PRE-ENTRANCE TEST AND SCIENCE COACHING ANSARI MUHALLA LARKANA

EXCELLENT COACHING BY EXPERIENCED TEACHERS

Class: First Year Test: Grand Test Date: 16/04/2023

BIOLOGY
1. ___________ of HIV stick to the receptor of host cell
A) Spikes B) Envelop C) Tail fibers D) RNA
2. Enveloped virus infects/enters the host cell through:
A) Endocytosis B) Direct penetration
C) Injecting nucleic acid D) Endocytosis through chemical stimulators
3. In the structure of HIV, gp120 is responsible for the formation of
A) Matrix B) Capsid C) Core D) Spikes
4. In which of these characteristics, viruses resemble living organisms?
A) Lack of cytoplasm B) Lack of respiration C) Occurrence of mutations
D) Occurrence of metabolic reactions E) None of these
5. Cauliflower mosaic virus can be identified by its:
A) Tadpole shape B) Tubular shape C) Rod shape D) Spherical shape
6. Life cycle of HIV consists of series of steps to multiply in the body. Which of the following series is
correct?
A) Fusion → Binding → Integration → Replication → Reverse transcription → Assembly → Budding
B) Binding → Fusion → Integration → Replication → Reverse transcription → Assembly → Budding
C) Binding → Fusion → Integration → Reverse transcription → Replication → Assembly → Budding
D) Binding → Fusion → Replication → Reverse transcription → Integration → Assembly → Budding
E) Binding → Fusion → Reverse transcription → Integration → Replication → Assembly → Budding
7. Which of the following virus is responsible for the Hemorrhagic fever?
A) Chikungunya virus B) Dengue virus C) Ebola virus
D) Begomovirus E) HSV
8. Which of the following is the first step in the replication of bacteriophage?
A) Replication B) Penetration C) Attachment D) Injection
9. The capsid of tobacco virus mosaic virus has capsomeres numbering of
A) 1230 B) 2130 C) 2310 D) 3120
10. Study the given figure of structure of Virus and select the option that correctly identifies the
labellings A and B

A) ssDNA Capsomeres B) dsDNA Capsomeres

C) ssRNA Capsomeres D) dsRBA Tail fibres
11. Viral DNA is incorporated in to Bacterial DNA is called?
A) T4 phage B) Bacteriophage C) Prophage D) Lytic phage
12. Which protist reproduce both by binary fission and gametic fussion?
A) Amoeba B) Paramecium C) Monocystis D) Plasmodium
13. Which of the following classes of protozoa is exclusively endoparasite?
A) Mastigophora B) Sarcodina C) Rhizopoda D) Sporozoa
14. Which of the following statement is true about Protozoa?
A) Protozoans form a small group of protoctista
B) All the classes of protozoa have one nucleus
C) Monocystist belong to the class Suctoria
D) Conjugation in protozoa is found in class ciliata
E) None of the above
15. Which of the following is a flagellated protozoan?
A) Amoeba B) Entamoeba C) Plasmodium
D) Trypnosoma E) Paramecium
16. Presence of two types of nuclei, micronucleus and macronucleus, is characteristic of protistan
group
A) Sporozoa B) Ciliata C) Flagellata D) Sarcodina
17. Which of the following does not belong to kingdom protista?
A) Porphyra B) Laminaria C) Volvox
D) Myxomycota E) Poread mold
18. Lichen is
A) Saprophytic B) Parasitic C) Holozoic D) Autotrophic
19. Scientific name of mushroom is?
A) Agaricus campestris B) Sycopodium phlegmaria
C) Anthoceros fusiformis D) Ginko biloba
20. Dikaryon formation occurs in
A) Phycomcytes and slime mold B) Ascomycetes and slime mold
C) Ascomycetess and Basidomycetes D) Phycomycetes and Basidomycetes
21. Asexual reproduction in fungi takes place by
A) Endospore B) Gamentagia C) Conidiospore D) None of these
22. Which pair of the following belongs to basidiomycetes?
A) Puff balls and mildew B) Penicillium and Mucor
C) Mushroom and Cup fungi D) Toad stool and bracket fungi
23. Which of the following is the fungal disease?
A) Plaque B) Diphtheria C) Yellow fever
D) Moniliasis E) Chicken pox
24. For defense against virus attacks, body produces:
A) Antibodies B) Histamines C) Antigens D) Interferons
25. A temperate bacteriophage:
A) Causes complete bursting of the infected bacterial cell after the latent period
B) Does not cause complete bursting of the infected bacterial cell after the latent period
C) Does not cause the death of the infected bacterial cell but the infected cell ceases to divide
D) Does not cause the death of the infected bacterial cell but continues to exist there and this cell
divides almost like a normal cell
E) None of the above
26. Cellulose is predominantly present in the cell walls of
A) Basidiomycetes B) Ascomycetes C) Oomycetes
D) Duteromycetes E) None of these
27. Which of the following is a micronutrient?
A) Sulfur B) Boron C) Phosphorus D) Calcium
28. Which of the following is not an essential mineral element for plants?
A) Nickle B) Cobalt C) Manganese D) Boron
29. Which of the following is not caused by deficiency of mineral nutrition?
A) Necrosis B) Chlorosis C) Etiolation D) Shortening of internodes
30. Which of the following is associated with electron transport reactions of photosynthesis and
respiration?
A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Iron D) Cobalt
31. Presence of phosphorus in a plant
A) Brings about healthy root growth B) Promotes fruit ripening
C) Involved in formation of cell-membrane D) Involved in formation of nucleic acid
E) All of the above
32. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given?

