CHAPTER 19 AP BIOLOGY

SCORE

NAME: ____________________

DATE:_____________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the
question.

1) The simplest infectious biological systems are

A) viruses. B) bacteria. C) viroids. D) A and B. E) B and C.

2) Which of the following is a true statement about viruses?

A) Viruses are classified below the cellular level of biological organization.
B) Even small virus particles are visible with light microscopes.
C) A single virus particle contains both DNA and RNA.
D) A and B only are true.
E) A, B, and C are true.

3) A researcher lyses a cell that contains nucleic acid molecules and capsid units of tobacco mosaic virus
(TMV). The cell contents are left in a covered test tube overnight. The next day this mixture is sprayed on
tobacco plants. Which of the following would be expected to occur?
A) The plants would develop symptoms typically produced by viroids.
B) The plants would not show any disease symptoms.
C) The plants would develop the typical symptoms of TMV infection.
D) The plants would develop some but not all of the symptoms of the TMV infection.
E) The plants would become infected, but the sap from these plants would be unable to infect other
plants.

4) Which of the following is a characteristic of all viruses?

A) a protein capsid
B) nucleic acid genome
C) glycoprotein cell wall
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C

5) Viruses have some of the properties of living organisms. Which of the following is a characteristic of all
organisms, but not of viruses?
A) structure includes proteins
B) ability to control metabolism
C) genetic information stored as nucleic acid
D) ability to reproduce
E) plasma membrane

6) The host range of a virus is determined by

A) the structure of the viral capsid.
B) whether the virus nucleic acid is DNA or RNA.
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C) proteins on the surface of the cell.

D) enzymes produced by the virus before it infects the cell.
E) both A and C.

7) Viruses are referred to as obligate parasites because

A) they reproduce and then exit the cell.
B) they use the host's energy to live.
C) viral DNA inserts itself into host DNA.
D) they are nonliving.
E) they use the host cell's nucleotides and enzymes to reproduce.

8) The phage DNA is not hydrolyzed with the host DNA because
A) phage DNA contains an urecognizable form of cytosine.
B) a protein sheath protects phage DNA.
C) phage DNA remains outside the host cell.
D) the host cell ceases to function.
E) lysozyme releases phage particles before hydrolysis can occur.

9) Double-stranded viruses can reproduce the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle. Which of the following
is characterstic of the lytic cycle?
A) The viral genome replicates without destroying the host.
B) The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations.
C) Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced.
D) Viral DNA is incorporated into the host chromosomes.
E) A large number of phages are released at a time.

10) Bacteriophage DNAs that have become integrated into the host cell chromosome are called
A) plasmids.
B) T-even bacteriophages.
C) prophages.
D) transposons.
E) intemperate bacteriophages.

11) Virulent phages undergo a(n) __________ life cycle, whereas temperate phages are capable of
undergoing a(n) __________ cycle.
A) infective; retroviral
B) retroviral; infective
C) lytic; lysogenic
D) lysogenic; lytic
E) infective; benign

12) Viral envelopes are generally

A) composed of a lipid bilayer.
B) composed of protein.
C) found between the viral protein coat and its DNA.
D) composed of single-stranded RNA.
E) made of peptidoglycan cell wall material.

13) What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?

A) converts host cell RNA into viral DNA
B) hydrolyzes the host cell's DNA
C) translates viral RNA into proteins
D) uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands
E) uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis

14) What is the function of the single-stranded RNA in certain animal viruses?
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A) It becomes an mRNA.
B) It codes for an mRNA.
C) It is used as a template for the synthesis of DNA.
D) A and C only are correct.
E) A, B, and C are all correct.

15) Viruses that have a single strand of RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis are known as
A) retroviruses.
B) bacteriophages.
C) viroids.
D) proviruses.
E) lytic phages.

16) Which of the following is true of retroviruses? They

A) have the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
B) use their RNA as a template for mRNA.
C) use their RNA as a template for DNA.
D) A and C only are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.

17) Which of the following is a true statement?

A) Viruses are uncommon.
B) All viruses contain the nucleic acid RNA.
C) All viruses have a common capsid and membranous envelope.
D) Viruses only invade animal cells.
E) Viruses can cause diarrhea, colds, and measles.

