Fiitjee: JEE (Main), 2015
Fiitjee: JEE (Main), 2015
guru
Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The physical quantity, electric potential (V) has dimensions [Ma Lb Tc Ad] and capacitance (c) has
e f g h
dimensions [M L T A ]. Then a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h is :
(A) zero (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) None of these
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4. A child’s toy consists of three cars that are pulled in tandem on small friction less rollers (Fig. A).
The cars have masses m1, m2 and m3 (m1 < m2 < m3). If they are pulled to the right with a
horizontal force P, mark the INCORRECT statement (T = Tension in the string):
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7. An infinite non conducting uniformly charged sheet has a hole of radius ‘R’ in it (change density =
). An electron is placed on an axis passing through the centre of hole and perpendicular to the
plane of sheet at a distance ‘R’ from the centre. The speed with which the electron reaches the
centre is ....
( > 0) Given : electric field on the axis of a uniformly charged disc of radius ‘r’
x
E(x) 1
2 x2 r 2
eR 2eR
(A) (B)
m 0 m 0
(C)
2 1 eR
(D)
2eR
m 0 m 0
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10. A block of mass m is attached to a pulley disc of same mass and radius ‘r’ by means of a block
strings a shown. The pulley is hinged about its centre on a horizontal table and the block is
projected with an initial velocity of 3 m/s. Its velocity when the string becomes taut will be:
11. Consider a plane surface of length ‘a’ and width ‘b’ which is inside a liquid of density . Find the
force on the entire surface due to the liquid in S.
gab gab
(A)
2
a 2 sin (B)
2
a sin2
gab gab
(C)
2
a sin2 (D)
4
a 2 sin2
12. A pressure meter attached to a closed water tap reads 1 bar. When the tap speed is
10 ms–1 and the reading of the pressure meter is
(A) 1.5 × 105 Pa (B) 3 × 105Pa
5
(C) 0.5 × 10 Pa (D) 105 Pa
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14. The magnitude of gravitational potential energy of the sun-earth system is u with zero potential
energy at infinity separation. The kinetic energy of the earth with respect to the sum is K.
(A) U < K (B) U > K
(C) U = K (D) None of these
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17. A musical instrument has a string which is timed to frequency 400 Hz and has a length of 0.5m.
What is the third longest wavelength of resonance that reaches the ear of the listener? (Vair = 343
m/s):
(A) 0.572 m (B) 0.286 m
(C) 1.7515 m (D) 1.29 m
ART
18. The most probable speed of a gas with temperature ‘T’ and molar Mass ‘M’ is , A is a
M
dimensionless constant and R is universal gas constant in JK–1 mol–1. Four equal charges A×10–
6
C each are fixed at the four corners of a square of side 5 cm. Find the coulomb force
experienced by one of the charges due to the other three :
(A) 20 N (B) 27.5 N
(C) 44.6 N (D) 61.9 N
20. The speed time graph of a car is given below the V(m/s)
car weights 1 Mg.
(A) Distance travelled in first two seconds is 30 m A B
15
(B) Acceleration of the car at t = 4s is 7.5 m/s2
(C) Braking force applied at the end of 5s to bring O 2 5 6
the Car to a stop within 1s is 15 KN t(s)
(D) (A), (B) and (C) are WRONG
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21. Electric
field due to a ‘short’ electric dipole at a point P as shown is at an angle with respect to
p . Then
tan tan
(A) tan1 (B) tan1
2 2
tan tan
(C) tan1 (D) tan1
2 2 5
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23. A substance when placed in a non-uniform magnetic field is attracted towards stronger magnetic
field. That substance CAN be:
(A) Paramagnetic
(B) Diamagnetic
(C) Either Paramagnetic OR diamagnetic
(D) Neither Paramagnetic NOR diamagnetic
25. Two resistors R and 2R are connected in parallel in an electric circuit. The thermal energy
developed in R and 2R are in the ratio:
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1
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29. Hydrogen atom is its ground state is excited by means of monochromatic radiation of wavelength
970.6Å. How many different wavelengths are possible in the resulting EMISSION spectrum? [hc
= 1.986×10–25 J-m] :
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
3
1. A particular 100-octane aviation gasoline used 1.00 cm of tetraethyl lead (C2H5)4Pb of density
1.66 g/cc, per litre of product. This compound is made as follows.
4C2H5Cl + 4NaPb (C2H5)4Pb + 4NaCl + 3Pb. How many gram of ethyl chloride is needed to
make enough tetraethyl lead for 1 L of gasoline.