Column I Column II

A Nitrogen 1 Used in formation of

aminoacids

B Iron 2 Constituent of
protein

C Zinc 3 Constituent of
Cytochrome

D Sulphur 4 Alcohol
fermentation

A) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 B) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

C) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 D) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
33. The response of plant for flower initiation, to the relative length of day or night is called
A) Phototropism B) Photoperiodism C) Photonasty D) Photoreception
34. Which of the following belongs to the day neutral plant?
A) Rice B) Soya bean C) Onion D) Tomato E) Potato
35. Which hormone cause adventitious root formation incutting of branches?
A) Gibberellin B) Auxin C) Cytokinin D) ABA
36. Which of the following is used as weedicide?
A) 4-chloro Indole acetic acid B) Phenyl acetic acid C) Indole-3 butyric acid
D) Napthalene acetic acid E) 2,4- dichloro-phenoxy acetic acid
37. During drought condition plant produce a hormone known as
A) Indole acetic acid B) Ethylene C) Abscisic acid D) Indole butyric acid
38. The pigment which absorb red and far red light in plant is:
A) Xanthphyll B) Cytochrome C) Phytochrome D) Carotene
39. Which of the following is the correct combination regarding photoperiodism?
A) Hibiscus – long day plant B) Potato- short day plant
C) Cotton- Short day plant D) Soyabean-long day plant
40. The elongated narrow thick walled lignified cells having tapering ends are known as
A) Vessels B) Seieve tube C) Tracheids D) Companian cells
41. Which of the following hormone produce amylase enzyme?
A) Auxin B) Gibberellins C) Phenylalanine D) Cytokinin
42. Examine the figure of gastric gland given below and identify the labeled parts X, Y and Z

X Y Z

A Zymogen cell Oxyntic cell Enteroendocrine cell

B Oxyntic cell Zymogen cell Enteroendocrine cell

C Zymogen cell Enteroendocrine cell Oxyntic cell

D Enteroendocrine cell Zymogen cell Oxyntic cell

43. Which of the following is/are proteolytic enzyme?

A) Pepsin B) Trypsin C) Chymosin
D) Both A and B E) All of the above
44. The duodenum contains specific gland which produce a mucus-rich alkaline secretion
containing bicarbonate ions:
A) Acinous gland B) Tubular gland C) Brunner’s gland D) Apocrine gland
45. Which of the following hormones stimulate the release of Bile and bicarbonate?
A) Insulin and glucagon B) Cholecystokinin and secretin
C) Gastrin and insulin D) Enterokinase and secretin
46. Consider the following statements with reference to the digestive system in humans
1. The bile juice is produced by gall bladder
2. The digestion of protein starts in small intestine
3. The bile is yellowish green in color and it contains water, salt and lipase
Which of the following statements given above are not true?
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 2 only
D) 2 and 3 only E) 1,2 and 3
47. Which of the following glands secretes the hormone secretin?
A) Pancreas B) Stomach C) Liver
D) Duodenum E) Jujenum
48. Which of the following statement is true?
A) Stomach is C – shaped B) Ileum is the middle part of small intestine
C) Caecum opens into the colon D) Caecum is located in the lower left side of abdominal cavity
49. In human digestive system maximum digestive activity occur in the first part of small intestine.
Name the sphincter which drains maximum exocrine secretion in this part?
A) Lower esophageal sphincter B) Pyloric sphincter
C) Sphincter of Oddi D) Cardiac sphincter
50. The wall of alimentary canal from oesophagous to rectum posses four layers. The sequence of
these layers is?
A) Serosa → Mucosa → Submucosa → Muscularis
B) Muscularis → Serosa → Mucosa → Submucosa
C) Serosa → Muscularis → Mucosa → Submucosa
D) Serosa → Muscularis → Submucosa → Mucosa
51. The diagram shows the structure of a villus in the small intestine Identify the labeled 1, 2 and 3

A) 1 – epithelial cell, 2 – Lacteal, 3 – capillary network

B) 1 – epithelial cell, 2 – capillary network, 3 –Lacteal
C) 1 – epithelial cell, 2 – lymph vessel, 3 –Lacteal
D) 1 – capillary network, 2 – epithelial cell, 3 –Lacteal
E) 1 – epithelial cell, 2 – Lacteal, 3 – lymph vessel
52. The diagram shows the human digestive system.

