1.

What is the full form of UNCITRAL

a) United Nations council on International trade law
b) United Nation committee on internal trade law
c) United Nation commission on internal trade law
d) United Nations commission on international trade Law
2. In a case relating to arbitration, the arbitral award was remitted under section 16 of the
Arbitration Act, 1940. The date of award was 1st June, 1992. The Arbitration and
Conciliation Act came into force on 22 August, 1996. The validity of award can be
challenged under the

a. Limitation Act, 1963

b. General Clauses Act, 1897
c. Arbitration Act, 1940
d. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 only.

3. Which among the following is the main objective of the Arbitration Act, 1996?
a. To comprehensively cover international commercial arbitration
b. To ensure that arbitral tribunal within the limits of court’s jurisdiction
c. To minimize the supervisory role of courts in the arbitral process
d.  none of the above
4. The power of court to refer parties for arbitration would and must necessarily include, imply
and inhere in it
a. the power and jurisdiction to advise the parties
b. the power and jurisdiction to review the award
c. the power and jurisdiction to appoint the arbitrator
d. the power and jurisdiction to call for another arbitrator.
5. Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 applies where
a. the place of arbitration is in India
b. the place of arbitration is outside India, but is in Asia
c. the place of arbitration is outside India, but is in Europe
d. the place of arbitration is anywhere in the world.
6. An arbitral award made under Part l of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall be
considered as a
a. domestic award
b. foreign award
c. general award
d. international award.
7. The provisions of 1996 Act have to be interpreted being uninfluenced by principles
underlying under 1940 Act. This observation was laid down in:
a. M.M.T.C. Ltd. v. Sterlite Industries (India) Ltd, AIR 1997 SC 605
b. Sundamm Finace Ltd. v. N.E.P.C. India Ltd., AIR 1999 SC 565.
c. Olympus Super Structures Pvt. Ltd. v. Meemz Vijay Khetan, AIR 1999 SC 2102.
d. Orma Impex Pvt. Ltd. v. Nissuri Arb. Pte. Ltd., AIR 1999 SC 2871.
8. An arbitrator:
a. is chosen and paid by the disputant
b. acts in accordance with privately chosen procedure so far as that is not repugnant to
public policy
c. only (a) is correct
d. both (a) and (b) are correct.
9. An arbitral award:
a. must be connected with the subject-matter of the dispute arbitrated
b. must be founded on principle of trust
c. both (a) and (b) are correct
d. only (a) is correct
10. An arbitral award
a. has to be in writing but need not be signed
b. has to be in writing and signed by the members of the arbitral tribunal
c. may be oral
d. either (a) or (b) or (c).
11. An arbitral award
a. must state the reasons upon which it is based
b. must state the reasons upon which it is based only when the parties have agreed for
the same
c. need not state the reason upon which it is based
d. may state or may not state the reasons upon which it is based as per discretion of the
members of the arbitral tribunal.
12. A sum directed to be paid by an arbitral award shall carry interest
a. @ 6% per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment
b. @ 12% per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment
c. 18% per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment
d. 24 % per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment.
13. Finality to arbitral awards within meaning of section 35 of the Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996 shall
a. not be binding on parties
b. be binding on government authority
c. be binding on first party only
d. be binding on the parties and person claiming under them respectively.
14. Which of the following in the correct statement
a. an arbitral award can be inferred with if it is contrary to the substantive provisions of
the Act or against the terms of the contract
b. an arbitral award can be set aside if the arbitral tribunal has not followed the
mandatory procedure prescribed under the Act
c. an arbitral award can be set aside if it is contrary to fundamental policy of Indian law,
or the interest of India, or justice or morality
d. all of the above.
15. Private arbitration is also described as:
a. integral arbitration
b. consensual arbitration
c. domestic arbitration
d. none of the above.
16. Ad-hoc arbitration can be sought:
a. when the parties involved in commercial transaction choose to incorporate arbitration
clause as a part of agreement to refer their future disputes
b. when a dispute that arose between the parties to a business transaction could not
be settled through mediation or conciliation
c. when the parties agree to submit to arbitration ‘all or any’ differences which have
arisen or may arise
d. only (b) and (c).
17. Statutory arbitration is:
a. imposed on the parties by operation of law
b. a compulsory arbitration
c. where consent of the parties is not necessary
d. all of the above.
18. Court under section 2(1)(e), Arbitration and Conciliation Act means
a. Court of Small Causes
b. Principal Civil Court and Civil Court of an inferior grade
c. Principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction
d. all of the above.
19. A ‘party’ within the meaning of section 2, Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 means
 a. party to the contract
b. party to the arbitration agreement
c. party to the suit/ proceedings
d. either (a) or (b) or (c).
20. The definition of ‘Arbitral Tribunal’ under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 means
a. sole arbitrator or a panel of arbitrators
b. sole arbitrator only
c. panel of arbitrators only
d. presiding officer.
21. A written statement of the reasons for the challenge to the arbitral tribunal has to be sent
within
a. 15 days of becoming aware of the constitution or the reasons
b. 30 days of becoming aware of the constitution or the reasons
c. 7 days of becoming aware of the constitution or the reasons
d. 60 days of becoming aware of the constitution or the reasons
22. During the arbitral proceedings the arbitral tribunal
a. can make interim award
b. may require a party to provide appropriate security
c. both (a) and (b)
d. either (a) or (b).
23. The arbitral tribunal has the jurisdiction to
a. award interest on the whole or part of the money
b. award interest on the whole of the money Only
c. award interest on part of the money only
d. either (b) or (c).
24. The expression ‘Arbitration agreement’ under section 7 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act,
1996 means
a. any agreement which have arisen under the Arbitration Act of 1940
b. any agreement to submit to arbitration all or certain disputes which have arisen
or which may arise between them in respect of a defined legal relationship,
contractual or not.
c. any agreement to submit to arbitration certain disputes of civil nature
d. any agreement to submit to arbitration certain disputes of criminal nature.
25. Indian ADR system is based on the Common law system

