Objectives Questions

Unit 1
Chp 1- Introduction to Operations Research
I. Fill in the Blanks:-
1. Decision making is one of the ________ of Operations Research.
2. Credit policy Analysis and risks etc. are the areas of Applications of Operations Research in ______
Function.
3. Product selection, Product Introduction timing, Advertising strategy etc. are the areas of Applications
of Operations Research in ______ Function.
4. Operations Research is only a tool of analysis and not the complete decision-making process. This is
one of the _______ of Operations Research.
5. Operations Research models help in improved decision making and reduce the risk of making
erroneous decisions which is one of the ______ of O.R.
[Ans: (1) Characteristics / Features; (2) Accounting; (3) Marketing; (4) Limitations; (5) Advantages]
II. Mutiple choice Questions:-
1. Operations Research (OR), which is a very powerful tool for _____ .
a) Research b) Decision-making
c) Operations d) None of the above
2. Who coined the term Operations Research?
a) J.F. McCloskey b) F.N.Trefethen
c) P.F. Adams d) Both A and B
3. The term v was coined in the year _____ .
a) 1950 b) 1940
c) 1978 d) 1960
4. This innovative science of Operations Research was disclosed during ____ .
a) Civil War b) World War I
c) World War II d) Industrial Revolution

5. Operations Research was known as an ability to win a war without really going in to a _____ .
a) Battle field b) Fighting
c) War d) Both A and B
6. Who defined Operations Research as scientific method of providing executive departments with a
quantative basis for decisions regarding the operations under their control ?
a) Morse and Kimball (1946) b) P.M.S. Backett (1948)
c) E.L. Arnoff and M.J. Netzorg d) None of the above
7. Who defined Operations Research as scientific approach to problem solving for executive
management ?
a) E.L. Arnoff b) P.M.S. Backett
c) H.M. Wagner d) None of the above
8. Who defined Operations Research as an aid for the executive in marketing his decisions by providing
him with the quantitative information based on the scientific method analysis ?
a) Kitte b) H.M. Wagner
c) E.L. Arnoff d) None of the above
9. Operations Research has the characteristics the it is done by a term of ___ .
a) Scientists b) Mathematicians
c) Academics d) All of the above
10.There is a great scope for _____ working as a term to solve problems of defence by using the
Operations Research approach.
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 a) Economists b) Administrators
c) Statisticians and Technicians d) All of the above
11. Operations Research emphasizes on the overall approach to the system. This characteristics of
Operations Research is often referred as _____ .
a) System Orientation b) Decision-making
c) Interdisciplinary Team Approach d) None of the above
12. Operations Research cannot give perfect _____ to problems.
a) Answers b) Solutions
c) Both A and B d) Decisions
13. Operations Research simply helps in improving the _______ of the solution but does not
result in a perfect solution.
a) Quality b) Clarity
c) Look d) None of the above
14. Operations Research involves______ attack of complex problems to arrive at the optimum
solution.
a) Scientific b) Systematic
c) Both A and B d) Statistical
15. Operations Research is a ______ .
a) Science b) Art
c) Mathematics d) Both Aand B
[Ans: (1-b), (2-d), (3-b), (4-c), (5-d), (6-a), (7-c), (8-a), (9-a), (10-d), (11-d), (12-c), (13-a), (14-c), (15-d)]

III. True or False:-

1. O.R. methodology consists of definition, solution and validation only.
2. O.R. imbibes Interdisciplinary team approach.
3. One of the areas of application of O.R. is in Agriculture.
4. Statistical quality control and Statistical Inferences and Interpretation are the operations Research
techniques.
5. O.R. is the art of giving bad answers to problems to which otherwise worse answers are given.
6. O.R. techniques are used for decision making.
7. O.R. is also termed as Management Science.
[Ans: True: 2,3,5,6,7; False: 1,4]

IV. Match the Column:-

Column A Column B
1. Application of O.R. in Defence a. Scientific and System approach
2. Application of O.R. in Industry b. Training programme scheduling
3. Application of O.R. in HRM c. To maximise per capita income.
4. Application of O.R. in Finance d. Optimum weaponry systems
5. Features of O.R. e.To optimize the cost of various processes to
maximize profit.
Ans: (1-d), (2-e), (3-b), (4-c), (5-a)]

CHP 2- LINEAR PROGRAMMING PROBLEMS: INTRODUCTION & FORMULATION

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 Q.1 Fill in the blanks :-
1. A mathematical programming problem is one that seeks to maximize an objective function subject to the
constraints. If both the objective function and the constraints are linear, the problem is referred to as a
____ problem.
2. _____ are a function in which each variable appears in a separate term raised to the first power and is
multiplied by a constant (which could be 0).
3. _____ are linear functions that are restricted to be “less than or equal to”, “equal to”, or “greater than or
equal to” a constant.
4. The maximum or minimization of some quantity is the _____ in all linear programming problems.
5. _____ variables can never be negative.
6. The _____ property of linear programming models indicates that the decision variables cannot be
restricted to integer values and can take on any fractional value.
7. The objective function 3x+2y+4xy violates the assumption of _____.
8. The _____ property of linear programming models indicates that the rate of change, or slope, of the
objective function or a constraint is constant.
9. The_____ step in formulating a linear programming model is to define the decision variables.
10. _____ variables are mathematical symbols representing levels of activity.
[Ans: (1) - linear programming; (2) - linear functions; (3) - linear constraints; (4) - objective; (5) -
Decision; (6) - Divisibility; (7) - Proportionality; (8) - Proportionality or linearity; (9) - first; (10) -
Decision]

I. Mutiple choice Questions:-

1. The mathematical model of an LP problem is important because
a) It helps in converting the verbal description & numerical data into mathematical expression
b) Decision-makers prefer to work with formal models
c) It captures the relevant relationship among decision factors
d) It enables the use of algebraic technique.
2. Linear programming is a
a) Constrained optimization technique
b) Technique for economic allocation of limited resources
c) Mathematical technique
d) All of the above
3. A constraint in an LPP model restricts
a) Value of the objective function
b) Value of decision variable
c) Use of available resources
d) All of the above
4. The distinguishing feature of an LP model is
a) Relationship among all variables is linear
b) It has single objective function & constraints
c) Value of decision variables is non-negative
d) All of the above
5. Constraints in an LP model represents
a) Limitations b) Requirements
c) Balancing limitations & requirements
d) All of the above

6. Non-negativity condition is an important component of LP model because

a) Variables value should remain under the control of the decision-maker
b) Value of variables make sense & correspond to real-world problems
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 c) Variables are interrelated in terms of limited resources
d) None of the above
7. Before formulating a formal LP model, it is better to
a) Express each constrain in words
b) Express the objective function in words
c) Verbally identify decision variables
d) All of the above
8. Maximization of objective function in an LP model means
a) Value occurs at allowable set of decisions
b) Highest value is chosen among allowable decisions
c) Neither of above
d) Both A & B
9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the LP model
a) Alternative courses of action
b) An objective function of maximization type
c) Limited amount of resources
d) Non-negativity condition on the value of decision variables.
10. The best use of linear programming technique is to find an optimal use of
a) Money b) Manpower
c) Machine d) All of the above
11. Which of the following is not a characteristics of the LP
a) Resources must be limited
b) Only one objective function
c) Parameters value remains constant during the planning period
d) The problems must be of minimization type
12. Non-negativity condition in an LP model implies
a) A positive coefficient of variables in objective function
b) A positive coefficient of variables in any constraint
c) Non-negative value of resources
d) None of the above
13. Which of the following is an assumption of an LP model
a) Divisibility b) Proportionality
c) Additivity d) All of the above
14. Which of the following is an limitation associated with an LP model
a) The relationship among decision variables is linear
b) No guarantee to get integer valued solution
c) No consideration of effect of time & uncertainty in LP model
d) All of the above