Which structures make the enzymes that breaks down starch?

A) W and X only B) W and Y only C) X and Y only D) Y and Z only
53. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through dental check-up. The
dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth Which teeth were absent?
A) Canines B) Pre-molars C) Molars D) Incisors
54. The number of molars, premolars, canines and incisors in upper jaw of adult humans are
respectively:
A) 2 1 2 3 B) 6 4 2 4 C) 4 2 4 6 D) 12 8 4 8
55. At which cell layer, water movement through the apoplast pathway is restricted and is
facilitated towards symplast pathway?
A) Cortex B) Pericycle C) Epidermis D) Endodermis
56. What will happen if bile duct gets obstructed?
A) Faeces become dry B) Acidic chyme will not be neutralized
C) There will be little digestion in intestine D) Little digestion of fat will occur
57. Following are given parts of small and large intestine.
(i) Cecum (ii) Colon
(iii) Jejunum (iv) Rectum
(v) Duodenum (vi) Ileum
Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in the order food passes through them from
the small intestine to the anus.
A) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (v) – (vi) B) (v) – (iii) – (vi) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)
C) (iv) – (v) – (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (vi) D) (iii) – (v) – (vi) – (ii) – (i) – (iv)
58. Choose the organ of digestive system which have oblique muscles:
A) Esophagous B) Stomach C) Duodenum D) Ileum
59. Loss of appetite due to fear of becoming obese is symptom of?
A) Bulimia nervosa B) Anorexia nervosa C) Obesity D) Tay sach’s disease
60. Absorption of Vitamin B12 is enabled by ________ secreted by parietal cells:
A) An intrinsic factor B) An extrinsic factor C) HCl D) Pepsinogen
61. Food is diverted in the esophagus by:
A) Glottis B) Cheeks C) Tongue D) Epiglottis
62. Food enters from stomach into small intestine through:
A) Pyloric sphincter B) Semilunar valve C) Cardia sphincter D) Diaphragm
63. The ―QRS‖ wave of an ECG is produced by
A) Depolarization of atria B) Repolarization ventricles
C) Depolarization of ventricles D) Both B and C
64. The ―lub‖ or first heart sound is produced by closing of
A) Aortic semi lunar valve B) Pulmonary semi lunar valve
C) Tricuspid valve D) Bicuspid valve
E) Both AV valve
65. Which of the following statements is correct about the heart?
A) The right ventricle pumps blood to the aorta
B) The left ventricle pumps blood to the entire body
C) The right atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs
D) The right atrium pumps blood to the right ventricle
E) The right ventricle has the thickest wall of all the chambers
66. Which of the following statement best describes the function of sinoatrial node?
A) It sends out electrical impulses to ventricles to contract
B) It is present at upper end of left atrium
C) It consists of small number of diffusely oriented cardiac fibers
D) It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract
67. Humans have two-circuit circulatory system, one circuit is for pulmonary circulation and other
is for
A) Cardiac circulation B) Cerebral circulation
C) Systemic circulation D) Hepatic circulation
68. Flow of blood in the capillaries is adjusted by
A) Heart beat B) SAN C) AVN D) Pre-capillary sphincter
69. Which blood vessels change their resistance to blood flow to regulate distribution of blood to
organs?
A) Arteries B) Arterioles C) Veins D) Capillaries
70. Open type of blood vascular system is found in
A) Earthworm B) Lizard C) Toad D) Grasshopper
71. During cardiac cycle, what causes the flaps of bicuspid valve to close?
A) A nervous impulse to the valve of flaps B) Contraction of the tendons attached to the valve flaps
C) Contraction of valve flap D) Pressure of blood as the left ventricle contracts
72. Match the following columns and select the correct match.