(A) 1.33g (B) 2.66 g
(C) 9.2g (D) 0.33g
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7. When dilute H2SO4 is electrolysed between Pt electrodes, the gas liberated at the anode will be
(A) SO2 (B) SO3
(C) O2 (D) H2
8. 0.7 g of Na2CO3 .xH2O were dissolved in water and the volume was made to 100 mL. 20 mL of
this solution required 19.8 mL of N/10 HCl for complete neutralization. The value of x is
(A) 7 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 5
9. The product of reaction of an aq. solution of Bi3+ salt with sodium thiosulphate gives
(A) Bi2S3 (B) Na3[Bi(S2O3)3]
(C) Na[Bi(S2O3)2] (D) [Bi2(S2O3)2]Cl2
–7
10. The basic ionisation constant for hydrazine, N2H4 is 9.6 10 . What would be the percent
hydrolysis of 0.1 N2H5Cl?
(A) 0.016% (B) 3.2%
(C) 1.6% (D) 0.032%
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12. Gaseous cyclobutane isomerizes to butadiene in a first order process which has a k value at
153C of 3.3 10–4s–1. How many minutes would it take for the isomerisation to proceed 40% to
completion at this temperature?
(A) 26 min (B) 52 min
(C) 13 min (D) None of these
13. Current efficiency is defined as the extent of a desired electrochemical reaction divided by the
theoretical extent of the reaction times 100%. What is the current efficiency of an
electrodeposition of Cu metal in which 9.8 g Cu is deposited by passage of 3A current for 10000
seconds.
(A) 0.9% (B) 49.9%
(C) 99.1% (D) 51.1%
14. A 10 L cylinder of oxygen at 4 atm pressure and 17C developed a leak. When the leak was
repaired, 2.5 atm of O2 remained in the cylinder, still at 17C. The no. of moles of gas escaped.
(A) 1.2 mol (B) 0.30 mol
(C) 0.63 mol (D) 2.4 mol
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18. All the halobenzenes are separately treated with HNO3/H2SO4. The quantity of o-product should
be maximum when the substance is
(A) Flurobenzene (B) Chlorobenzene
(C) Bromobenzene (D) Iodobenzene
19. The minimum number of carbon atoms for an alkene hydrocarbon to exhibit optical isomerism is
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) None of these
20. Bicyclohexane was found to undergo two parallel 1st order rearrangements. At 730 K the first
order rate constant for the formation of cyclohexene was 1.26 10–4 s–1 and for the formation of
methyl cyclopentene the rate constant was 3.8 10–5 s–1. What was the percentage distribution of
methyl cyclopentene.
(A) 77% (B) 23%
(C) 66% (D) 34%
21. Tf / K f has the same value of 1 mol kg-1 for 8% AB2 and 10% A2B by mass of solvent, both AB2
and A2B being non electrolytes.
Atomic masses of A and B will be respectively.
(A) 20, 40 (B) 20, 50
(C) 40, 20 (D) 50, 40
22. What will happen when D-(+)-glucose is treated with methanolic HCl followed by Tollen’s
reagent?
(A) A black ppt. will be formed. (B) A green colour will appear.
(C) A red ppt. will be formed. (D) No characteristic colour or ppt. will be
formed.
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23. The r / r ratio of ZnS is 0.402. Which of the following is the incorrect statement?
(A) ZnS is 4 : 4 coordination compound.
(B) ZnS does not crystallize in rock salt type lattice because r / r is too small to avoid
2-
overlapping of S .
2+ 2-
(C) Zn ion is too small to fit precisely into the tetrahedral voids of S ions.
2+ 2-
(D) Zn ion is too large to fit into tetrahedral voids of S ions.
24. The wavenumber of last line of Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum is 109674 cm -1. The wave
number of H line in Balmer series He+ is?
-1 -1
(A) 438696 cm (B) 106974 cm
-1 -1
(C) 30465 cm (D) 60930 cm
26. Below critical micelle concentration (CMC) sodium oleate in aqueous solution:
(A) exists largely as micelles of anions.
(B) dissolve substances like grease, fat etc. colloidally.
(C) increases the viscocity of water abruptly.
(D) behaves as strong electrolyte.
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29. Among the following compounds which exist as solid at room temperature?