15. Who developed Linear Programming for the purpose of scheduling the complicated procurement
activities of the United States Air Force?
a) George B. Dantzig b) James B. Dantzig
c) George B. Dante d) George V. Dantzig
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 16. _____ assumptions means the prior knowledge of all the coefficients in the objective function, the
coefficients of the constraints and the resource value.
a) Proportionality b) Certainty
c) Finite choices d) Continuity
17. The word ‘Linear’ means that the relationships are represented by____.
a) Diagonal lines b) Curved lines
c) Straight lines d) Slanting lines
18. The word ‘programming’ means taking decisions _____.
a) Systematically b) Rapidly
c) Slowly d) Instantly
19. LP is a major innovation since _______ in the fields of business decision-making, particularly
under condition of certainty.
a) Industrial Revolution b) World War I
c) World War II d) French Revolution
20. Linear Programming has been successful applied in ____.
a) Agricultural b) Industrial applications
c) Both A & B d) Manufacturing
21. The method of formal calculations often termed as Linear Programming was developed later in which
year ?
a) 1947 b) 1988
c) 1957 d) 1944
[Ans: (1-a), (2-d), (3-d), (4-a), (5-d), (6-b), (7-d), (8-a), (9-b), (10-d), (11-d), (12-d), (13-d), (14-d),
(15-a),(16-b),(17-c),(18-a),(19-c),(20-c),(21-a)]
II. True or False:-
1. The terms in the objective function or constraints are additive.
2. A linear programming problem may have more than one set of solutions.
3. In a linear programming problem, all models parameters are assumed to be known with certainty.
4. Linear programming is a model consisting of linear relationships representing a firm’s decisions given an
objective and resource constraints.
5. A constraint is a linear relationship a restriction on decision making.
6. The objective function is a linear relationship reflecting on decision making.
7. A linear programming model consists of only decision variables of an operation.
8. Proportionality means the slope of a constraint is proportional to the slope of the objective function.
9. The terms in the objective function or constraints are multiplicative.
10. The values of decision variables are continuous or divisible.
11. In linear programming models, objective function can only be maximized.
12. All linear programming models exhibit a set of constraints.
13. Linear programming models exhibit linearity among all constraint relationships and the objective
function.
14. In linear programming models, the objective function always consists of either maximizing or
minimizing some value.
15. A parameter is a numerical value in the objective function and constraints.
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 16. A linear programming model consists of decision variables, constraints, but no
objective function.
17. The right hand side element of each constraint is non-negative
[Ans: True:1,2,3,5,6,10,12,13,14,15,17 ; False:4,7,8,9,11,16

III. Match the Column:-

Column A Column B
1. Industrial application of O.R. a. Man-power scheduling problems
2. RM application of O.R. b. ≥
3. Miscellaneous application of O.R. c. decision variables not necessarily full integers
4. At most, maximum constraint d. Production scheduling problems
5. Al least, minimum constraint e.Agriculture problems
6. Proportionality f. ≤
7. Divisibility g. Any change in the constraint inequalities will have the
proportional change in the objective function.
[Ans: (1-d), (2-a), (3-e), (4-f), (5-b), (6-g),
CHP 3- LINEAR PROGRAMMING PROBLEMS: GRAPHICAL METHOD
I. Fill in the Blanks :
1. A ______ solution method can be used to solve a linear program with two variables.
2. If a linear program possesses an optimal solution, then an ______ point will be optimal.
3. If a constraint can be removed without affecting the shape of the feasible region, the constraint is said
to be ______. If changes are anticipated to the linear programming model, constraints which were
redundant in the original formulation may not be redundant in the revised formulation.
4. In the graphical method, if the objective function line is parallel to a boundary constraint in the direction
of optimization, there are ______ solutions, with all points on this line segment being optimal.
5. A feasible region may be ______ and yet there may be optimal solutions. This is common in minimization
problems.
6. A ______ solution satisfies all the problem’s constraints.
7. A linear program which is over constrained so that no point satisfies all the constraints is said
to be ______ . Changes to the objective function coefficients do not affect the feasibility of the problem.
8. An ______ solution is a feasible solution that results in the largest possible objective function value
z, when maximizing or smallest possible z when minimizing.
9. Multiple optimal solutions can occur when the objective function line is _____ to a constraint line.
10. If the feasible region R is _____, then a maximum or a minimum value of the objective function may or may
not exist. However, if it exists, it must occur at a corner point of R.
11. If feasible region R is _____, then the objective function Z has both a maximum and a
minimum value on R and each of these occur at a corner point of R.
12. In a LPP if the objective function Z = ax + by has the same maximum value on two corner points of
the feasible region, then every point on the line segment joining these two points give the same_____ value.
13. A convex _____ is a convex set formed by the intersection of a finite number of closed half planes.
14. A linear inequality in _____ variables is known as a half plane.
15. A set (or region) is _____ if only if for any two points on the set, the line segment joining those points lies
entirely in the set.
[Ans. : (1 - graphical), (2 - extreme), (3 - redundant), (4 - alternative optimal),
(5 - unbounded), (6 - feasible), (7 - infeasible), (8 - optimal), (9 - parallel),
(10 - Unbounded), (11 - bounded), (12 - Maximum or optimal), (13 - polygon), (14 - two),
(15 - convex)]

II. Multiple Choice Question :

1. The graphical method of LP problem uses
a) Objective function equation b) Constraint equations
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 c) Linear equations d) All of the above
2. A feasible solution to an LP problem
a) Must satisfy all of the problem’s constraints simultaneously
b) Need not satisfy all of the constraints, only some of them
c) Must be a corner point of the feasible region
d) Must optimize the value of the objective function
3. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the optimal solution of an LP problem ?
a) Every LP problem has an optimal solution
b) Optimal solution of an LP problem always occurs at an extreme point
c) At optimal solution all resources are completely used
d) If an optimal solution exists, there will always be at least one at a corner
4. An iso-profit line represents
a) An infinite number of solutions all of which yield the same profit
b) An infinite number of solution all of which yield the same cost
c) An infinite number of optimal solutions
d) A boundary of the feasible region
5. If an iso-profit line yielding the optimal solution coincides with a constraint line, then
a) The solution is unbounded
b) The solution is infeasible
c) The constraint which coincides is redundant
d) None of the above
6. While plotting constraints on a graph paper, terminal points on both the axes are connected by
straight line because
a) The resources are limited in supply
b) The objective function as a linear function
c) The constraints are linear equations or inequalities
d) All of the above
7. A constraint in an LP model becomes redundant because
a) Two iso-profit line may be parallel to each other
b) The solution is unbounded
c) This constraint is not satisfied by the solution values
d) None of the above
8. If two constraints do not intersect in the positive quadrant of the graph, then
a) The problem is infeasible b) The solution is unbounded
c) One of the constraints is redundant d) Note of the above
9. Constraints in LP problem are called active if they
a) Represent optimal solution
b) At optimality do not consume all the available resources
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above

10. The solution space (region of an LP problem is unbounded due to

a) An incorrect formulation of the LP model
b) Objective function is unbounded
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a & b
11. While solving a LP model graphically, the area bounded by the constraints is called
a) Feasible region b) Infeasible region
c) Unbounded solution d) None of the above
12. Alternative solutions exist of an LP model when
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 a) One of the constraints is redundant
b) Objective function equation is parallel to one of the constraints
c) Two constraints are parallel
d) All of the above
13. While solving a LP problem, infeasibility may be removed by
a) Adding another constraint b) Adding another variable
c) Removing a constraint d) Removing a variable

14. If a non-redundant constraint is removed from an LP problem then

a) Feasible region will become larger b) Feasible region will become smaller
c) Solution will become infeasible d) None of the above

15. IF one of the constraint of an equation in an LP problem has an unbounded solution then
a) Solution to such LP problem must be degenerate
b) Feasible region should have a line segment
c) Alternative solutions exist
d) None of the above
16. Graphic method can be applied to solve a LPP when there are only _____ variable
a) Four b) More than One
c) Two d) Three
17. If the feasible region of a LPP is empty, the solution is _____ .
a) Infeasible b) Unbounded
c) Alternative d) None of the above
[Ans. : (1 - d); (2 - a); (3 - d); (4 - a); (5 - d); (6 - c); (7 - d); (8 - a); (9 - a); (10 - c)
(11 - a); (12 - b); (13 - c); (14 - a); (15 - b); (16 - c); (17 - a)]

III. True or False :

1. The situation in graphical method of LPP that occurs when we have no solution that satisfies the
constraints is referred to as infeasibility.
2. In minimization LP problems the feasible region is always below the resource constraints.
3. In graphical method of LPP, if the objective function is parallel to a constraint, the constraint is infeasible.
4. Graphical solutions to linear programming problems have an infinite number of possible objective functions
lines.
5. A feasible LPP solution in Graphical, violates at least one of the constraints.
6. In graphical method of LPP, the optimum value occurs anywhere in feasible region.
7. A basic solution is said to be a feasible solution if it satisfies all constraints.
8. The feasible region is a convex set.
9. The iso-profit solution and iso-cost solution method can only be used to solve maximization problems.
10. Any linear programming problem can be solved using the graphical solution.
11. The set of solution points that satisfies all of a linear programming problem’s constraints simultaneously is
Defined as the feasible region in graphical linear programming.