Column-I Column-II

A Heart attack 1 Not enough oxygen is

reaching heart muscles
leading to chest pain

B Heart failure 2 Heart is not pumping

blood effectively to
meet the body’s demand

C Angina 3 Heart muscles suddenly

damaged by inadequate
blood supply

A) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3 B) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
C) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1 D) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2
73. The opening of the right and left ventricles into the pulmonary artery and the aorta
respectively are provided by
A) Mitral valve B) Semilunar valve C) Tricuspid valve D) Bicuspid valve
74. Select the correct sequence for human circulation.
A) Heart – vein – capillary – artery – heart
B) Heart – artery – lung – vein – body systems – heart
C) Heart – artery – lungs – vein – heart – body systems
D) Body systems – lungs – heart – vein – capillary – artery
E) Heart – artery – lungs – body systems – vein – heart
75. Hardening of the arteries due to deposition of cholesterol is called
A) Thrombosis B) Rhinitis C) Angina D) Atherosclerosis
76. Refer to the following diagram of a human heart.

Which structures carry poor in oxygen?

A) 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 B) 1, 6, 7, 8 and 9,
C) 2, 6, 7, 8 and 9 D) 1, 3, 4, and 5
77. Which of the following is the pacemaker of the heart?
A) Foramen ovale B) Sinoatrial node C) Ductus arteriosus
D) Bundle of his E) Vagus nerve
78. Which structures are directly involved in the pulmonary circulation?
A) Right atrium, aorta and left ventricle
B) Left ventricle, aorta and inferior vena cava
C) Superior vena cava, right atrium and left ventricle
D) Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries and left atrium
79. If spleen is removed from the body of an adult man then
A) Filtration of dead RBC will stop
B) Antibody production will be less
C) RBC production will be lowered
D) WBC production will be lowered
80. The blood circulation which starts and ends into capillaries is:
A) Renal circulation B) Portal circulation
C) Lymphatic circulation D) Hepatic circulation
 CHEMISTRY FIRST YEAR
81. Which of the following has same mole ratio atoms?
a) 7 g of N and 12 g of Na b) 20 g of Na and 20 g of Ca
c) 14 g of N and 24 g of Mg d) 10 g of Ca and 6 g of C
82. What is the average molecular weight of a gas containing 20% N2 (molecular wt. = 28) and
80% SO2 (molecular wt. = 64)?
a) 28.4 b) 56.8 c) 24.4 d) 48.8
23 -1 20 -1
83. If Avogadro number is changed from 6.022 x 10 mol to 6.022 x 10 mol it would change
a) The definition of mass in grams b) the mass of one mole of carbon
c) The ratio of chemical species in a balanced equation d) empirical formula of substance
84. Which one of the following pairs of gases contains the same number of molecules?
a) 16 g of O2 and 14 g of N2 b) 8 g of O2 and 22 g of CO2
c) 28 g of N2 and 22 g of CO2 d) 32 g of O2 and 32 g of N2
85. Which property of an element is always a whole number?
a) Atomic weight b) Equivalent weight c) Atomic number d) Atomic volume
86. The element whose 2 gram atoms weigh 8g is
a) Hydrogen b) Helium c) Oxygen d) Sulphur
87. A molar solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in
a) 1000 g of the solvent b) One litre of the solvent
c) One litre of the solution d) 22.4 litres of the solution
88. 2g of oxygen contains number of atoms equal to that in
a) 0.5 g of hydrogen b) 4g of Sulphur c) 7g of nitrogen d) 2.3 g of sodium
–24
89. The mass of one atom of an unknown element is 4 x 1.66 × 10 g. The element is
a) Hydrogen b) Helium c) Oxygen d) Sulphur
90. An orbital is having n = 3 and l = 2, the number of electrons it can occupy are
a) 6 b) 14 c) 10 d) 2
91. A subshell of an atom contains a maximum of _____ electrons.
a) 4l – 2 b) 4l + 2 (c) 2l + 1 d) 2n2
92. Which series is found in U.V region of hydrogen spectrum?
a) Pfund b) Bracket c) Lyman d) paschen
93. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired ‗d‘ electrons?
a) Zn2+ b) Fe2+ c) Ni3+ d) Cu+
94. Bond energy refers to the
a) Energy required to make a mole of a compound
b) Energy required to break a mole of a compound
c) Energy released when ions combine to form ionic bond
d) All are correct
95. The percentage of ionic character in covalent bond is directly proportional to
a) Difference in size of atoms
b) Difference in ionization potential of atoms
c) Difference in electronegativity of atoms
d) Difference in electron affinity of atoms
96. The shortest bond C-C bond length is in
a) Benzene b) diamond c) ethylene d) acetylene
97. The bond having highest bond energy will be
a) C=C b) C=S c) C=N d) C=O
98. Antibonding molecular orbitals are produced by
a) Constructive interaction of atomic orbitals.
b) Destructive interaction of atomic orbitals.
c) The overlap of the atomic orbitals of two negative ions
d) The overlap of the atomic orbitals of two positive ions
