7.

Which is true of Hb
a. Abnormalities can lead to haemolysis in conditions such as spherocytosis and sickle cell anaemia
because of increased RBC fragility
b. HbF has a lower affinity for 2,3 DPG and thus oxygen compared to HbA
c. Is the major oxygen and CO2 carrier
d. Colours the blood: oxygenated (red) methaemoglobin (blue)
e. In normal venous blood carries 6 atoms of oxygen per molecule and so is saturated 75% with
oxygen
A

8. Which is true of the blood types

a. Are determined by RBC surface agglutinogens
b. When incompatible between recipient and donor at transfusion usually results in recipient
heamoagglutination
c. Can help determine parenthood, eg the child of a parent who are both type B must be type B
d. Are determined by plasma agglutinins
e. Rh incompatibility between mother and foetus may necessitate intrauterine transfusion of the foetus
with maternal compatible blood
C

9. anticlotting mechanisms include

a. conversion of thrombin to protein C activator
b. AT III inactivation of VIIIa
c. Inactivation of tPA
d. Inhibition of fibrinogen degradation products by thrombin
e. TXA2, prostacyclin activity, the latter promoting vascular spasm and platelet aggregation, the
former the reverse
C

10. Which of the following has the greatest effect on the ability of the blood to transport oxygen
a. The capacity of the blood to dissolve oxygen
b. The amount of Hb in the blood
c. The pH of plasma
d. The CO2 content of RBC
e. The temperature of the blood
C

11. The Haldane effect describes

a. The shift to the right of the HbO2 dissociation curve caused by increased CO2 in the blood
b. The enhanced loading of CO2 in the presence of deoxygenated Hb
c. The shift of chloride ions into RBC to balance HCO 3 shift from those cells
d. The action of carbonic anhydrase on carbonic acid
e. None of the above
A

12. With regard to CO2 carriage in the blood

a. Dissolved CO2 has an insignificant role in the carriage of CO 2 in the blood
 b. HCO3 production is fast in plasma
c. Ionic dissociation of carbonic acid in the RBC is fast without an enzyme
d. The CO2 concentration in blood is independent of the saturation of Hb with oxygen
e. The majority of CO2 is carried in the blood in the forms of dissolved CO 2 and carbamino
compounds
E

13. With regard to the normal HbO2 dissociation curve, which is true
a. PaO2 = 60mmHg, SaO2 = 80%
b. PaO2 = 40mmHg, SaO2 = 75%
c. PaO2 = 30mmHg, SaO2 = 40%
d. Acidosis shifts curve to the left
e. Decreased CO2 shifts curve to the right
D

14. regarding the Rh antigen system

a. Rh + individuals have C,D, E antigens
b. 50% caucasions are D +
c. do not develop anti D antibodies without exposure of D – individuals to D + RBC
C

15. Regarding granulocytes

a. All have cytoplasmic granules
b. Basophils are identical to mast cells
c. Eosinophils phagocytose viruses
d. Neutrophils have a half life of 4 days
A

16. Regarding HbF

a. Fe3+ binds O2
b. HbF has no β chain
c. Globin is synthesised from porphyrin
A

17. increased 2,3 DPG occurs in all of the following except

a. chronic hypoxia
b. acidosis
c. androgens
d. thyroid hormones
e. none of the above
C

Question 1

Which of the following white blood cells is capable of phagocytosis?

 a) Basophil
b) Eosinophil
c) Lymphocyte

d) Neutrophil
D
Question 2

What would happen to red blood cells if the haem group were removed from haemoglobin?

a) Red blood cells would not be able to bind oxygen.

b) Red blood cells would not be able to reproduce.
c) White blood cells would not be able to reproduce.

d) Blood clot formation would be inhibited.

A
Question 3

The hormone erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the red bone marrow.
Where in the body is erythropoietin produced?

a) Spleen
b) Kidney
c) Liver

d) Thyroid
B
Question 4

Which of the following statements about erythrocytes is correct?

a) They fight infection.

b) They clot blood.
c) They lack a nucleus.
 d) They are produced in the spleen.
C
Question 5

Where does haematopoiesis take place?

a) Lungs
b) Pancreas
c) Liver

d) Bone marrow.
D
Question 6

The formation of a blood clot is known as which of the following?

a) Coagulation
b) Chemotaxis
c) Leucopoiesis

d) Erythropoiesis
A
Question 7

Platelets are formed from what type of cell?

a) Melanocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Astrocytes

d) Megakaryocytes
D
Question 8
 Which of the following is the function of white blood cells?

a) Transport oxygen.
b) Maintain homeostasis.
c) Defend against infection.

d) Produce haemoglobin.
C
Question 9

An increased white blood cell count is indicative of which disease?

a) Lupus
b) Leukaemia
c) Anaemia

d) Melanoma
B
Question 10

The process of coagulation is classically divided into how many pathways?

a) 3
b) 5
c) 2

d) 4
3
Leukocytes can be partially identified by looking at their nucleus. All leukocytes have just
one nucleus, but some have several lobes to their nucleus. Which of the following does
NOT have a multi‐lobed nucleus?