12. An objective function is necessary in a maximization problem but is not required in a minimization problem.
13. A constraint is a mathematical expression in linear programming that maximises or minimizes some quantity.
14. The objective function shown is a legitimate expression in linear programming :
Max Profit = 7X + 8Y + 5XY.
15. The decision variables in a profit maximization product mix problem must all be positive.
16. The minimum value of the objective function Z = ax + by in a linear programming problem always occurs
at only one corner point of the feasible region.
18. If the feasible region for a linear programming problem is bounded, then the objective function
Z = ax + by has both a maximum and a minimum value on feasible region.
18. A graphical solution is limited to solving linear programming problems with only two decision variables.

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19. The iso-profit solution method can only be used to solve maximization problems.
20. Any linear programming problem can be solved using the graphical solution.
[Ans . : True : 1, 4, 7, 8, 11, 15, 17, 18, 20; False : 2, 3, 5, 6, 9, 10, 12, 13, 14, 16, 19]

IV. Match the column :

Column A Column B
1. Feasible solution a) Most favourable value of the objective
function.
2. Infeasible solution b) Does not affect the feasible region
3. Feasible region c) Solution for which at least one constraint is not satisfied

4. Optimal solution d) Collection of all feasible solutions.

5. Redundant Constraint e) Solution for which all constraint are
satisfied.

[Ans. : (1 - e), (2 - c), (3 - d), (4 - a), (5 - b)]

Chp 4- Linear Programming Problems: Simplex Method

I. Fill in the Blanks :

1. A linear program in which all the variables are non-negative and all the constraints are equalities is
said to be in _____ form.
2. Standard form is attained by adding _____ variables to “less than or equal to” constraints.
3. Standard form is attained by subtracting _____ variables from “greater than or equal to”
constraints. They represent the difference between the left and right sides of the constraints.
4. Resources which are 100% utilized are _____ resources.
5. Resources which are not fully utilized are _____ resources.
6. In a constraint, the _____ variable represents unused resources.
7. _____ is the difference between the left- and right-hand sides of a greater than or equal to constraint.
8. Basic variables for a given basis B are the ones corresponding to the _____ vectors of B.
9. Non-basic variables for a given basis B are all variables except the _____ variables.
10. The artificial variable will have a coefficient of _____ in the objective function of minimization type.
11. The _____ variable will have a coefficient of - M in the objective function of maximization type.
12. Every primal LPP is associated with another LPP called _____.
13. If at least any one of Solution (bi) value of basis variables is negative, the solution is _____ solution.
14. If at least any one of Solution (bi) value of basis variables is zero, the solution is _____ solution.
15. If in an optimal Simplex table, all delta values (∆) of non-basis variables are negative, then
the solution is _____ .
16. Whenever the key column values are zero or negative, we get _____ Solution in Simplex.
17. Time Taken by Machine × _____ = Rent or Cost.

18. In an optimal Simple table, Shadow Price of Resource is indicated by corresponding slack
variable value in _____ row.
19. If there is a tie between at least 2 least positive replacement ratios, then there is a _____ in solution.
20. The solution is _____ if all values of opportunity cost i.e. ∆ are zero or negative. (∆ ≤ 0)
[Ans. : (1) - standard, (2) - slack, (3) - surplus, (4) - scarce or binding, (5) - abundant,
(6) - slack, (7) - surplus, (8) - column, (9) - basic, (10) - + M, (11) - artificial, (12) - dual,
(13) - infeasible, (14) - degenerate, (15) - unique, (16) – unbounded, (17) - Shadow Price,
(18) – Zj, (19) – degeneracy, (20) - optimum]

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

1. Any feasible solution which optimizes (minimizes or maximizes) the objective function of the
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 LPP is called its _____.
a) Optimal solution b) Non-basic variables
b) Solution d) Basic feasible solution
2. Which method is an iterative procedure for solving LPP in a finite number of steps?
a) Simplex algorithm b) Slack variable
c) Big M method d) Simplex method
3. In simplex algorithm, which method is used to deal with the situation where an infeasible
starting basic solution is given?
a) Slack variable b) Simplex method
c) Big M-method d) None of the above
4. How many methods are there to solve LPP ?
a) Three b) Two
c) Four d)None of the above
5. _____ is another method to solve a given LPP involving some artificial variable ?
a) Big M method b) Method of penalties
c) Two-phase simplex method d) None of the above
6. Which variables are fictitious and cannot have any physical meaning ?
a) Optimal variable b) Decision variable
c) Artificial variable d) None of the above
7. An objective function which states the determinants of the quantity to be either maximized or
minimized is called _____ .
a) Feasible function b) Optimal function
c) Criterion function d) None of the above
8. An assumption that implies that finite numbers of choices are available to a decision – maker
and the decision variables do not assume negative values is known as _____ .
a) Certainty b) Continuity
c) Finite choices d) None of the above
9. A set of values X1, X2, …Xn which satisfies the constraints of the LPP is called _____ .
a) Solution b) Variable
c) Linearity d) None of the above
10. A basic solution which also satisfies the condition in which all basic variables are non –
negative is called _____ .
a) Basic feasible solution b) Feasible solution
c) Optimal solution d) None of the above
11. All the constraints are expressed as equations and the right hand side of each constraint and all
variables are non-negative is called _____ .
a) Canonical variable b) Canonical form
c) Canonical solution d) Both A and B
12. An objective function is maximized when it is a _____ function.
a) Passive b) Profit
c) Cost d) None of the above
13. LPP is exactly used in solving what kind of resource allocation problems?
a) Production planning and scheduling b) Transportation
c) Sales and advertising d) All of the above
14. Currently, LPP is used in solving a wide range of practical _____ .
a) Business problems b) Agricultural problems
c) Manufacturing problems d) None of the above
15. ______ refers to the combination of one or more inputs to produce a particular output.
a) Solution b) Variable
c) Process d) None of the above
16. An optimum solution is considered the _____ among feasible solutions.
a) Worst b) Best
c) Ineffective c) None of the above

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17. Please state which statement is true.
i) All linear programming problems may not have unique solutions
ii) the artificial variable technique is not a device that does not get the starting basic feasible
solution.
a) Both (i) and (ii) b) (ii) only
c) (i) only d) Both are incorrect
18. _____ which is a subclass of a linear programming problem (LPP).
a) Programming problem b) Transportation problem
c) Computer problem d) Both are incorrect
19. If in a LPP , the solution of a variable can be made infinity large without violating the
constraints, the solution is _____ .
a) Infeasible b) Unbounded
c) Alternative d) None of the above
20. In simplex method, we add _____ variables in the case of ‘=’.
a) Slack Variable b) Surplus Variable
c) Artificial Variable d) None of the above
21. In simplex method, if there is tie between a decision variable and a slack (or surplus) variable,
_____ should be selected.
a) Slack variable b) Surplus variable
c) Decision variable d) None of the above
22. A BFS of a LPP is said to be ______ if at least one of the basic variable is zero.
a) Degenerate b) Non-degenerate
c) Infeasible d) Unbounded
23. Every LPP is associated with another LPP is called _____.
a) Primal b) Dual
c) Non-linear programming d) None of the above
24. Dual of the dual is _____.
a) Primal b) Dual
c) Alternative d) None of the above
[Ans. : (1 – a); (2 – d); (3 – c); (4 – b); (5 – c); (6 – c); (7 – c); (8 – c); (9 – a); (10 – a);
(11 – b); (12 – b); (13 – d); (14 – a); (15 – c); (16 – b); (17 – c); (18 – b); (19 – b); (20 – c);
(21 – c); (22 – a); (23 – b); (24 – a)]