18) For many bacteriophages, infections are self-limiting. Each phage that infects a cell produces
hundreds of new phages, and eventually cells are infected by several phages at different times. This
results in a competition for regulatory control over the cell, with the eventual result of the death of the cell
without the production of new viruses. This phenomenon is called superinfection. Superinfection can be
prevented by which of the following changes in the bacteriophage?
A) slowing down the rate of the lytic infection
B) evolving a more complex protein coat
C) the virus becoming a prophage in the cell
D) making larger numbers of new phages
E) restricting the host range of the phage

19) RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation because

A) RNA nucleotides are more unstable than DNA nucleotides.
B) RNA viruses can incorporate a variety of nonstandard bases.
C) RNA viruses respond more to mutagens.
D) RNA viruses replicate faster.
E) replication of their nucleic acid does not involve the proofreading steps of DNA replication.

20) Which of the following does not contribute to the emergence of viral disease?
A) dissemination from a small, isolated host population
B) transformation from lytic to lysogenic activity
C) spread of existing virus from one host to another
D) production of new strains of virus through mutation

21) Which of the following is true of plant virus infections?

A) They have little effect on plant growth.
B) They can be controlled by the use of antibiotics.
C) They are spread throughout a plant by passing through the plasmodesmata.
D) A and B only are correct.
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E) A, B, and C are correct.

22) Which of the following represents a difference between viruses and viroids?
A) Viruses cannot pass through plasmodesmata; viroids can.
B) Viruses have genomes composed of DNA, while viroids have genomes composed of RNA.
C) Viruses have capsids composed of protein, while viroids have no capsids.
D) Viruses infect many types of cells, while viroids infect only prokaryotic cells.
E) Viruses contain introns; viroids have only exons.

23) What are prions?

A) A mobile segment of DNA.
B) Misfolded versions of normal brain protein.
C) Viral DNA that has had to attach itself to the host genome.
D) Viruses that invade bacteria.
E) Tiny molecules of RNA that infect plants.

24) Of the following, which is least related to the others?

A) prions
B) provirus
C) prophage
D) viral envelope
E) viroids

25) Most molecular biologists believe that viruses originated from fragments of cellular nucleic acid.
Which of the following observations supports this theory?
A) Viruses can infect both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
B) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA.
C) Viral genomes are usually more similar to the genome of the host cell than to the genome of other
cells.
D) Viruses can reproduce only inside host cells.
E) Viruses are enclosed in protein capsids rather than plasma membranes.

26) Reproduction in bacteria requires

A) replication of DNA.
B) the production of a mitotic spindle.
C) a plasmid.
D) cyclic AMP.
E) both B and D.

27) What is the most common source of genetic diversity in a bacterial colony?
A) mutation
B) plasmids
C) meiotic recombination
D) crossing over
E) transposons

28) In which of the following cases would a mutation have the most significant impact on the genetic
diversity of a species?
A) The species reproduces only asexually.
B) The species usually reproduces asexually, but can reproduce sexually when conditions become
unfavorable.
C) The species reproduces only sexually.
D) The species has a relatively long reproductive cycle.
E) The species' reproductive cycle is unpredictable.

29) The alteration of a cell's genotype by the uptake of naked, foreign DNA from surrounding
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environments is called
A) transduction.
B) conjunction.
C) prionization.
D) transformation.
E) horizontal transmission.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the
question.
Use the following answers for the following questions. The answers may be used once, more than once,
or not at all.

A. transduction
B. transposition
C. translation
D. transformation
E. conjugation

30) External DNA is assimilated by a cell.

31) DNA from pneumonia-causing bacteria is mixed with harmless bacteria. The bacteria are injected into
mice. The mice develop pneumonia and die.

32) Bacteria have proteins on the surface that recognize and take in DNA from closely related species.

33) DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus.

34) Bacterial strains A and B are growing together in a colony that has been infected with viruses. After a
short period of time, a new strain of bacteria is detected that is very similar to strain A but has a few
characteristics of strain B.

35) A group of F+ bacteria is mixed with a group of F to power of (-) bacteria. After several days, all of
the bacteria are F+.

36) A plasmid is exchanged between bacteria through a pilus.

37) Movement of a sequence of DNA to alternative locations in the DNA.

38) DNA is present that does not provide any known benefit to the cell, yet is replicated each time the
genome replicates.

39) Antibiotic-resistant genes from different plasmids are found integrated into one large plasmid.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the
question.
40) What does bacterial mating involve?
A) exchange of egg and sperm
B) formation of a conjugation tube for the transfer of male DNA
C) sex pili that draw the cells together so mRNA can be inserted
D) binary fission of a bacterial cell
E) integration of male and female DNA into a conjugation tube

41) An Hfr bacterium is one that has

A) a plasmid that has become integrated into its chromosome.
B) several copies of a single transposon repeated randomly throughout its chromosome.
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C) several insertion sequences scattered throughout its chromosome.