 basophil
 eosinophil
 lymphocyte
 C

Most leukocytes will leave the bloodstream and function to kill bacteria, etc., often times
dying in the process. These leukocytes do not return to the bloodstream. Which of the
following leukocytes are the only ones that can leave and return to the bloodstream?

 monocytes
 lymphocytes
 neutrophils

Neutrophils are referred to as polymorphonuclear leukocytes because __________.

 they have many nuclei

 their nucleus can take on a variety of shapes
 some have a single nucleus and some have many nuclei

Carbon dioxide binds the __________ portion of hemoglobin.

 iron
 heme
 amino acid

Carbon monoxide is a deadly gas and binds to hemoglobin when inhaled. It creates
problems because it binds to the same site as oxygen does, competing for the same
binding site. This ultimately causes the erythrocyte to deliver carbon monoxide instead of
oxygen to the tissues. Which of the following is the binding site for carbon monoxide?

 iron
 globin
 amino acid

Megakaryocytes leave the bone marrow and enter the bloodstream by passing through
the walls of capillaries. In the process of passing through the pores in the capillaries, the
megakaryocytes fragment. These fragments are __________.

 platelets
 plasma proteins
 circulating antigens
A

1. Tissue plasmin activator _______________

a) helps in wound healing
b) allergy response
c) immunity
d) dissolves clot in blood vessels
A

2. Which of the following will not coagulate when placed separately on four
slides?
a) Blood serum
b) Blood plasma
c) Blood from pulmonary vein
d) Blood from lymphatic tissue
B

3. The vitamin essential for blood clotting is _______

a)vitaminA
b) vitamin B
c) vitamin C
d) vitamin K
K

3. What prevents clotting of blood in blood vessels?

a) Serotonin
b) Fibrinogen
c) Heparin
d) Fibrin
C

4. Clumping of cells is known as _______

a) clotting
b) mutation
c) agglutination
d) glutathione
A

5. Which of the following is correct?

a) Lymph = Plasma + WBC’s + RBC’s
b) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes
 c) Neuron = Cyton + Dendron + Axon + Synapse
d) Blood = Plasma + RBC’s + WBC’s + Platelets
D

8. Antigen presenting cells are _______

a) T cells
b) B cells
c) Macrophages
d) Mast cells
T

9. Which of the following plasma protein is involved in coagulation of blood?

a) Albumin
b) Globulin
c) Fibrinogen
d) Amylase
C

10. In the clotting mechanism pathway, thrombin activates factors ___________

a) XI VIII V
b) XI IX X
c) VIII X V
d) IX VIII X

ANATOMY MCQS

1. The cerebellum is separated from medulla and pons by:

A. Cerebellar peduncles.
B. Cerebral Aqueduct.
C. Fourth ventricle.
D. Lateral ventricles.
A

2. The cerebellar hemispheres are joined together by:

A. Velum.
B. Vermis.
C. Basilar groove.
D. Corpus callosum.
B

3. Which of the following is located in front of the posterolateral fissure?

A. Anterior.
B. Median.
C. Posterior.
D. Flocculonodular.
C

4. Choose the correct organization of the deep cerebellar nuclei from lateral to medial:
A. Globose, Dentate, Emboliform, Fastigial.
B. Fastigial, Dentate, Emboliform, Globose.
C. Fastigial, Globose, Emboliforme, Dentate.
D. Dentate, Emboliform, Globose, Fastigial.
D

5. In the cerebellar medulla, climbing fibers arise from?

A. Inferior olivary nucleus.
B. Spinal cord.
C. Pons.
D. Vestibular nuclei.
B

6. Which of the following fibers do not relay in the granule cells of cerebellar cortex?
A. Vestibular fibers.
B. Pontine fibers.
C. Climbing fibers.
D. Spinal cord fibers.
D

7. Which of the following nuclei is involved in the control of balance?

A. Fastigial.
B. Dentate.
C. Emboliform.
D. Globose.
A

8. The spinal part of cerebellum includes:

A. Flocculonodular lobe.
B. Vermis & paravermis.
C. Cerebellar peduncles.
D. Anterior and posterior lobes.
C
9. Efferents of paleocerebellum project to _____ through _____?
A. Spinal cord through ICP.
B. Red nucleus through ICP.
C. Spinal cord through SCP.
D. Red nucleus through SCP.
D

10. The neocerebellum coordinates voluntary movements via:

A. Corticospinal tracts.
B. Spinacerebellar tracts.
C. Spinothalamic tracts.
D. Reticulospinal tracts.
A

11. Which one of the following nuclei is related to neocerebellum?

A. Fastigeal nucleus.
B. Dentate nucleus.
C. Globose nucleus.
D. Emboliform nucleus.
B

12. To which part of the CNS the flocculonodular lobe send its efferent fibers?
A. Red nucleus.
B. Pons.
C. Vestibular nuclei.
D. Motor cortex.
A
13.The largest nucleus in the cerebellum can be seen by naked eye is :
A. Fastigial nucleus.
B. Globose nucleus.
C. Dentate nucleus.
D. Emboliform nucleus.
C
14.Which part in cerebellum is concerned with coordination of movement ?
A. Vermis.
B. Paravermis.
C. Folocculonodular lobe.
D. Neocerebellum.
A