III. True or False :

1. It is possible for an equation in the simplex table to have both a slack and a surplus variable at the same time.
2. When the optimal solution is found in Simplex method, all slack and surplus variables have a value of zero.
3. For a maximization problem, the values of ∆j = Cj - Zj in the body of the simplex table
represent the gross profit given up by adding one unit of this variable into the current solution.
4. The first step in the simplex table solution process is to choose the variable with the least positive value
of ∆j = Cj – Zj to enter the solution.
5. The value of ∆j = Cj – Zj row in the simplex table tells us whether the current solution is optimal, and,
if it is not, what variable will be in the optimal solution.
6. In Simplex method of any linear programming problem, if a variable is to enter the solution, it
must have a positive coefficient in the ∆j = Cj – Zj row.
7. If all the numbers in the pivot column of Simplex table are positive, this implies that the
solution is unbounded.
8. The shadow price is the value of one less unit of a scarce resource.
9. In using simplex to solve a minimization problem, the variable to enter the solution could be
any variable for which value of ∆j = Cj – Zj is negative.
10, The following inequality represents a resource constraint for a maximization problem :X + Y ≥ 20
11. We add surplus variable for “ ≤ ” inequality of constraint.
12. All variables in a linear programming problem (real, slack, surplus, or artificial) must be positive.
13. Surplus variables are only associated with minimization problems.
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14. If one or more values of basic variable are zero then solution is said to be degenerate.
15. The key column is determined by highest positive value of ∆j = Cj – Zj row.
16. Pivotal element lies on the crossing of key column and key row.
17. The –ve and infinite ratios are considered for determining key row.
18. The value of artificial value is “M”.
19. Artificial variables enters as Basis Variable in the beginning when Big M method is used to solve
Minimization Problems.
20. Dual L.P.P. always reduces the amount of computation.
21. It is possible to reverse the dual L.P.P. to primal L.P.P.
22. The value of one additional unit of a resource in a linear programming model is the shadow price.
23. In a linear programming model, the number of constraints must be less than the number of decision variables.
24. If in an optimal Simplex table, atleast one of the delta value (∆) of non-basis variables is zero, then the
solution has another alternate optimal solution.
[Ans.: True : 9, 14, 15, 16, 18, 19, 21, 22, 24; False : 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 13, 17, 20,23]

IV. Match the column :

Column A Column B
1. Inequality ≥ a) + Artificial Variable
2. Equality = b) Co-efficient of the variables in the objective function.
3. Inequality ≤ c) Replacement Ratios negative or infinity
4. Pivot Element d) + slack Variable
5. Cj Row e) - surplus + Artificial Variable
6. Big M f) Intersection of key row and key column
7. Unbounded Simplex Solution g) Tie between at least 2 least positive
Replacement Ratios
8. At least one value of bi ( Solution ) = 0 h) Penalty Method

[Ans. : (1 – e), (2 – a), (3 – d), (4 – f), (5 – b), (6 – h), (7 – c), (8 – g)]

UNIT - II
CHP. 5 - ASSIGNMENT PROBLEM: HUNGARIAN METHOD
I. Fill in the Blanks :
1. The _____ method used to obtain optimum solution of Assignment problem.
2. The purpose of a _____ row or column in an assignment problem is to obtain balance between
total activities and total resources.
3. If the number of facilities are equal to the number of jobs, the given assignment problem is of
_____ type.
4. Assigning subjects to the _____ is an application of Assignment method of O.R.
5. If the assignment elements are time elements in given assignment problem, then it is of _____ type.
6. If number of rows are not equal to the number of columns, then we have to convert _____ problem
to the balanced stage to find optimal assignment.

12
7. When minimum number of horizontal and vertical lines (N) drawn to cover all zeros in reduced matrix
becomes equal to order of matrix (n) , then _____ Solution is obtained.
8. A _____ job or facility is an imaginary job/facility with zero cost or time introduced to make an
unbalanced assignment problem balanced.
[Ans. : (1) – Hungarian, (2) – dummy, (3) – balanced, (4) – teachers, (5) – Minimization,
(6) – unbalanced, (7) – optimal, (8) – dummy]

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

1. An assignment problem is considered as a particular case of a transportation problem because
a) The number of rows equals columns b) All xij = 0 or 1
c) All rim conditions are 1 d) All of the above
2. An optimal assignment requires that the maximum number of lines that can be drawn through square
with zero opportunity cost be equal to the number of
a) Rows or columns b) Rows & columns
c) Rows + columns – 1 d) None of the above
3. While solving an assignment problem, an activity is assigned to a resource through a square with
zero opportunity cost because the objective is to
a) Minimize total cost of assignment
b) Reduce the cost of assignment to zero
c) Reduce the cost of that particular assignment to zero
d) All of the above
4. The method used for solving an assignment problem is called
a) Reduced matrix method b) MODI method
c) Hungarian method d) None of the above
5. The purchase of a dummy row or column in an assignment problem is to
a) Obtain balance between total activities & total resources
b) Prevent a solution from becoming degenerate
c) provide a means of representing a dummy problem
d) None of the above
6. Maximization assignment problem is transformed into a minimization problem by
a) Adding each entry in a column from the maximization value in that column
b) Subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column
c) Subtracting each entry in the table from the maximum value in that table
d) Any one of the above

7. If there were n workers & n jobs there would be

a) n! Solutions b) (n-1)! Solutions
c) (n!) solutions d) n solutions
8. The assignment problem
a) Requires that only one activity be assigned to each resource
b) Is a special case of transportation problem
c) Can be used to maximize resources
d) All of the above
9. An assignment problem is a special case of transportation problem, where
a) Number of rows equals number of columns
b) All rim conditions are 1
c) Values of each decision variable is either 0 or 1
d) All of the above
10. An optimal solution of an assignment problem can be obtained only if
13
 a) Each row & column has only one Zero element
b) Each row & column has at least one zero element
c) The data is arrangement in a square matrix
d) None of the above
11. For maximization in assignment problem, the objective is to maximize the _____ .
a) Profit b) optimization
c) cost d) None of the above
12. For solving an assignment problem, which method is used?
a) British b) American
c) German d) None of the above
13. _____ is one of the fundamental combinatorial optimization problems.
a) Assignment problem b) Transportation problem
c) Optimization Problem d) None of the above
14. If no, of rows are equal to number of columns and the Matrix elements are Time elements then
the problem is :
a) Balanced and Minimization Transportation Problem
b) Unbalanced and Minimization Transportation Problem
c) Balanced and Minimization Assignment Problem
d) Unbalanced and Minimization Assignment Problem
15. If no. of rows are not equal to number of columns and the Matrix elements are Profit elements
then the problem is :
a) Balanced and Maximization Transportation Problem
b) Unbalanced and Maximization Transportation Problem
c) Balanced and Maximization Assignment Problem
d) Unbalanced and Maximization Assignment Problem
[Ans. : (1 – d); (2 – d); (3 – a); (4 – c); (5 – a); (6 - c); (7 - a); (8 – d); (9 - d); (10 - d);(11-a); (12 -d);
(13 - a); (14 - c); (15 - d)]

III. True or False :

1.The Hungarian method for solving an assignment problem can also be used to solve a transportation problem.
2.An assignment problem can be solved by Simplex method as well as by Transportation method.
3.If no. of rows are equal to number of columns and the Matrix elements are Performance Score elements then
the problem is Balanced and Maximization Assignment Problem.
4. If the assignment elements are cost elements, then the objective of the optimal assignment is to maximize
the cost.
5.Converting Maximization balanced Assignment Problem to Minimization balanced state is also called
as getting of regret matrix.
[Ans. : True : 2, 3, 5; False : 1, 4]