a. False

b. True

c. mixed system of Civil and Common law system

d. None of the above

26. ADR techniques include arbitration, conciliation, mediation and negotiation.

a. Yes

b. No

c. yes, but LoK Adalat is also a type of ADR system

d. Maybe

27. Which of the following are benefits derived from use of ADR methods:
a. Lower Costs

b. Greater procedural flexibility

c. High likelihood of settlement

d. All of these

28. Which of the following is not a method of ADR:

a. Panchayat

b. Lok Adalat

c. Permanent Lok Adalat

d. Judicial Settlement

29. In a case relating to arbitration the arbitral award was remitted under section 16 of the
arbitration act 1940. The date of award was 1 June 1992. The arbitration and conciliation act
came into force on 22 August 1996. The validity of the award can be challenged under the

a. Limitation act, 1963

b. General clauses act 1897

c. arbitration act 1940

d. arbitration and conciliation act 1996 only

30. The present arbitration and conciliation act of 1996 is based on:

a. Constitution of India

b. Guidelines of Supreme Court of India

c. European commercial arbitration procedure

d. UNCITRAL, 1985

31. Arbitral proceedings comments

a. On the date on which a Request for a dispute to be referred to arbitration is

received by the respondent

b. On the date which the respondent gives consent to the appointment of the arbitrator

c. On the date when the arbitrator issued notice to the parties

d. On the date when the statement of claim and written submission of difference is made

32. To invoke international commercial arbitration it is necessary that at least one of the party is:

a. A body corporate which is incorporated in any country other than India

b. Government of the foreign country

 c. An individual who is a national of, or habitually resident in any country other than
India

d. All of the above

33. Which is correct statement:

a. Institutional arbitration has its own set of rules.

b. Indian Council of arbitration is the apex body.

c. The rules may provide for domestic or international arbitration or for both.

d. All of the above

34. The arbitral tribunal has the jurisdiction to rule

a. On its own

b. On objection as to the existence of the arbitration agreement

c. On objection as to the validity of the arbitration agreement

d. All of the above

35. A party shall be precluded from raising the question of jurisdiction of arbitral tribunal

a. Where he has appointed the arbitrator

b. Where he has participated in the appointment of the arbitrator

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Neither (a) Nor (b)

36. The member of statutory arbitral tribunals are appointed by:

a. Parties themselves

b. State

c. Centre

d. None of the above

37. The arbitrator in case of international commercial arbitration is appointed by:

a. Parties themselves

b. Attorney General of India

c. Chief Justice of India

d. Judge of the Supreme Court

e. Both (a)and (c)

38. The pendency of any arbitral proceedings is not a precondition in exercise of power by court.
The court may grant interim relief before or during arbitral proceedings or at any time after
making the arbitral award before it is enforced. It was held in case of

a. Om Prakash v. state of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 2010 Uttar 64

b. Global co-generation power Ltd v. Shri Hirenyakeshi Sahkari karkhana

Niyamit, AIR 2005 Kant 94

c. MCD v Pradeep oil Mills Pvt Ltd, AIR 2010 DEL 119

d. None of the above

39. Which article of Constitution of India authorises the government to enter into a arbitration
agreement:

a. Article 235

b. Article 299

c. Article 39

d. Both a and C

40. Under section 7, arbitration and conciliation act, 1996, an arbitration agreement

a. Shall be in writing

b. Maybe oral

c. Either in writing or oral

d. Neither in writing or oral

41. The provision of section 8 arbitration and conciliation act, 1996 are

a. Pre-emptory

b. Directory

c. Discretionary

d. Optional

42. Once an application under section 8, arbitration and conciliation act for referring the parties to
the arbitration is allowed, the proceedings in which the application was made or liable to be

a. Stayed

b. Adjourned sine die

c. Dismissed as not maintainable

d. Either a or B.
43. Section 9 of 1996 act deals with:

a. Interim measure it by the court

b. Discretionary power of the court

c. Both a and B

d. None of the above

44. While considering the grant of interim measures, the court may see whether:

a. The applicant has made prima facie case

b. The balance of convenience is in his favour

c. He would suffer a irreparable injury if such measures are not granted

d. All of the above

45. The court has that you restriction to entertain an application for interim measures:

a. Either before arbitral proceedings or after making the arbitral award

b. Before the arbitral award is enforced

c. Can exercise power suo Motu

d. Both a and B

46. An application for referring the parties to arbitration under section 8,

Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, must be accompanied by
a. the original arbitration agreement or a photocopy thereof
b. the original arbitration agreement or a duly certified copy
thereof
c. a duly certified copy of the arbitration agreement or a photocopy
thereof
d. the original arbitration agreement only. Once an application under
section 8
47. Section 9 of 1996 Act is identical to:
a. section 41(b) of 1940 Act
b. section 40 of 1940 Act
c. section 39 of 1940 Act
d. none of the above.
48. In case of three arbitrators, the ‘third arbitrator’ shall act as:
a. an umpire
b. a Presiding Arbitrator
c. sole arbitrator
d. none of the above.
49. An arbitration agreement specifying even number of arbitrators cannot be a
sole ground to render arbitration agreement invalid’—this was laid down in:
a. Grid corporation of Orissa Ltd. v. Indian Charge Chrome, AIR 1998 SC
1761
 b. K.K. Modi v. KN. Modi, AIR 1998 SC 1297
c. M.M.T.C. Ltd. v. Sterlite Industries (India) Ltd., AIR 1997 SC
605
d. Sandaram Finance Ltd. v. N.E.P.C. India Ltd., AIR 1999 SC 565.
50. The ‘Presiding Arbitrator’ is appointed by:
a. parties to the arbitration agreement
b. the appointed arbitrator by each party
c. the Court
d. either (a) or (b) or (c).
51. The parties to the arbitration agreement shall appoint arbitrator within:
a. thirty days
b. sixty days
c. forty days
d. ninety days
52. Which is the incorrect statement: The High Court before appointing an
arbitrator, shall have due regard to
a. qualifications required of the arbitrators by the agreement of the
parties
b. nationality of the arbitrator
c. other ‘considerations which are likely to secure the appointment of an
impartial arbitrator.
d. none of the above.
53. Under section 10, Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, the parties are free
to determine the number of ' arbitrators, provided that such number
a. does not exceed three
b. does not exceed five
c. does not exceed seven
d. is not an even number.
54. Under section 11, Arbitration and Conciliation Act, the arbitrator has to be
appointed
a. within 30 days of the arbitration agreement
b. within 30 days of arising of the dispute
c. within 30 days of failure to resolve the dispute of their own
d. within 30 days from the receipt of request for appointment of
arbitrator from the other party.
55. In the case of appointment of sole or third arbitrator in an international
commercial arbitration, a person
a. who is of the nationality of the claimant may be appointed as arbitrator
b. who is of the nationality of the disputant may be appointed as an
arbitrator
c. who is of any nationality irrespective of the nationalities of the parties
may be appointed as an arbitrator
d. who is of a nationality other than the nationalities of the
parties may be appointed as an arbitrator.
56. The power of appointment of arbitrator in exercise of power under section
11(6) of 1996 Act by the Chief Justice or his designate is:
a. a judicial order
b. an administrative order
c. an interim order
d. none of the above.
57. Section 12 of Arbitration and Concilation Act, 1996 deals with
 a. procedure ‘for arbitration
b. grounds for challange to Arbitrator
c. finality of award l
d. none of the above.
58. Section 12(3) provides the ground for challenging to the arbitrator when:
a. he is not independent or impartial
b. he is a foreign national
c. he is not qualified as per agreement between the parties
d. both (a) and (c).
59. Section 13 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 lays down:
a. the termination of mandate of arbitrator
b. the procedure for challenging an arbitration
c. powers of arbitral tribunal
d. none of the above.
60. Where there is a challenge to arbitrator under any procedure agreed upon by
the parties, the Arbitral Tribunal shall
a. send the matter to the court
b. appoint any other arbitrator at its own discretion
c. not continue the arbitral proceedings
d. continue the arbitral proceedings and shall decide on the
challenge.
61. The mandate of an arbitrator shall terminate
a. when he withdraws from his office for any reason
b. when he becomes de jure or defacto unable to act without undue delay
c. when the parties have agreed to terminate arbitrator's authority
d. all of the above.
62. When the mandate of an arbitrator terminate
a. no other arbitrator shall be appointed
b. a substituted arbitrator shall be appointed
c. the matter shall be sent to the court
d. the dispute shall remain undecided by the Arbitrators.
63. The Arbitral Tribunal shall rule
a. at the direction of court
b. on its own discretion
c. at the instruction of parties
d. as per provisions of General Clauses Act, 1897:
64. Which is incorrect statement:
a. the arbitral tribunal is bound by Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
b. the arbitral tribunal is bound by Indian Evidence Act, 1872
c. both (a) and (b) are incorrect
d. none of the above.
65. The provision which provides for mutual settlement of dispute by parties
before the arbitral tribunal is laid down under:
a. section 24
b. section 30
c. section 29
d. section 27.
66. The arbitral tribunal may by order terminate the arbitral proceedings when:
a. when parties have mutually agreed to seek termination of arbitral
proceedings
 b. when the claimant withdraws his disputed case and which is not
objected by the respondent