(A) XeF6 (B) OF2
(C) SF4 (D) SF6
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SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. If the lines represented by x 2 – 2pxy – y2 = 0 are rotated about origin through an angle , one in
clockwise direction and other in anticlockwise direction, then equation of the bisectors of the
angle between the lines in the new position is
(A) px2 + 2xy + py2 = 0 (B) px2 – 2xy + py2 = 0
2 2
(C) px – 2pxy – py = 0 (D) px2 + 2xy – py2 = 0
1
3. The maximum value of f x t sin x t dt is
0
1 2 1
(A) 4 (B) 2 4
2
1
(C) 2 4 (D) 2 4
2 2
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4. Number of integers in the range of ‘a’ so that the equation x 3 – 3x + a = 0 has all its roots real and
distinct, is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
2 n 1 f n
5. f(n) = cot 2 cot 2 ..... cot 2 , (n > 1, n N) then lim 2 is equal to
n n n n n
1 1
(A) (B)
2 3
2
(C) (D) 1
3
2 2 2 2
6. Given two circles x + y + 3 2 x y 0 and x + y + 5 2 x y 0 , let the radius of a circle
2 1
which touches the two circles and their common diameter be then equals
(A) 10 (B) 8
(C) 7 (D) 5
7. Let ABCD be a tetrahedron with AB = 41, BC = 36, CA = 7, DA = 18, DB = 27 and DC = 13, then
square of the distance between mid-points of AB and CD equals
(A) 1096 (B) 548
(C) 274 (D) 137
9. The graph of f(x) = x 2 and g(x) = cx3 intersect at two points. If area of region bounded between
1 2 1 1
f(x) and g(x) over the interval 0, is equal to then the value of 2 is
c 3 c c
(A) 20 (B) 2
(C) 6 (D) 12
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10. The value of sec 40º + sec 80º + sec 160º will be
(A) 4 (B) –4
(C) 6 (D) 8
11. Consider the chords of the parabola y2 = 4x which touches the hyperbola x 2 – y2 = 1, the locus of
the point of intersection of the tangents drawn to the parabola at the extremities of such chords is
a conic section having latus rectum , the value of is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
13. If ax3 + by3 + cx2y + dxy2 = 0, represents three distinct straight lines, such that each line bisects
the angle between the other two, then which of the following is true
(A) 3b + c = 0 (B) 3a + d = 0
(C) d + 3a = 0 (D) b + 3c = 0
14. The number of integral value of n (where n 2) such that the equation 2n{x} = 3x + 2[x] has
exactly 5 solution (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function and {x} is fractional part of x) is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 0
15. The rth, sth, tth terms of an A.P. are 6, 8 and 12 respectively. If f(x) = tx2 + 2rx – 2s then f(x) = 0
has
(A) both roots are negative (B) both roots greater then 2
(C) one root negative other greater than 1 (D) exactly one root (0, 1)
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18. Number of ways in which 5 alike red balls and 6 alike green balls can be arranged so that exactly
two pairs of green balls are together is
(A) 72 (B) 90
(C) 144 (D) 100
19. If z 2 i z sin arg z , then locus of z is
4
(A) pair of straight line (B) circle
(C) parabola (D) ellipse
20. If x, y, z are real variables such that 3 tan x + 4 tan y + 5 tan z = 20, then the minimum value of
tan2 x + tan2 y + tan2 z is
(A) 10 (B) 15
(C) 8 (D) 12
2
21. If then cos cos 2 cos 3 ….. cos 1004 is equal to
2009
1
(A) 0 (B) 2008
2
1 1
(C) 1004 (D) 1004
2 2
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xdx
22. is equal to
3
1 x 2
1 x 2
1 2
(A)
2
n 1 1 x2 c (B) 3/2
c
3 1 1 x 2
(C) 2 1 1 x 2 c (D) 2 1 1 x 2 c
x2 y 2
23. There exist two points P and Q on the hyperbola 1 such that OP OQ (where O is
a2 b2
origin), then number of points in the xy plane from where pair of perpendicular tangents can be
drawn to the hyperbola is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) infinite
1 1 i 2
25. If A ( R) is a unitary matrix then is
1 i 1
1 1
(A) (B)
2 3
1 2
(C) (D)
4 9
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26. Solution of equation (2 + x) dy – y dx = 0 represents a curve passing through a fixed point p, then
are of equilateral triangle with p as one vertex and x + y = 0 as its one side is
(A) 2 3 (B) 3
2 4
(C) (D)
3 3
5
1 1
27. The term independent of x in the expansion of 2 1 x x 2 is
x x
(A) 381 (B) 441
(C) 439 (D) 359
28. If the standard deviation of the data 1, 3, 5, 7, ….., 2013 is d, then [d] is (where [.] denotes the
greatest integer function)
(A) 580 (B) 581
(C) 582 (D) 583
29. If number of different reflexive relation on set A is equal to number of different symmetric relation
on set A, then n(A) is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 3 and 7
xn1 yn2
30. If (sin–1 x + sin–1 y)(sin–1 z + sin –1 w) = 2, then the value of can not be equal to (where
zn3 w n2
n1, n2, n3, n4 N)
(A) –2 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) 2
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