IV. Match the Column :

Column A Column B
1. Prohibition in Assignment a) Minimization type Assignment Problem
2. Assignment elements as response b) If No. of Rows < No. of Columns in A.P.
3. Assignment elements as ranking c) Maximization type Assignment Problem
4. Add Dummy Column d) M
5. Add Dummy Row e) If No. of Rows > No. of Columns in A.P.
[Ans. : (1 – d), (2 – c), (3 – a), (4 – e), (5 – b)

CHP. 6 - TRANSPORTATION PROBLEMS

I. Fill in the blanks :
1. In _____ solution, numbers of allocated cell is not equal to m + n – 1.
14
2. The _____ in VAM represents difference between smallest two cost of respective row /column.
3. To find initial feasible solution, the allocation starts from top left corner in _____ method of transportation.
4. The _____ method’s Initial Feasible solution for transportation problem is sometimes an optimal
solution itself.
5. If the transportation elements are distance elements in given assignment problem, then it is of ______ type.
6. If Total Supply is not is not equal to the Total Demand, then we have to convert ____________
Transportation Problem to the balanced stage to find Optimal Transport Cost.
7. A dummy source (row) is included in the cost matrix with zero cost; the excess demand is entered as a
rim requirement for this dummy source (origin). When Total Supply is _____ Total Demand.
9. When Total Supply > Total Demand, dummy _____ is included in the cost matrix with zero cost; the
excess Supply is entered as a rim requirement for this dummy source (destination).
9. In a transportation problem, items (units) are allocated from sources to destinations at a minimum _____ .
10. The assignment model is a special case of the _____ model.
[Ans. : (1) - non-degenerate, (2) - Penalty, (3) - North West Corner, (4) - VAM, (5) - Minimization,
(6) - Unbalanced, (7) - Less than, (8) - destination or Column, (9) - Cost, (10) - Transportation]

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

1. The initial solution of a transportation problem can be obtained by applying any known
method. However, the only condition is that
a) The solution be optimal b) The rim conditions are satisfied
c) the solution not be degenerate d) All of the above
2. The dummy source or destination in a transportation problem is added to
a) Satisfy rim conditions
b) Prevent solution from becoming degenerate
c) Ensure that total cost does not exceed a limit
d) None of the above
3. The occurrence of degeneracy while solving a transportation problem means that
a) Total supply equals total demand
b) The solution so obtained is not feasible
c) The few allocations become negative
d) None of the above
4. An alternative optimal solution to a minimization transportation problems exists whenever
opportunity cost corresponding to unused route of transportation is
a) Positive & greater than zero
b) Positive with at least one equal to zero
c) Negative with at least one equal to zero
d) None of the above

5. One disadvantage of using North-West Corner rule to find initial solution to the transportation problem is that
a) It is complicated to use
b) It does not take into account cost of transportation
c) It leads to degenerate initial solution
d) All of the above
6. The solution to a transportation problem with ‘m’ rows (supplies) & ‘n’ columns (destination)
is feasible if number of positive allocations are :
a) m + n b) m*n c) m + n – 1 d) m + n + 1

7. If an opportunity cost value is used for an unused cell to test optimality, it should be
a) Equal to zero b) Most negative number
c) Most positive number d) Any value

8. During an iteration while moving from one solution to the next, degeneracy may occur when
a) The closed path indicates a diagonal move
15
 b) Two or more occupied cells are on the closed path but neither of them represents a corner of the path.
c) Two or more occupied cells on the closed path with minus sign are tied for lowest circled value.
d) Either of the above

9. The large negative opportunity cost value in an unused cell in a transportation table is chosen
to improve the current solution because
a) It represents per unit cost reduction b) It represents per unit cost improvement
c) It ensure no rim requirement violation d) None of the above

10. In a Transportation Problem, the smallest quantity is chosen at the corners of the closed path
with negative sign to be assigned at unused cell because
a) It improves the total cost b) It does not disturb rim conditions
c) It ensure feasible solution d) All of the above

11. When total supply is equal to total demand in a transportation problem, the problem is said to be
a) Balanced b) Unbalanced
c) Degenerate d) None of the above

12. Which of the following methods is used to verify the optimality of the current solution of the
transportation problem
a) Least cost method b) Vogel’s approximation method
c) Modified distribution method d) All of the above
13. If Total Supply is equal to Total Demand and the Matrix elements are Time elements then the
problem is
a) Balanced and Minimization Transportation Problem
b) Unbalanced and Minimization Transportation Problem
c) Balanced and Minimization Assignment Problem
d) Unbalanced and Minimization Assignment Problem
14. The solution of any transportation problem is obtained in how many stages?
a) Five b) Four c) Three d) Two
15. An optimal solution is the _____ stage of a solution obtained by improving the initial solution
a) Third b) First c) Second d) Final
16. MODI method is used to obtain _____
a) Optimal solutions b) Optimality test
c) Both A and B d) Optimization

17. Any feasible solution to a transportation problem containing m origins and n destinations is
said to be _____ .
a) Independent b) Degenerate c) Non-degenerate d) Both A and B
18. A path formed by allowing horizontal and vertical lines and the entire corner cells of which are occupied
is called a _____ .
a) Occupied path b) Open path
c) Closed path d) None of the above
19. Transportation algorithm can be used for minimizing the transportation cost of _____ from
O origins and D destinations.
a) Goods b) Products
c) Items d) None of the above
20. If demand is lesser than supply then dummy demand node is added to make it a _____ .
a) Simple problem b) Balanced problem
c) Transportation problem d) None of the above
[Ans. : (1 – b); (2 – a); (3 – b); (4 – b); (5 – b); (6 - c); (7 - b); (8 - c); (9 - a); (10 –c);
(11 - a); (12 – c); (13 – a); (14 – d); (15 – c); (16 – c); (17 – c); (18 – c); (19 – a);(20-b)]
16
III. True or False :
1. According to transportation problem number of basic (Occupied) cells should be exactly m + n + 1, so that
it becomes non-degerate.
2. If Total Supply is not equal to Total Demand and the Matrix elements then are Sales elements then the
problem is Unbalanced and Maximization Transportation Problem.
3. If Total Supply is equal to Total Demand and the Matrix elements are cost elements then
the problem is Unbalanced and Minimization Transportation Problem.
4. To test optamility in Transportation Problem, Least Cost Method (Matrix Minimum Method) is used.
5. If at least one unit is allocated to a prohibited cost cell (Cost indicated by M), we get infeasible solution.
6. Basic (Occupied) cells indicate positive values and non-basic (Un-occupied) cells have zero value for flow.
7. Most negative number is to be used as opportunity cost value for an unused cell to test optimality.
8. Minimization and Balanced Transportation problem is converted to Maximization and Balanced condition
to get regret matrix and to find further IFS and optimal Solution.
10. One of the methods to get regret matrix is multiply by – 1 to all Transportation elements of a Maximization
and balanced transportation problem.
10. MODI method is the best method to get Initial Feasible Transportation solution.
[Ans. : True : 2, 5, 6, 7, 9; False : 1, 3, 4, 8, 10]
IV. Match the Column :
Column A Column B
1. Prohibition in Transportation a) Alternate optimal Transportation Solution available

2. Transportation elements as Profit b) M

3. Transportation elements as time c) Unique optimal Transportation Solution
available
4. Add Dummy Column d) Degenerate Transportation Solution
5. Add Dummy Row e) Non-Degenerate Transportation Solution
6. If in optimal solution ∆ij = 0 f) If Total Supply > Total Demand in T.P.
7. If in optimal solution, ∆ij > 0 g) If Total Supply < Total Demand in T.P.
8. The numbers of allocation < m + n – 1 h) Maximization type Transportation Problem
9. The numbers of allocation = m + n – 1 i) Penalty
10. VAM j) Minimization type Transportation Problem
[Ans. : (1 – b), (2 – h), (3 – j), (4 – f), (5 – g), (6 – a), (7 – c), (8 – d), (9 – e), (10 – i)]