c. when the arbitral Tribunal thinks it is impossible to continue
proceedings
d. all of the above.
67. The expression ‘costs’ under section 31 means reasonable costs relating to:
a. fees and expenses of the arbitrators
b. administration fees of the institution supervising the arbitration
c. only (a)
d. both (a) and (b).
68. Under section 32, the principle of res judicata is applicable in:
a. a case having reference to an arbitral Tribunal
b. a suit in a court of law
c. interim award made by the arbitral Tribunal
d. only (a) and (b).
69. The request for the correction or interpretation of the award by the arbitral
Tribunal has to be made by the party:
a. within sixty days
b. within thirty days
c. within ninety days
d. none of the above.
70. Section 34 of 1996 Act is analogous to:
a. section 30 of 1940 Act
b. section 28 of 1940 Act
c. section 32 of 1940 Act
d. none of the above.
71. The provision for setting a side the arbitral award is laid down under:
a. section 32 of the Act
b. section 36 of the Act
c. section 34 of the Act
d. none of the above.
72. An arbitral award may be set aside by the court if:
a. the arbitral award is in conflict with the public policy of India
b. the subject-matter of dispute is not capable of settlement by arbitration
under the law for the time being in force
c. both (a) and (b) are incorrect
d. both (a) and (b) are correct.
73. An application for setting aside an arbitral award must be made by the party
after receiving the award within:
a. three months
b. thirty days
c. ninety days
d. forty days.
74. The delay in making an application for setting aside the arbitral award under
section 34
a. cannot be condoned
b. can be condoned for a maximum period of 30 days
c. can be condoned for a maximum period of 60 days
d. can be condoned for a maximum period of 90 days.
75. Right of action which is extinguished by the death of a person includes:
 a. suit for damages for wrongful arrest
b. suit for specific performance of contract
c. right of damages for defamation
d. only (a) and (c).
76. Section 39 deals with:
a. costs of arbitration
b. fees for the arbitrators
c. unpaid costs of arbitration
d. none of the above.
77. Section 38 deals with:
a. unpaid costs of arbitration
b. fixation of the costs of an arbitration
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of the above.
78. Section 41 deals with:
a. provision in case of insolvency
b. provision in case of death
c. provision in case of minor
d. none of the above.
79. Section 43 deals with:
a. jurisdiction
b. limitation
c. finality of arbitral award
d. none of the above.
80. The expression ‘foreign award’ is defined under:
a. section 41
b. section 42
c. section 44
d. section 40.
81. Foreign award’ implies:
a. where one of the parties is foreign national
b. where the award is made in foreign country
c. where subject matter deals with international trade
d. all of the above.
82. Which of the following is incorrect statement:
a. The New York Convention shall apply to the arbitral awards made in
state where their recognition and enforcement is sought
b. The New York Convention shall apply to arbitral awards not considered
as domestic awards’ where their recognition and enforcement is sought
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of the above.
83. Part I of the Act deals with:
a. Domestic Arbitration
b. New York Convention awards
c. UNCITRAL
d. none of the above.
84. Part II of the Act deals with:
a. New York Convention awards
b. Geneva Conventions
c. Conciliation
 d. both (a) and (b).
85. Part III of the Act deals with:
a. Geneva Conventions
b. Conciliation
c. UNCITRAL
d. New York Convention awards
86. Which of the following is incorrect statement:
a. like arbitration, conciliation is also another means of setting disputes
b. like arbitration, prior agreement in writing is required in
conciliation
c. like arbitration, third person is chosen by the parties to resolve the
disputes
d. none of the above.
87. The term ‘fairness’ embodies:
a. the concept of justice
b. the concept of equality
c. the concept of unbiasness
d. none of the above.
88. Part IV of the Act deals with:
a. Geneva Conventions
b. Costs and Expenses
c. Supplementary Provisions
d. none of the above.
89. Section 30 of the Act lays down the provision for:
a. mutual settlement of disputes by parties before the arbitral
Tribunal
b. form’ and content of the interim award
c. termination of the proceedings of an arbitral Tribunal
d. correction and interpretation of an arbitral Tribunal.
90. A written arbitration agreement is authentic if it is contained in:
a. a document signed by the parties
b. an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams or other means of
telecommunication which provide a record of the agreement
c. an exchange of statements of claim and defence in which the existence
of the agreement is alleged by one party and not denied by the other
d. All the options are correct.
91. For the purpose of section 5 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996,
which among the following statements are true:
a. No Judicial authority shall intervene except where provided
in the Act
b. Judicial authority shall intervene
c. Judicial authority shall intervene if Chief Justice of India intends so
d. None of above.
92. The mandate of an arbitrator shall terminate if:
a. he becomes de jure or de facto unable to perform his functions or for
other reasons fails to act without undue delay
b. he withdraws from his office or the parties agree to the termination of
his mandate
c. both (a) and (b) are correct
d. only (b) is correct.
93. The party applying for the enforcement of a foreign award shall, at any time of
the application, produce before the court-
a. the original award or a copy thereof, duly authenticated in the manner
required by law of the country in which it was made.
b. the original agreement for arbitration or a duly certified copy thereof l
c. such evidence as may be necessary to prove that the award is a foreign
award
d. All the above.
94. The party applying for the enforcement of a foreign award shall, at the time of
application, produce before the court