99. Dalton's law of partial pressure will not apply to which of the following mixture of gases
a) H2 and SO2 b) H2 and Cl2 c) H2 and CO2 d) CO2 and Cl2
100. Which of the following is NOT true of Raoult's law?
a) Raoult's law applies to miscible solvents in a closed system
b) The toluene-benzene mixtures obey Raoult's law
c) vapour pressure is directly proportional to mole fraction of solute
d) vapour pressure is directly proportional to mole fraction of solvent
101. Which of the following quantity is kept constant in Boyle‘s law?
a) Gas mass only b) Gas Temperature only
c) Gas Mass and Gas Pressure d) Gas Mass and Gas Temperature
102. A sample of hydrogen has a volume of 25 L at 5 atm. What will the pressure of if the volume is
decreased to 5 L?
a.25 atm b.15 atm c.10 atm d.5 atm e.1 atm
103. He momentary attractions between the molecules of a liquid caused by instantaneous dipole
and induced-dipole attractions are called
a) Van der Waals forces b) polar forces c) French forces d) London forces
104. Crystallites are present in
a) Crystalline solids b) Amorphous solids
c) Liquid crystals d) All of the above
105. All are the types of symmetry in crystals are except
a) axis of symmetry b) plane of symmetry c) centre of symmetry . d) face symmetry
106. The value of lattice energy is affected by
a) Size and charge of ions b) size of ions only c) charge of ions only d) mass of ions
107. 5. _________ is a crystalline‘s basic repetitive structural unit.
a) Monomer b) Molecule c) Unit cell d) Atom
107. Rate of diffusion of a gas is ————
a) Directly proportional to its density
b) Directly proportional to its molecular mass
c) Directly proportional to the square of its molecular mass
d) Inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass
108. Non-ideal gases approach ideal behaviour under:
a) High temperature and high pressure b) high temperature and low pressure
c) Low temperature and high pressure d) low temperature and low pressure
109. The strong repulsive forces among the molecule of the gas:
a) Depends on Z and indicates that Z = 1 b) depends on Z and indicates that Z > 1
c) Depends on Z and indicates that Z<1 d) is independent of Z
110. At higher altitudes:
a) Boiling point of a liquid decreases b) Boiling point of a liquid increases
c) No change in boiling point d) Melting point of solid increases
111. The correct order of evaporation for water, alcohol, petrol and kerosene oil:
a) Water > alcohol > kerosene oil > petrol b) Alcohol > petrol > water > kerosene oil
c) Petrol > alcohol > water > kerosene oil d) Petrol > alcohol > kerosene oil > water
112. Which one is a sublime substance?
a) Table salt b) Sugar c) Iodine d)Potassium iodide
113. All are intermolecular force between molecules except
a) Coordinate covalent bonds b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Debye forces d) London dispersion forces
114. The vapour pressure of water at 300 K in a closed container is 0.4 atm. If the volume of
container is doubled, its vapour pressure at 300 K will be
a) 0.8 atm b) 0.2 atm c) 0.4 atm d) 0.6
115. Which in correct statement
a) Gases have least compressibility b) Molecules of a solid possess vibratory motion
c) The density of solid is highest d) Molecules of a solid possess least energy
116. ∘ ∘
If 300 ml of a gas at 27 C is cooled to 7 C at constant pressure, its final volume will be-
a) 135 ml b) 540 ml c) 350 ml d) 280 ml
+ – -5
117. The molar concentration of Ag and Cl is 1.0 x 10 M each in AgCl. What is the value of Ksp?
a) 1.0 x 10-5 b) 0.1 x 10-5 c) 1.0 x 10-15 d) 1.0 x 10-10
118. The pH of 10-4 mole dm-3of HCl:
a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 5
119. If a buffer solution of higher pH than seven is to be made we use
a) Strong acid and strong base b) Weak acid and its salt with weak base
c) Weak acid and strong base d) Weak base and its salt with strong acid
120. The active mass of 64 g of HI in a 2 L flask? (At. wt. of I = 127)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 0.25
121. The unit of Kp in the following reaction is N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇄ 2NH3 (g)
a) atm b) atm–2 c) atm2 d) atm–1
122. Reaction A (g) + B (g) ⇄ C (g) + D (g). If the concentration of A is doubled then
a) Equilibrium constant (Kc) will be doubled
b) Equilibrium constant (Kc) will be halved
c) Equilibrium constant (Kc) remains unaffected
d) Equilibrium constant (Kc) will become four times
123. Which salt is acidic in nature?
a) NH4Cl b) CH3COONH4 c) NaCl d) Na2CO3
124. Methyl orange is
a) Red in acidic medium, yellow in basic medium
b) Yellow in acidic medium, pink in basic medium
c) Colourless in acidic medium, pink in basic medium
d) Pink in acidic medium, colourless in basic medium
125. Leveling effect is a phenomenon in which acids have
a) Same pH values b) Same ka values c) different Ka value d) same smell
126. Which statement is incorrect for Bronsted concept of acids and bases?