UNIT 3
CHP. 7- NETWORK ANALYSIS
I. Fill in the Blanks :
1. CPM is deterministic in nature where as PERT is ______ in nature.
2. The critical path is the _______ path through the network.
3. Critical path activities can have zero or ______ values for slack.
4. PERT uses _________ time estimates and CPM use a single time estimate.
5. ________ Float is the amount of time that the activity completion time can be delayed without
affecting the earliest start time of the immediate successor activity in the network.
6. The process of reducing total time that it takes to complete a project by employing additional resources
is called _______ .
7. PERT often assumes that the time estimates follow the ______ probability distribution.
8. In PERT/CPM, a (n) ________ is a time consuming job or task.
9. In an AON network representation, the ______ represents the activities.
17
10. _______ assumes that activity times are probabilistic.
11. _______ assumes that activity times are deterministic.
12. In CPM, we assume that resources are expended in a ________ fashion.
13. If we have a project that we have not done before, then _______ is probably to be preferred
over CPM, as a project management scheme.
14. Pert stands for Program evaluation and Review _______ .
15. The critical path represents the _______ time required to complete the project.
16. A (n) _______ is a point in time that marks the beginning or end of an activity.
17. _______ Float is the amount of time that the completion time of an activity can be delayed without
affecting project completion time.
18. In PERT, Most Likely Time ≥ ________ Time.
19. In PERT, _______ time represents the longest time the activity could take if everything goes wrong.
20. Major events in a projects are often referred to as ______ .
21. The earliest start (ES) of an activity is the largest earliest finish (EF) of the immediate___________.
22. Critical path activities that have a ________ value for slack are behind schedule.
23. During crashing process only _______ activities are crashed so as to reduce time of completion of
project.
24. __________ path means the second longest path in the network, which is shorter than the critical path
but longer than all other paths in the network.
[Ans. : (1 – probabilistic), (2 – longest), (3 - negative), (4 – three), (5 – Free), (6 - crashing),(7 – beta ),
(8 – activity), (9 – Node), (10 – PERT), (11 – CPM), (12 - linear), (13 – PERT), (14 - Technique),
(15 – longest), (16 – Event), (17 – Total), (18 – Optimistic), (19 – Pessimistic), (20 – Milestones ),
(21 – predecessors), (22 – negative), (23 - critical), (24 – Sub-critical)]

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

1. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and
complex projects by using only one time factor per activity?
a) Forecasting b) Critical path method
c) Program evaluation review technique d) Simulation

2. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and
complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity?
a) Forecasting b) Program evaluation review technique
c) Critical path method d) Simulation

3. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned activities
and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly
known as CPM. What does CPM stands for?
a) Critical plan method b) Coordinated plan method
c) Critical project method d) Critical path method
4. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned activities
and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly
known as PERT. What does Pert stands for?
a) Project evaluation review technique b) Program evaluation review technique
c) Path evaluation review technique d) Program execution review technique
5. What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project
management?
a) They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling
project.
b) They illustrate the interdependencies of all tasks
c) They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dares as well as the
probability that the project will be completed by a specific date
d) All of the above

18
6. The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in which year?
a) 1957 b) 1958
c) 1959 d) 1960
7. In what year was PERT developed?
a) 1957 b) 1959
c) 1960 d) 1958
8. In a PERT/CPM network, computing the critical path requires
a) determining the total project duration
b) assigning the earliest finish time for an activity as the earliest start time for the next
c) that the latest finishing time for an activity not delay the overall project beyond initial
expectation
d) a sophisticated and complex computer program
9. At the completion of the forward and backward passes, the slack for an activity is given by the
a) difference between early start and early finish
b) difference between early start and latest finish
c) difference between latest start and early finish
d) amount of idle labor on the critical path
10. The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that
a) PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
b) Critical Path is determined in PERT only
c) Costs are considered on CPM only and not in PERT
d) Guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM
11. In a PERT network, the earliest (activity) start time is the
a) Earliest time that an activity can be finished without delaying the entire project.
b) Latest time that an activity can be started without delaying the entire project.
c) Earliest time that an activity can start without violation of precedence requirements.
d) Latest time that an activity can be finished without delaying the entire project
12. The time by which activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the start of
succeeding activities, is known as :
a) Interfering float b) Total float
c) Duration d) Free float

13. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :

a) The activity which consumes maximum time, is called a node
b) The activity is the time consuming part of a project
c) The beginning and end of a job, are called events
d) Logically and sequentially connected activities and events form a network
14. The artificial activity which indicates that an activity following it, cannot be started unless the
preceding activity is complete, is known as :
a) Free float b) Event
c) Dummy d) Constant
15. An important assumption in PERT calculations is :
a) Activity times are normally distributed
b) Activity times are independent.
c) A and B
d) None of the above.

16. In PERT, slack time equals

a) EST + t b) LST – EST
c) Zero d) EFT – EST
17. A dummy activity is required when

19
 a) Two or more activities have the same starting events.
b) Two or more activities have different ending events.
c) Two or more activities have the same ending events.
d) The network contains two or more activities that have identical starting and ending events.
18. PERT analysis computes the variance of the total project completion time as
a) The sum of the variances of all activities in the project.
b) The sum of the variances of all activities not on the critical path.
c) The variance of the final activity of the project.
d) The sum of the variances of all activities on the critical path.
19. If an activity has zero activity slack it
a) means that the project is expected to be delayed.
b) must be a dummy activity.
c) is on the critical path.
d) all of the above
20. Pick the wrong relationship:
a) Interfering float = Total float – Free float
b) Total float = Free float + Independent float
c) Total float ≥ Free float ≥ Independent float
d) Free float = Total float – Head event slack
21. Choose the correct condition of the following:
a) Crash Direct Cost > Normal Direct Cost, Crash time > Normal time
b) Crash Direct Cost < Normal Direct Cost, Crash time > Normal time
c) Crash Direct Cost < Normal Direct Cost, Crash time < Normal time
d) Crash Direct Cost > Normal Direct Cost, Crash time < Normal time
22. Indirect cost ______ when the project is crashed
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Becomes zero d) None of the above
23. Which of these statements regarding time – cost trade - offs in CPM networks is true?
a) Crashing is not possible unless there are multiple critical paths.
b) Crashing a project often reduces the duration of non-critical, activities.
c) Activities not on the critical path can never by on the critical path, even after crashing.
d) Crashing shortens the project duration by assigning more resources to one or more of the
critical tasks.
24. Activity to be crashed is selected based on :
a) critical activity with minimum crash cost
b) non-critical activity with minimum crash cost
c) critical activity with maximum crash cost
d) non-critical activity with maximum crash cost
25. Which of the following is not a concept associated with CPM
a) Normal Time b) Probability
c) Normal Cost c) Crash Cost
[Ans.: (1. – b); (2. – b); (3. – d); (4. – a); (5. – d); (6. – a); (7. – d); (8. – b); (9. – a); (10. – d);
(11 – c); (12 – d); (13 – a); (14 – c); (15 – b); (16 – b); (17 – d); (18 – d); (19 – c); (20 – b) ;
(21 – d); (22 – b); (23 – d) ; (24 – a) ; (25 – b)]

III. True or False :

1. In PERT, the total project completion time follows a normal probability distribution.
2. PERT differs from CPM in that PERT provides time versus cost tradeoffs.
3. PERT uses three activity time values to obtain an estimate of the mean activity time and predictability of
duration.
4. Activities on the critical path exhibit positive slack times.
5. The expected activity time is the average of an activity’s optimistic and pessimistic times
6. Dummy activities are found in activity--on--arc or arrow (AOA) convention PERT/CPM network models.