a. the original award or a copy thereof duly authenticated in the manner
required by law of country in which it was made
b. evidence proving that the award has become final
c. such evidence as may be necessary to prove that the conditions under
section 57(1)(a) and (c) are satisfied
d. All the above.
95. The Arbitrator in respect of escalation cost
a. has jurisdiction to proceed inherently
b. has no jurisdiction to proceed inherently
c. has to proceed only within scope of Contract Act
d. has to proceed only within scope of
96. Bar of non-registration of Firm under section 69 of Partnership Act, does not
affect maintainability of petition under
a. section 5 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act
b. section 9 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act
c. section 10 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act
d. section 16 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act.
97. If one party is Indian Company and another is American company and the
dispute arises out of legal relationship under contract entered between them,
then such dispute falls
a. under International Commercial Arbitration within the
meaning of section 2(f) of Arbitration and Conciliation Act,
1996
b. under general arbitration within the meaning of section 2(a) of
Arbitration Act, 1940
c. under section 3(b) of Civil Procedure Code, 1908
d. under section 5(b) of General Clauses Act, 1897.
98. Inability of lawyer to attend arbitral sitting due to illness is ground
a. for setting aside the award
b. for adjournment
c. for sending the case to court
d. for reappointment the arbitrator.
99. Inability of counsel to appear due to illness before arbitrator is a ground
covered
a. under section 30 of Arbitration Act, 1940
b. under section 34(2) of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
c. under section 30 of the Limitation Act, 1963
d. under section 31 of Arbitration and
100. Conciliation Act, 1996. Before the enactment of Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996 which Act has been applicable in India for arbitration
procedure
 a. The Arbitration Act, 1940
b. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
c. The General Clauses Act, 1897
d. none of the above.
101. Arbitrator is assigned to the Arbitration Proceedings by:
a. Parties to the arbitration proceedings
b. Bench of Judges of Supreme Court
c. Council of ministry of Justice
d. Expert committee of Central Government
102. Arbitration Proceedings strictly adhere to:
a. Code of Civil
b. Code of Criminal Procedure Procedure
c. Parties choose their procedure to suit them
d. Code of the International Court of Justice
103. Arbitration decisions i.e. award is easy to enforce in Foreign Countries
compared to Court rulings
a. Yes, as it is governors by International Treaties
b. No
c. N.A as Arbitration is only for Domestic disputes
d. Depends on the Award
104. Powers under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996 are granted to:
a. Judicial Authority
b. Court
c. SC/HC
d. All of these
105. For International Commercial Arbitration, the term ‘Court’ means
a. Lok Adalat
b. Sessions Court
c. High Court
d. Non of the above
106. A party..
a. cannot challenge an arbitrator appointed by him
b. may challenge an arbitrator appointed by him for reason of
which he becomes aware after the appointment has been
made
c. may challenge an arbitrator appointed by him for reason known to him
before the appointment is made
d. may challenge an arbitrator appointed by him irrespective of the
reasons being known to him before the appointment or Becoming
aware of the reason after the appointment has been made.
107. In an arbitration by three arbitrators where is the party fails to agree
appoint appointment of arbitrator under section 11, arbitration and
conciliation act, 1996
a. Each party shall appoint one, and that too appointed
arbitrator shall appoint the third arbitrator
b. The claimant shall appoint two arbitrators and the disputant shall
appoint one
c. The disputant shall appoint to arbitrators and the claimant shall
appoint one
d. All the three, to be appointed by the court.
108. Under section 11 of arbitration and conciliation act, 1996 and arbitrator
can be
a. A person or a arbitrator of any previous dispute
b. A person of concerned state
c. A person of Indian origin only
d. The person of any nationality
109. The arbitral tribunals shall rule
a. At the direction of the court
b. On its own discretion
c. At the instruction of the parties
d. As per the provision of general clauses act, 1897.
110. The arbitral tribunals may
a. Appoint one or more expert to report to it no specific issues
to be determined by itself
b. appoint only one expert to report to it on specific issues to be
determined by the arbitral tribunal
c. Appoint a court receiver to report specific issues
d. May appoint court commissioners to report specific issues
111. Which is incorrect statement:
a. The arbitral tribunal is bound by the code of civil procedure, 1908
b. The arbitral tribunal is bound by Indian evidence act, 1872
c. Both a and B are correct
d. None of the above
112. The provisions which provides for mutual settlementOf dispute by
parties before the arbitral tribunal is laid down under:
a. Section 24
b. Section 30
c. Section 29
d. Section 27
113. The arbitral tribunals may by order terminate the arbitral proceedings
when
a. When parties have mutually agreed to seek termination of arbitral
proceedings
b. When the claimant withdraws his disputed case and which is not
objected by the respondent
c. When the arbitral tribunal thinks it is impossible to continue
proceedings
d. All of the above
114. Roles of an arbitrator is…
a. Acts like a judge
b. Sit and talk
c. Acts like a police officer
d. Acts like a jury
115. Which one of the following is not part of the four correct
methods of ADR.?
a. Legislation
b. Mediation
c. Conciliation
d. Negotiation
 e. Arbitration
116. 1. ____________ is a process in which a dispute is submitted to an
impartial outsider who makes a decision which is usually binding on both the
parties.