a) Bases donate OH ions b) A base can accept a proton
c) An acid can donate a proton d) acids donate electron pair
127. Which is correct In the equation given: HF + H2O= H3O+ + F-
a) H2O is a base and HF is its conjugate acid.
b) H2O is an acid and HF is the conjugate base.
c) HF is an acid and F- is its conjugate base.
d) HF is a base and H3O+ is its conjugate acid.
128. Which of these is not a true statement?
a) All Lewis bases are also Bronsted-Lowry bases. b) All Lewis acids contain hydrogen.
c) All Bronsted-Lowry acids contain hydrogen. d) Water is both Bronsted-Lowrys acid and base.
-
129. What is the conjugate acid of HSO4 ?
a) H2SO4 c) SO4- b) H2S2O7 d) SO4-2
130. Which one will change from blue litmus to red?
a) NaCl b) HCl c) KOH d) LiOH
131. When the concentration of reactants is unity then the rate is called
a) Specific rate constant b) average rate constant
c) Instantaneous rate constant d) normal rate constant
132. When the rate of the reaction is equal to the rate constant, the order of the reaction is
a) Zero order b) first order c) second order d) third order
133. In rate expression, if the concentration of reactants is negative, it shows that
a) The concentration of reactant does not change
b) The concentration of product increases
c) The concentration of reactant decreases
d) The concentration of reactant increases
134. If a reaction‘s rate is represented as rate = A [A]² [B], the reaction‘s order will be
a) 2 b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 0.
135. The number of molecules of the reactants involved in the reaction is called
a) The order of the reaction b) the molecularity of the reaction
c) The mechanism of reaction d) half-life of reaction
136. Fog is an example of which of the following colloidal system?
a) Liquid dispersed in gas b) Gas dispersed in gas
c) Solid dispersed in gas d) Solid dispersed in liquid
137. Which of the following is the correct order of size of particle?
a) Suspension > Colloidal solution >Truesolution
b) Suspension > Collodal solution = Truesolution
c) True solution > Suspension > Colloidal solution
d) True solution = Suspension = Colloidal solution
138. When the heat of the solution is positive, then solubility:
a) Increases with temperature fall b) Increases with temperature rise
c) Decreases with temperature rise d) is independent of temperature
139. 10g NaOH is dissolved in 1000g water. The molality of NaOH is:
a) 1m b) 0.5m c) 4m d) 0.25m
140. A solution has 92g ethanol, 96g methanol, and 90g water. Mole fraction of water in the
solution is:
a) 0.1 b) 0.4 c) 0.2 d) 0.5
 PHYSICS FIRST YEAR
141. Which of the following is a characteristic of a transverse wave?
a) The direction of wave motion is parallel to the direction of particle vibration
b) The wave moves perpendicular to the direction of particle vibration
c) The wave moves in a straight line
d) The amplitude of the wave is directly proportional to the wavelength
142. Which of the following is true about the amplitude of a transverse wave?
a) It is the distance between two adjacent crests or troughs
b) It is the distance between the equilibrium position and the crest or trough
c) It is the number of waves that pass a point in one second
d) It is the speed at which the wave travels through the medium
143. Which of the following is true about the wavelength of a transverse wave?
a) It is the distance between two adjacent crests or troughs
b) It is the distance between the equilibrium position and the crest or trough
c) It is the number of waves that pass a point in one second
d) It is the speed at which the wave travels through the medium
144. Which of the following is a characteristic of a longitudinal wave?
a) The wave moves perpendicular to the direction of particle vibration
b) The direction of wave motion is parallel to the direction of particle vibration
c) The wave moves in a straight line
d) The amplitude of the wave is directly proportional to the wavelength
145. Which of the following is true about the wavelength of a longitudinal wave?
a) It is the distance between two adjacent crests or troughs
b) It is the distance between the equilibrium position and the crest or trough
c) It is the number of waves that pass a point in one second
d) It is the distance between two adjacent compressions or rarefactions
146. Which of the following is true about the compression and rarefaction in a longitudinal wave?
a) Compression refers to a region of high pressure and rarefaction refers to a region of low pressure
b) Compression refers to a region of low pressure and rarefaction refers to a region of high pressure
c) Compression and rarefaction both refer to regions of high pressure
d) Compression and rarefaction both refer to regions of low pressure
147. What is the difference between a node and an antinode in a standing wave?
a) Nodes are areas of high amplitude, while antinodes are areas of low amplitude.