20
7. The dummy activity has an expected time of zero by definition.
8. Early start time (ES) is computed from right to left (backward pass).
9. PERT, but not CPM, has the ability to consider the precedence relationships in a project.
10. The shortest of all paths through the network is the critical path.
11. The fundamental difference between PERT and CPM is that PERT uses the beta distribution for crashing
projects while CPM uses cost estimates.
12. Slack is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the entire project.
13. Every network has at least one critical path.
14. The critical path can be determined by use of either the “forward pass” or the “backward pass”.
15. The PERT pessimistic time estimate is an estimate of the minimum time an activity will require.
16. The standard deviation of project duration is the average of the standard deviation of all activities on the
critical path.
17. In PERT analysis, the identification of the critical path can be incorrect if a noncritical activity takes
substantially more than its expected time.
18. PERT stands for Program Efficiency and Review Techniques.
19. There can be multiple critical paths on the same project, all with different durations.
20. In PERT, an activity that has slack can be delayed without affecting the start of any other activity.
21. When using PERT, the project variance is computed by summing the variance of all the
activities of the project.
22. In CPM, when we crash an activity, we always crash it to the minimum time possible.
23. CPM is more appropriate than PERT for managing projects that are unfamiliar and for which we
can only estimate activity durations.
24. PERT is more appropriate than CPM for managing projects that are familiar and repeatative.
25. On a network diagram, a successor activity is an activity that can be started only after the given activity is
finished.
26. In CPM, we assume that activity times are deterministic, while in PERT we assume that activity times
probabilistic.
27. When crashing a project, it is possible that the reduction in the current critical path causes a non-critical
path or paths to become critical path or paths.
28. The ES of an activity that has only one predecessor is simply the EF of that predecessor.
29. Crashing an activity that is on non - critical path will reduce the project duration.
30. Direct cost increases when the project is crashed.
31. An activity with the least cost slope is to be considered first for crashing.
32. The other named for fast tracking a project is called crashing.
33. CPM and PERT are quantitative analysis tools designed to plan, schedule and control small as well
as large projects.
34. PERT is a deterministic analysis tool allowing for precise times of activities within a project.
35. PERT had its beginnings in a military department of the United States.
36. CPM is a probabilistic analysis of managing a project.
37. An event is a point in time that marks the beginning or ending of an activity.
38. In AOA system, a network is a graphical display of a project that contains both activities and events.
39. The optimistic time is the greatest amount of time that could be required to complete an activity.
40. PERT is a network technique similar to CPM, but PERT allows for project crashing.
41. The most likely completion time of an activity is used to represent that activity’s time within a
project.
42. The expected completion time and variance of an activity is approximated by the normal distribution in
a PERT analysis.
43. PERT was developed for a project for which activity or task times were uncertain.
44. CPM was developed for use in managing projects which are repeated and about which we
have good information as to activity or task completion times.
45. With PERT, we are able to calculate the probability of finishing the project on a particular day.
46. With CPM, we are able to calculate the probability of finishing the project on a particular day.
47. A PERT or CPM network shows activities and activity sequences.

21
48. One of the most difficult aspects of using PERT is defining the activities so that they have measurable
/observable starts and finishes.
49. Before drawing a PERT or CPM network, we must identify each activity and their immediate predecessors.
50. The three time estimates employed in PERT are: optimistic time, average time, and pessimistic time.
51. In the PERT process, if an activity has zero variance it must be on the critical path.
52. Given the variability of the activity completion time, the original critical path we identify in our
PERT analysis may not always be the actual critical path as the project takes place.
53. In PERT, the activity completion times are modeled using the beta distribution.
54. In PERT, the mean and variance of the activity time are estimated on the basis of the ‘pessimistic’,
‘most likely’ and ‘optimistic’ completion times.
55. In PERT, the earliest finish time in one activity will always be the earliest start time of the following activity.
56. In PERT, the earliest start time for an activity is equal to the latest of the earliest finish time of all
all of its immediate predecessors.
57. Dummy activity does not consume time or resources.
58. In AON system of Network diagram, events are not shown in the diagram.
59. In PERT, Variance is calculated as square root of standard deviation.
60. In Time – Cost Trade off in Project Crashing, as project duration is crashed Direct Cost
increases and Indirect cost decreases.
[Ans. : True : 1, 3, 6, 7, 12, 13, 17, 25, 26, 27, 28, 30, 31, 33, 35, 37, 38, 43, 44, 45, 47, 48,
49, 52, 53, 54, 56, 57, 58, 60
False : 2, 4, 5, 8, 9, 10, 11, 14, 15, 16, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 29, 32, 34, 36, 39, 40, 41, 42,
46, 50, 51, 55, 59]

IV. Match the Column :

Column A Column B
1. Optimistic Time a) Free Float – Slack of Tail Event
2. Total Float b) Time estimate in PERT by considering
worst delays
3. Earliest Finish Time c) Probablistic Model
4. Most Likely Time d) Latest Start Time – Earliest Start Time
5. CPM e) Free Float – Slack of Head Event
6. Free Float f) Shortest and Ideal Time estimate in PERT
7. Normal Cost g) Earliest Start Time + Time Duration of
Activity
8. Pessimistic Time h) less than crash cost
9. Independent Float i) greater than crash time
10. PERT j) Time estimate in PERT by considering
normal delays
11. Standard Deviation Square k) Deterministic Model
12. Normal Time l) Variance

[Ans. : (1 – f), (2 – d), (3 – g), (4 – j), (5 – k), (6 – e), (7 – h), (8 – b), (9 – a), (10 – c), (11 – l),
(12 – i)]

UNIT 4
CHP. 8 - JOB SEQUENCING PROBLEMS
I. Fill in the Blanks :
1. _____ time is the time on a machine, for which a machine does not have a job to process.
2. _____ time is the time required by each job on each machine.
3. _____ order (sequence ) refers to the order (sequence) in which machines are required for
completing the job.
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4. In n jobs and 3 machines ABC problem, to convert the problem in 2 machines to solve further, the
minimum processing time on machine A and / or on machine C must be _____ than the maximum
processing time on machine B.
5. _____ is the process of determining which job to start first and in what order jobs should be processed
on the machine or in work centre.
[Ans. : (1 – Idle), (2 – Processing), (3 – Processing), (4 – greater), (5 – Job Sequencing)]

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

1. S.M. Johnson’s algorithm derives the minimum completion times for all “no passing” cases.
“No passing” means:
a) the order of processing jobs through the first facility must be preserved at the last facility.
b) the order of processing jobs through the first facility must be preserved for the next
facility.
c) the order of processing jobs through the first facility must be preserved for all subsequent
facilities.
d) none of the above
2. An approach that minimizes the total time for sequencing a group of jobs through two work
centers while minimizing total idle time in the work centers.
a) Gross Materials Requirement Plan b) Load Report
c) Lot – for – Lot d) Johnson’s Rule
3. When a set of jobs must pass through two workstations whose sequence is fixed, _____ is the
rule most commonly applied
a) Johnson’s Rule b) Earliest Due Date Rule
c) First Come, First Serve Rule d) Slack Time Remaining
4. __________ is the process of determining which job to start first and in what order other
jobs should be processed on the machine or in work centre
a) job sequencing b) Priority rules
c) Batch production d) None of these

5. Five jobs (A, B, C, D and E) are waiting to be processed on Machine P first and then on Machine Q.
There processing times are given below. Using the Johnson’s Rule find the optimal job sequence.

Machines Jobs
A B C D E
P 1 5 5 9 1
Q 3 2 2 4 3

a) A – B – C – D – E b) A – E – D – B – C
c) A – C – B – D – E d) E – A – B – C – D
6. In sequencing if smallest time for a job belongs to machine- 1 then that job has to placed _____
of the sequence.
a) in the middle b) in the starting
c) at end d) none of them
7. In sequencing the time involved in moving jobs from one machine to another is ______ .
a) negligible b) positive number
c) significant d) none of them
8. _______ operation is carried out on a machine at a time.
a) Two b) at least one
c) only one d) non of them
9. Processing time Mij’s are _____ of order of processing the jobs.
a) dependent b) negligible

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 c) independent d) none of them
10. If there are n jobs to be performed, one at a time, on each of m machines, the possible
sequences would be
a) (n!)m b) (n)m
n
c) (m!) d) (m)n
11. Total elapsed time to process all jobs through two machine is given by
n n
a) ∑M1j b) ∑M1j+I1j
j=1 j=1
n
c) ∑M2j+∑M1j d) None of above
j=1
12. The minimum processing time on machine M1 and M2 are related as
a) Min t1j = Max t2j b) Min t1j ≥ Max t2j
c) Min t1j ≤ Max t2j d) Min t2j ≥ Max t1j
[Ans. : (1 – c); (2 – d); (3 – a); (4 – a); (5 -b); (6 – b); (7 – a); (8 – c); (9 – c); (10 – a); (11 – c); (12 – b)]