a. Arbitration
b. Adjudication
c. Court of enquiry
d. None of the above
117. What is the main objective of arbitration as per the Industrial Disputes
Act?

a. Securing an award
b. Dominance 
c. Adjudication
d. Binding of the award on the parties
118. Arbitration is a _____ process, while mediation has a ____ tinge.

a. Legal and statutory

b. Lawful and constitutional
c. Legitimate and compromising
d. Judicial and legislative
119. Which are the two traits on which the award of an arbitrator rests on?

a. Compromise and liberty

b. Fair play and impartiality
c. Equity and Justice
d. All of the above
120. The decision of the arbitrator should be based on which approach?

a. Quasi - judicial
b. Split the difference
c. Judicial
d. Non – judicial
121. In which of these countries has arbitration been a popular way to resolve
conflicts?

A. USA
B. New Zealand
C. India
D. UK

a. A & B
b. C & D
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
122. The procedure is relatively _____ when compared to that in ordinary
courts or labour tribunals.

a. Expeditious
 b. Compromising
c. Binding
d. Delayed
123. State true or false.

i. Arbitration is formal in character and is an expensive form of settlement.

a. True
b. False
124. Choose the odd man out.

a. Judgement is often arbitrary and ill - advised as the arbitrators are not well - versed
in the economic and technical aspects of industry.

b. Arbitration deprives labour of its right to go on strike because of the provision in

the agreement

c. Delay often occurs in arriving at the award and settlement of disputes leading to a
morale breakdown of the employees

d. Arbitration is based on the consent of both parties

125. When the two contending parties are unable to compose their differences
by themselves or with the help of the mediator or conciliator, agree to submit the
dispute to impartial authority whose decision they are ready to accept is called
_________

a. Voluntary arbitration
b. Voluntary Mediation
c. Compulsory arbitration
d. Compulsory Mediation
126. For Arbitration other than International Commercial Arbitration, the term ‘Court’
means
a. District Court 
b. High Court  
c. Both a. and b. 
d. Neither a. nor b. 
127. On a request for appointment of Arbitrator, the High Court shall appoint
Arbitrator for: 
a. International Commercial Arbitration 
b. Domestic Arbitration 
c. Both a. and b. 
d. Neither a. nor b
128. On a request for appointment of Arbitrator, the Supreme Court shall appoint
Arbitrator for: 
a. International Commercial Arbitration 
b. Domestic Arbitration 
c. Both a. and b. 
d. Neither a. nor b
129. A person or Institution can be designated by SC/HC to appoint arbitrators: 
a. True, for both SC/HC 
b. False, for both SC/HC 
 c. True, only for SC 
d. True, only for HC  
130. Arbitration agreement shall be in form of: 
a. Arbitration Clause in a contract 
b. Separate document itself 
c. Both a. and b. 
d. As per Govt defined format only 
131. Arbitration agreement can be in: 
a. Written form only 
b. Oral form only 
c. Both a. and b. 
d. Even tacit form is permitted 
132. Arbitration Agreement shall be in writing if:  
a. it’s a document signed by both parties 
b. it is contained in letters and other non-electronic communications 
c. it is contained in letters and other electronic communications 
d. All of these 
133. Document 1 consists of an Arbitration Contract. Document 2 merely refers to
using the terms in Document 1. Does reference qualify as an Arbitration Contract?  
a. Yes 
b. No 
134. ‘Arbitration Clause’ and ‘Submission Agreement’ differentiate the Arbitration
Agreement on the basis of: 
a. The time when the dispute arises 
b. The time taken for the dispute to be settled 
c. The mode (physical/electronic) of the agreement 
d. The number of pages of the agreement 
135. ‘Arbitration Clause’ Arbitration Agreement makes the following disputes
available to Arbitration: 
a. Disputes arising after making the Agreement 
b. Disputes arisen before making the Agreement 
c. Disputes arising in International Commercial Arbitration 
d. Disputes arising for values less than 10% of turnover 
136. ‘Submission Clause’ Arbitration Agreement makes the following disputes
available to Arbitration: 
a. Disputes arising after making the Agreement 
b. Disputes arisen before making the Agreement
c. Disputes arising in International Commercial Arbitration 
d. Disputes arising for values less than 10% of turnover 
137. What shall happen if one of the 2 parties in an Arbitration unilaterally seeks to
proceed to court to litigate the matter: 
a. The matter shall be admitted and the arbitration shall cease 
b. The matter shall be referred back to arbitration
c. The matter shall be admitted and fine shall be imposed for breach of contract
d. Both proceedings shall proceed simultaneously, Court decision prevails
138. The contract which contained the Arbitration Agreement was invalid. Will the
Arbitration Agreement be invalidated by this mere fact as well: 
a. Yes, as it is a part of the agreement to which consent is given 
b. No, as it is not part of the agreement , as Arbitration agreement shall be
made and agreed to separately 
 c. No, as there is ‘Doctrine of Separability’ which allows both Contracts to perform
independently 
d. None of the above  
139. The question arose before Arbitrator as to the validity of a contract which
contained the Arbitration Agreement. The contract was principal to the Arbitration
Agreement. The ruling on the validity of contract indirectly was a ruling on the
Arbitrator’s own jurisdiction: Is this valid? 
a. Yes, as per the Act this is valid 
b. No, as generally  a judge cannot pass judgement on the validity of his own
appointment 
c. No, as the Arbitrator is required to arbitrate only valid contracts under law 
d. Yes, but only after obtaining permission of CG 
140. Can one of the parties to the Arbitration Agreement themselves be the Arbitrator: 
a. Yes, in case of Government Company, it can be a Arbitrator in own case 
b. No, since the aspect of neutrality is missing, such Arbitration Agreement is
not covered in Arbitration 
c. Yes, provided that Arbitrator is an officer of the Government holding specified
Grade 
d. Yes, provided that if the ruling is in it’s own favour, the other party forgoes right
to appeal
141. A Ltd and B Ltd agreed to Arbitration by a retired Judge in their joint venture. In
pursuit of their Joint venture, they dealt in certain Prohibited drugs, and divided the gains
thereof. Later A disputed the division of gains. Can this contract be arbitrated? 
a. Yes, as conditions for Arbitration are fulfilled and that is only criteria 
b. No, as the subject under Arbitration is strictly to be exercised upon in Court 
c. Yes, as the Judge is competent to provide judgement in matters of Criminal
nature 
d. No, as the Arbitrator is a retired Judge and as such not qualified 
142. Principal Agreement was discharged after the completion of the duties thereunder.
Will the Arbitration Agreement made thereunder continue? 
a. Yes, as Doctrine of Separability applies making the Principal Contract and
Arbitration Agreement independent 
b. No, as the agreement is completed and as such the arbitration agreement also
terminated with the contract 
c. Yes, as Arbitration Agreement is always without a limit on its time/tenure and
valid forever 
143. Principal Agreement was terminated due to breach of Contract. Will the
Arbitration Agreement made thereunder continue? 
a. Yes, as Doctrine of Separability applies making the Principal Contract and
Arbitration Agreement independent 
b. No, as the agreement is completed and as such the arbitration agreement also
terminated with the contract 
c. Yes, as Arbitration Agreement is always without a limit on its time/tenure and
valid forever. 
144. In case of Death of the parties, the Arbitration Agreement shall: 
a. be discharged
b. be enforceable by or against the legal representative 
c. be enforceable by the legal representative but not against him 
d. be enforceable against the legal representative but not by him 
145. Are even number of Arbitrators (i.e. 2,4,6…) on a  Arbitral Tribunal permitted: 
a. Yes, as per decision upheld in a case  
b. No, the Act prohibits even number of Arbitrators 
 c. Both a. and b. 
d. The Act clearly provides that there can be any number of Arbitrators. 
146. What is the default appointment procedure u/s 11 in case no procedure is decided
by the parties and the maximum arbitrator shall be 1: 
a. Parties appoint jointly one arbitrator 
b. Both appoint one each, and the appointees appoint a third  
c. Appointment to be made by an unrelated person or institution 
d. All of the above 
147. What is the default appointment procedure u/s 11 in case no procedure is decided
by the parties and the maximum arbitrator shall be 3: 
a. Parties appoint jointly one arbitrator
b. Both appoint one each, and the appointees appoint a third  
c. Appointment to be made by an unrelated person or institution 
d. All of the above 
148. Mr. Brainiac was a minor but highly rated by both the parties to arbitration, and
hence appointed arbitrator. What is the age limit to be appointed as an Arbitrator? 
a. A minor cannot be arbitrator as he is unable to contract 
b. 45 years to 70 years 
c. There is no age limit, or inability imposed on minors 
d. Upper limit only of 70 years, no lower limit 
149. What is the default appointment procedure u/s 11 in case appointing authority to
which duty to make arbitrator appointment was given, failed to execute: 
a. Parties appoint jointly one arbitrator 
b. Both appoint one each, and the appointees appoint a third  
c. Appointment to be made by an unrelated person or institution, different from the
first person/institution that failed 
d. . Approach the SC/HC for appointment based on type of arbitration (i.e.
Domestic/ International) 
150. What are the instances in which an Arbitrator may be terminated 
a. Voluntary decision to step down 
b. Unanimous decision of parties to remove 
c. Operation of Law  (inability or process ends)/ Termination by Court in case of
bias 
d. All of these 
151. Course of action on termination of Arbitrator: 
a. Appoint new arbitrator under original scheme of appointment  
b. Parties to approach SC/ HC based on the type of arbitration
(domestic/international) 
c. First a. then b. 
d.   First b. then a. 
152. For termination of Arbitrator, whom should the first challenge be raised against: 
a. Arbitrator himself 
b. District Court 
c. High Court 
d. Supreme Court 