b) Nodes are areas of low amplitude, while antinodes are areas of high amplitude.
c) Nodes are areas of zero amplitude, while antinodes are areas of maximum amplitude.
d) Nodes are areas of maximum amplitude, while antinodes are areas of zero amplitude.
148. What is the fundamental frequency of a standing wave?
a) The frequency at which the wave reflects off a boundary
b) The highest frequency of the wave
c) The lowest frequency of the wave
d) The frequency at which the wave has the greatest amplitude
149. What is a sonometer used for?
a) Measuring the pitch of a sound b) Amplifying sound waves
c) Generating sound waves d) None of the above
150. What is the difference between a musical sound and a noise?
a) Musical sound has a regular pattern while noise has an irregular pattern
b) Musical sound is loud while noise is soft
c) Musical sound is unpleasant while noise is pleasant
d) Musical sound and noise are the same
151. What is quality of sound?
a) The quality of a sound that distinguishes it from other sounds of the same pitch and loudness
b) The quality of a sound that determines its loudness
c) The quality of a sound that determines its duration
d) The quality of a sound that determines its timbre
152. What is the threshold of hearing?
a) The lowest sound intensity that can be heard by the human ear
b) The highest sound intensity that can be heard by the human ear
c) The average sound intensity that can be heard by the human ear
d) The sound intensity that causes pain in the human ear
153. What is the term used to describe the type of interference that occurs when two waves are in
phase and produce a wave with a greater amplitude?
a) Constructive interference b) Destructive interference
c) Diffraction d) Refraction
154. What are beats in sound?
a) The sound produced by the vibration of an object
b) The interference pattern produced by two sound waves of different frequencies
c) The resonance of a sound wave in a closed space
d) The reflection of sound waves off a surface
155. How many beats per second will occur if two sound waves with frequencies of 200 Hz and
210 Hz interfere with each other?
a) 10 beats per second b) 20 beats per second
c) 200 beats per second d) 210 beats per second
156. Which of the following waves can exhibit the Doppler Effect?
a) Sound waves b) Light waves
c) Both sound and light waves d) Neither sound nor light waves
157. Which of the following is an example of the Doppler Effect in everyday life?
a) The change in pitch of a passing ambulance siren
b) The reflection of sound waves off a wall
c) The diffraction of sound waves around a corner
d) The interference of two sounds of equal frequency
158. Which phenomenon causes the colors seen in a soap bubble or oil slick?
a) Refraction b) Diffraction c) Interference d) Reflection
159. What happens to the interference pattern in a double-slit experiment if the distance between
the slits is increased?
a) The fringes become wider b) The fringes become narrower
c) The fringes become more closely spaced d) The fringes disappear
160. What happens to the interference pattern in a double-slit experiment if the distance between
the slits and the screen is increased?
a) The fringes become wider b) The fringes become narrower
c) The fringes become more closely spaced d) The fringes disappear
161. What is the central maximum in Young's double-slit experiment?
a) The brightest fringe in the interference pattern
b) The darkest fringe in the interference pattern
c) The point where the two slits overlap
d) The point where the two waves interfere destructively
162. What is Newton's rings experiment?
a) An experiment to study the interference of light
b) An experiment to study the diffraction of light
c) An experiment to study the reflection of light
d) An experiment to measure the speed of light
163. What is the cause of the dark spot in the center of the Newton's rings experiment?
a) Destructive interference b) Constructive interference
c) Refraction of light d) Diffraction of light
164. When light is incident on a thin film, what happens to the phase of the reflected wave?
a) It remains the same b) It is inverted
c) It is shifted by 90 degrees d) It is shifted by 180 degrees
165. What is the basic principle behind Michelson Interferometer?
a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Interference d) Polarization
166. What is diffraction of light?
a) The reflection of light from a smooth surface
b) The refraction of light when it passes through a prism
c) The bending of light around an obstacle or aperture
d) The absorption of light by a material
167. What is a diffraction grating?
a) A prism made of diffraction material b) A lens that diffracts light
c) A surface with a regular pattern of slits or lines d) A mirror that reflects diffracted light
168. What is the name of the equation that relates the wavelength of the X-rays to the angle of