III. True or False :

1. In sequencing, the processing time on each machine need out be known.
2. The time required to complete a job is independent of the order of the jobs in which they are to be
processed.
3. Machine may process more than one job simultaneously.
4. In Sequencing, the time taken by each job in changing over from one machine to another is negligible.
5. Each job, once started on a machine need not be performed up to completion on that machine.
6. The order of completion of job has no significance, i.e., no job is to be given priority.
7. A job starts on the machine as soon as the job and the machine both are idle.
8. The orders of completion of jobs are dependent on the sequence of jobs.
[Ans. : True : 2, 4, 6, 7; False : 1, 3, 5, 8 ]

IV. Match the Column :

Column A Column B
1. Optimal job Sequence a) No machine can process more than one
Operation at a time.
2. No passing rule b) To find optimal Job Sequence which will
minimize total machines processing time.
3. Sequencing assumption c) Minimum total elapsed time
4. Idle Time on Machine A d) Technique for minimizing completion time
for a n number of jobs to be processed on
two or three machines
5. Sequencing Objective e) The same order of jobs is maintained over
each machine
6. Johnson’s Rule (algorithm) f) Machine B Total Time Out - Machine A
Total Time Out

[Ans. : (1 – c), (2 –e), (3 – a), (4 – f), (5 – b), (6 – d)]

UNIT - IV
CHP. 9 - THEORY OF GAMES
I. Fill in the Blanks :
24
1. When a saddle point is present, a _______ strategy exists.
2. The ______ strategy minimizes the maximum loss.
3. Game models are classified by the number of ______ , the sum of all payoffs and the number of
strategies employed.
4. In a _____ strategy game, each player should optimize the expected gain.
5. The term ______ game implies that as much was won as was lost.
6. The lower value of the game is equal to the maximum maximum of the ______ values in the
rows of the payoff matrix.
7. In a Game, there are finite numbers of competitors called _____ .
8. Each player has a finite number of possible courses of action called ______ .
9. The figures shown as the outcomes of strategies in a matrix form are called ______ matrix.
10. The player playing the game always tries to choose the best course of action which results in optimal
pay off called ______ strategy.
11. The expected pay off when all the players of the game follow their optimal strategies is known
as _______ of the game
12. If a player knows exactly what the other player is going to do, a deterministic situation is obtained, then
it is ______ strategy.
13. Pure strategy games are normally solved by ______ method.
14. Mixed strategy games are normally solved by ______ method.
15. In a two-player ______ game, one player’s gain is the other player’s loss, so their interests are
diametrically opposed.

[Ans. : (1 – pure), (2 – minimax), (3 – players), (4 – mixed), (5 – Zero-Sum), (6 – minimum), (7 – players),

(8 – strategies), (9 – pay-off), (10 – optimal), (11 – value), (12 – pure), (13 – saddle point),
(14 – Dominance Principles), (15 – zero-sum)]

II. Multiple Choice Questions :

1. Who developed the Game Theory.
a) J. R. Hicks b) William J. Baumol
c) Neumann Morgenstern d) Samuelson P. T.
2. What is a saddle point?
a) Equilibrium point b) Balanced Growth Point
c) Imbalanced Growth Point d) Unstable Equilibrium Point
3. In a constant sum game, what is true?
a) Both player get equal gains b) Both players adopt the same strategy
c) Mixed strategies are adopted by players d) What one player gains, the other loses
4. When minimax and the maximin in a pay off matrix are equal
a) It is a indeterminate solution
b) It is a strictly determined game
c) It can not be solved by a Two person constant sum game.
d) It can not be solved by zero sum game.
5. In game theory, a choice that is optimal for a firm no matter what its competitors do is referred
to as
a) the dominant strategy. b) the game-winning choice.
c) super optimal. d) a gonzo selection.
6. Which of the following circumstances in an industry will result in a Nash equilibrium?
a) All firm have a dominant strategy and each firm chooses its dominant strategy.
b) All firms have a dominant strategy, but only some choose to follow it.
c) All firms have a dominant strategy, and none choose it.
d) None of the above is correct
7. Which of the following describes a Nash equilibrium?

25
 a) A firm chooses its dominant strategy, if one exists
b) Every competing firm in an industry chooses a strategy that is optimal given the choices of
every other firm.
c) Market price results in neither a surplus nor a shortage
d) All firms in an industry are earning zero economic profits
8. Game theory is concerned with
a) predicting the results of bets placed on games like roulette
b) the choice of an optimal strategy in conflict situations
c) utility maximization by firms in perfectly competitive markets
d) the migration patterns of caribou in Alaska
9. In game theory, the outcome or consequence of a strategy is referred to as the
a) payoff b) penalty
c) reward d) end-game strategy
10. A strategy that is best regardless of what rival players do is called
a) first-mover advantage. b) a Nash equilibrium strategy
c) tit-for-tat. d) a dominant strategy.
11. A common assumption about the players in a game is that
a) neither player knows the payoff matrix.
b) the players have different information about the payoff matrix.
c) only one of the players pursues a rational strategy.
d) the specific identity of the players is irrelevant to the play of the game.

12. In a zero-sum game,

a) what one player wins, the other loses.
b) the sum of each player’s winnings if the game is played many times must be zero.
c) the game is fair – each person has an equal chance of winning.
d) long-run profits must be zero.
[ (1. – c); (2. – a); (3. – d); (4. – b); (5. – a); (6. – a); (7. – b); (8. – b); (9. – a); (10. – d);(11. – d); (12. – a)]

III. True of False :

1. Different saddle points in the same payoff matrix always have the same payoff.
2. If you play against a player who chooses moves completely at random, then your optimal mixed strategy
is the best you can do.
3. Some strictly determined games do not have saddle points.
4. For every mixed row strategy, there is a pure strategy for the column player that maximizes his or her
outcome.
5. An optimal strategy is one that maximizes one’s maximum potential gain.
6. The row [0, 1, 2] dominates the row [0, 1, 1]
7. The row [0, 0, 0] dominates the row [-1, -1, -1]
8. The column [-2, 0, 0] dominates the column [-1, 10, 20]
9. A mixed strategy is one in which a player chooses different moves in a predetermined sequence.
10. Your opponent’s knowledge that you are using your optimal strategy does not benefit him in the least.
11. If the row player knows the column player’s mixed strategy, then she can respond with a pure strategy
for the best outcome.
12. The row[-1, 10, 20] dominates the row [0, 0, 0]
13. The payoff matrix is always a square matrix
14. An optimal strategy is one that minimizes the maximum damage the opponent can cause.
15. A negative payoff indicates a loss to the row player.
16. According to the principles of game theory, your opponent can always anticipate your move.
17. The column [0, 0, 0] dominates the column [1, 1, 1].
18. There are mixed strategies for which the best response is not a pure strategy.
19. The column [0, -1, -2] dominates the column [0, -1, -1]

26
20. Your opponent’s knowledge that you are using some specific non-optimal strategy does not benefit him
in the least.
[Ans. : True : 1, 6, 7, 8, 10, 11, 14, 15, 17, 19;
False : 2, 3, 4, 5, 9, 12, 13, 16, 18, 20]

IV. Match the Column :

Column A Column B
1. Zero Sum Game a) Reduction in order of matrix.
2. Principles of Dominance b) a payoff that is simultaneously a row
minimum and a column maximum
3. Value of Game = 0 c) at least one saddle point exists.
4. Saddle Point d) same move at each round of the Game.
5. Strictly determined game e) Fair Game.
6. Mixed Strategy f) one player’s gain is the other player’s loss
7. Pure Strategy g) player 2 should choose the strategy whose
maximum payoff to player 1 is the
smallest.
8. Maximin Strategy h) the player chooses move at random so
that each is used a predetermined fraction
of the time.
9. Minimax Strategy i) player 1 should select the strategy whose
minimum payoff to player 2 is the largest.

[Ans. : (1 – f), (2 – a), (3 – e), (4 – b), (5 – c), (6 – h), (7 – d), (8 – i), (9 – g)]

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