153. For termination of Arbitrator in case of Domestic Arbitration, whom should the
challenge be raised against (after the Arbitrator): 
a. Panchayat/ Municipal Council
b. District Court 
c. High Court 
 d. Supreme Court 
154. For termination of Arbitrator in case of International Commercial Arbitration,
whom should the challenge be raised against (after the Arbitrator): 
a. Panchayat/Municipal Council 
b. District Court 
c. High Court 
d. Supreme Court 
155. Arbitral Award is sought to be challenged by A. Ltd who was a party to the
Arbitration along with B Ltd. In case of a Domestic Arbitration who can the challenge be
made to? 
a. Panchayat/Municipal Council 
b. District Court/High Court 
c. Only High Court 
d. Supreme Court 
156. Arbitral Award is sought to be challenged by A. Ltd who was a party to the
Arbitration alongwith B Ltd. In case of an International Commercial Arbitration who can
the challenge be made to? 
a. Panchayat/Municipal Council
b. District Court/High Court 
c. Only High Court 
d. Supreme Court 
157. What is the Maximum time within which a challenge against the Arbitral Award
can be made: 
a. 1 month from the date when Award is received  
b. 3 months from the date when Award is received   
c. 1 month from the date when Award is received . Maximum extension of further
30 days by Court 
d. 3 months from the date when Award is received . Maximum extension of
further 30 days by Court 
158. At what time is an Additional Award made: 
a. After Settlement Award but before expiry of 30 days thereof  
b. After Interim Award but before Final Award 
c. After Final Award but before expiry 30 days thereof 
d. After Interim Award but before expiry of 30 days thereof 
159. What are the types of Interim Award: 
a. Interim Award which remains in force till Final Award is made 
b. Interim Award which is Final as far as the matters it deals with 
c. Both a. and b. 
d. Neither a. nor b. 
160. What is a Settlement Award? 
a. Matter adjudicated by the Arbitrator, but settled at lesser value by parties than
what is decided by arbitrator 
b. Parties choose to settle the matters and not involve the Arbitrator to
adjudicate the same. Once settled, if the Arbitrator agrees, it is made into an
award  
c. Claims not settled previously in Final Award are put forth to the Arbitral tribunal
within a time frame in order to cover such left out issues 
d. None of these 
161. What is an Additional Award? 
a. Matter adjudicated by the Arbitrator, but settled at lesser value by parties than
what is decided by arbitrator 
 b. Parties choose to settle the matters and not involve the Arbitrator to adjudicate the
same. Once settled, if the Arbitrator agrees, it is made into an award  
c. Claims not settled previously in Final Award are put forth to the Arbitral
tribunal within a time frame in order to cover such left out issues 
d. None of these
162. Which of the following is an essential element in voluntary arbitration?