diffraction and the spacing of the crystal lattice planes?
a) Bragg's law b) Snell's law
c) Huygens' principle d) Fresnel's equations
169. What is polarization of light?
a) The direction of light wave propagation b) The amplitude of light wave oscillation
c) The direction of light wave oscillation d) The phase of light wave oscillation
170. Which type of lens causes parallel light rays to converge at a point?
a) Convex lens b) Concave lens
c) Both convex and concave lens d) None of the above
171. Which type of lens causes parallel light rays to diverge?
a) Convex lens b) Concave lens
c) Both convex and concave lens d) None of the above
172. What is chromatic aberration?
a) The distortion of an image due to a curved lens surface
b) The blurring of an image due to a lens not focusing all colors of light at the same point
c) The bending of light as it passes through a medium with varying density
d) The appearance of holes around bright objects in an image
173. What is spherical aberration?
a) The distortion of an image due to a curved lens surface
b) The blurring of an image due to a lens not focusing all colors of light at the same point
c) The bending of light as it passes through a medium with varying density
d) The appearance of holes around bright objects in an image
174. A string of length 1m is fixed at both ends. The wave speed on the string is 10m/s. Find the
fundamental frequency and wavelength of the standing wave that forms on the string.
a) 5Hz and 2m b) 10Hz, 2m c) 20Hz, 4m d) Not
175. Compute the wave length of the wave transmitted by a radio station that broadcasts on an
assigned frequency of 3MHz
a) 100 m b) 400 m c) 360 m d) Not
176. A source of the sound of frequency 500Hz is moving towards a stationary observer with
velocity 30m/s. The speed of sound is 330m/s the frequency heard by the observer will be
a) 550Hz b) 458Hz c) 530Hz d) Not
177. A spring has a spring constant of 200 N/m. If a force of 50 N is applied to the spring, what is
the displacement produced?
a) 0.25m b) 0.5m c) 1m d) Not
178. A spring with a spring constant of 500 N/m is compressed by 0.1 m. What is the potential
energy stored in the spring?
a) 2.5 Joule b) 5 Joule c) 10 Joule d) Not
179. A crystal with a lattice spacing of 0.1 nm is exposed to X-rays with a wavelength of 1Ao
what is the angle of diffraction for the first-order peak?
a) 300 b) 450 c) 600 d) Not
180. A thin convex lens has a focal length of 30 cm. If an object is placed at a distance of 60 cm
from the lens, where will the image be formed?
a) 20 cm b) 30 cm c) 60 cm d) Not
 ENGLISH FIRST YEAR
181. Spot the error.
Many a person have done this sort of thing. No error
a) b) c) d)
182. The Sceneries of indus river is famous throughout the continent. No error
a) b) c) d)
Insert the correct verb.
183. No one, except a few candidates_____ there in the public meeting.
a) Were b) Was c) Are d) A and C
184. Each of these ministers_____ responsible for the current economic meltdown of our country.
a) Are b) were c) is d) A and B
185. The philosopher and the preacher________ never misguided any nation.
a) Have b) Has c) Have been d) None of above
186. Find the correct one .
a) Two -thirds of the books are interesting. b) Two thirds of the book are interesting.
c) Two thirds of the book are interesting. d) All of above
Insert appropriate preposition.
187. They are not ignorant _________their fundamental duties.
a) From b) At c) Of d) At e) In
188. She is good __________exercise, because she considers it good ....health.
a) In, for b) At, At c) At, For. d) For, For
189. The manager is suspicious ________mysterious activities of company watchdog.
a) From b) Of c) In d) With e) At
190. We should not be blind ..... our basic civic responsibilities.
a) From b) Of c) In d) To e) With
191. Real happiness consist.....serving the poor and needy.
a) Of b) Off c) With d) In e) By
Insert the proper part of speech..
192. A _____nation can not emerge powerful on the map of world .
a) Disintegrated b) Disintegration c) Disintegrity d) All of above
193. Only______ trained doctors can handle serious patients
a) Properly b) Proper c) Comprehensive d) B and C
Identify the under lined word)
194. This policy will be detrimental to peace process.
a) Adjective b) Adverb c) Conjunction d) None of above
195. It will be devastating blow to the local community.
a) Adverb b) Noun c) Adjective d) A and C
196. He looked disgustingly healthy when he got back from Germany.
a) Adverb b) Adjective c) Noun d) Conjunction
197. johnty Rhodes was famous for this running fast.
a) Adverb b) Adjective c) Noun d) Conjunction
Insert the correct article.
198 My car struck ____ tree; you can still see the mark on______ tree.
a) The, the b) ___, the c) a, the d) a, a
199. _______ honest never compromise on their fundamental responsibilities.
a) The b) A c) An d) no article
200. _____ cricket is liked by every one in Pakistan and India.
a) The b) A c) An d) no article