D) a special recognition site that will take up closely related DNA from its environment.
E) at least one plasmid present in the cytosol.

42) All of the following statements regarding transposons are true except:
A) Transposons are found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
B) Transposons may carry only the genes necessary for insertion.
C) Transposons may replicate at the original site and insert the copy at another site.
D) Transposons are genes that encode sex pili and enable plasmid transfers between bacteria.
E) Transposons can move from a plasmid to the bacterial circular chromosome.

43) A composite transposon can

A) convert an F to power of (+) to an F to power of (-) bacterium.
B) repress gene expression.
C) adjust the rates of metabolic pathways.
D) facilitate bacterial resistance to antibiotics.
E) reverse the direction of transcription.

44) Of the following, which is least related to the others?

A) prion
B) regulatory gene
C) operator
D) promoter
E) repressor

45) What does the operon model attempt to explain?

A) the control mechanism of gene expression in bacteria
B) how genes move between homologous regions of DNA
C) horizontal transmission of plant viruses
D) bacterial resistance to antibiotics
E) the mechanism of viral attachment to a host cell

46) All of the following consist of a sequence of nucleotide bases except

A) regulator gene.
B) operator.
C) repressor.
D) promoter.
E) structural gene.

47) The role of a metabolite that controls a repressible operon is to

A) bind to the repressor protein and inactivate it.
B) bind to the repressor protein and activate it.
C) bind to the operator region and block the attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
D) increase the production of inactive repressor proteins.
E) bind to the promoter region and decrease the affinity of RNA polymerase for the promoter.

48) The tryptophan synthetase operon uses glucose to synthesize tryptophan. Repressible operons such
as this one are
A) permanently turned on.
B) turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
C) turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
D) turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
E) turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the
question.
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For the following questions, match the following terms with the appropriate phrase or description below.
Each term can be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. operon
B. operator
C. promoter
D. repressor
E. corepressor

49) a protein that is produced by a regulatory gene

50) A mutation in this section of DNA could influence the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA.

51) A lack of this nonprotein molecule would result in the inability of the cell to "turn off" genes.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the
question.
52) A mutation that inactivates the regulator gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in
A) complete inhibition of transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.
B) inactivation of RNA polymerase.
C) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.
D) irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator.
E) both B and C.

53) When is the lactose operon likely to be transcribed? When

A) there is more lactose in the cell than glucose.
B) there is more glucose in the cell than lactose.
C) there is lactose but no glucose in the cell.
D) the cyclic AMP levels are high within the cell.
E) both C and D are correct.

54) Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon

A) starts when the pathway's product is present.
B) stops when the pathway's product is present.
C) starts when the pathway's substrate is present.
D) does not produce enzymes.
E) occurs all the time.

55) What is the function of the operator locus of the lactose operon?
A) terminate production of repressor molecules
B) initiate production of mRNA
C) identify the substrate allolactose
D) bind steroid hormones and control translation
E) control the binding of RNA polymerase to the operator region

56) For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must be true?
A) RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present.
B) RNA polymerase must not occupy the promoter and the repressor must be inactive.
C) RNA polymerase cannot be present and the repressor must be inactive.
D) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter and the repressor must be inactive.
E) A corepressor must be present.

57) Of the following, which is least related to the others?

A) corepressor
B) cAMP receptor protein
C) transposon
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D) inducer
E) repressor
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1) Answer: C

2) Answer: A

3) Answer: C

4) Answer: D

5) Answer: E

6) Answer: E

7) Answer: E

8) Answer: A

9) Answer: E

10) Answer: C

11) Answer: C

12) Answer: A

13) Answer: E

14) Answer: D

15) Answer: A

16) Answer: D

17) Answer: E

18) Answer: C

19) Answer: E

20) Answer: B

21) Answer: A

22) Answer: C

23) Answer: B

24) Answer: D

25) Answer: C

26) Answer: A

27) Answer: A

28) Answer: A
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29) Answer: D

30) Answer: D

31) Answer: D

32) Answer: D

33) Answer: A

34) Answer: A

35) Answer: E

36) Answer: E

37) Answer: B

38) Answer: B

39) Answer: B

40) Answer: B

41) Answer: A

42) Answer: D

43) Answer: D

44) Answer: A

45) Answer: A

46) Answer: C

47) Answer: B

48) Answer: D

49) Answer: D

50) Answer: C

51) Answer: E

52) Answer: C

53) Answer: E

54) Answer: C

55) Answer: E

56) Answer: D
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57) Answer: C