a. Subsequent attendance of witnesses and investigations

b. Industries of strategic importance are involved
c. Country is passing through grave economic crisis
d. All of the above
163. What is the main drawback of compulsory arbitration?

a. Compulsory implication of award 

b. Non - compromising

c. It deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental rights

d. None of the above

164. Which of these is a condition for which compulsory arbitration is imposed
on the disputing parties?

a. When an industrial dispute is apprehended

b. Disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method

c. The issue of the dispute should be mentioned in the arbitration agreement

d. All of the above

165. Which of the following is a quality which should be present in a successful
arbitrator?

a. High integrity
b. Knowledge of collective bargaining
c. Understanding of complexities of labour – management relationship
d. All of the above
166. Which are the departments from where a qualified arbitrator be hired?

a. Legal profession
b. Government servants
c. Psychologists
d. All of the above
167. Match the following procedure of investigation with the correct step no.
in the sequence of events.
A. 1 ------- 1. Collecting facts and supporting materials
B. 2 ------- 2. Hearing out to both the parties along with mastery of
the facts of dispute
C. 3 ------- 3. Investigation of the facts and circumstances
a. A-1, B-2, C-3
 b. A-2,B-1,C-3
c. A-2,B-3,C-1
168. Choose the correct option that states the principle followed by an
arbitrator.
A. High integrity
B. Fair hearing
C. Natural justice
D. Maintain harmonious labour - management relations
a. A & D
b. B & D
c. B & C
d. A & C
169. With the advocacy of __________ voluntary arbitration came into
prominence for resolving industrial disputes.

a. Bombay Industrial Disputes Act

b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. V. V. Giri
d. None of the above
170. __________ reiterated the faith of the parties in voluntary arbitration.

a. The code of discipline (1958)

b. Indian Labour Conference (1962)
c. ILO
d. Industrial Disputes Act
171. The need for a wide acceptance of voluntary arbitration was reiterated by
_____.

a. National Tribunal
b. Court of Enquiry
c. Indian Labour Conference (1962)
d. ILO
172. Which of the following statements is NOT true about ADR?
a. ADR has been used to refer to Another Dispute Resolution.
b. ADR has been used to refer to Affirmative Dispute Resolution.
c. ADR has been used to refer to Alternative Dispute Resolution.
d. ADR has been used to refer to Appropriate Dispute Resolution.
173. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding
arbitration?
a. Arbitration helps parties understand each other’s perspectives.
b.   Arbitration is binding, requiring a commitment in advance to
accept an outcome.
c. Arbitration allows parties to express their feelings.
d. Arbitration helps parties recognize their underlying interests.
174.  The process of arbitration may be classified as --
a. Consensual.
b. Facilitative.
c.   Both A and B.
 d. Neither A nor B.
175. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the
main aim of ADR?
a. To reduce the need for the parties to go to court at all
b. To delay the process before the parties can go to court
c. To speed up the process before the parties can go to court
d. To guarantee a full court hearing
176.  If an agreement contains an arbitration clause that is not null and
void, inoperative or incapable of being acted on, then-
a. The parties can never go to court
b. The parties can only go to court after they have been to arbitration
c. Either of the parties can choose to go to court
d. If both parties agree, they can choose to go to court
177. In which year did the government appoint National Arbitration
Promotion Board along with a tripartite composition to make voluntary
arbitration more acceptable?

a. July 1965
b. July 1968
c. July 1966
d. July 1967
178. Which of the following option is a factor which has contributed to the
slow progress of arbitration?

a. Absence of recognised unions which could bind the workers to a common

agreement

b. To advise parties in important cases to accept arbitration

c. To review the position periodically

d. To evolve principles, norms and procedures for the guidance

179. __________ has criticised compulsory arbitration on four main grounds.

a. Alexander Frey
b. V.V. Giri
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. American Labour Movement
180. State true or false.

i. Royal Commission on Labour was against voluntary arbitration.

a. True
b. False
181. Which is the ultimate legal remedy for the settlement of an unresolved
dispute?

a. Court of enquiry
 b. Adjudication
c. Arbitration
d. National Tribunal
182. Who is the deciding authority to put the resolving matter into
adjudication?

a. Disputing parties
b. Conciliator
c. Trade Union 
d. Government
183. . __________ involves intervention in the dispute by a third party
appointed by the government for the purpose of deciding the nature of final
settlement.

a. Adjudication
b. National Tribunal
c. Arbitration
d. None of the above
184. The importance of adjudication has been emphasised by the ________.

a. Government
b. Civil Court
c. Supreme Court
d. None of the above
185. The adjudication machinery has to consider not only the demands of
_______ justice but also the claims of national economy.

a. Economic
b. Social
c. Freedom of contract
d. None of the above