….., 2013 is d, then [d] is (where [.] denotes the
greatest integer function)
(A) 580 (B) 581
(C) 582 (D) 583

29. If number of different reflexive relation on set A is equal to number of different symmetric relation
on set A, then n(A) is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 3 and 7

xn1 yn2
30. If (sin–1 x + sin–1 y)(sin–1 z + sin –1 w) = 2, then the value of can not be equal to (where
zn3 w n2
n1, n2, n3, n4  N)
(A) –2 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) 2

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